Ccs General Quiz VIII
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following are considered a complications or comorbidities?
- A.
Hypokalemia
- B.
Dehydration
- C.
Hypernatremia
- D.
Fludi overload
Correct Answer(s)
A. Hypokalemia
C. HypernatremiaExplanation
The correct answer is Hypokalemia and Hypernatremia. Complications or comorbidities are additional medical conditions that occur alongside a primary condition. In this case, Hypokalemia and Hypernatremia are both considered complications or comorbidities because they are separate medical conditions that can occur alongside another condition or disease.Rate this question:
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- 2.
________________ is a procedure in which multiple drugs can be identified
Correct Answer(s)
chromatographyExplanation
Patients reports are questionable in their accuracy.Rate this question:
- 3.
For cases of CONFIRMED abuse or neglect, an external cause code from the _____________ section (X92-Y09) should be added to identify the cause of any physical injuries. A perpetrator code (Y07) should be added when the perpetrator of the abuse is known. For SUSPECTED cases of abuse or neglect, do not report external cause or perpetrator code.
- A.
Assault
- B.
Abuse
- C.
Neglect
- D.
Terrorism
Correct Answer
A. AssaultExplanation
In cases of confirmed abuse or neglect, an external cause code from the assault section (X92-Y09) should be added to identify the cause of any physical injuries. This suggests that the correct answer is "Assault" because it falls under the category of confirmed abuse or neglect, where an external cause code is required.Rate this question:
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- 4.
External codes for child and adult ______________ take priority over all other external cause codes.
- A.
Burns
- B.
Traumatic Collisions
- C.
Abuse
- D.
Terrorism
Correct Answer
C. AbuseExplanation
External codes for child and adult abuse take priority over all other external cause codes. This is because abuse is a severe form of harm inflicted on individuals, particularly children and vulnerable adults. It is important to prioritize these codes as they indicate intentional harm and require immediate attention and intervention. By giving priority to abuse codes, healthcare professionals can ensure that appropriate measures are taken to protect and support the victims, investigate the situation, and prevent further harm.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Pay attention for extra procedures like Internal Fetal Monitor
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given correct answer is "True." This suggests that one should pay attention to extra procedures like the Internal Fetal Monitor. This implies that there are additional procedures or measures that need to be taken into consideration when it comes to monitoring the fetus during pregnancy or labor. These extra procedures could be crucial in ensuring the well-being and safety of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 6.
IORT is INTRAOPERATIVE ____________ therapy
Correct Answer
radiationExplanation
IORT stands for Intraoperative Radiation Therapy, which involves delivering radiation treatment to a patient during surgery. This type of therapy allows for targeted radiation to be delivered directly to the tumor site, minimizing damage to nearby healthy tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is "radiation."Rate this question:
- 7.
Necrosis of burned skin should be coded as a non-healed burn, aka _______________.
Correct Answer
acuteExplanation
Necrosis of burned skin should be coded as a non-healed burn, aka acute. This means that the burned skin has not healed and is currently in an acute state. The term "acute" refers to a condition or illness that is of short duration and severe in nature. Therefore, in the context of a non-healed burn, "acute" accurately describes the ongoing state of the necrosis in the burned skin.Rate this question:
- 8.
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy converted to an open cholecystectomy is coded as percutaneous endoscopic ____________ and open ________________
- A.
Excision ; resection
- B.
Inspection ; excision
- C.
Resection ; inspection
- D.
Inspection ; resection
Correct Answer
D. Inspection ; resectionExplanation
In a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon uses a small camera (endoscope) to inspect the abdomen and remove the gallbladder through small incisions. If the procedure is converted to an open cholecystectomy, it means that the surgeon had to change their approach and make a larger incision to remove the gallbladder. Therefore, the correct answer is "inspection ; resection" because the surgeon initially inspects the abdomen using the endoscope and then performs a resection (removal) of the gallbladder through the larger incision.Rate this question:
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- 9.
In CPT, Reduction is termed, __________________ with manipulation.
Correct Answer
treatment of fractureExplanation
In CPT (Current Procedural Terminology), the term "reduction" refers to the treatment of a fracture through manipulation. This involves the realignment of the fractured bone or bones to their normal position. The term "reduction" is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the process of restoring the normal alignment and position of fractured bones. Therefore, in CPT, reduction is specifically associated with the treatment of fractures through manipulation.Rate this question:
- 10.
The sequencing for a toxic effect of substances chiefly nonmedicinal as to source is the same as for coding ________________
Correct Answer
poisoningExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that the sequencing for a toxic effect of substances, especially those that are nonmedicinal, is similar to the sequencing for coding poisoning. This means that the process of identifying and documenting the toxic effects of substances follows a similar pattern as the process of coding and classifying cases of poisoning.Rate this question:
- 11.
Adverse effect and underdosing codes are sequenced _______________
Correct Answer
secondaryExplanation
The correct answer is "secondary". In medical coding, adverse effect codes and underdosing codes are sequenced secondary to the main diagnosis or condition. This means that these codes are not the primary reason for the encounter, but rather additional information related to the main diagnosis. They are reported after the primary diagnosis code to provide further details about any adverse effects or underdosing that may be present.Rate this question:
- 12.
Intentional overdoses or errors made in drug prescription or in the administration of the drug by provider, nurse, patient, or other person are coded as
- A.
Toxic effect
- B.
Adverse effect
- C.
Fun
- D.
Poisoning
Correct Answer
D. PoisoningExplanation
A patient who presents to the ER with tachycardia due to caregiver accidentally administering several extra doses of patient’s atenolol:
T44.7X1A Poisoning by beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists, accidental (unintentional), initial encounter
R00.0 Tachycardia, unspecified
A patient intentionally takes several Amitril in an attempted suicide, which causes a grand mal seizure. Amitril is the brand name for Amitriptyline, which is the term we need to look up our code. The patient is seeing a neurologist in follow-up from the ER.
T43.012A Poisoning by tricyclic antidepressants, intentional self-harm, active treatment
G40.409 Grand mal seizure NOSRate this question:
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- 13.
For any documented infected burn site, use an additional code for the infection.
- A.
Infection
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. InfectionExplanation
The given statement suggests that for any documented infected burn site, an additional code should be used to indicate the presence of an infection. This means that when coding for a burn site that is known to be infected, healthcare professionals should include a specific code to accurately reflect this additional condition.Rate this question:
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- 14.
For any documented infected burn site, use an additional code for the ______________.
Correct Answer
infectionExplanation
The question is asking for an additional code to be used for a documented infected burn site. This means that if a burn site is already documented as being infected, an additional code should be used to indicate the presence of infection. The answer is simply "infection" as it is the most straightforward and logical choice to accurately represent the condition being described.Rate this question:
- 15.
____________ notes are not considered part of the EHR by HIPPA standards and do not contain information needed to verify claims. The documents can be released by court order or by patient request
- A.
Psychotherapy
- B.
Nurses
- C.
Oqhcp
- D.
Anesthesia
Correct Answer
A. PsychotherapyExplanation
Psychotherapy notes are not considered part of the Electronic Health Record (EHR) according to HIPPA standards. These notes do not contain the necessary information to verify claims. Additionally, psychotherapy notes can be released by court order or by patient request. This implies that psychotherapy notes are separate from the EHR and have different regulations regarding their release and use.Rate this question:
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- 16.
PCS: An assay done with radioactive material is _____________ nuclear medicine
Correct Answer
non imagingExplanation
Growth plate (physeal) fractures may be defined as disruptions in the cartilaginous physis of long bones that may or may not involve epiphyseal or metaphyseal bone.Rate this question:
- 17.
Hdr (high dose rate) therapy using a LOW dose rate, codes to __________________
Correct Answer
low doseExplanation
The given correct answer is "low dose." This is because the question states that HDR therapy is using a LOW dose rate. Therefore, it can be inferred that the therapy involves administering a low dose of radiation.Rate this question:
- 18.
Dip joint amputation is a low finger amputation. The distal _______________ (DIP) joints are the joints closest to the tips of the toes, fingers, and thumbs.
Correct Answer
interphalangealExplanation
Assign the appropriate complication codeRate this question:
- 19.
Cephalopelvic disproportion code o33.4 (maternal care for disproportion of __________________________ origin) is more specific than 033.9 (maternal care for disproportion, unspecified)
Correct Answer
mixed maternal and fetal originExplanation
The correct answer is "mixed maternal and fetal origin" because it provides more specific information about the cause of the cephalopelvic disproportion. The code O33.4 indicates that the disproportion is due to a combination of factors originating from both the mother and the fetus, whereas the code 033.9 simply states that the cause is unspecified. By specifying the mixed origin, healthcare providers can have a better understanding of the specific factors contributing to the condition and provide appropriate care.Rate this question:
- 20.
Several other condition exist where medicare is first payer, if pt is 65 or older, WITH certain disabilities, or has _____________________ AND has has had medicare eligibility for at least 30 months
Correct Answer
endstage renal diseaseExplanation
If a patient has endstage renal disease and has had Medicare eligibility for at least 30 months, several other conditions exist where Medicare is the first payer. This means that Medicare will be the primary insurance provider for the patient in these specific circumstances.Rate this question:
- 21.
When an attempted termination of pregnancy results in a liveborn fetus, assign code ______________________
- A.
Encounter for elective termination of pregnancy (Z33.2)
- B.
Outcome of Delivery (Z37)
- C.
A and B
Correct Answer
C. A and BExplanation
When an attempted termination of pregnancy results in a liveborn fetus, the appropriate codes to assign would be A and B. Code A, Outcome of Delivery (Z37), is used to indicate the outcome of a delivery, regardless of the gestational age or method of delivery. Code B, Encounter for elective termination of pregnancy (Z33.2), is used when the purpose of the encounter is an elective termination of pregnancy, but in this case, it would not be applicable as the outcome was a liveborn fetus.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Episiotomy is coded to approach value ______________
- A.
Percutaneous
- B.
Percutaneous endoscopic
- C.
Via natural or artificial opening
- D.
External
Correct Answer
C. Via natural or artificial openingExplanation
Episiotomy is a surgical procedure in which an incision is made in the perineum (the area between the vagina and anus) to widen the vaginal opening during childbirth. This procedure is performed through a natural or artificial opening, which in this case is the vaginal opening. Therefore, the correct answer is "via natural or artificial opening".Rate this question:
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- 23.
Laparoscopic-assisted total vaginal hysterectomy is coded to approach________________
Correct Answer
via natural opening with percutaneous endoscopic assistanceExplanation
The correct answer is "via natural opening with percutaneous endoscopic assistance." This means that the laparoscopic-assisted total vaginal hysterectomy procedure is performed using a natural opening (the vagina) with the assistance of percutaneous endoscopic instruments. This approach allows for a minimally invasive surgery, as the instruments are inserted through small incisions made in the abdomen or pelvic area.Rate this question:
- 24.
Prostate is part of the MALE _____________ SYSTEM
Correct Answer
reproductiveExplanation
The correct answer is "reproductive" because the prostate is an organ that is part of the male reproductive system. It is located just below the bladder and surrounds the urethra, which is responsible for carrying urine and semen out of the body. The prostate gland produces and stores fluid that nourishes and protects sperm, aiding in the process of reproduction.Rate this question:
- 25.
When pt come in for HIV screening, also code high risk sexual activity if applicable
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement suggests that when a patient comes in for HIV screening, the healthcare provider should also code for high-risk sexual activity if applicable. This means that if the patient engages in behaviors that put them at a higher risk of contracting HIV, such as unprotected sex with multiple partners or sharing needles, it is important to document this information in the medical coding. This helps in accurately assessing the patient's risk factors and providing appropriate care and interventions.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Code Z23, encounters for inoculations and vaccinations, may be used as a secondary code if a combination vaccine is given as a routine part of preventive health care, such as a ______________________
- A.
Well-baby visit
- B.
Therapy session
- C.
Hiv screening
- D.
Post-surgery visit
Correct Answer
A. Well-baby visitExplanation
Code Z23 is used as a secondary code for inoculations and vaccinations given as a routine part of preventive health care, such as a well-baby visit. This means that when a combination vaccine is administered during a well-baby visit, code Z23 can be used to indicate that the vaccination was given. It is not applicable to therapy sessions, HIV screening, or post-surgery visits.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A piece of scalpel (Etc.) left behind after operation is considered _________________ due to foreign body accidentally left in body following unspecified procedure
Correct Answer
obstructionExplanation
In this scenario, the piece of scalpel left behind after an operation is considered an obstruction. This is because it is a foreign body accidentally left in the body following an unspecified procedure. The presence of this foreign object can obstruct normal bodily functions and potentially cause complications or harm to the patient.Rate this question:
- 28.
Facelift is an ______ procedure
Correct Answer
open - 29.
Onychauxis, or ______________________ (L60.2) is a disorder of nail plate growth that is characterized by an opaque, yellow-brown thickening of the nail plate with associated gross hyperkeratosis, elongation, and increased curvature
Correct Answer
hypertrophic nailExplanation
Onychauxis, or hypertrophic nail, is a disorder of nail plate growth that is characterized by an opaque, yellow-brown thickening of the nail plate with associated gross hyperkeratosis, elongation, and increased curvature. This condition causes the nails to become abnormally thick and hard, often causing discomfort and difficulty in trimming or maintaining them. It can be caused by various factors such as trauma, fungal infections, or underlying medical conditions. Treatment options include regular trimming, topical medications, and addressing the underlying cause if present.Rate this question:
- 30.
When coding tricuspid valve disease, if it is left unspecified, the default is...
- A.
Rheumatic
- B.
Non-rheumatic
- C.
Bilateral
- D.
Diabetic
Correct Answer
A. RheumaticExplanation
Dental implants work as well.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Designated Agent (power of attorney) rights to access care, treatment and payment information are not effective until the patient is declared incapacitated by two physicians or one physician and one therapist and "declaration of incapacity" form is submitted prior to honoring a request
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that in order for the Designated Agent to have rights to access care, treatment, and payment information, the patient must first be declared incapacitated by two physicians or one physician and one therapist. Additionally, a "declaration of incapacity" form must be submitted prior to honoring any request. Therefore, the statement is true as the Designated Agent's rights are not effective until these conditions are met.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Patient authorizations should contain a description of the information to be used/disclosed, name of the individuals or entities who are giving and receiving the info, purpose of the disclosure, an expiration date for use, and needs to be a separate, individually signed document
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Patient authorizations should contain specific details such as a description of the information to be used or disclosed, the names of the individuals or entities involved in giving and receiving the information, the purpose of the disclosure, an expiration date for the use of the information, and it should be a separate document that is individually signed. This ensures that the patient is fully informed and gives their consent for the specific use or disclosure of their information. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.Rate this question:
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Mar 01, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 12, 2017Quiz Created by
Mike
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