Ccs General Quiz VI

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1. Modifier ______, Procedure payable only in the inpatient setting when performed emergently on an outpatient who expires prior to admission, may be appended to the CPT procedure code.

Explanation

sleeve gastrectomy and gastric band procedure ARE NOT synonymous



Morbid obesity MAY NOT be coded if mentioned only previous to bariatric surgery. Pt may no longer be obese

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About This Quiz
Ccs General Quiz VI - Quiz

CCS General Quiz VI assesses knowledge on various medical topics including surgical complications, pharmacology, diagnostic maneuvers, anesthesia requirements, spinal injuries, and trauma coding. This quiz is essential for... see moremedical students and healthcare professionals aiming to enhance their clinical skills and understanding of medical coding. see less

2. Misiprostol is the first line medication used to manage intrauterine fetal death

Explanation

Misoprostol is used off-label for a variety of indications in the practice of obstetrics and gyneclogy, including medication abortion, medical management of miscarriage, induction of labor, cervical ripening before surgical procedures, and the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage. Due to its wide-ranging applications in reproductive health, misoprostol is on the World Health Organization Model List of Essential Medicines

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3. A planned aortic valve replacement procedure is discontinued after the initial thoracotomy and before any incision is made in the heart muscle, when the patient becomes hemodynamically unstable. This procedure is coded as an ___________________.

Explanation

The planned aortic valve replacement procedure was stopped before any incision was made in the heart muscle due to the patient becoming hemodynamically unstable. In this case, the surgeon performed an open inspection of the mediastinum, which involves examining the area between the lungs where the heart is located. This procedure allows the surgeon to assess the patient's condition and determine the best course of action.

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4. Neurorraphy is surgical ______________ of a divided nerve and codes to repair 

Explanation

Neurorraphy is a surgical procedure that involves suturing a divided nerve in order to repair it. Suturing is the process of stitching the two ends of the nerve back together, allowing for proper healing and restoration of nerve function. This technique is commonly used in cases of nerve injury or trauma, helping to reconnect the nerve fibers and promote nerve regeneration.

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5. A complete injury to the spinal cord (produces total loss of all motor and sensory function below the level of injury)is called ________________. Both sides of the body are equally affected. Even with a complete SCI, the spinal cord is rarely cut or transected.

Explanation

Tetraplegia, also known as quadriplegia, refers to a complete injury to the spinal cord that results in total loss of motor and sensory function below the level of injury. This condition affects both sides of the body equally. It is important to note that even though the spinal cord is rarely cut or transected in a complete SCI, the loss of function is still significant.

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6. If an angioplasty (repair of the artery) mentions a graft, meaning a portion of the artery was replaced previously, it is reported as a ___________________

Explanation

If an angioplasty mentions a graft, it means that a portion of the artery was replaced previously. Therefore, when reporting this procedure, it is described as a replacement.

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7. When Stage V Kidney disease (N18.5) is listed as requiring chronic dialysis, code ____________________, N18.6 instead AND the Z-code for dialysis dependence

Explanation







Procedures performed within an orifice on structures that are visible without the aid of

any instrumentation are coded to the approach External.
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8. Subacromial bursitis is a common etiology of ________________ pain. It results from inflammation of the bursa, a sac of tissue present under the acromion process of the _______________. It is usually brought about by repetitive overhead activities or trauma.

Explanation

It is fixed by glenohumeral debridement, a minimally-invasive procedure is used to remove tissue in the shoulder joint that has been 

damaged from arthritis, overuse or injury. The physician uses a small camera, called an 

arthroscope, which is inserted into the shoulder joint.

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9. If tension pneumothorax is caused by trauma, code _______________pneumothorax

Explanation

Example: Lysis of intestinal adhesions is coded to the specific intestine body part value.

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10. ECT stands for ________________. Do not confuse with SPECT  (single photon emission computerized tomography) in the CPT index

Explanation

ECT stands for electroconvulsive therapy, a medical procedure in which electric currents are passed through the brain to induce controlled seizures. It is primarily used to treat severe depression, bipolar disorder, and certain other mental illnesses that have not responded to other treatments. ECT is different from SPECT (single photon emission computerized tomography), which is a diagnostic imaging technique used to visualize blood flow and activity in the brain.

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11. Dermatitis in the Radiation PORT area indexes to Dermatitis, _____________, Radiation

Explanation

In people with ITP the immune system treats platelets as foreign and destroys them. The spleen is responsible for removing these damaged platelets and therefore removal of the spleen can help to keep more platelets circulating in the body.

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12. Endoscopy involves inserting a long, flexible tube down your throat to examine the esophagus, stomach and the beginning of your small intestine, called the ______________

Explanation

Peripheral neuropathy is a less precise term that is frequently used synonymously with polyneuropathy, but can also refer to any disorder of the peripheral nervous system including radiculopathies and mononeuropathies
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13. Which type of cataract extraction breaks up the lens? Extracapsular or Intracapsular

Explanation

intracapsular breaks up the lens, while extracapsular (posterior capsule) removes lens in one piece

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14. A complete injury of the spinal cord at C3 indexes to Injury, Spinal, Cervical, ____________________________

Explanation

The reason is because the inspection is included in the procedure bronchoscopic irrigation is a procedure in which cells are taken from the inside of the airways that lead to the lungs. 



A bronchoscope (a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing) is inserted through the nose or mouth into the lungs.

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15. Atherectomy (a _____________-based procedure used to remove plaque buildup in the arteries. It includes balloon angioplasty if performed in the same vessel)

Explanation

Atherectomy is a procedure used to remove plaque buildup in the arteries. It involves the use of a catheter, which is a thin tube that is inserted into the artery to reach the site of the plaque. The catheter is then used to mechanically remove or break up the plaque, allowing for improved blood flow. In some cases, balloon angioplasty may also be performed during the atherectomy procedure to further open up the artery and improve blood flow.

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16. Common bile duct is part of the ....

Explanation

Type 1 diabetes, once known as juvenile diabetes or insulin-dependent diabetes, is a chronic condition. In this condition, the pancreas makes little or no insulin. Insulin is a hormone the body uses to allow sugar (glucose) to enter cells to produce energy.

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17. Poor wound healing as a result of surgery codes to __________________, NEC T81.89.

Explanation

I couldn't even find it in the index.

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18. The epley maneuver, for BPPV is indexed under __________________

Explanation

Epigastric pain is a name for pain or discomfort right below your ribs in the area of your upper abdomen. It often happens alongside other common symptoms of your digestive system. These symptoms can include heartburn, bloating, and gas. Epigastric pain isn't always cause for concern.

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19. Liquid embolization of the right internal iliac artery to treat acute hematoma by stopping blood flow is coded to the root operation ____________.

Explanation

control vs a more descript root operation



Suctioning of residual blood to achieve hemostasis during a transbronchial cryobiopsy is considered integral to the cryobiopsy procedure and is not coded separately. 

 

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20. If the same condition is described as both acute (subacute) and chronic, and separate subentries exist in the Alphabetic Index at the same indentation level, code both and sequence the ___________ code first.

Explanation

If the same condition is described as both acute (subacute) and chronic, and separate subentries exist in the Alphabetic Index at the same indentation level, we should code both conditions. However, we should sequence the acute code first.

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21. Magnetic adjustment of a shunt is AKA _______________ of a programmable shunt

Explanation

There is no known relationship between acute kidney disease and hypertension. 

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22. Endovascular therapy (EVT) is a treatment for patients with acute ischemic strokes that removes the __________ from the brain, which ultimately caused the stroke

Explanation



Examples: Freeing a nerve root from surrounding scar tissue to relieve pain is coded to the root operation Release.



Severing a nerve root to relieve pain is coded to the root operation Division.
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23. H/o stroke stands for heterogenic ossification. It is the formation of ________ in soft tissue. It is a sequela effect of a stroke

Explanation

H/O stroke stands for heterotopic ossification, not heterogenic ossification. Heterotopic ossification is the formation of bone in soft tissue, which occurs as a complication of a stroke. This abnormal bone growth can restrict joint movement and cause pain and inflammation. It is important to manage and treat heterotopic ossification to prevent further complications and improve the patient's quality of life.

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24. A PET scan of the lungs is considered ________________________

Explanation

A PET scan of the lungs is considered nuclear medicine because it involves the use of a radioactive substance, known as a tracer, to produce detailed images of the lung tissue. The tracer is injected into the patient's bloodstream and is taken up by the cells in the lungs. The radioactive emissions from the tracer are then detected by a special camera, which creates images that can help diagnose and monitor various lung conditions, such as cancer, infections, and pulmonary embolism. Nuclear medicine techniques, including PET scans, are commonly used in the field of radiology to provide valuable information about the structure and function of organs and tissues.

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25. There is no specific code for swabbing for COVID-19. Swab collection is included in E/M service. However, if collected in the office and transported to the laboratory, CPT code ______ can be billed

Explanation

If multiple coronary arteries are bypassed, a separate procedure is coded for each

coronary artery that uses a different device and/or qualifier.

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26. Laparoscopic-assisted sigmoidectomy is coded to the approach ___________.

Explanation

Laparoscopically (percutaneous endoscopic approach coded)

Laparoscopically-assisted open (open approach coded) 

Laparoscopic converted to open (both approaches coded)  

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27. Proximal for bone is _______________

Explanation

proximal end (eg, olecranon or coronoid process) ulna

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28. Closed reduction of fracture is coded to the approach _______________.

Explanation



Procedures performed indirectly by the application of external force through the

intervening body layers are coded to the approach External.
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29. Procedures performed on a device only and not on a body part are specified in the root operations _____________, Irrigation, Removal, Replacement, and Revision, and are coded to the procedure performed.

Explanation

Irrigation of percutaneous nephrostomy tube is coded to the root operation Irrigation of indwelling device in the Administration section



A Removal procedure is coded for taking out the device used in a previous replacement procedure. Therefore two codes would be assigned if an existing prosthetic device is replaced—a Replacement code and a Removal code.

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30. Which requires general anesthesia, rigid or flexible endoscopy?

Explanation

Rigid endoscopy requires general anesthesia because it involves inserting a rigid tube into the body, which can cause discomfort or pain to the patient. General anesthesia ensures that the patient is unconscious and does not feel any pain or discomfort during the procedure. On the other hand, flexible endoscopy is usually performed under sedation or local anesthesia, as the flexible tube used is more comfortable and less invasive.

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31. Blood in stool, black stool, hematochezia, melenachezia, is indexed under ___________

Explanation

Blood in stool, black stool, hematochezia, and melenachezia are all symptoms that indicate the presence of blood in the stool. These symptoms are classified under "occult" because they are not easily visible or detectable by the naked eye. Occult blood in the stool refers to small amounts of blood that cannot be seen without the use of specialized tests, such as a fecal occult blood test. This term is used to describe hidden or concealed bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, which may be indicative of various underlying conditions such as ulcers, polyps, or colorectal cancer.

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32. ________________ Scratch Test, also called a skin prick test, checks for immediate allergic reactions

Explanation

Assign first the appropriate code from category T86.-, Complications of transplanted organs and tissue, followed by code C80.2,

Malignant neoplasm associated with transplanted organ. Use an additional code for the specific malignancy.

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33. Protection of PHI was changed from indefinite to ______ years after death.

Explanation

Women experiencing a missed abortion may have no self-awareness due to the lack of obvious symptoms.

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34. The HIPAA Privacy rule may be waived during a ________________.

Explanation

The HIPAA Privacy rule may be waived during a natural disaster. This is because during a natural disaster, there may be a need for immediate medical attention and sharing of health information to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals affected. Waiving the HIPAA Privacy rule allows healthcare providers to quickly exchange necessary information without the usual restrictions, facilitating efficient and effective emergency response and care.

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35. Laminotomy removes part or most (laminectomy removes all) of a ___________ called the lamina.

Explanation

decompresses the spinal canal, reducing pressure on the spinal cord or spinal nerves to relieve pain.

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36. __________________ patch testing is a method of diagnosing allergic contact dermatitis

Explanation

Example: Fragmentation of kidney stone performed via percutaneous nephrostomy is

coded to the approach Percutaneous.

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37. Radical neck dissection is the removal of all _________________________

Explanation

35 - 45 mm Hg

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38. Endoprosthesis is the same as ________________ 

Explanation

Endoprosthesis refers to a medical device that is implanted inside the body to replace or support a damaged or diseased organ or structure. An endograft is a specific type of endoprosthesis that is used to repair blood vessels, particularly in the aorta. It is a fabric tube supported by a metal framework that is inserted into the blood vessel to reinforce and redirect blood flow. Therefore, endograft and endoprosthesis are essentially the same thing, both referring to medical devices used for internal organ or structure support or replacement.

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39. Hepatitis screening is under screening, disease, ____________NEC

Explanation

The given answer, "viral," is correct because hepatitis is a viral disease. Hepatitis refers to the inflammation of the liver, and it can be caused by various viruses such as hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E. These viruses are transmitted through different routes, such as contaminated food or water, blood transfusions, or sexual contact. Therefore, when conducting hepatitis screening, it is essential to test for the presence of viral infections to identify and diagnose the specific type of hepatitis.

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40. Endovascular Ultrasound is found under _______________ in the CPT index

Explanation

The correct answer is intravascular. This means that Endovascular Ultrasound can be found under the category or section of intravascular in the CPT index. This suggests that the procedure or technique of Endovascular Ultrasound is related to or involves the use of ultrasound within blood vessels or the vascular system.

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Modifier ______, Procedure payable only in the inpatient setting when...
Misiprostol is the first line medication used to manage...
A planned aortic valve replacement procedure is discontinued after the...
Neurorraphy is surgical ______________ of a divided nerve and codes to...
A complete injury to the spinal cord (produces total loss of all motor...
If an angioplasty (repair of the artery) mentions a graft, meaning a...
When Stage V Kidney disease (N18.5) is listed as requiring chronic...
Subacromial bursitis is a common etiology of ________________ pain. It...
If tension pneumothorax is caused by trauma, code...
ECT stands for ________________. Do not confuse with SPECT  ...
Dermatitis in the Radiation PORT area indexes to Dermatitis,...
Endoscopy involves inserting a long, flexible tube down your throat to...
Which type of cataract extraction breaks up the lens? Extracapsular or...
A complete injury of the spinal cord at C3 indexes to Injury, Spinal,...
Atherectomy (a _____________-based procedure used to remove plaque...
Common bile duct is part of the ....
Poor wound healing as a result of surgery codes to __________________,...
The epley maneuver, for BPPV is indexed under __________________
Liquid embolization of the right internal iliac artery to treat acute...
If the same condition is described as both acute (subacute) and...
Magnetic adjustment of a shunt is AKA _______________ of a...
Endovascular therapy (EVT) is a treatment for patients with acute...
H/o stroke stands for heterogenic ossification. It is the formation of...
A PET scan of the lungs is considered ________________________
There is no specific code for swabbing for COVID-19. Swab collection...
Laparoscopic-assisted sigmoidectomy is coded to the approach...
Proximal for bone is _______________
Closed reduction of fracture is coded to the approach _______________.
Procedures performed on a device only and not on a body part are...
Which requires general anesthesia, rigid or flexible endoscopy?
Blood in stool, black stool, hematochezia, melenachezia, is indexed...
________________ Scratch Test, also called a skin prick test, checks...
Protection of PHI was changed from indefinite to ______ years after...
The HIPAA Privacy rule may be waived during a ________________.
Laminotomy removes part or most (laminectomy removes all) of a...
__________________ patch testing is a method of diagnosing allergic...
Radical neck dissection is the removal of all...
Endoprosthesis is the same as ________________ 
Hepatitis screening is under screening, disease, ____________NEC
Endovascular Ultrasound is found under _______________ in the CPT...
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