Primary 1 Review Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 8,420
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Primary 1 Review Quiz - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REQUIREMENT UNDER MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR INITIAL LICENSURE?

    • A.

      21 YEARS OF AGE

    • B.

      18 YEARS OF AGE AND HAS AN ASSOCIATE'S DEGREE

    • C.

      18 YEARS OF AGE AND 48 COLLEGE HOURS

    • D.

      HAS RECEIVED AND HONORABLE DISCHARGE AFTER AT LEAST TWO YEARS OF ACTIVE SERVICE

    Correct Answer
    C. 18 YEARS OF AGE AND 48 COLLEGE HOURS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "18 years of age and 48 college hours." This is not a requirement under the minimum standards for initial licensure. The other options, such as being 21 years of age, having an associate's degree, or receiving an honorable discharge after at least two years of active service, are all mentioned as requirements for initial licensure.

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  • 2. 

    INDIVIDUALS APPOINTED AS PEACE OFFICERS SHALL COMPLETE AT LEAST ___ HOURS OF CONTINUING EDUCATION TRAINING AND MUST COMPLETE A TRAINING AND EDUCATION PROGRAM THAT COVERS RECENT CHANGES TO THE LAWS OF THIS STATE AND THE U.S. PERTAINING TO PEACE OFFICERS EVERY ___ MONTH UNIT OF A TRAINING CYCLE.

    • A.

      24, 24

    • B.

      40, 48

    • C.

      40, 12

    • D.

      40, 24

    Correct Answer
    D. 40, 24
    Explanation
    Peace officers are required to complete at least 40 hours of continuing education training. Additionally, they must complete a training and education program covering recent changes to the laws of the state and the U.S. pertaining to peace officers every 24-month unit of a training cycle.

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  • 3. 

    EACH AGENCY THAT APPOINTS PEACE OFFICERS SHALL PROVIDE EACH PEACE OFFICER WITH CONTINUING EDUCATION PROGRAM AT LEAST ONCE EVERY ___ MONTH TRAINING CYCLE.

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 48. This means that each agency that appoints peace officers is required to provide them with a continuing education program at least once every 48-month training cycle. This ensures that peace officers receive regular training and stay updated on the latest practices and procedures in law enforcement.

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  • 4. 

    EACH AGENCY OR ENTITY THAT EMPLOYS AT LEAST ONE PEACE OFFICER SHALL REQUIRE EACH PEACE OFFICER THAT IT EMPLOYS TO SUCCESSFULLY COMPLETE THE CURRENT FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS AT LEAST:

    • A.

      ONCE EACH YEAR

    • B.

      ONCE EVERY TRAINING CYCLE

    • C.

      ONCE EVERY TRAINING UNIT

    • D.

      ONCE EVERY TRAINING PERIOD

    Correct Answer
    A. ONCE EACH YEAR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ONCE EACH YEAR" because the sentence states that each agency or entity that employs at least one peace officer must require their officers to successfully complete the current firearms proficiency requirements at least once each year. This means that the officers are obligated to complete the requirements annually. The other options, such as "once every training cycle," "once every training unit," and "once every training period," are not specifically mentioned in the sentence and do not accurately reflect the frequency stated.

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  • 5. 

    UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: HANDGUNS- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS.

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    D. 50
    Explanation
    The minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for handguns is 50 rounds. This means that individuals who are required to undergo this course must shoot a minimum of 50 rounds with their handguns to meet the proficiency requirements.

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  • 6. 

    UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: SHOTGUNS- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT A RANGE OF AT LEAST 15 YARDS.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 because the minimum requirement for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for shotguns is a minimum of 5 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 15 yards.

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  • 7. 

    UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: PRECISION RIFLES- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT A RANGE OF AT LEAST 100 YARDS.

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20. Firearms proficiency requirements state that a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition should be fired at a range of at least 100 yards for precision rifles. This ensures that individuals are adequately trained and proficient in handling and shooting firearms at longer distances.

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  • 8. 

    UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: PATROL RIFLES- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT A RANGE OF AT LEAST 50 YARDS.

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    The minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for patrol rifles is a minimum of 30 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 50 yards. This means that officers must demonstrate their proficiency by firing at least 30 rounds of duty ammunition at a target located 50 yards away. This requirement ensures that officers are adequately trained and proficient in using their patrol rifles at a reasonable distance.

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  • 9. 

    UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: FULLY AUTOMATIC WEAPONS- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT RANGES FROM SEVEN TO AT LEAST 10 YARDS.

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    The minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for fully automatic weapons is a minimum of 30 rounds of duty ammunition fired at ranges from seven to at least 10 yards.

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  • 10. 

    THE MINIMUM PASSING PERCENTAGE SHALL BE ___ FOR EACH FIREARM UNDER THE FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS.

    • A.

      60

    • B.

      70

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    B. 70
    Explanation
    The minimum passing percentage for each firearm under the firearms proficiency requirements is 70. This means that in order to pass the proficiency requirements for a specific firearm, a person must achieve a score of at least 70%.

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  • 11. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLING IS TRUE? THE EXAMINEE MUST REPEAT THE BASIC LICENSING COURSE FOR THE LICENSE SOUGHT IF:

    • A.

      THE EXAMINEE FAILS ALL THREE ATTEMPTS TO PASS THE LICENSING EXAM.

    • B.

      THE EXAMINEE FAILS TO COMPLETE ALL THREE ATTEMPTS WITHIN A YEAR FROM THE COMPLETION DATE OF THE LICENSING COURSE.

    • C.

      THE EXAMINEE IS DISMISSED FROM AN EXAM FOR CHEATING. IF DISMISSED FROM AN EXAM FOR CHEATING, ALL REMAINING ATTEMPTS ARE INVALIDATED.

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    • E.

      ANSWER A AND C

    Correct Answer
    E. ANSWER A AND C
    Explanation
    If the examinee fails all three attempts to pass the licensing exam or is dismissed from an exam for cheating, they must repeat the basic licensing course for the license sought. This means that both options A and C are true.

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  • 12. 

    AN INDIVIDUAL WHO EITHER IS A LICENSEE OR MEETS THE REQUIRMENTS  OF TEXAS OCCUPATIONS CODE MUST REPORT TO THE COMMISSION, IN FORMAT PRESCRIBED BY THE COMMISION, ANY NAME CHANGE OR AN ARREST WITHIN ___ DAYS.

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    An individual who is a licensee or meets the requirements of the Texas Occupations Code must report any name change or an arrest to the Commission within 30 days.

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  • 13. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT NEEDED IN ORDER TO ATTEMPT AN EXAMINATION? AN EXAMINEE MUST:

    • A.

      PRESENT PID

    • B.

      REPORT ON TIME

    • C.

      PRESENT A VALID PHOTO ID

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    • E.

      ANSWER A AND C ONLY

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    To attempt an examination, an examinee must present a PID, report on time, and present a valid photo ID. Therefore, all of the above options are needed in order to attempt an examination.

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  • 14. 

    AN EXAMINATION SCORE EXPIRES ___ YEAR(S) FROM THE DATE OF ITS ENTRY INTO COMMISSION RECORDS.

    • A.

      ONE

    • B.

      TWO

    • C.

      THREE

    • D.

      FOUR

    Correct Answer
    B. TWO
    Explanation
    An examination score expires two years from the date of its entry into commission records. This means that after two years, the score will no longer be considered valid or applicable.

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  • 15. 

    WHAT IS NOT REQUIRED TO REPORT TO THE COMMISSION?

    • A.

      CHANGE OF ADDRESS

    • B.

      CLASS C MISDEMEANOR- THEFT

    • C.

      CLASS C MISDEMEANOR- FAMILY VIOLENCE

    • D.

      ANY DISHONORABLE OR BAD CONDUCT DISCHARGE

    Correct Answer
    B. CLASS C MISDEMEANOR- THEFT
    Explanation
    The Commission does not require reporting of Class C Misdemeanor- Theft.

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  • 16. 

    A RESPONSE TO A PERCIEVED THREAT, DEMAND, OR CHANGE IS WHAT?

    • A.

      ASSAULT

    • B.

      DEPRESSION

    • C.

      STRESS

    • D.

      ABUSE

    Correct Answer
    C. STRESS
    Explanation
    Stress is a natural response to a perceived threat, demand, or change. It can manifest in various ways, both physically and emotionally. When faced with a challenging situation or change, the body releases stress hormones that prepare it for a fight-or-flight response. This physiological reaction can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Therefore, stress is the most appropriate answer as it accurately describes the body's response to a perceived threat, demand, or change.

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  • 17. 

    UNMANAGED STRESS CAN BE DETRIMENTAL TO pHYSICAL AND PSYCHOLOGICAL WELL-BEING.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Unmanaged stress refers to stress that is not effectively dealt with or controlled. When stress is not properly managed, it can have negative effects on both physical and psychological well-being. Physically, unmanaged stress can lead to various health issues such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and weakened immune system. Psychologically, it can cause anxiety, depression, and other mental health disorders. Therefore, it is true that unmanaged stress can be detrimental to both physical and psychological well-being.

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  • 18. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF AN INTERNAL TRIGGER?

    • A.

      LIFESTYLE CHOICES

    • B.

      MIND TRAPS

    • C.

      NEGATIVE SELF TALK

    • D.

      PERSONALITY TRAITS

    • E.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    E. ALL THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ALL THE ABOVE." All the options listed (lifestyle choices, mind traps, negative self-talk, and personality traits) can act as internal triggers. Internal triggers are thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that arise from within an individual and can influence their actions or reactions. Lifestyle choices, such as engaging in unhealthy habits, can trigger certain behaviors. Mind traps, like negative thinking patterns or cognitive distortions, can also act as internal triggers. Negative self-talk, which involves criticizing or belittling oneself, can have a significant impact on behavior. Lastly, personality traits, such as impulsivity or perfectionism, can also serve as internal triggers for certain actions or reactions.

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  • 19. 

    MANAGED STRESS DOES NOT CREATE CHALLENGES OR OPPORTUNITY.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because managed stress can actually create challenges and opportunities. When stress is managed effectively, it can motivate individuals to overcome obstacles and find innovative solutions to problems. It can also lead to personal growth, resilience, and the development of new skills. Therefore, managed stress can provide individuals with the opportunity to learn and grow, as well as create new possibilities for success.

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  • 20. 

    STRESS CAN NEVER BE SEEN AS SOMETHING POSSITIVE.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that stress can never be seen as something positive. However, this is not entirely true. While chronic stress can have negative effects on physical and mental health, acute stress can actually be beneficial in certain situations. It can enhance performance, increase focus and motivation, and help individuals adapt to challenging situations. Therefore, stress can sometimes be seen as a positive force depending on the context and duration.

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  • 21. 

    DISTRESS IS POSITIVE STRESS THAT IS OFTEN FELT WHEN WE ARE CONFRONTED WITH DEMANDING AND CHALLENGING SITUATIONS WHICH WE ARE CAPABLE OF HANDLING.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because distress is actually negative stress that is experienced when we are faced with overwhelming and unmanageable situations. It is the opposite of eustress, which is positive stress that motivates and energizes us. Distress can have detrimental effects on our physical and mental well-being, whereas eustress can enhance our performance and productivity.

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  • 22. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A COMMON SYMPTOM WE DISCUSSED IN CLASS?

    • A.

      PHYSICAL

    • B.

      MENTAL

    • C.

      NUTRITIONAL

    • D.

      EMOTIONAL

    • E.

      BEHAVIORAL

    Correct Answer
    C. NUTRITIONAL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NUTRITIONAL. In class, we discussed common symptoms such as physical, mental, emotional, and behavioral symptoms. However, nutritional symptoms were not mentioned as a common symptom.

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  • 23. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN INTERNAL TO AGENCY STRESSOR?

    • A.

      LACK OF RECOGNITION

    • B.

      PUBLIC ATTITUDE

    • C.

      TRAINING

    • D.

      POLICIES

    Correct Answer
    B. PUBLIC ATTITUDE
    Explanation
    Public attitude is not an internal agency stressor because it is an external factor that is beyond the control of the agency. Internal agency stressors typically refer to factors that originate within the agency itself, such as lack of recognition, training, and policies. While public attitude may impact the agency and its employees, it is not something that the agency can directly control or change, making it an external stressor.

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  • 24. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WAY TO DEAL WITH STRESS VULNERABILITY?

    • A.

      DIET AND EXCERCISE

    • B.

      CAFFEINE AND ALCOHOL

    • C.

      RELAXATION OR SLEEP

    • D.

      SPIRITUALLY

    Correct Answer
    B. CAFFEINE AND ALCOHOL
    Explanation
    Caffeine and alcohol are not effective ways to deal with stress vulnerability. While they may provide temporary relief or relaxation, they can actually contribute to increased stress levels in the long run. Caffeine is a stimulant that can increase anxiety and disrupt sleep patterns, while alcohol is a depressant that can negatively affect mood and exacerbate stress. Therefore, it is important to find healthier coping mechanisms such as maintaining a balanced diet, engaging in regular exercise, practicing relaxation techniques, and nurturing spiritual well-being.

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  • 25. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GOAL OF PUBLIC SERVICE?

    • A.

      TO MINIMIZE CULTURE/EMOTIONAL BARRIERS SEPARATING PEACE OFFICERS AND THE PUBLIC

    • B.

      TO SUPPRESS CRIME AND PROVIDE PROTECTION TO THE PUBLIC

    • C.

      TO CREATE AND OFFICER/CITIZEN RELATIONSHIP

    • D.

      TO CREATE EMPATHETIC RESPONSE TO CITIZEN CONCERNS/ NEEDS

    Correct Answer
    B. TO SUPPRESS CRIME AND PROVIDE PROTECTION TO THE PUBLIC
    Explanation
    The goal of public service is to minimize culture/emotional barriers separating peace officers and the public, to create an officer/citizen relationship, and to create an empathetic response to citizen concerns/needs. However, the goal of public service is not specifically to suppress crime and provide protection to the public. While these are important aspects of public service, they are not the primary goals. Public service aims to foster positive relationships and understanding between law enforcement and the community they serve, as well as addressing the concerns and needs of citizens.

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  • 26. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CONSEQUENCE OF INEFFECTIVE PUBLIC SERVICE?

    • A.

      LACK OF TRUST AND RESPECT

    • B.

      INCREASED CITIZENS COMPLAINTS

    • C.

      REDUCED BUDGETARY SUPPORT FOR PERSONNEL, SALARIES, AND EQUIPMENT

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    • E.

      NONE OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    Ineffective public service can lead to a lack of trust and respect from the public. When citizens feel that the government is not effectively providing the services they need, it can result in increased complaints from the citizens. Additionally, if public service is ineffective, it may lead to a reduced budgetary support for personnel, salaries, and equipment as the government may be less inclined to allocate resources to a service that is not functioning properly. Therefore, all of the above consequences can be a result of ineffective public service.

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  • 27. 

    STOP AND TALK, FOOT PATROL CONVERSATIONS, CRIME PREVENTION TIPS, AND CRIME STOPPERS ARE ALL PART OF

    • A.

      VISUAL PRESENCE

    • B.

      COMMUNITY INVOLVEMENT- SEEKING CITIZENS INPUT

    • C.

      SUPPRESSING CRIME

    • D.

      REDUCTION OF CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

    Correct Answer
    B. COMMUNITY INVOLVEMENT- SEEKING CITIZENS INPUT
    Explanation
    The activities mentioned, such as stop and talk, foot patrol conversations, crime prevention tips, and Crime Stoppers, all contribute to community involvement and seeking citizens' input. These activities aim to engage with the community, encourage dialogue, and gather information from citizens to better understand their concerns and perspectives. By actively involving the community in crime prevention efforts, law enforcement agencies can build trust, establish partnerships, and enhance their understanding of local issues, ultimately leading to a safer and more responsive community.

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  • 28. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONSEQUENCE OF EFFECTIVE PUBLICE SERICE?

    • A.

      SUPPORT FOR BUDGETARY REQUESTS

    • B.

      REDUCTION IN CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

    • C.

      REDUCTION OF CRIME

    • D.

      INCREASED TRUST AND RESPECT

    Correct Answer
    C. REDUCTION OF CRIME
    Explanation
    Effective public service can have many positive outcomes, such as support for budgetary requests, reduction in citizen complaints, and increased trust and respect. However, the reduction of crime is not directly linked to effective public service. While effective public service can contribute to creating a safer environment through various initiatives and policies, the primary responsibility for crime reduction lies with law enforcement agencies and the criminal justice system. Effective public service can support crime reduction indirectly by addressing social and economic issues that contribute to criminal behavior, but it is not the sole determinant of crime rates.

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  • 29. 

    THE THREE METHODS DESIGNED TO ENHANCE PUBLIC SERVICE ARE: VEHICULAR, ON FOOT, MOUNTED AND BIKE PATROL.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the question is asking about the methods designed to enhance public service, and the given answer states that there are three methods: vehicular, on foot, and mounted and bike patrol. This implies that these methods have been specifically developed to improve public service.

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  • 30. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTS AS A CLEARING HOUSE AND FUNDRAISER FOR A MULTIUDE OF SOCIAL SERVICE ORGANIZATION?

    • A.

      UNITED WAY

    • B.

      STAR OF HOPE

    • C.

      SALVATION ARMY

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ALL THE ABOVE". All three organizations mentioned - United Way, Star of Hope, and Salvation Army - function as clearing houses and fundraisers for a multitude of social service organizations. They collect donations and distribute funds to various charities and initiatives that provide social services to those in need.

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  • 31. 

    WHAT YEAR WAS HPD FOUNDED?

    • A.

      1841

    • B.

      1844

    • C.

      1847

    • D.

      1877

    Correct Answer
    A. 1841
    Explanation
    HPD, which stands for Houston Police Department, was founded in 1841. This information is not explicitly stated in the given question, but it is implied that the question is referring to the founding year of HPD. Therefore, the correct answer is 1841.

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  • 32. 

    HOW MANY OFFICERS HAVE BEEN KILLED IN THE LINE OF DUTY WITH THE HOUSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT?

    • A.

      102

    • B.

      111

    • C.

      112

    • D.

      121

    Correct Answer
    C. 112
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 112. This suggests that a total of 112 officers have been killed in the line of duty with the Houston Police Department.

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  • 33. 

    WHERE DID OUR POLICE METHOD ORIGINATE FROM?

    • A.

      EUROPE

    • B.

      ASIA

    • C.

      AFRICA

    • D.

      SOUTH AMERICA

    Correct Answer
    A. EUROPE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Europe. Europe is the place where the modern concept of policing originated. The first organized police forces were established in Europe, specifically in England, in the 19th century. Sir Robert Peel, known as the father of modern policing, introduced the concept of a professional police force in London in 1829. This model of policing, known as the Metropolitan Police, became the foundation for modern police forces around the world. Therefore, Europe is the place where our police method originated from.

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  • 34. 

    SIR ROBERT PEEL WAS MOST CONCERN ABOUT WHAT?

    • A.

      COLLEGE

    • B.

      BOBBIES

    • C.

      CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

    • D.

      BACKGROUNDS

    Correct Answer
    D. BACKGROUNDS
    Explanation
    Sir Robert Peel, as the founder of the modern police force in the UK, was most concerned about the backgrounds of the individuals who would become police officers. He believed that the police force should be composed of individuals with good moral character and integrity. Peel emphasized the importance of recruiting officers who were trustworthy and had a strong sense of duty towards public service. By focusing on the backgrounds of potential police officers, Peel aimed to ensure that the police force would maintain high standards and effectively serve and protect the community.

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  • 35. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLING HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH POLICE OFFICERS AND A COLLEGE EDUCATION?

    • A.

      THE WICKERSHAM COMMISSION

    • B.

      STEVEN F. AUSTIN

    • C.

      THE PRESIDENTS COMMISSION

    • D.

      AUGUST VOLLMER

    Correct Answer
    B. STEVEN F. AUSTIN
  • 36. 

    IN WHICH TIME PERIOD DID POLICE PATROL BECOME INCIDENT DRIVEN?

    • A.

      1850'S - 1870'S

    • B.

      1950'S - 1960'S

    • C.

      1950'S - 1970'S

    • D.

      1980'S - PRESENT

    Correct Answer
    C. 1950'S - 1970'S
    Explanation
    During the time period of the 1950's to the 1970's, police patrol became incident driven. This means that instead of patrolling proactively and preventing crime, police officers started responding primarily to incidents and calls for service. This shift in policing approach was influenced by factors such as the increasing urbanization, rise in crime rates, and the development of emergency communication systems. The focus on incident-driven patrol allowed for a more reactive approach to law enforcement, with officers prioritizing immediate response to reported incidents rather than actively patrolling and preventing crime.

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  • 37. 

    STEVEN F. AUSTIN EMPLOYED A MALITIA GROUP CALLED THE TEXAS RANGERS TO PROTECT SETTLERS FROM WHAT?

    • A.

      ILLEGAL IMMIGRANTS

    • B.

      INDIAN AND BANDIT RAIDS

    • C.

      AMERICAN AND BANDIT RAIDS

    • D.

      MEXICAN AMERICANS

    Correct Answer
    B. INDIAN AND BANDIT RAIDS
    Explanation
    Steven F. Austin employed a militia group called the Texas Rangers to protect settlers from Indian and bandit raids. This means that the Texas Rangers were tasked with defending the settlers against attacks from both Native American tribes and criminal gangs. This was an important measure taken by Austin to ensure the safety and security of the settlers in the region.

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  • 38. 

    WHICH TIME PERIOD WAS THERE AN INCREASED INTEREST IN RESEARCH?

    • A.

      1950'S - 1970' S

    • B.

      1970'S - PRESENT

    • C.

      1980'S - PRESENT

    • D.

      WITHIN THE LAST DECADE

    Correct Answer
    C. 1980'S - PRESENT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1980's - Present. This time period saw an increased interest in research due to various factors. The advancements in technology and access to information in the 1980s made it easier for researchers to conduct studies and share their findings. Additionally, the growing importance of evidence-based practices and the need for scientific evidence to support decision-making in various fields further fueled the interest in research. This trend has continued to the present day, with research playing a crucial role in addressing complex societal challenges and driving innovation.

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  • 39. 

    WHAT IS THE PRIMARY MEANS OF RESOLVING INCIDENTS WITH THE TRADITIONAL POLICE SERVICE MODEL?

    • A.

      TRADITIONAL POLICING

    • B.

      CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

    • C.

      PROBLEM SOLVING SYSTEM

    • D.

      POLICE ORIENTED SYSTEM

    Correct Answer
    B. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
    Explanation
    The primary means of resolving incidents with the traditional police service model is through the criminal justice system. This system involves the investigation, apprehension, prosecution, and punishment of individuals who have committed crimes. It includes various components such as law enforcement agencies, courts, and correctional facilities. The criminal justice system aims to ensure that justice is served by holding offenders accountable for their actions and providing a fair and impartial process for both victims and accused individuals.

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  • 40. 

    THE IMPORTANCE OF INVOLVING THE COMMUNITY IN ALL POLICE ACTIVITIES, THAT DIRECTLY AFFECT THE QUALITY OF COMMUNITY LIFE, ESTABLISHES A POSITIVE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN POLICE AND THE PUBLIC.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Involving the community in all police activities that directly affect the quality of community life establishes a positive relationship between police and the public. This is because when the community is involved, they feel a sense of ownership and responsibility towards their own safety and well-being. It also allows the police to gain valuable insights and information from the community, leading to more effective crime prevention and solving. Ultimately, involving the community builds trust, enhances communication, and fosters cooperation between the police and the public, resulting in a safer and more harmonious community.

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  • 41. 

    CONCERNING THE POLICE ORGANIZATION ROLE IN OUR SOCIETY, WHO ARE OUR CUSTOMERS?

    • A.

      CITIZENS OF THE JAIL

    • B.

      THE CRIMINALS

    • C.

      SEX OFFENDERS

    • D.

      CITIZENS OF THE COMMUNITY

    Correct Answer
    D. CITIZENS OF THE COMMUNITY
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "CITIZENS OF THE COMMUNITY." In a police organization, the primary role is to serve and protect the community. The citizens of the community are the customers of the police organization as they rely on the police to maintain law and order, respond to emergencies, and ensure their safety. The police organization works towards building trust, maintaining public order, and addressing the needs and concerns of the citizens in the community they serve.

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  • 42. 

    WHAT IS QUALITY POLICE CUSTOMER SERVICE?

    • A.

      PROTECTING THE PUBLIC IN AN EFFECTIVE WAY

    • B.

      PROTECTING THE PUBLIC IN AN EFFICIENT MANNER

    • C.

      PROTECTING THE PUBLIC IN A POSITIVE, FRIENDLY WAY

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ALL THE ABOVE. Quality police customer service involves protecting the public in an effective way, ensuring their safety and security. It also involves doing so in an efficient manner, utilizing resources effectively to provide prompt and timely assistance. Additionally, quality police customer service requires protecting the public in a positive and friendly way, fostering a positive relationship between the police and the community they serve. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the concept of quality police customer service.

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  • 43. 

    BUILDING OF PRIDE WITHIN THE AGENCY AND THE COMMUNITY IS ONE REWARD OF PROVIDING QUALITY POLICE CUSTOMER SERVICE.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Providing quality police customer service can lead to the building of pride within the agency and the community. When police officers consistently deliver excellent service, it enhances the reputation and credibility of the agency. This, in turn, fosters a sense of pride among the officers themselves and within the community they serve. It creates a positive image of the police force, strengthens community relationships, and promotes trust and cooperation.

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  • 44. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC OF POLICE SUBCULTURE?

    • A.

      TO CREATE SOCIAL CREATIONISM

    • B.

      TO BETTER UNDERSTAND IT AND PUBLIC PERCEPTIONS

    • C.

      TO ALLOW FOR INFORMED CHOICES

    • D.

      TO DISCOVER WAYS TO CHANGE SUBCULTURE

    Correct Answer
    A. TO CREATE SOCIAL CREATIONISM
  • 45. 

    THE BEST WAY TO UNDERSTAND THE CONCEPT OF PROFESSIONALISM IS TO THINK OF OCCUPATIONS DIFFERING TO THE _______ THAT THEY ARE PROFESSIONAL.

    • A.

      WAY

    • B.

      OPTION

    • C.

      FACT

    • D.

      DEGREE

    Correct Answer
    D. DEGREE
    Explanation
    The best way to understand the concept of professionalism is to think of occupations differing to the degree that they are professional. This means that the level of professionalism in an occupation can vary depending on the level of education, training, and expertise required. Some occupations may require a higher degree of professionalism, while others may require a lower degree. Understanding this concept helps to grasp the idea that professionalism is not a one-size-fits-all concept, but rather varies across different occupations.

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  • 46. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC OF PROFESSIONALISM?

    • A.

      SERVICE TO OTHERS

    • B.

      CONTINUING EDUCATION AND LIFE-LONG LEARNING

    • C.

      ASSESSMENT OF CLIENT NEEDS

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The characteristic of professionalism includes all the options mentioned, which are service to others, continuing education and lifelong learning, and assessment of client needs. Professionals are expected to provide service to others, whether it is their clients, customers, or colleagues. They are also expected to continuously educate themselves and stay updated with the latest knowledge and skills in their field. Additionally, professionals should be able to assess the needs of their clients and provide appropriate solutions or support. Therefore, all the options mentioned are characteristics of professionalism.

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  • 47. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ADVANTAGE OF PROFESSIONAL POLICING?

    • A.

      FINANCIAL REWARDS

    • B.

      HIGHER SALARIES

    • C.

      PUBLIC OR CLIENT BETTER SERVED

    • D.

      ALL THE ABOVE

    • E.

      A AND C ONLY

    Correct Answer
    E. A AND C ONLY
    Explanation
    The advantage of professional policing includes both financial rewards and better service to the public or clients. Higher salaries are a form of financial reward that can attract and retain qualified individuals in the profession. By providing adequate compensation, it incentivizes officers to perform their duties effectively and professionally. Additionally, professional policing ensures that the public or clients are better served by trained and skilled law enforcement officers who uphold the principles of fairness, justice, and public safety. This leads to a higher level of trust and confidence in the police force, ultimately resulting in a safer and more secure community.

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  • 48. 

    __________  __________ IS WHEN WE OVERESTIMATE THE COST OF DOING THINGS RIGHT AND WE UNDERESTIMATE THE COST OF DOING THINGS WRONG.

    • A.

      SELF RIGHTEOUS

    • B.

      FAULTY REASONING

    • C.

      SELF PROTECTION

    • D.

      SELF DECEPTION

    Correct Answer
    B. FAULTY REASONING
    Explanation
    Faulty reasoning is when we overestimate the cost of doing things right and underestimate the cost of doing things wrong. This refers to a logical error or mistake in the thought process, where the individual's reasoning is flawed or incorrect. It involves making incorrect assumptions, drawing invalid conclusions, or using faulty logic to support a particular argument or belief. In this context, faulty reasoning leads to an inaccurate assessment of the costs associated with different actions or decisions.

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  • 49. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A DISADVANTAGE OF PROFESSIONAL POLICING?

    • A.

      COST OF TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT

    • B.

      HIGHER SALARIES

    • C.

      LIMITED ENTRY INTO THE WORKFORCE FROM POOR BECAUSE OF LIMITED OPPORTUNITY FOR EDUCATIONAL ATTAINMENT

    • D.

      ETHICAL CONDUCT

    Correct Answer
    D. ETHICAL CONDUCT
    Explanation
    The question asks for a disadvantage of professional policing, and the correct answer is "ethical conduct." This means that ethical conduct is not a disadvantage of professional policing. It suggests that professional policing does not suffer from any negative consequences or drawbacks related to ethical behavior or conduct.

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  • 50. 

    AN OFFICER ACTS ETHICALLY WHEN HE/SHE ASSISTS THE PUBLIC TO UNDERSTAND HOW THEY CAN HELP OFFICERS TO ACHIEVE __________ AND ETHICAL BEHAVIOR.

    • A.

      OBJECTIVE

    • B.

      RELEVANT

    • C.

      INTERESTING

    • D.

      PROFESSIONAL

    Correct Answer
    A. OBJECTIVE
    Explanation
    An officer acts ethically when he/she assists the public to understand how they can help officers to achieve their objective and ethical behavior. This means that the officer is promoting transparency, accountability, and clear goals in their interactions with the public. By educating the public on how they can support the officers in their objectives, the officer is fostering a sense of partnership and trust between law enforcement and the community. This aligns with ethical principles of fairness, honesty, and integrity.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    RICARDOSALAS
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