Primary 1 Review Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 10,772
| Attempts: 80 | Questions: 100 | Updated: Jun 22, 2025
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1. WHICH OF THE FOLLING HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH POLICE OFFICERS AND A COLLEGE EDUCATION?

Explanation

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About This Quiz
Law Enforcement Training Quizzes & Trivia

This PRIMARY 1 REVIEW QUIZ assesses knowledge on law enforcement licensure and training requirements, including firearms proficiency. It is designed for individuals in the law enforcement sector, testing critical regulatory compliance and operational readiness.

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2. There is only one crime defined in the U.S. Constitution. What is it?

Explanation

The correct answer is treason. Treason is the only crime that is specifically defined in the U.S. Constitution. It is defined as levying war against the United States or adhering to their enemies, giving them aid and comfort. This crime is considered to be one of the most serious offenses against the nation and is punishable by law.

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3. An example of the 5th Amendment right to protection against self-incrimination is the case of:

Explanation

Miranda vs. Arizona is an example of the 5th Amendment right to protection against self-incrimination because it established the requirement for police to inform individuals of their rights, including the right to remain silent, before any custodial interrogation. This case resulted in the creation of the Miranda warning, which is read to suspects upon arrest to ensure that they are aware of their rights and can choose whether or not to incriminate themselves.

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4. ALL PRISONERS SHALL  BE BAILABLE UNLESS FOR ___________ __________ WHERE THE PROVE IS EVIDENT.

Explanation

The correct answer is "CAPITAL OFFENSES". In criminal law, capital offenses refer to crimes that are punishable by death. These are typically the most serious crimes, such as murder, treason, or terrorism. In these cases, the accused is not eligible for bail unless the evidence against them is weak or insufficient. This is because of the severity of the crime and the potential risk to society if the accused is released.

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5. PHYSICAL FITNESS HAS A SIGNIFICANT IMPACT ON WHAT?

Explanation

Physical fitness has a significant impact on physical health because regular exercise and a healthy lifestyle can help prevent various diseases and improve overall well-being. It also has an impact on emotional health as exercise releases endorphins, which are known as "feel-good" hormones that can reduce stress, anxiety, and depression. Additionally, physical fitness can improve job performance as it enhances cognitive function, boosts energy levels, and increases productivity and focus. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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6. WHAT YEAR WAS HPD FOUNDED?

Explanation

HPD, which stands for Houston Police Department, was founded in 1841. This information is not explicitly stated in the given question, but it is implied that the question is referring to the founding year of HPD. Therefore, the correct answer is 1841.

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7. THE IMPORTANCE OF INVOLVING THE COMMUNITY IN ALL POLICE ACTIVITIES, THAT DIRECTLY AFFECT THE QUALITY OF COMMUNITY LIFE, ESTABLISHES A POSITIVE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN POLICE AND THE PUBLIC.

Explanation

Involving the community in all police activities that directly affect the quality of community life establishes a positive relationship between police and the public. This is because when the community is involved, they feel a sense of ownership and responsibility towards their own safety and well-being. It also allows the police to gain valuable insights and information from the community, leading to more effective crime prevention and solving. Ultimately, involving the community builds trust, enhances communication, and fosters cooperation between the police and the public, resulting in a safer and more harmonious community.

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8. WHERE DID OUR POLICE METHOD ORIGINATE FROM?

Explanation

The correct answer is Europe. Europe is the place where the modern concept of policing originated. The first organized police forces were established in Europe, specifically in England, in the 19th century. Sir Robert Peel, known as the father of modern policing, introduced the concept of a professional police force in London in 1829. This model of policing, known as the Metropolitan Police, became the foundation for modern police forces around the world. Therefore, Europe is the place where our police method originated from.

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9. UNMANAGED STRESS CAN BE DETRIMENTAL TO PHYSICAL AND PSYCHOLOGICAL WELL-BEING.

Explanation

Unmanaged stress refers to stress that is not effectively dealt with or controlled. When stress is not properly managed, it can have negative effects on both physical and psychological well-being. Physically, unmanaged stress can lead to various health issues such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and weakened immune system. Psychologically, it can cause anxiety, depression, and other mental health disorders. Therefore, it is true that unmanaged stress can be detrimental to both physical and psychological well-being.

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10. BUILDING OF PRIDE WITHIN THE AGENCY AND THE COMMUNITY IS ONE REWARD OF PROVIDING QUALITY POLICE CUSTOMER SERVICE.

Explanation

Providing quality police customer service can lead to the building of pride within the agency and the community. When police officers consistently deliver excellent service, it enhances the reputation and credibility of the agency. This, in turn, fosters a sense of pride among the officers themselves and within the community they serve. It creates a positive image of the police force, strengthens community relationships, and promotes trust and cooperation.

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11. An order from the court directing the person responsible for holding an individual in jail or prison to bring that person before the court and show why he is being held in custody is called a:

Explanation

A writ of habeas corpus is a court order that requires a person who is holding someone in custody to bring that person before the court and provide a valid reason for their detention. This writ is used to protect individuals from unlawful or arbitrary imprisonment, ensuring that they have the right to challenge the legality of their detention. It is a fundamental legal principle that safeguards personal liberty and prevents wrongful imprisonment.

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12. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF UNETHICAL BEHAVIOR?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ALL THE ABOVE." This is because all the options listed (dishonesty, brutality, racial discrimination, and accepting gratuities) are examples of unethical behavior. Dishonesty involves lying or deceiving others, brutality refers to cruel or violent actions, racial discrimination is the unfair treatment of individuals based on their race, and accepting gratuities can be seen as unethical if it involves taking bribes or favors in exchange for special treatment.

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13. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WAY TO DEAL WITH STRESS VULNERABILITY?

Explanation

Caffeine and alcohol are not effective ways to deal with stress vulnerability. While they may provide temporary relief or relaxation, they can actually contribute to increased stress levels in the long run. Caffeine is a stimulant that can increase anxiety and disrupt sleep patterns, while alcohol is a depressant that can negatively affect mood and exacerbate stress. Therefore, it is important to find healthier coping mechanisms such as maintaining a balanced diet, engaging in regular exercise, practicing relaxation techniques, and nurturing spiritual well-being.

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14. AS AN OCCUPATIONAL GROUP, LAW ENFORECEMENT PROFESSIONALS HAVE A ______ HEALTH PROFILE.

Explanation

Law enforcement professionals often face high levels of stress and demanding work environments, which can negatively impact their physical and mental health. The nature of their job exposes them to various risks, including physical injuries, trauma, long working hours, and irregular sleep patterns. Additionally, the constant exposure to violence and crime can lead to high levels of anxiety, depression, and other mental health issues. Therefore, it is not uncommon for law enforcement professionals to have a poor health profile due to the unique challenges and pressures associated with their occupation.

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15. IF KEITLER IS TRIED FOR THE MURDER OF FALK IN COUNTY COURT AT LAW #10 AND IS ACQUITTED, HE CAN BE RETRIED IN A FELONY COURT.

Explanation

If Keitler is tried for the murder of Falk in County Court at Law #10 and is acquitted, he can be retried in a felony court. This is because the principle of double jeopardy does not apply in this scenario. Double jeopardy prohibits an individual from being tried for the same offense twice after they have been acquitted. However, in this case, the County Court at Law #10 is not a felony court, so if Keitler is acquitted there, he can still be retried in a felony court where the charges may be more severe.

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16. THE BEST WAY TO UNDERSTAND THE CONCEPT OF PROFESSIONALISM IS TO THINK OF OCCUPATIONS DIFFERING TO THE _______ THAT THEY ARE PROFESSIONAL.

Explanation

The best way to understand the concept of professionalism is to think of occupations differing to the degree that they are professional. This means that the level of professionalism in an occupation can vary depending on the level of education, training, and expertise required. Some occupations may require a higher degree of professionalism, while others may require a lower degree. Understanding this concept helps to grasp the idea that professionalism is not a one-size-fits-all concept, but rather varies across different occupations.

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17. AN INDIVIDUAL WHO EITHER IS A LICENSEE OR MEETS THE REQUIRMENTS  OF TEXAS OCCUPATIONS CODE MUST REPORT TO THE COMMISSION, IN FORMAT PRESCRIBED BY THE COMMISION, ANY NAME CHANGE OR AN ARREST WITHIN ___ DAYS.

Explanation

An individual who is a licensee or meets the requirements of the Texas Occupations Code must report any name change or an arrest to the Commission within 30 days.

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18. CONCERNING THE POLICE ORGANIZATION ROLE IN OUR SOCIETY, WHO ARE OUR CUSTOMERS?

Explanation

The correct answer is "CITIZENS OF THE COMMUNITY." In a police organization, the primary role is to serve and protect the community. The citizens of the community are the customers of the police organization as they rely on the police to maintain law and order, respond to emergencies, and ensure their safety. The police organization works towards building trust, maintaining public order, and addressing the needs and concerns of the citizens in the community they serve.

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19. WHAT IS NOT REQUIRED TO REPORT TO THE COMMISSION?

Explanation

The Commission does not require reporting of Class C Misdemeanor- Theft.

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20. To be eligible to sit for an examination, an examinee must ____________________________

Explanation

To be eligible to sit for an examination, the examinee must fulfill multiple requirements. They must report on time to the examination venue, display their identification card with a photograph when requested, not disrupt the examination, and comply with all the written and verbal instructions given by the proctor. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" because all of these conditions must be met for the examinee to be eligible for the examination.

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21. The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution

Explanation

The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures. This means that law enforcement officials cannot search a person's property or seize their belongings without a valid reason, such as a warrant or probable cause. This protection ensures that individuals have a right to privacy and that their personal belongings are secure from arbitrary government intrusion.

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22. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A COMMON SYMPTOM WE DISCUSSED IN CLASS?

Explanation

The correct answer is NUTRITIONAL. In class, we discussed common symptoms such as physical, mental, emotional, and behavioral symptoms. However, nutritional symptoms were not mentioned as a common symptom.

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23. THE CONDITION OF THE BODY WHICH ENABLES AN INDIVIDUAL TO USE HIS/HER BODY IN ACTIVITIES REQUIRING STRENGTH, MUSCULAR ENDURANCE, CARDIOVASCULAR ENDURANCE, FLEXIBILITY, COORDINATION, AGILITY, POWER, BALANCE, SPEED, AND ACURACY, WITHOUT EXPERIENCE OF FATIGUE AND EXHAUSTION IS ________  ________.

Explanation

Physical fitness refers to the condition of the body that allows an individual to engage in activities that require strength, endurance, flexibility, coordination, agility, power, balance, speed, and accuracy without experiencing fatigue and exhaustion. It encompasses various components of fitness and is essential for overall health and well-being.

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24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of professionalism?

Explanation

The characteristic of "little or no standards for entry" is not a characteristic of professionalism. This means that professionalism typically requires certain standards or qualifications for entry into a particular field or profession. This ensures that professionals have the necessary knowledge, skills, and competence to perform their job effectively and ethically. Without these standards, anyone could claim to be a professional without any verification or accountability, which undermines the credibility and trustworthiness of the profession.

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25. STEVEN F. AUSTIN EMPLOYED A MALITIA GROUP CALLED THE TEXAS RANGERS TO PROTECT SETTLERS FROM WHAT?

Explanation

Steven F. Austin employed a militia group called the Texas Rangers to protect settlers from Indian and bandit raids. This means that the Texas Rangers were tasked with defending the settlers against attacks from both Native American tribes and criminal gangs. This was an important measure taken by Austin to ensure the safety and security of the settlers in the region.

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26. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC OF PROFESSIONALISM?

Explanation

The characteristic of professionalism includes all the options mentioned, which are service to others, continuing education and lifelong learning, and assessment of client needs. Professionals are expected to provide service to others, whether it is their clients, customers, or colleagues. They are also expected to continuously educate themselves and stay updated with the latest knowledge and skills in their field. Additionally, professionals should be able to assess the needs of their clients and provide appropriate solutions or support. Therefore, all the options mentioned are characteristics of professionalism.

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27. ______ is the body of law concerned with the remedy of private rights.

Explanation

Civil law is the body of law concerned with the remedy of private rights. It encompasses laws that deal with disputes between individuals or organizations, such as contracts, property rights, and family law. Unlike criminal law, which focuses on offenses against society as a whole, civil law is primarily concerned with resolving conflicts between individuals and providing compensation or remedies for any harm or loss suffered. The model Penal Code and the law of nature are not specifically related to the remedy of private rights, making them incorrect answers.

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28. Which of the following prescribes the punishment to be imposed for criminal conduct?

Explanation

Criminal law prescribes the punishment to be imposed for criminal conduct. It is a branch of law that deals with crimes and their punishment. It sets out the rules and regulations that define criminal offenses, the procedures for investigating and prosecuting these offenses, and the penalties that can be imposed on individuals convicted of committing crimes. Criminal law is different from civil law, which deals with disputes between individuals or organizations, and tort law, which deals with civil wrongs and provides remedies for victims. The Texas Rules of Court are procedural rules that govern the practice and procedures in Texas courts, but they do not prescribe punishment for criminal conduct.

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29. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CONSEQUENCE OF INEFFECTIVE PUBLIC SERVICE?

Explanation

Ineffective public service can lead to a lack of trust and respect from the public. When citizens feel that the government is not effectively providing the services they need, it can result in increased complaints from the citizens. Additionally, if public service is ineffective, it may lead to a reduced budgetary support for personnel, salaries, and equipment as the government may be less inclined to allocate resources to a service that is not functioning properly. Therefore, all of the above consequences can be a result of ineffective public service.

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30. HOW MANY OFFICERS HAVE BEEN KILLED IN THE LINE OF DUTY WITH THE HOUSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT?

Explanation

The correct answer is 112. This suggests that a total of 112 officers have been killed in the line of duty with the Houston Police Department.

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31. A RESPONSE TO A PERCIEVED THREAT, DEMAND, OR CHANGE IS WHAT?

Explanation

Stress is a natural response to a perceived threat, demand, or change. It can manifest in various ways, both physically and emotionally. When faced with a challenging situation or change, the body releases stress hormones that prepare it for a fight-or-flight response. This physiological reaction can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Therefore, stress is the most appropriate answer as it accurately describes the body's response to a perceived threat, demand, or change.

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32. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF AN INTERNAL TRIGGER?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ALL THE ABOVE." All the options listed (lifestyle choices, mind traps, negative self-talk, and personality traits) can act as internal triggers. Internal triggers are thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that arise from within an individual and can influence their actions or reactions. Lifestyle choices, such as engaging in unhealthy habits, can trigger certain behaviors. Mind traps, like negative thinking patterns or cognitive distortions, can also act as internal triggers. Negative self-talk, which involves criticizing or belittling oneself, can have a significant impact on behavior. Lastly, personality traits, such as impulsivity or perfectionism, can also serve as internal triggers for certain actions or reactions.

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33. UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: HANDGUNS- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS.

Explanation

The minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for handguns is 50 rounds. This means that individuals who are required to undergo this course must shoot a minimum of 50 rounds with their handguns to meet the proficiency requirements.

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34. DISTRESS IS POSITIVE STRESS THAT IS OFTEN FELT WHEN WE ARE CONFRONTED WITH DEMANDING AND CHALLENGING SITUATIONS WHICH WE ARE CAPABLE OF HANDLING.

Explanation

The statement is false because distress is actually negative stress that is experienced when we are faced with overwhelming and unmanageable situations. It is the opposite of eustress, which is positive stress that motivates and energizes us. Distress can have detrimental effects on our physical and mental well-being, whereas eustress can enhance our performance and productivity.

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35. Which of the following is not protected by the 6th Amendment to the Constitution?

Explanation

The 6th Amendment to the Constitution protects various rights of individuals in criminal prosecutions. It guarantees the right to a speedy and public trial, the right to confront one's accusers through cross-examination, and the right to counsel. However, double jeopardy refers to the protection against being tried twice for the same offense, which is actually protected by the 5th Amendment, not the 6th Amendment. Therefore, double jeopardy is not protected by the 6th Amendment.

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36. WHAT IS THE PRIMARY MEANS OF RESOLVING INCIDENTS WITH THE TRADITIONAL POLICE SERVICE MODEL?

Explanation

The primary means of resolving incidents with the traditional police service model is through the criminal justice system. This system involves the investigation, apprehension, prosecution, and punishment of individuals who have committed crimes. It includes various components such as law enforcement agencies, courts, and correctional facilities. The criminal justice system aims to ensure that justice is served by holding offenders accountable for their actions and providing a fair and impartial process for both victims and accused individuals.

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37. EACH AGENCY OR ENTITY THAT EMPLOYS AT LEAST ONE PEACE OFFICER SHALL REQUIRE EACH PEACE OFFICER THAT IT EMPLOYS TO SUCCESSFULLY COMPLETE THE CURRENT FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS AT LEAST:

Explanation

The correct answer is "ONCE EACH YEAR" because the sentence states that each agency or entity that employs at least one peace officer must require their officers to successfully complete the current firearms proficiency requirements at least once each year. This means that the officers are obligated to complete the requirements annually. The other options, such as "once every training cycle," "once every training unit," and "once every training period," are not specifically mentioned in the sentence and do not accurately reflect the frequency stated.

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38. WHAT IS QUALITY POLICE CUSTOMER SERVICE?

Explanation

The correct answer is ALL THE ABOVE. Quality police customer service involves protecting the public in an effective way, ensuring their safety and security. It also involves doing so in an efficient manner, utilizing resources effectively to provide prompt and timely assistance. Additionally, quality police customer service requires protecting the public in a positive and friendly way, fostering a positive relationship between the police and the community they serve. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the concept of quality police customer service.

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39. PHYSICAL FITNESS CAN BE DIVIDED INTO TWO CATEGORIES: HEALTH RELATED AND ________ RELATED.

Explanation

Physical fitness can be divided into two categories: health-related and motor-related. Health-related fitness refers to the aspects of fitness that are directly related to overall health and well-being, such as cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, and flexibility. On the other hand, motor-related fitness refers to the aspects of fitness that are related to the ability to perform specific motor skills and movements, such as agility, coordination, and speed. Therefore, the correct answer is "MOTOR" as it completes the division of physical fitness into these two categories.

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40. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONSEQUENCE OF EFFECTIVE PUBLICE SERICE?

Explanation

Effective public service can have many positive outcomes, such as support for budgetary requests, reduction in citizen complaints, and increased trust and respect. However, the reduction of crime is not directly linked to effective public service. While effective public service can contribute to creating a safer environment through various initiatives and policies, the primary responsibility for crime reduction lies with law enforcement agencies and the criminal justice system. Effective public service can support crime reduction indirectly by addressing social and economic issues that contribute to criminal behavior, but it is not the sole determinant of crime rates.

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41. MANAGED STRESS DOES NOT CREATE CHALLENGES OR OPPORTUNITY.

Explanation

This statement is false because managed stress can actually create challenges and opportunities. When stress is managed effectively, it can motivate individuals to overcome obstacles and find innovative solutions to problems. It can also lead to personal growth, resilience, and the development of new skills. Therefore, managed stress can provide individuals with the opportunity to learn and grow, as well as create new possibilities for success.

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42. STRESS CAN NEVER BE SEEN AS SOMETHING POSSITIVE.

Explanation

The statement suggests that stress can never be seen as something positive. However, this is not entirely true. While chronic stress can have negative effects on physical and mental health, acute stress can actually be beneficial in certain situations. It can enhance performance, increase focus and motivation, and help individuals adapt to challenging situations. Therefore, stress can sometimes be seen as a positive force depending on the context and duration.

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43. The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees:

Explanation

The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees due process of law. This means that individuals have the right to fair treatment and legal protection in any legal proceedings. It ensures that no one can be deprived of life, liberty, or property without following the proper legal procedures. Due process requires that individuals have notice of any charges against them, the opportunity to present a defense, and a fair and impartial hearing. This amendment is crucial in protecting the rights of individuals and ensuring that the legal system operates fairly and justly.

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44. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC OF POLICE SUBCULTURE?

Explanation

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45. IN WHICH TIME PERIOD DID POLICE PATROL BECOME INCIDENT DRIVEN?

Explanation

During the time period of the 1950's to the 1970's, police patrol became incident driven. This means that instead of patrolling proactively and preventing crime, police officers started responding primarily to incidents and calls for service. This shift in policing approach was influenced by factors such as the increasing urbanization, rise in crime rates, and the development of emergency communication systems. The focus on incident-driven patrol allowed for a more reactive approach to law enforcement, with officers prioritizing immediate response to reported incidents rather than actively patrolling and preventing crime.

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46. PHYSICAL COURAGE IS MORE DIFFICULT THAN MORAL COURAGE BECAUSE IT CAN BE UNPOPULAR.

Explanation

The statement suggests that physical courage is more difficult than moral courage because it can be unpopular. However, this is not necessarily true. Both physical and moral courage can be challenging in their own ways. Physical courage requires facing physical danger or harm, which can be terrifying and difficult to overcome. On the other hand, moral courage involves standing up for one's beliefs or values, even if it goes against popular opinion. Both types of courage require strength and determination, and neither can be deemed inherently more difficult than the other. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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47. Values: (as discussed in professionalism/ethics)

Explanation

Values are what influence our behavior. Values are the beliefs and principles that guide our actions and decisions. They shape our behavior by providing a framework for determining what is right or wrong, important or unimportant. Values can vary from person to person and can be influenced by factors such as culture, upbringing, and personal experiences. They are not easily defined as they can be subjective and open to interpretation. Additionally, values can change over time as individuals grow and develop.

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48. WHICH TIME PERIOD WAS THERE AN INCREASED INTEREST IN RESEARCH?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1980's - Present. This time period saw an increased interest in research due to various factors. The advancements in technology and access to information in the 1980s made it easier for researchers to conduct studies and share their findings. Additionally, the growing importance of evidence-based practices and the need for scientific evidence to support decision-making in various fields further fueled the interest in research. This trend has continued to the present day, with research playing a crucial role in addressing complex societal challenges and driving innovation.

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49. The purpose of ______ is preventing harm to society.

Explanation

Criminal law is the correct answer because its purpose is to prevent harm to society. Criminal law deals with offenses against the state or society as a whole, and its main objective is to maintain order, deter crime, and protect the public by punishing individuals who commit crimes. It focuses on acts that are considered harmful or dangerous to society, such as murder, theft, and assault, and aims to ensure justice and maintain social stability.

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50. THE THREE METHODS DESIGNED TO ENHANCE PUBLIC SERVICE ARE: VEHICULAR, ON FOOT, MOUNTED AND BIKE PATROL.

Explanation

The statement is true because the question is asking about the methods designed to enhance public service, and the given answer states that there are three methods: vehicular, on foot, and mounted and bike patrol. This implies that these methods have been specifically developed to improve public service.

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51. A DEFENDANT MAY WITHDRAW A WAIVER OF HIS RIGHT TO COUNSEL AT ANY TIME.

Explanation

The statement is true because a defendant has the right to counsel, as guaranteed by the Sixth Amendment of the United States Constitution. This right includes the ability to waive counsel if the defendant chooses to represent themselves. However, the defendant also has the right to change their mind and withdraw the waiver at any time during the legal proceedings. This ensures that the defendant has the opportunity to have legal representation if they feel it is necessary or if they are unable to effectively represent themselves.

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52. The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution provides which of the following protections:

Explanation

The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution provides protection against double jeopardy, which means that a person cannot be tried for the same crime twice. This ensures that individuals are not subjected to multiple prosecutions for the same offense, protecting them from harassment and ensuring fairness in the legal system.

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53. A DEFENDANT IN A CRIMINAL MATTER IS NOT ENTITLED TO BE REPRESENTED BY COUNSEL IN AN ADVERSARIAL JUDICIAL PROCEDDING.

Explanation

The statement is false because in a criminal matter, a defendant is entitled to be represented by counsel in an adversarial judicial proceeding. This right is protected by the Sixth Amendment of the United States Constitution, which guarantees the right to counsel. The presence of legal representation ensures that the defendant has a fair trial and is able to adequately defend themselves against the charges brought against them.

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54. STOP AND TALK, FOOT PATROL CONVERSATIONS, CRIME PREVENTION TIPS, AND CRIME STOPPERS ARE ALL PART OF

Explanation

The activities mentioned, such as stop and talk, foot patrol conversations, crime prevention tips, and Crime Stoppers, all contribute to community involvement and seeking citizens' input. These activities aim to engage with the community, encourage dialogue, and gather information from citizens to better understand their concerns and perspectives. By actively involving the community in crime prevention efforts, law enforcement agencies can build trust, establish partnerships, and enhance their understanding of local issues, ultimately leading to a safer and more responsive community.

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55. Which of the following statements is true?

Explanation

Peer pressure can work for or against ethical behavior because individuals are often influenced by the opinions and actions of their peers. In some cases, peer pressure can lead individuals to engage in unethical behavior in order to fit in or gain acceptance. On the other hand, peer pressure can also work in favor of ethical behavior by encouraging individuals to make morally right choices and resist unethical actions. Therefore, peer pressure has the potential to impact ethical behavior in both positive and negative ways.

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56. IT IS THE DUTY OF THE ____________ TO SEEK JUSTICE.

Explanation

The correct answer is ADA. ADA stands for Assistant District Attorney, who is responsible for seeking justice in a legal case. They represent the government and work to prove the guilt of the defendant. The jury is a group of individuals who decide the verdict based on the evidence presented. The defendant is the person accused of a crime, and the witness provides testimony or evidence in the case.

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57. DISTRICT COURTS HAVE JURISDICTION TO HEAR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING TYPRES OF CASES, EXCEPT:

Explanation

District courts have jurisdiction to hear all types of cases except misdemeanors involving a public servant as the defendant. This means that district courts can hear cases related to felonies, misdemeanors involving official misconduct, and capital offenses where the proof is evident. However, they do not have jurisdiction over misdemeanors specifically involving a public servant as the defendant.

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58. SIR ROBERT PEEL WAS MOST CONCERN ABOUT WHAT?

Explanation

Sir Robert Peel, as the founder of the modern police force in the UK, was most concerned about the backgrounds of the individuals who would become police officers. He believed that the police force should be composed of individuals with good moral character and integrity. Peel emphasized the importance of recruiting officers who were trustworthy and had a strong sense of duty towards public service. By focusing on the backgrounds of potential police officers, Peel aimed to ensure that the police force would maintain high standards and effectively serve and protect the community.

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59. The _________ was the nighttime system of policing .

Explanation

The word "watch" refers to a group of citizens who would patrol the streets during the night to maintain security and prevent crimes. This system of nighttime policing was common in many cities during earlier times. The other options, such as ward, city marshal, and sheriff, do not specifically refer to nighttime policing systems.

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60. Article 3 of the Constitution is important because:

Explanation

Article 3 of the Constitution is important because it creates the Supreme Court of the U.S. and defines its jurisdiction. This means that Article 3 establishes the highest court in the country and outlines the types of cases that the court has the authority to hear. The Supreme Court plays a crucial role in interpreting the Constitution and ensuring that laws are applied fairly and consistently. Its decisions have a significant impact on the legal system and can shape the direction of the country.

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61. THE BEST WAY TO PREVENT UNETHICAL CONDUCT IS TO ________ AND ELIMINATE UNETHICAL INDIVIDUALS WHO ENGAGE IN DELIBERATE UNPROFESSIONAL ACTS.

Explanation

Exposing unethical conduct is the best way to prevent it because it brings the actions to light and makes them known to others. By exposing unethical individuals who engage in deliberate unprofessional acts, their behavior is brought into public view, which can lead to consequences such as loss of reputation, legal actions, or disciplinary measures. This exposure acts as a deterrent for others who may be tempted to engage in similar unethical behavior, creating a culture of accountability and professionalism.

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62. THE MINIMUM PASSING PERCENTAGE SHALL BE ___ FOR EACH FIREARM UNDER THE FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS.

Explanation

The minimum passing percentage for each firearm under the firearms proficiency requirements is 70. This means that in order to pass the proficiency requirements for a specific firearm, a person must achieve a score of at least 70%.

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63. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT NEEDED IN ORDER TO ATTEMPT AN EXAMINATION? AN EXAMINEE MUST:

Explanation

To attempt an examination, an examinee must present a PID, report on time, and present a valid photo ID. Therefore, all of the above options are needed in order to attempt an examination.

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64. __________  __________ IS WHEN WE OVERESTIMATE THE COST OF DOING THINGS RIGHT AND WE UNDERESTIMATE THE COST OF DOING THINGS WRONG.

Explanation

Faulty reasoning is when we overestimate the cost of doing things right and underestimate the cost of doing things wrong. This refers to a logical error or mistake in the thought process, where the individual's reasoning is flawed or incorrect. It involves making incorrect assumptions, drawing invalid conclusions, or using faulty logic to support a particular argument or belief. In this context, faulty reasoning leads to an inaccurate assessment of the costs associated with different actions or decisions.

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65. Which of the following statements is not true about the professional model of law enforcement?

Explanation

The given answer states that all of the statements about the professional model of law enforcement are true. This means that the professional model allows law enforcement to better serve the community, it makes problem solving by law enforcement more effective, it improves the financial rewards for law enforcement, and it promotes ethical conduct by the law enforcement community.

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66. UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: SHOTGUNS- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT A RANGE OF AT LEAST 15 YARDS.

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 because the minimum requirement for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for shotguns is a minimum of 5 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 15 yards.

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67. HOW DO WE MAKE ETHICAL CHOICES?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ALL THE ABOVE." Making ethical choices involves limiting extra jobs, having another life, and pursuing excellence. By limiting extra jobs, individuals can prioritize their commitments and ensure that they have enough time and energy to make ethical decisions. Having another life refers to maintaining a work-life balance, which allows individuals to consider their personal values and make ethical choices accordingly. Pursuit of excellence implies striving to do the right thing and making ethical decisions based on high standards and moral principles. Therefore, all these factors contribute to making ethical choices.

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68. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A RIGHT THAT AN ACCUSED HAS?

Explanation

The given answer states that all of the options listed are rights of an accused. This means that an accused has the right to a speedy trial by an impartial jury, the right to have a copy of the trial proceedings, the right to not be compelled to give evidence against oneself, and the right to demand the nature and cause of the accusation against them.

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69. One of the advantages of the professional model for law enforcement is:

Explanation

The professional model for law enforcement brings the advantage of stronger community support and respect. This is because law enforcement professionals who are well-trained and educated are more likely to gain trust and cooperation from the community they serve. As a result, they are able to effectively carry out their duties and maintain law and order. This support and respect from the community can lead to better relationships, increased cooperation in crime prevention, and ultimately a safer environment for everyone.

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70. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GOAL OF PUBLIC SERVICE?

Explanation

The goal of public service is to minimize culture/emotional barriers separating peace officers and the public, to create an officer/citizen relationship, and to create an empathetic response to citizen concerns/needs. However, the goal of public service is not specifically to suppress crime and provide protection to the public. While these are important aspects of public service, they are not the primary goals. Public service aims to foster positive relationships and understanding between law enforcement and the community they serve, as well as addressing the concerns and needs of citizens.

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71. A Municipal Court is a function of the ______ component of the Criminal Justice System.

Explanation

A Municipal Court is a function of the courts component of the Criminal Justice System because it is a local court that handles cases involving violations of city ordinances and minor criminal offenses. Municipal courts have jurisdiction over cases such as traffic violations, parking tickets, and misdemeanor offenses. They are responsible for adjudicating these cases and ensuring that justice is served at the local level. This makes the courts component of the Criminal Justice System the appropriate category for Municipal Courts.

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72. THE PRIME ____________ OF THE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM IS THE PUBLIC SERVED

Explanation

The word "beneficiary" is the correct answer because it accurately describes the relationship between the criminal justice system and the public. The public is the main recipient or beneficiary of the services provided by the criminal justice system. The system exists to serve and protect the public, ensuring justice and maintaining law and order in society. Therefore, the term "beneficiary" best reflects the role of the public in relation to the criminal justice system.

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73. Which amendment to the constitution gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal proceedings?

Explanation

The Sixth Amendment to the Constitution gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal proceedings. This amendment ensures that individuals accused of a crime have the right to legal representation, which is a fundamental principle of the American justice system. This right is crucial in safeguarding the accused's fair trial and protecting them from potential injustices or violations of their rights.

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74. THE SIX PILLARS OF CHARACTER ADD UP TO ____________.

Explanation

The six pillars of character, including justice, integrity, morals, and dignity, all contribute to the overall concept of integrity. Integrity encompasses honesty, moral principles, and adherence to ethical values. It involves consistently acting in a trustworthy and honorable manner, regardless of the circumstances. By embodying justice, morals, and dignity, individuals demonstrate their commitment to integrity and upholding a strong sense of character.

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75. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A GOAL OF THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE?

Explanation

The Code of Criminal Procedure does not have the specific goal of deterrence, rehabilitation, or punishment. Instead, its main purpose is to establish the rules and procedures that govern the criminal justice system, ensuring fairness, due process, and protection of individual rights. It outlines the steps and guidelines for investigating, prosecuting, and adjudicating criminal cases, with the aim of maintaining the integrity of the legal process and safeguarding the rights of all parties involved.

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76. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN INTERNAL TO AGENCY STRESSOR?

Explanation

Public attitude is not an internal agency stressor because it is an external factor that is beyond the control of the agency. Internal agency stressors typically refer to factors that originate within the agency itself, such as lack of recognition, training, and policies. While public attitude may impact the agency and its employees, it is not something that the agency can directly control or change, making it an external stressor.

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77. Except as provided by Sections 1701.310 and 1701.311, a person may not appoint a person to serve as an officer, county jailer, or public security officer unless the person appointed holds _________________

Explanation

The correct answer is "an appropriate license issued by the commission" because according to the given information, a person cannot be appointed to serve as an officer, county jailer, or public security officer unless they hold an appropriate license issued by the commission. This means that having the necessary license is a requirement for holding these positions.

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78. WHEN THE MAGISTRATE SITS FOR THE PURPOSE OF INQUIRING INTO A CRIMINAL ACCUSATION AGAINST ANY PERSON, THIS IS CALLED AN

Explanation

When the magistrate sits for the purpose of inquiring into a criminal accusation against any person, it is called an examining court. This is a preliminary stage in the criminal justice process where the magistrate reviews the evidence presented and determines if there is enough probable cause to proceed with a trial. The examining court is responsible for ensuring that the accused's rights are protected and that the case meets the necessary legal requirements before proceeding further.

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79. AN OFFICER ACTS ETHICALLY WHEN HE/SHE ASSISTS THE PUBLIC TO UNDERSTAND HOW THEY CAN HELP OFFICERS TO ACHIEVE __________ AND ETHICAL BEHAVIOR.

Explanation

An officer acts ethically when he/she assists the public to understand how they can help officers to achieve their objective and ethical behavior. This means that the officer is promoting transparency, accountability, and clear goals in their interactions with the public. By educating the public on how they can support the officers in their objectives, the officer is fostering a sense of partnership and trust between law enforcement and the community. This aligns with ethical principles of fairness, honesty, and integrity.

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80. One of the major differences between the federal Bill of Rights and the State of Texas Bill of Rights is:

Explanation

The major difference between the federal Bill of Rights and the State of Texas Bill of Rights is that Texas has a section on the commitment of persons of unsound mind. This means that the State of Texas has specific provisions and procedures in place for dealing with individuals who are deemed mentally unfit or unstable. This is not found in the federal Bill of Rights, which does not have a similar provision.

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81. WHAT ARE THE SIX PILLARS OF CHARACTER?

Explanation

The correct answer is TRUSTWORTHINESS, RESPECT, RESPONSIBILITY, FAIRNESS, CARING, CITIZENSHIP. These six pillars of character are important values that contribute to a person's moral and ethical behavior. Trustworthiness refers to being honest and reliable, while respect involves treating others with dignity and consideration. Responsibility entails taking ownership of one's actions and obligations. Fairness means treating everyone impartially and justly. Caring involves showing compassion and empathy towards others. Lastly, citizenship refers to being an active and responsible member of society. These pillars serve as a guide for individuals to lead a virtuous and principled life.

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82. UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: PRECISION RIFLES- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT A RANGE OF AT LEAST 100 YARDS.

Explanation

The correct answer is 20. Firearms proficiency requirements state that a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition should be fired at a range of at least 100 yards for precision rifles. This ensures that individuals are adequately trained and proficient in handling and shooting firearms at longer distances.

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83. INDIVIDUALS APPOINTED AS PEACE OFFICERS SHALL COMPLETE AT LEAST ___ HOURS OF CONTINUING EDUCATION TRAINING AND MUST COMPLETE A TRAINING AND EDUCATION PROGRAM THAT COVERS RECENT CHANGES TO THE LAWS OF THIS STATE AND THE U.S. PERTAINING TO PEACE OFFICERS EVERY ___ MONTH UNIT OF A TRAINING CYCLE.

Explanation

Peace officers are required to complete at least 40 hours of continuing education training. Additionally, they must complete a training and education program covering recent changes to the laws of the state and the U.S. pertaining to peace officers every 24-month unit of a training cycle.

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84. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A DISADVANTAGE OF PROFESSIONAL POLICING?

Explanation

The question asks for a disadvantage of professional policing, and the correct answer is "ethical conduct." This means that ethical conduct is not a disadvantage of professional policing. It suggests that professional policing does not suffer from any negative consequences or drawbacks related to ethical behavior or conduct.

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85. Under 217.1. Minimum Standards for Initial Licensure a person must ______________.

Explanation

A person must show no trace of drug dependency or illegal drug use after a physical examination, blood test, or other medical test in order to meet the minimum standards for initial licensure. This requirement ensures that the person is not dependent on drugs or engaging in illegal drug use, which could potentially impair their ability to operate a motor vehicle safely.

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86. UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: PATROL RIFLES- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT A RANGE OF AT LEAST 50 YARDS.

Explanation

The minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for patrol rifles is a minimum of 30 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 50 yards. This means that officers must demonstrate their proficiency by firing at least 30 rounds of duty ammunition at a target located 50 yards away. This requirement ensures that officers are adequately trained and proficient in using their patrol rifles at a reasonable distance.

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87. An example of an unreasonable seizure as defined in the 4th Amendment to the Constitution would be the case of:

Explanation

In the case of Tennessee vs. Garner, the court ruled that it was an unreasonable seizure under the 4th Amendment for a police officer to use deadly force against a fleeing suspect who posed no immediate threat to the officer or others. This case set the precedent that the use of deadly force in apprehending a suspect must be justified based on the threat posed by the suspect. Therefore, it can be considered an example of an unreasonable seizure as defined in the 4th Amendment.

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88. UNDER RIGHT TO REPRESENTATION BY COUNSEL; APPOINTED COUNSEL IS ENTITLED TO ___ DAYS TO PREPARE FOR A PROCEEDING BUT MAY WAIVE IT WITH THE DEFENDANT'S CONSENT IN WRITING OR ON THE RECORD IN OPEN COURT.

Explanation

Appointed counsel is entitled to 10 days to prepare for a proceeding but may waive it with the defendant's consent in writing or on the record in open court.

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89. __________________ involves the expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices.

Explanation

Objectivity refers to the practice of presenting information or making judgments based on facts and evidence, without being influenced by personal feelings, biases, or prejudices. It involves maintaining a neutral and unbiased perspective, ensuring that the information or analysis is free from distortion or subjective interpretations. Objectivity is crucial in various fields, such as journalism, research, and decision-making, as it ensures fairness, accuracy, and reliability in the presentation of information or the pursuit of truth.

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90. WHO'S DUTIES IS IT TO PRESERVE THE PEACE WITHIN HIS JURISDICTION BY THE USE OF ALL LAWFUL MEANS AND TO CAUSE THE ARREST OF OFFENDERS BY THE USE OF LAWFUL MEANS IN ORDER THAT THEY MAY BE BROUGHT TO PUNISHMENT?

Explanation

A magistrate is responsible for preserving the peace within his jurisdiction by using all lawful means and causing the arrest of offenders. They have the authority to enforce the law and ensure that offenders are brought to justice. This includes maintaining order, investigating crimes, and initiating legal proceedings against individuals who violate the law. The magistrate plays a crucial role in upholding law and order within their jurisdiction.

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91. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ADVANTAGE OF PROFESSIONAL POLICING?

Explanation

The advantage of professional policing includes both financial rewards and better service to the public or clients. Higher salaries are a form of financial reward that can attract and retain qualified individuals in the profession. By providing adequate compensation, it incentivizes officers to perform their duties effectively and professionally. Additionally, professional policing ensures that the public or clients are better served by trained and skilled law enforcement officers who uphold the principles of fairness, justice, and public safety. This leads to a higher level of trust and confidence in the police force, ultimately resulting in a safer and more secure community.

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92. AN EXAMINATION SCORE EXPIRES ___ YEAR(S) FROM THE DATE OF ITS ENTRY INTO COMMISSION RECORDS.

Explanation

An examination score expires two years from the date of its entry into commission records. This means that after two years, the score will no longer be considered valid or applicable.

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93. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTS AS A CLEARING HOUSE AND FUNDRAISER FOR A MULTIUDE OF SOCIAL SERVICE ORGANIZATION?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ALL THE ABOVE". All three organizations mentioned - United Way, Star of Hope, and Salvation Army - function as clearing houses and fundraisers for a multitude of social service organizations. They collect donations and distribute funds to various charities and initiatives that provide social services to those in need.

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94. UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE ANNUAL FIREAMRS PROFICIENCY COURSE OF FIRE SHALL BE: FULLY AUTOMATIC WEAPONS- A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS OF DUTY AMMUNITION FIRED AT RANGES FROM SEVEN TO AT LEAST 10 YARDS.

Explanation

The minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for fully automatic weapons is a minimum of 30 rounds of duty ammunition fired at ranges from seven to at least 10 yards.

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95. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REQUIREMENT UNDER MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR INITIAL LICENSURE?

Explanation

The correct answer is "18 years of age and 48 college hours." This is not a requirement under the minimum standards for initial licensure. The other options, such as being 21 years of age, having an associate's degree, or receiving an honorable discharge after at least two years of active service, are all mentioned as requirements for initial licensure.

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96. WHICH OF THE FOLLING IS TRUE? THE EXAMINEE MUST REPEAT THE BASIC LICENSING COURSE FOR THE LICENSE SOUGHT IF:

Explanation

If the examinee fails all three attempts to pass the licensing exam or is dismissed from an exam for cheating, they must repeat the basic licensing course for the license sought. This means that both options A and C are true.

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97. Which of the following statements is not true about the concept of professionalism?

Explanation

The statement "there is little variance between individuals as to their compatibility with the characteristics of professionalism" is not true about the concept of professionalism. This is because individuals can have varying levels of compatibility with the characteristics of professionalism based on their personal traits, values, and behaviors.

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98. EACH AGENCY THAT APPOINTS PEACE OFFICERS SHALL PROVIDE EACH PEACE OFFICER WITH CONTINUING EDUCATION PROGRAM AT LEAST ONCE EVERY ___ MONTH TRAINING CYCLE.

Explanation

The correct answer is 48. This means that each agency that appoints peace officers is required to provide them with a continuing education program at least once every 48-month training cycle. This ensures that peace officers receive regular training and stay updated on the latest practices and procedures in law enforcement.

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99. The ___________________ is performed by being objective and ethical in personal behavior and in functioning as a representatives of the criminal justice system.

Explanation

The correct answer is "ethical role". This refers to the responsibility of individuals in the criminal justice system to behave in an objective and ethical manner. They are expected to uphold moral principles and act in a way that is fair, just, and in accordance with the law. This role encompasses the personal behavior of individuals as well as their representation of the criminal justice system as a whole.

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100. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GOAL OF THE CCP?

Explanation

The goal of the CCP is to adopt measures for preventing the commission of crime, to exclude the offender from all hope of escape, and to insure a trial with as little delay as is consistent with the ends of justice. However, the goal of insuring a fair and partial trial is not a goal of the CCP.

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WHICH OF THE FOLLING HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH POLICE OFFICERS AND A...
There is only one crime defined in the U.S. Constitution. What is it?
An example of the 5th Amendment right to protection against...
ALL PRISONERS SHALL  BE BAILABLE UNLESS FOR ___________...
PHYSICAL FITNESS HAS A SIGNIFICANT IMPACT ON WHAT?
WHAT YEAR WAS HPD FOUNDED?
THE IMPORTANCE OF INVOLVING THE COMMUNITY IN ALL POLICE ACTIVITIES,...
WHERE DID OUR POLICE METHOD ORIGINATE FROM?
UNMANAGED STRESS CAN BE DETRIMENTAL TO PHYSICAL AND PSYCHOLOGICAL...
BUILDING OF PRIDE WITHIN THE AGENCY AND THE COMMUNITY IS ONE REWARD OF...
An order from the court directing the person responsible for holding...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF UNETHICAL BEHAVIOR?
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WAY TO DEAL WITH STRESS VULNERABILITY?
AS AN OCCUPATIONAL GROUP, LAW ENFORECEMENT PROFESSIONALS HAVE A ______...
IF KEITLER IS TRIED FOR THE MURDER OF FALK IN COUNTY COURT AT LAW #10...
THE BEST WAY TO UNDERSTAND THE CONCEPT OF PROFESSIONALISM IS TO THINK...
AN INDIVIDUAL WHO EITHER IS A LICENSEE OR MEETS THE REQUIRMENTS ...
CONCERNING THE POLICE ORGANIZATION ROLE IN OUR SOCIETY, WHO ARE OUR...
WHAT IS NOT REQUIRED TO REPORT TO THE COMMISSION?
To be eligible to sit for an examination, an examinee must...
The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A COMMON SYMPTOM WE DISCUSSED IN CLASS?
THE CONDITION OF THE BODY WHICH ENABLES AN INDIVIDUAL TO USE HIS/HER...
Which of the following is not a characteristic of professionalism?
STEVEN F. AUSTIN EMPLOYED A MALITIA GROUP CALLED THE TEXAS RANGERS TO...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC OF PROFESSIONALISM?
______ is the body of law concerned with the remedy of private rights.
Which of the following prescribes the punishment to be imposed for...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CONSEQUENCE OF INEFFECTIVE PUBLIC SERVICE?
HOW MANY OFFICERS HAVE BEEN KILLED IN THE LINE OF DUTY WITH THE...
A RESPONSE TO A PERCIEVED THREAT, DEMAND, OR CHANGE IS WHAT?
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF AN INTERNAL TRIGGER?
UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE...
DISTRESS IS POSITIVE STRESS THAT IS OFTEN FELT WHEN WE ARE CONFRONTED...
Which of the following is not protected by the 6th Amendment to the...
WHAT IS THE PRIMARY MEANS OF RESOLVING INCIDENTS WITH THE TRADITIONAL...
EACH AGENCY OR ENTITY THAT EMPLOYS AT LEAST ONE PEACE OFFICER SHALL...
WHAT IS QUALITY POLICE CUSTOMER SERVICE?
PHYSICAL FITNESS CAN BE DIVIDED INTO TWO CATEGORIES: HEALTH RELATED...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONSEQUENCE OF EFFECTIVE PUBLICE...
MANAGED STRESS DOES NOT CREATE CHALLENGES OR OPPORTUNITY.
STRESS CAN NEVER BE SEEN AS SOMETHING POSSITIVE.
The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees:
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC OF POLICE SUBCULTURE?
IN WHICH TIME PERIOD DID POLICE PATROL BECOME INCIDENT DRIVEN?
PHYSICAL COURAGE IS MORE DIFFICULT THAN MORAL COURAGE BECAUSE IT CAN...
Values: (as discussed in professionalism/ethics)
WHICH TIME PERIOD WAS THERE AN INCREASED INTEREST IN RESEARCH?
The purpose of ______ is preventing harm to society.
THE THREE METHODS DESIGNED TO ENHANCE PUBLIC SERVICE ARE: VEHICULAR,...
A DEFENDANT MAY WITHDRAW A WAIVER OF HIS RIGHT TO COUNSEL AT ANY TIME.
The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution provides which of the...
A DEFENDANT IN A CRIMINAL MATTER IS NOT ENTITLED TO BE REPRESENTED BY...
STOP AND TALK, FOOT PATROL CONVERSATIONS, CRIME PREVENTION TIPS, AND...
Which of the following statements is true?
IT IS THE DUTY OF THE ____________ TO SEEK JUSTICE.
DISTRICT COURTS HAVE JURISDICTION TO HEAR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING TYPRES...
SIR ROBERT PEEL WAS MOST CONCERN ABOUT WHAT?
The _________ was the nighttime system of policing .
Article 3 of the Constitution is important because:
THE BEST WAY TO PREVENT UNETHICAL CONDUCT IS TO ________ AND ELIMINATE...
THE MINIMUM PASSING PERCENTAGE SHALL BE ___ FOR EACH FIREARM UNDER THE...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT NEEDED IN ORDER TO ATTEMPT AN...
__________  __________ IS WHEN WE OVERESTIMATE THE COST OF DOING...
Which of the following statements is not true about the professional...
UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE...
HOW DO WE MAKE ETHICAL CHOICES?
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A RIGHT THAT AN ACCUSED HAS?
One of the advantages of the professional model for law enforcement...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GOAL OF PUBLIC SERVICE?
A Municipal Court is a function of the ______ component of the...
THE PRIME ____________ OF THE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM IS THE PUBLIC...
Which amendment to the constitution gives citizens the right to an...
THE SIX PILLARS OF CHARACTER ADD UP TO ____________.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A GOAL OF THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE?
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN INTERNAL TO AGENCY STRESSOR?
Except as provided by Sections 1701.310 and 1701.311, a person may not...
WHEN THE MAGISTRATE SITS FOR THE PURPOSE OF INQUIRING INTO A CRIMINAL...
AN OFFICER ACTS ETHICALLY WHEN HE/SHE ASSISTS THE PUBLIC TO UNDERSTAND...
One of the major differences between the federal Bill of Rights and...
WHAT ARE THE SIX PILLARS OF CHARACTER?
UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE...
INDIVIDUALS APPOINTED AS PEACE OFFICERS SHALL COMPLETE AT LEAST ___...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A DISADVANTAGE OF PROFESSIONAL POLICING?
Under 217.1. Minimum Standards for Initial Licensure a person must...
UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE...
An example of an unreasonable seizure as defined in the 4th Amendment...
UNDER RIGHT TO REPRESENTATION BY COUNSEL; APPOINTED COUNSEL IS...
__________________ involves the expression or use of facts without...
WHO'S DUTIES IS IT TO PRESERVE THE PEACE WITHIN HIS JURISDICTION...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ADVANTAGE OF PROFESSIONAL POLICING?
AN EXAMINATION SCORE EXPIRES ___ YEAR(S) FROM THE DATE OF ITS ENTRY...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTS AS A CLEARING HOUSE AND FUNDRAISER FOR A...
UNDER FIREARMS PROFICIENCY REQUIRMENTS; THE MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR THE...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REQUIREMENT UNDER MINIMUM STANDARDS...
WHICH OF THE FOLLING IS TRUE? THE EXAMINEE MUST REPEAT THE BASIC...
Which of the following statements is not true about the concept of...
EACH AGENCY THAT APPOINTS PEACE OFFICERS SHALL PROVIDE EACH PEACE...
The ___________________ is performed by being objective and ethical in...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GOAL OF THE CCP?
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