Nursing Licensure Exam: Hardest Quiz!

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1. An example of subjective data is:

Explanation

Subjective data refers to information that is based on personal opinions, feelings, and experiences, and cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, the statement "My hand is painful" is an example of subjective data because it is based on the patient's personal perception of their own pain. It cannot be objectively measured or observed by someone else. In contrast, the size of wounds and lethargy can be objectively assessed and measured, making them examples of objective data.

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Nursing Licensure Exam: Hardest Quiz! - Quiz

Challenge your knowledge with the 'Nursing Licensure Exam: Hardest Quiz!', featuring critical questions on healthcare practices such as rubella vaccination, encephalitis treatment, rabies, and malaria diagnostics. Essential for aspiring nurses aiming to pass their licensure exams.

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2. Which of the following criteria allows Nurse Kris to perform home deliveries?

Explanation

Nurse Kris is able to perform home deliveries based on normal findings during assessment. This means that if the patient's assessment reveals no complications or abnormalities that would prevent a home delivery, Nurse Kris can proceed with the delivery in the patient's home. The other criteria listed, such as previous CS, diabetes history, and hypertensive history, do not specifically address the ability to perform home deliveries.

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3. Nurse Jolina must see to it that the written consent of mentally ill patients must be taken from:

Explanation

Nurse Jolina must ensure that the written consent of mentally ill patients is obtained from their parents or legal guardians. This is because mentally ill patients may not have the capacity to make informed decisions, and their parents or legal guardians are responsible for their well-being and decision-making. The consent of other individuals, such as the nurse, priest, or family lawyer, may not be sufficient or appropriate in this situation.

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4. The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines is:

Explanation

The University of Sto. Tomas is considered the first college of nursing established in the Philippines because it was the first institution to offer a formal nursing program in the country. It has a long-standing history and reputation in the field of nursing education, and has produced many successful and skilled nurses over the years.

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5. Myrna a pregnant client reports that her last menstrual cycle is July 11, her expected date of birth is

Explanation

The expected date of birth is calculated by adding 280 days (40 weeks) to the first day of the last menstrual cycle. In this case, if Myrna's last menstrual cycle was on July 11, adding 280 days would give us April 18 as the expected date of birth.

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6. Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has increased intracranial pressure?

Explanation

Increased urinary output is a patient outcome that indicates the effectiveness of Mannitol treatment for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream, reducing intracranial pressure. Increased urinary output signifies that the medication is successfully promoting diuresis and removing excess fluid from the body. This helps to decrease intracranial pressure and relieve symptoms associated with encephalitis.

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7. It is a flip over card usually kept in portable file at nursing station.

Explanation

A Kardex is a flip over card that is typically kept in a portable file at a nursing station. It is used to document and track important information related to a patient's care, such as their nursing care plan, medicine and treatment record, and TPR (temperature, pulse, and respiration) sheet. The Kardex serves as a quick reference for healthcare providers to have access to the most up-to-date information about the patient's care and treatment.

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8. Self governance, ability to choose or carry out decision without undue pressure or coercion from anyone:

Explanation

Autonomy refers to the ability to make decisions and take actions without being influenced or coerced by others. It is the concept of self-governance and the freedom to choose one's own path. Veracity refers to truthfulness, fidelity refers to loyalty, and beneficence refers to the act of doing good or promoting the well-being of others. While these concepts may be related to personal values and ethics, they do not specifically address the idea of self-governance and decision-making without external pressure. Therefore, autonomy is the correct answer in this context.

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9. What is the best position in palpating the breast?

Explanation

The best position for palpating the breast is supine. This position allows for easy access and examination of the breast while the patient is lying flat on their back. It provides a comfortable and stable position for both the patient and the healthcare provider, ensuring a thorough examination of the breast tissue. The supine position also allows for better visualization and palpation of any abnormalities or lumps in the breast.

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10. The Nurse is aware that the ability to enter into the life of another person and perceive his current feelings and their meaning is known:

Explanation

Empathy refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It involves entering into the life of another person and perceiving their current emotions and the meaning behind them. This understanding allows the nurse to connect with the patient on a deeper level and provide the appropriate support and care. Empathy is an essential quality for healthcare professionals as it helps in building trust, establishing rapport, and promoting effective communication with patients.

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11. What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old?

Explanation

At 3 weeks old, infants typically have a faster breathing rate compared to older children and adults. The normal breathing rate for a 3-week-old baby is around 40-60 breaths per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 breaths per minute.

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12. In caring for a dying client, you should perform which of the following activities

Explanation

In caring for a dying client, it is important to prioritize their comfort and well-being. Assisting the client towards a peaceful death involves providing emotional support, managing pain and symptoms, and ensuring a calm and peaceful environment. This may include providing spiritual support, facilitating communication with loved ones, and promoting dignity and respect. It is essential to respect the client's wishes and preferences, while also ensuring their physical and emotional needs are met during this difficult time.

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13. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?

Explanation

The correct answer is Klebs-loeffler bacillus. Klebs-loeffler bacillus is the bacteria that causes diphtheria. Diphtheria is a highly contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects the throat and nose. It is characterized by the formation of a thick grayish coating in the throat, which can lead to difficulty in breathing and swallowing. Klebs-loeffler bacillus produces a toxin that causes the symptoms of diphtheria.

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14. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the instruction well?

Explanation

The correct answer indicates that the client understood the instruction well because they stated that they will come back on Wednesday, at the same time, to read the result. This shows that they understood the importance of returning to have the test read within the specified timeframe.

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15. An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are connected:

Explanation

An organizational chart is a visual representation that depicts the hierarchical structure of an organization, illustrating how the members are connected. It shows the relationships between different positions, departments, and levels of authority within the organization. This chart helps to understand the reporting structure, communication channels, and overall organization of the members. It is commonly used for planning, decision-making, and understanding the roles and responsibilities of individuals within the organization.

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16. In assessing a client's incision 1 day after the surgery, Nurse Betty expect to see which of the following as signs of a local inflammatory response?

Explanation

Redness and warmth are signs of a local inflammatory response. Inflammation is the body's natural response to injury or infection. It is characterized by increased blood flow to the affected area, which causes redness and warmth. These symptoms indicate that the body is sending immune cells and other substances to the site of the incision to promote healing and fight off any potential infection. Greenish discharge and brown exudates at the incision edges may indicate infection, while pallor around sutures may suggest poor blood flow to the area.

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17. A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior?

Explanation

Motivation refers to the force within an individual that influences the strength and direction of their behavior. It is the internal drive or desire that compels individuals to take action and achieve their goals. Motivation can be influenced by various factors such as personal needs, desires, values, and external rewards. It plays a crucial role in determining the level of effort and persistence individuals put into their actions, ultimately affecting their behavior and outcomes.

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18. Which of the following may cause an increase in the cystitis symptoms?

Explanation

Coffee may cause an increase in cystitis symptoms because it is a diuretic, meaning it increases urine production. This can lead to increased frequency and urgency to urinate, which are common symptoms of cystitis. Additionally, coffee is acidic and can irritate the bladder, exacerbating inflammation and discomfort associated with cystitis.

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19. Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest and neck. What will be the priority nursing diagnosis?

Explanation

The priority nursing diagnosis for Tristan, a 4-year-old boy who has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest, and neck, would be "Ineffective airway clearance related to edema." This is because burns to the face, chest, and neck can cause swelling and edema, which can potentially obstruct the airway and compromise breathing. Ensuring effective airway clearance is crucial in order to maintain oxygenation and prevent respiratory distress.

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20. After delivery of a baby girl. Nurse Gina examines the umbilical cord and expects to find a cord to:

Explanation

After delivery, the nurse examines the umbilical cord to determine the presence of blood vessels. In a normal umbilical cord, there are usually two arteries and one vein. The two arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the baby to the placenta, while the one vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the baby. This arrangement allows for the exchange of nutrients and waste between the baby and the placenta.

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21. Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is:

Explanation

A peripheral blood smear is the most important diagnostic test in malaria because it allows for the direct visualization of the malaria parasite in the blood. This test involves examining a thin blood film under a microscope to identify the presence of the parasite and determine the species of malaria causing the infection. Other tests such as WBC count, urinalysis, and ELISA may be helpful in supporting the diagnosis or assessing the severity of the infection, but they are not as specific or reliable as the peripheral blood smear.

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22. Which of the following should be given the highest priority before performing physical examination to a patient?

Explanation

Before performing a physical examination on a patient, the highest priority should be given to the preparation of the patient. This includes ensuring that the patient is comfortable, informed about the procedure, and ready for the examination. It may involve obtaining their medical history, explaining the purpose of the examination, and addressing any concerns or questions they may have. By prioritizing the preparation of the patient, healthcare professionals can establish trust and cooperation, which are crucial for a successful examination.

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23. Nurse Hazel knows that Myrna understands her condition well when she remarks that urinary frequency is caused by:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pressure caused by the ascending uterus." This is because urinary frequency is a common symptom during pregnancy due to the growing uterus putting pressure on the bladder. This pressure can lead to increased frequency in urination.

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24. The present chairman of the Board of Nursing in the Philippines is:

Explanation

Carmencita Abaquin is the correct answer because she is currently serving as the chairman of the Board of Nursing in the Philippines.

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25. During the evening round Nurse Tina saw Mr. Toralba meditating and afterwards started singing prayerful hymns. What would be the best response of Nurse Tina?

Explanation

Respecting the client's action would be the best response for Nurse Tina. Mr. Toralba was meditating and singing prayerful hymns, which may be a part of his personal beliefs or coping mechanisms. As a nurse, it is important to respect the autonomy and choices of the client, as long as they are not harming themselves or others. Therefore, Nurse Tina should acknowledge and honor Mr. Toralba's actions without interfering or passing judgment.

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26. The nurse is aware that the primary nursing diagnosis for the client is:

Explanation

The nurse determines that the primary nursing diagnosis for the client is "Altered nutrition: less than body requirement" because the client is experiencing a deficiency in the intake of nutrients necessary for optimal health. This diagnosis indicates that the client's nutritional intake is insufficient to meet their body's needs, leading to potential malnutrition. The other options, "Altered nutrition: more than body requirement," "Impaired tissue integrity," and "Risk for malnutrition," do not accurately reflect the client's current nutritional status.

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27. Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a male client with rabies?

Explanation

Nurse Cherry should cover the IV bottle with a brown paper bag first in taking care of a male client with rabies. Rabies is a viral infection that affects the central nervous system, and it is transmitted through the saliva of an infected animal. By covering the IV bottle, Nurse Cherry can prevent any potential contamination of the bottle with the client's saliva, reducing the risk of spreading the infection. This precaution is important to ensure the safety of both the client and the healthcare providers.

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28. When is the best time in performing breast self examination?

Explanation

The best time to perform a breast self-examination is 7 days after the menstrual period. This is because during the menstrual cycle, hormonal changes can cause breast tissue to become more tender and swollen, making it difficult to detect any abnormalities. Waiting until after the period allows the breasts to return to their normal state, making it easier to feel for any lumps or changes.

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29. Which is the most frequent reason for postpartum hemorrhage?

Explanation

Uterine atony is the most frequent reason for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. This can occur due to factors such as a prolonged or difficult labor, multiple pregnancies, or the use of certain medications during labor. When the uterus fails to contract properly, the blood vessels that were connected to the placenta remain open, causing bleeding. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to control the bleeding and prevent complications.

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30. A male patient complained because his scheduled surgery was cancelled because of earthquake. The hospital personnel may be excused because of:

Explanation

The hospital personnel may be excused because of force majeure. Force majeure refers to unforeseeable circumstances that prevent someone from fulfilling a contract or obligation. In this case, the earthquake is an unforeseeable event that caused the cancellation of the scheduled surgery. The hospital personnel cannot be held responsible for the cancellation as it was beyond their control.

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31. The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient's assignment for the AM shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff members to a client with herpes zoster?

Explanation

The nurse supervisor avoids assigning a nurse who never had chicken pox to a client with herpes zoster because chicken pox and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus, the varicella-zoster virus. If a nurse has never had chicken pox, it means they have not been exposed to the virus and therefore have not developed immunity. Assigning this nurse to a client with herpes zoster could put them at risk of contracting the virus.

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32. It is the certification recognition program that develop and promotes standard for health facilities:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sentrong sigla movement". This program is a certification recognition program that develops and promotes standards for health facilities. It aims to improve the quality of health services by ensuring that health facilities meet certain criteria and adhere to specific standards. The program focuses on enhancing the overall health system in the country, including the delivery of quality healthcare services to the community.

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33. Which is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis?

Explanation

The primary characteristic lesion of syphilis is a chancre. A chancre is a painless, ulcerated sore that typically appears at the site of infection, usually on the genitals, anus, or mouth. It is the initial manifestation of syphilis and is highly infectious. The sore may heal on its own, but if left untreated, syphilis can progress to more severe stages and cause serious complications.

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34. Which of the following is not a good source of iron?

Explanation

Butter is not a good source of iron because it is derived from milk and does not naturally contain a significant amount of iron. Iron is primarily found in animal products such as beef and in plant-based sources such as grains and leafy greens like pechay. While butter is a source of fat and other nutrients, it is not a reliable source of iron.

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35. How many ml of blood is loss during the first 24 hours post delivery of Myrna?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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36. Which of the following activity would be best for a depressed client?

Explanation

Finger painting would be the best activity for a depressed client because it allows for self-expression and creativity. Engaging in art therapy can help individuals process their emotions, reduce stress, and promote relaxation. The tactile nature of finger painting can also provide a sensory experience that can be soothing and grounding. Additionally, the process of creating art can boost self-esteem and provide a sense of accomplishment, which can be particularly beneficial for someone struggling with depression.

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37. The one filing the criminal care against an accused party is said to be the?

Explanation

The one filing the criminal case against an accused party is referred to as the plaintiff. In a criminal case, the plaintiff is the party who brings the charges against the accused, seeking legal action and justice. The plaintiff is responsible for presenting evidence and arguments to prove the guilt of the accused. This term is commonly used in civil law systems, where the plaintiff is the individual or entity initiating the legal action.

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38. A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give her which of the following instructions?

Explanation

Rubella, also known as German measles, is a contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to a developing fetus if a woman contracts it during pregnancy. The rubella vaccine is given to protect women of childbearing age from contracting rubella and potentially passing it on to their unborn child. The instruction "Don't get pregnant at least 3 months" is given because it takes time for the vaccine to provide full protection, and it is recommended to wait for at least 3 months after receiving the vaccine before trying to conceive to ensure the maximum effectiveness of the vaccine.

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39. Which of the following information cannot be seen in the PRC identification card?

Explanation

The PRC identification card does not display the Date of Application. The identification card typically includes information such as the Registration Date, License Number, and the Signature of the PRC chairperson. However, the Date of Application is not considered necessary to be displayed on the identification card.

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40. The appropriate nutrition for Bipolar I disorder, in manic phase is:

Explanation

During the manic phase of Bipolar I disorder, individuals often experience increased energy levels and may have difficulty sitting down for a full meal. Finger foods that are high in calories can be beneficial in such situations as they provide a quick and convenient source of energy. These foods can be easily eaten on the go and help to maintain adequate calorie intake during this phase.

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41. Nurse Emma provides teaching to a patient with recurrent urinary tract infection includes the following:

Explanation

Voiding immediately after intercourse is an important step in preventing recurrent urinary tract infections. During sexual activity, bacteria can be pushed into the urethra, increasing the risk of infection. By urinating shortly after intercourse, any bacteria that may have entered the urethra can be flushed out, reducing the chances of infection. This practice helps to maintain good urinary tract hygiene and minimize the risk of developing further infections.

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42. Toy with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for diagnostic make up. Myasthenia gravis can confirmed by:

Explanation

A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test can confirm a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium is a medication that temporarily improves muscle strength in individuals with myasthenia gravis. If the patient experiences a significant improvement in muscle strength after receiving edrophonium, it suggests that they have myasthenia gravis. This test is commonly used as a diagnostic tool for this condition. Kernig's sign and Brudzinski's sign are not specific to myasthenia gravis, and a positive sweat chloride test is associated with cystic fibrosis, not myasthenia gravis.

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43. Which nursing assessment would identify the earliest sign of ICP?

Explanation

The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in the level of consciousness. This can manifest as confusion, disorientation, or altered mental status. As ICP increases, the brain becomes compressed, leading to impaired brain function. Therefore, monitoring and recognizing any changes in the level of consciousness is crucial in identifying and managing ICP. Temperature elevation, widening pulse pressure, and unequal pupils may occur later as ICP progresses.

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44. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate some dehydration?

Explanation

The signs and symptoms of drinking eagerly and being restless and irritable indicate some dehydration. When a person is dehydrated, their body craves fluids, leading to increased eagerness to drink. Additionally, dehydration can cause irritability and restlessness as the body tries to compensate for the lack of fluids. The unconsciousness mentioned in the options does not directly indicate dehydration and is therefore not included in the signs and symptoms of some dehydration.

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45. Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following would you anticipate?

Explanation

Given that Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, immediate surgery would be the anticipated course of action. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants itself outside of the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This condition is considered a medical emergency as it can lead to life-threatening complications such as rupture and internal bleeding. Immediate surgery is necessary to remove the ectopic pregnancy and prevent further complications.

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46. Breastfeeding is being enforced by milk code or:

Explanation

EO 51 refers to Executive Order 51, which is a policy implemented by the government to enforce breastfeeding. This policy aims to protect and promote the rights of infants and young children to receive proper nutrition through breastfeeding. It provides guidelines and regulations for the promotion, protection, and support of breastfeeding in various settings, such as healthcare facilities, workplaces, and public spaces. EO 51 emphasizes the importance of breastfeeding as the optimal feeding method for infants and encourages the adoption of breastfeeding-friendly practices in society.

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47. Florence nightingale is born on:

Explanation

Florence Nightingale was born in Italy.

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48. The leaking fluid is tested with nitrazine paper. Nurse Kelly confirms that the client's membrane have ruptures when the paper turns into a:

Explanation

The correct answer is blue because nitrazine paper is used to test for the presence of amniotic fluid, which is usually clear and has a pH of around 7. If the paper turns blue, it indicates the presence of amniotic fluid, suggesting that the client's membranes have ruptured. Pink, violet, and green are not the correct answers as they do not indicate the presence of amniotic fluid.

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49. Nurse Randy is planning to administer oral medication to a 3 year old child. Nurse Randy is aware that the best way to proceed is by:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Here's your medicine. Would you like a mango or orange juice?" This response is the best way to proceed because it offers the child a choice and allows them to feel a sense of control over the situation. By giving them options of mango or orange juice, it can make the experience more enjoyable and increase the likelihood of the child willingly taking the medicine.

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50. After 14 days in the hospital, which finding indicates that her condition in improving?

Explanation

The finding that she gained 4 lbs in two weeks indicates that her condition is improving. Weight gain is often a positive sign in medical settings, as it suggests that the patient's body is recovering and becoming healthier. In this case, the fact that she gained weight after being in the hospital for 14 days indicates that her condition is improving. This finding is more significant than the other options, as the patient's perception of her own weight, arriving early for therapy, or her eating habits may not necessarily indicate improvement in her overall condition.

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51. A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an 8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the result as:

Explanation

The nurse interprets the result as positive because an 8mm area of induration at the site of the Mantoux skin test is considered a positive result for a male client. Induration refers to the hardening or swelling of the skin, which indicates a reaction to the test and suggests the presence of tuberculosis infection. Therefore, the positive interpretation suggests that the client may have tuberculosis and further diagnostic tests or treatment may be required.

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52. Objective data is also called:

Explanation

Objective data refers to information that is factual, observable, and measurable. It is data that can be collected through direct observation or measurement, without any subjective interpretation or bias. Overt, in this context, means that the data is openly observable and does not require any inference or interpretation. Therefore, the term "overt" is synonymous with objective data, as it implies that the data is observable and does not involve any subjective interpretation.

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53. Nurse Carla is aware that one of the following vaccines is done by intramuscular (IM) injection?

Explanation

Tetanus toxoid is administered through intramuscular (IM) injection. This means that the vaccine is injected into the muscle tissue, typically in the upper arm or thigh. This method allows for the vaccine to be absorbed into the bloodstream more efficiently, as the muscle tissue has a good blood supply. In contrast, vaccines such as Measles, OPV (oral polio vaccine), and BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) are typically administered through other routes such as subcutaneous injection or oral administration.

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54. Which of the following cannot be corrected by dialysis?

Explanation

Dialysis is a medical procedure used to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood in individuals with kidney failure. It is primarily used to correct imbalances in electrolytes and remove toxins. Hypernatremia (high sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), and elevated creatinine (indicating kidney dysfunction) can all be corrected by dialysis as they are directly related to the kidney's ability to filter and regulate these substances. However, decreased hemoglobin levels are primarily related to a decrease in red blood cell production or an increase in red blood cell destruction, which is not directly influenced by dialysis.

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55. Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever?

Explanation

The Rumpel-leede test is a screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever. This test measures the fragility of the capillaries by applying pressure to the skin and observing the appearance of small red spots or petechiae. In dengue hemorrhagic fever, there is increased capillary fragility, leading to the appearance of these spots. Therefore, the Rumpel-leede test can help in diagnosing dengue hemorrhagic fever.

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56. What is the primary prevention of leprosy?

Explanation

BCG vaccination is the correct answer for the primary prevention of leprosy. BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB), but it has also shown some effectiveness in preventing leprosy. Studies have suggested that BCG vaccination can provide partial protection against leprosy, especially in children. It is believed that the vaccine boosts the immune system's response to the bacteria that causes leprosy, reducing the risk of infection. While nutrition and vitamins may play a role in overall health, they are not specifically targeted at preventing leprosy. DPT vaccination is used for preventing diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, and is not directly related to leprosy prevention.

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57. Known as mood elevators:

Explanation

Anti depressants are medications that are commonly used to treat depression and elevate mood. They work by balancing the chemicals in the brain that affect mood and emotions. These medications can help improve symptoms of depression, such as sadness, lack of energy, and loss of interest in activities. By increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, anti depressants can help lift mood and promote a sense of well-being. Therefore, it is appropriate to refer to anti depressants as mood elevators.

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58. In patient with renal failure, the diet should be:

Explanation

In patients with renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products and excess fluids from the blood. Therefore, a low protein diet is recommended to reduce the burden on the kidneys and minimize the production of waste products. Additionally, a low sodium diet helps to control blood pressure and reduce fluid retention, while a low potassium diet is necessary to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition in which there is an excessive level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, a diet that is low in protein, low in sodium, and low in potassium is the most appropriate for patients with renal failure.

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59. How long will nurse John obtain an accurate reading of temperature via oral route?

Explanation

Nurse John will obtain an accurate reading of temperature via the oral route in 3 minutes. This is because it takes a few minutes for the thermometer to accurately measure the body temperature through the mouth. Waiting for 3 minutes ensures that the thermometer has enough time to register an accurate reading.

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60. Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate?

Explanation

The nurse's statement that the incubation period of rabies varies depending on the site of the bite is appropriate because the incubation period of rabies can indeed vary depending on factors such as the location and severity of the bite. It is not a fixed duration like 6 months, 1 week, or 1 month. Rabies can have an incubation period ranging from a few days to several years, with an average of 1 to 3 months. Therefore, the nurse's statement provides a more accurate and comprehensive understanding of the incubation period of rabies.

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61. Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish plans to teach the client to:

Explanation

During therapy with Isoniazid (INH), it is important for the client to avoid taking vitamin supplements. This is because INH can interfere with the metabolism of certain vitamins, particularly vitamin B6. By avoiding vitamin supplements, the client can prevent any potential interactions or adverse effects caused by the combination of INH and these supplements. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on this aspect to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication.

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62. EPI is based on?

Explanation

EPI, which stands for Expanded Program on Immunization, is based on the epidemiological situation. This means that the program is designed and implemented based on the understanding of the patterns, causes, and effects of diseases in a population. By analyzing the epidemiological situation, health authorities can identify the diseases that pose the greatest risk to the community and prioritize the development and delivery of vaccines accordingly. This approach ensures that resources are allocated effectively and that the program addresses the specific health needs of the population.

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63. Being on time, meeting deadlines and completing all scheduled duties is what virtue?

Explanation

Fidelity refers to being faithful and loyal to one's commitments and obligations. Being on time, meeting deadlines, and completing all scheduled duties demonstrate a sense of fidelity. It shows that one is dedicated and reliable in fulfilling their responsibilities, which is considered a virtue. Autonomy refers to the ability to make independent decisions, veracity refers to truthfulness, and confidentiality refers to keeping information private. None of these options directly relate to being on time, meeting deadlines, and completing duties, making fidelity the correct answer.

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64. Autism is diagnosed at:

Explanation

Autism is typically diagnosed around the age of 3 years old. This is because symptoms of autism often become more noticeable during early childhood, when children start to develop social and communication skills. By the age of 3, certain red flags may become apparent, such as delays in speech and language development, difficulty with social interactions, repetitive behaviors, and restricted interests. However, it is important to note that autism can be diagnosed at any age, and some individuals may receive a diagnosis earlier or later depending on the severity of their symptoms and other factors.

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65. A client has many irrational thoughts. The goal of therapy is to change her:

Explanation

In therapy, the goal is to change the client's cognition, which refers to their thoughts, beliefs, and perceptions. By addressing and challenging irrational thoughts, therapy aims to help the client develop more rational and healthier thinking patterns. This can lead to a positive change in their overall mental well-being and behavior. Changing personality, communication, and behavior may also be important aspects of therapy, but they are often influenced by and interconnected with one's cognition.

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66. Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to receive rubella immunization?

Explanation

Rubella immunization is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of the vaccine causing harm to the developing fetus. Therefore, the most appropriate time for Clarissa to receive rubella immunization would be after the delivery of the baby, when there is no longer a risk to the fetus.

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67. Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?

Explanation

BCG stands for Bacillus Calmette-Guérin, which is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine. It is used for the prevention of tuberculosis (TB) and is derived from Mycobacterium bovis, a bacterium that causes TB in cows. BCG is administered through a small injection into the skin and stimulates the immune system to provide protection against TB. It is one of the most widely used vaccines in the world and is particularly recommended for infants and young children in countries with a high prevalence of TB.

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68. Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of what type of reinforcement?

Explanation

Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement involves the removal or avoidance of an unpleasant stimulus in order to increase the likelihood of a desired behavior. In this case, the reprimand serves as the unpleasant stimulus, and its removal or avoidance is intended to increase the likelihood that the nurse will correct their mistakes in the future.

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69. Nurse Carla is aware that Myla's second stage of labor is beginning when the following assessment is noted:

Explanation

The nurse can determine that Myla's second stage of labor is beginning when the cervix is completely dilated. This is a significant milestone in labor progression as it indicates that the cervix has opened fully, allowing the baby to move into the birth canal. The other assessments mentioned, such as the breaking of the water, regular contractions, and the presence of a bloody show, may also be indicative of labor but do not specifically indicate the beginning of the second stage.

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70. Baby Reese is a 12 month old child. Nurse Oliver would anticipate how many teeth?

Explanation

At 12 months old, most children have around 6 teeth. This is because the first teeth, known as the lower central incisors, usually start to erupt between 6-10 months of age. Therefore, Nurse Oliver would anticipate Baby Reese to have 6 teeth at this stage of development.

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71. An infant is ordered to recive 500 ml of D5NSS for 24 hours. The Intravenous drip is running at 60 gtts/min. How many drops per minute should the flow rate be?

Explanation

The correct answer is 21 gtts/min. To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute, we need to use the formula: flow rate (gtts/min) = total volume (ml) / time (min). In this case, the total volume is 500 ml and the time is 24 hours, which is equal to 1440 minutes. Therefore, the flow rate is 500 ml / 1440 min = 0.3472 ml/min. Since the IV drip is running at 60 gtts/min, we can set up a proportion to find the flow rate in drops per minute: 0.3472 ml/min = 60 gtts/min. Solving for gtts/min gives us approximately 21 gtts/min.

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72. What is the first line for dysentery?

Explanation

Cotrimoxazole is the first line of treatment for dysentery. It is a combination of two antibiotics, sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work together to inhibit the growth and spread of bacteria. This medication is effective against a wide range of bacteria that cause dysentery, including Shigella and Salmonella. It is commonly used to treat bacterial infections in the gastrointestinal tract and has been found to be highly effective in reducing symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever associated with dysentery.

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73. Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV vaccine is:

Explanation

The correct answer is -15c to -25c. This temperature range is necessary to maintain the potency of measles and OPV vaccines. Vaccines are sensitive to temperature and can lose their effectiveness if not stored within the recommended range. The low temperatures help to preserve the vaccines and ensure that they remain potent for administration.

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74. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is:

Explanation

Sambong is the appropriate herbal medicine for urolithiasis. It is known for its diuretic properties, which can help flush out kidney stones and prevent the formation of new ones. Sambong also has anti-inflammatory effects, which can help reduce pain and inflammation associated with urolithiasis. Additionally, it has antibacterial properties that can help prevent urinary tract infections, which are common in individuals with urolithiasis. Therefore, Sambong is the preferred herbal medicine for treating urolithiasis.

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75. The obligation to maintain efficient ethical standards in the practice of nursing belong to this body:

Explanation

The correct answer is BON, which stands for Board of Nursing. The Board of Nursing is responsible for ensuring that nurses adhere to ethical standards in their practice. They regulate the nursing profession, set standards for education and licensure, and enforce disciplinary actions when necessary. The BON plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and professionalism of the nursing profession.

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76. In community health nursing, it is the most important risk factor in the development of mental illness?

Explanation

Poverty is the most important risk factor in the development of mental illness in community health nursing. This is because individuals living in poverty often face numerous challenges such as limited access to healthcare, education, and employment opportunities. These stressors can contribute to the development of mental health issues such as depression, anxiety, and substance abuse. Additionally, poverty can also lead to social isolation and lack of support systems, further exacerbating mental health problems. Therefore, addressing poverty is crucial in promoting mental well-being and preventing the onset of mental illness in communities.

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77. The termination phase of the NPR is best described one of the following:

Explanation

The termination phase of the NPR involves reviewing the progress of therapy and assessing whether the goals set at the beginning of the therapy have been achieved. This phase focuses on evaluating the effectiveness of the therapy and determining if the client's needs have been met. It allows both the therapist and the client to reflect on the progress made and decide if further therapy is necessary or if the client is ready to end the therapeutic relationship.

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78. Jose has undergone thoracentesis. The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose is:

Explanation

The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose after undergoing thoracentesis is side lying on the unaffected side. This position helps to promote lung expansion and drainage of fluid or air from the affected side. It also helps to prevent the compression of the unaffected lung and reduces the risk of complications such as pneumonia.

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79. Freud states that temper tantrums is observed in which of the following:

Explanation

Freud believed that temper tantrums are observed in the anal stage of psychosexual development. This stage occurs during the ages of 1 to 3 years old, when children are learning to control their bowel movements. Freud suggested that during this stage, children may experience conflicts and frustrations related to toilet training, which can manifest as temper tantrums. Therefore, the correct answer is Anal.

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80. Disposal of medical records in government hospital/institutions must be done in close coordination with what agency?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Health. The disposal of medical records in government hospitals/institutions is a sensitive process that requires coordination with the appropriate agency. The Department of Health is responsible for overseeing healthcare services in the country and ensuring the proper handling and disposal of medical records. They have the expertise and knowledge to ensure that the disposal is done in accordance with legal and ethical guidelines to protect patient confidentiality and privacy.

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81. The nurse is aware that the most common indication in using ECT is:

Explanation

ECT stands for electroconvulsive therapy, which is a psychiatric treatment that involves inducing seizures in a patient's brain to alleviate symptoms of mental disorders. While ECT can be used for various conditions, including schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and anorexia nervosa, the most common indication for its use is depression. ECT is often considered when other treatments, such as medication and therapy, have not been successful in managing severe depression. It is important for the nurse to be aware of this indication to provide appropriate care and support to patients undergoing ECT for depression.

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82. When examining a client with abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should assess:

Explanation

When examining a client with abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should assess the symptomatic quadrant last. This is because assessing the other quadrants first allows the nurse to establish a baseline and gather information about the client's overall abdominal health. By assessing the symptomatic quadrant last, Nurse Hazel can focus on the area of concern and gather specific information related to the client's abdominal pain. This approach helps prioritize the assessment and ensures that the nurse does not overlook any important findings in other quadrants.

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83. A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:

Explanation

Rubella, also known as German measles, is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, especially in pregnant women. The correct answer is the 18 year old sister who recently got married because if she is pregnant or planning to become pregnant, she could be at risk of contracting rubella from the female child. Rubella can be transmitted through respiratory droplets, so it is important to isolate the child from individuals who are at risk, such as pregnant women, to prevent the spread of the infection and potential harm to the fetus.

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84. Budgeting is under in which part of management process?

Explanation

Budgeting is a crucial part of the planning process in management. It involves setting financial goals, estimating income and expenses, and allocating resources accordingly. By creating a budget, managers can effectively plan and allocate resources to achieve organizational objectives. Budgeting helps in determining the financial feasibility of various plans and ensures that resources are used efficiently. Therefore, budgeting falls under the planning phase of the management process.

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85. It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared?

Explanation

Standards are the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared. They provide a benchmark for evaluating the performance of employees and help ensure that they meet the expectations and requirements of their job. By setting clear standards, organizations can establish a common understanding of what is expected from their employees and measure their performance against these established criteria. This allows for consistent evaluation and helps identify areas for improvement or recognition.

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86. If a young child has pneumonia when should the mother bring him back for follow up?

Explanation

The mother should bring the young child back for follow-up after 2 days because pneumonia is a serious infection that requires close monitoring and appropriate treatment. Waiting for a longer period of time before seeking follow-up care can lead to complications and delay in recovery. Prompt follow-up allows the healthcare provider to assess the child's progress, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and ensure that the infection is resolving effectively.

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87. A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect?

Explanation

The nurse should expect the physiologic effect of dilated pupils in a male client addicted to hallucinogens. Hallucinogens, such as LSD or magic mushrooms, can cause dilation of the pupils as a result of the drug's effects on the sympathetic nervous system. This sympathetic activation leads to an increase in the release of norepinephrine, which causes the pupils to dilate. This can be a characteristic sign of hallucinogen use and can help in identifying individuals who may be under the influence of these substances.

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88. Which of the following is the primary antidote for Tylenol poisoning?

Explanation

Acetylcysteine is the primary antidote for Tylenol poisoning. It works by replenishing glutathione levels in the liver, which helps to detoxify the toxic byproducts of Tylenol metabolism. This antidote is effective if administered within 8-10 hours of ingestion and can prevent or reduce liver damage caused by Tylenol overdose. Narcan is used for opioid overdose, Digoxin is used for heart conditions, and Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose, making them incorrect choices for Tylenol poisoning.

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89. Mr. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of D5RL to run for 12 hours. The drop factor of the IV infusion set is 10 drops per minute. Approximately how many drops per minutes should the IV be regulated?

Explanation

The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per minute. Since Mr. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of D5RL to run for 12 hours, we need to calculate the total number of drops needed.

1 liter is equal to 1000 milliliters. Since there are 20 drops in 1 milliliter, the total number of drops needed is 1000 x 20 = 20,000 drops.

To find the drops per minute, we divide the total number of drops by the total number of minutes (12 hours x 60 minutes = 720 minutes).

20,000 drops / 720 minutes ≈ 27.78 drops per minute.

Therefore, the IV should be regulated to approximately 13-14 drops per minute.

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90. Diptheria is a:

Explanation

Diphtheria is caused by the bacterial toxin produced by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This toxin is responsible for the characteristic symptoms of diphtheria, such as the formation of a thick grayish membrane in the throat and difficulty in breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Bacterial toxin".

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91. After amniotomy, the priority nursing action is:

Explanation

The priority nursing action after amniotomy is to listen to the fetal heart tone. This is important because it allows the nurse to assess the well-being of the baby and ensure that there are no signs of distress. By listening to the fetal heart tone, the nurse can monitor the baby's heart rate and rhythm, which can provide valuable information about the baby's oxygenation and overall health. This action takes precedence over other actions such as documenting the color and consistency of amniotic fluid, positioning the mother, or letting the mother rest, as the baby's well-being is of utmost importance in this situation.

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92. Community/Public health bag is defined as:

Explanation

The community/public health bag is considered an essential and indispensable equipment for community health nurses during home visits. It contains drugs and equipment that are necessary for the nurse to carry out their duties effectively. It is a requirement both in the health center and for home visits, indicating its importance in the field of community health nursing. The bag serves as a tool that enables the nurse to perform necessary procedures and provide appropriate care during home visits, further emphasizing its significance in their practice.

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93. Third postpartum visit must be done by public health nurse:

Explanation

The correct answer is "After 2-4 weeks." The third postpartum visit is typically scheduled for 2-4 weeks after delivery. This timing allows for a sufficient recovery period for the mother and provides an opportunity for the public health nurse to assess the mother's physical and emotional well-being, provide guidance on breastfeeding and newborn care, and address any concerns or complications that may have arisen since the previous visit.

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94. Which of the following is formal continuing education?

Explanation

Enrollment in graduate school is considered formal continuing education because it involves pursuing a higher level of education after completing a bachelor's degree. Graduate school programs are structured and rigorous, offering specialized knowledge and skills in a specific field. This type of education typically leads to advanced degrees such as master's or doctoral degrees, and is recognized as a formal and recognized pathway for professional development and career advancement.

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95. The BSN curriculum prepares the graduates to become?

Explanation

The BSN curriculum prepares graduates to become primary health nurses. This means that they are trained to provide comprehensive and holistic care to patients in various settings, focusing on health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common health conditions. Primary health nurses work closely with individuals, families, and communities to assess their healthcare needs, develop care plans, and coordinate healthcare services. They play a crucial role in promoting and maintaining the overall health and well-being of their patients, and contribute to improving healthcare outcomes in their communities.

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96. The nurse is assessing a female client with possible diagnosis of osteoarthritis. The most significant risk factor for osteoarthritis is:

Explanation

Age is the most significant risk factor for osteoarthritis. As a person gets older, the cartilage in their joints naturally wears down, making them more susceptible to developing osteoarthritis. Age-related changes in the joints, such as decreased joint fluid and increased stiffness, also contribute to the development of the condition. While obesity, race, and job may also play a role in the development of osteoarthritis, age is the primary risk factor.

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97. "To be the leading hospital in the Philippines" is best illustrate in:

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Vision". A vision statement is a statement that describes the desired future state or long-term goals of an organization. In this case, the statement "To be the leading hospital in the Philippines" represents the hospital's vision for the future. It outlines their aspiration to become the top hospital in the country and sets a clear direction for their strategic planning and decision-making. A vision statement helps to inspire and motivate employees, as well as guide the organization towards achieving its goals.

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98. On 2nd postpartum day, which height would you expect to find the fundus in a woman who has had a caesarian birth?

Explanation

After a caesarian birth, the fundus (the top part of the uterus) tends to be lower in the abdomen compared to a vaginal birth. This is because the uterus is slower to contract and shrink back to its pre-pregnancy size. Therefore, on the 2nd postpartum day, it would be expected to find the fundus 2 fingers below the umbilicus.

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99. Gentian Violet is used for:

Explanation

Gentian Violet is commonly used for treating umbilical infections. It is an antifungal and antiseptic agent that can effectively kill bacteria and fungi, preventing the infection from spreading and promoting healing. The violet color of the solution helps to identify the treated area and ensure proper application. It is often used in newborns to prevent and treat infections in the umbilical cord stump.

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100. The balance of a research's benefit vs. its risks to the subject is:

Explanation

The balance of a research's benefit vs. its risks to the subject is determined by the risk-benefit ratio. This ratio weighs the potential benefits of the research against the potential risks to the subject. It helps researchers and ethics committees evaluate whether the potential benefits justify the potential risks involved in the study. By considering the risk-benefit ratio, researchers can ensure that the welfare and safety of the subjects are prioritized while conducting the research.

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101. Tony with infection is receiving antibiotic therapy. Later the client complaints of ringing in the ears. This ototoxicity is damage to:

Explanation

Ototoxicity refers to damage to the auditory system caused by certain medications, including antibiotics. In this case, the client is receiving antibiotic therapy and later complains of ringing in the ears. The 8th cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, is responsible for transmitting auditory information from the inner ear to the brain. Damage to this nerve can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears). Therefore, the correct answer is the 8th cranial nerve.

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102. The Nurse is aware that the following tasks can be safely delegated by the nurse to a non-nurse health worker except:

Explanation

The nurse cannot safely delegate the task of changing IV infusions to a non-nurse health worker because it requires specialized knowledge and skills. Changing IV infusions involves assessing the site for signs of infection or infiltration, monitoring the infusion rate, and recognizing and managing any complications that may arise. These tasks require a nurse's expertise to ensure the safe administration of medications and fluids through an IV line.

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103. The priority of care for a client with Alzheimer's disease is

Explanation

The priority of care for a client with Alzheimer's disease is to simplify the environment to eliminate the need to make chores. This is because individuals with Alzheimer's often have difficulty with complex tasks and may become overwhelmed or frustrated when faced with multiple chores or responsibilities. By simplifying the environment and reducing the number of tasks, the client can feel more comfortable and less stressed, which can help to improve their overall well-being and quality of life.

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104. In home made oresol, what is the ratio of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with 1 liter of water?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar. This is because the ratio of salt to sugar in the homemade oresol is 1:8.

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105. A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individuals behavior is said to be which type of reasoning:

Explanation

A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individual's behavior is said to be using inductive reasoning. Inductive reasoning involves drawing conclusions or making generalizations based on specific observations or evidence. In this case, the researcher is observing the behavior of individuals and using that information to make a generalization, which aligns with the concept of inductive reasoning.

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106. A male client has a standing DNR order. He then suddenly stopped breathing and you are at his bedside. You would:

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is to stay with the client and do nothing. The client has a standing DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order, which means that they have made the decision to not receive any life-saving measures in the event of cardiac arrest or respiratory failure. As a nurse, it is important to respect the client's wishes and honor their DNR order. Therefore, staying with the client and providing comfort and emotional support is the appropriate action to take in this situation.

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107. TT4 provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?

Explanation

TT4 provides 99% protection against tetanus. This means that when a person is vaccinated with TT4, there is a 99% chance that they will be protected from contracting tetanus. Tetanus is a serious bacterial infection that can cause muscle stiffness and spasms, and it is important to have a high level of protection against it. TT4 is a tetanus toxoid vaccine that helps to stimulate the body's immune response and build immunity against tetanus.

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108. All of the following are characteristics of crisis except

Explanation

Crisis is a time of intense emotional or psychological disturbance, where individuals feel overwhelmed and unable to cope with a certain situation. During a crisis, individuals may experience a range of emotions and behaviors, such as panic, fear, and helplessness. However, the statement that the client may become resistive and active in stopping the crisis does not align with the characteristics of crisis. In a crisis, individuals are typically in a state of distress and are seeking support and assistance to manage the situation, rather than actively trying to stop the crisis themselves.

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109. Nurse Karen is revising a client plan of care. During which step of the nursing process does such revision take place?

Explanation

During the evaluation step of the nursing process, Nurse Karen revises a client's plan of care. This step involves assessing the client's response to interventions and determining if the desired outcomes have been achieved. By evaluating the effectiveness of the current plan, Nurse Karen can make necessary revisions to ensure the client's needs are being met and to improve the overall quality of care provided.

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110. A male client complains of vertigo. Nurse Bea anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear?

Explanation

The inner ear is responsible for the sense of balance and equilibrium, so if a male client is experiencing vertigo (a sensation of dizziness or spinning), it suggests that there may be a problem with this portion of the ear. The inner ear contains structures such as the semicircular canals and the vestibule, which play a crucial role in maintaining balance. Issues with these structures can lead to vertigo symptoms.

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111. During acute gout attack, the nurse administer which of the following drug:

Explanation

During an acute gout attack, the nurse administers colchicine. Colchicine is an anti-inflammatory medication that works by reducing the inflammation and pain associated with gout. It inhibits the migration of white blood cells to the affected joint, thereby reducing the inflammatory response. This medication is specifically used for the treatment of acute gout attacks and is not typically used for long-term management or prevention of gout.

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112. Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is:

Explanation

The term "schedule" refers to a time table that outlines the planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel. It is a systematic arrangement of tasks and activities that need to be completed within a specific timeframe. In the context of nursing personnel, a schedule helps to ensure adequate staffing levels and proper allocation of resources. It allows for efficient planning and organization of work, ensuring that all shifts are adequately covered and that there is a balance between the needs of the healthcare facility and the availability of staff.

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113. Asin law is on which legal basis:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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114. Nurse Christine provides health teaching for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. Nurse Christine teaches the parents to include which of the following food items in the child's diet:

Explanation

Nurse Christine teaches the parents to include rice in the child's diet because rice is a gluten-free grain, which is suitable for individuals with celiac disease. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder where the ingestion of gluten, found in wheat, barley, and rye, causes damage to the small intestine. Therefore, it is important to avoid gluten-containing foods like rye toast and oatmeal. White bread typically contains gluten unless it is specifically labeled as gluten-free, so it should also be avoided. Rice, on the other hand, is a safe and nutritious option for individuals with celiac disease.

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115. A male nurse was found guilty of negligence. His license was revoked. Re-issuance of revoked certificates is after how many years?

Explanation

When a nurse's license is revoked due to negligence, the re-issuance of the revoked certificate typically occurs after a period of 4 years. This allows for a significant amount of time for the nurse to reflect on their actions, undergo any necessary retraining or education, and demonstrate that they are capable of practicing nursing responsibly and safely.

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116. Which assessment finding indicates circulatory constriction in a male client with a newly applied long leg cast?

Explanation

Blanching or cyanosis of the legs indicates circulatory constriction in a male client with a newly applied long leg cast. Blanching refers to the paleness of the skin due to reduced blood flow, while cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by inadequate oxygenation. Both of these signs suggest compromised circulation, which can occur when the cast is too tight and restricts blood flow to the legs. This finding should be promptly addressed to prevent further complications.

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117. Nurse Judy is aware that following condition would reflect presence of congenital G.I anomaly?

Explanation

Polyhydramnios is a condition characterized by an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid in the amniotic sac during pregnancy. This condition can be an indication of a congenital gastrointestinal (G.I) anomaly because it can result from a blockage or obstruction in the fetal gastrointestinal tract. This obstruction prevents the normal swallowing and absorption of amniotic fluid, leading to its accumulation. Therefore, Nurse Judy recognizes that polyhydramnios can be a potential sign of a congenital G.I anomaly.

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118. During the process of cocaine withdrawal, the physician orders which of the following:

Explanation

During the process of cocaine withdrawal, Diazepam (Valium) may be ordered by the physician. Cocaine withdrawal can cause severe anxiety, agitation, and restlessness. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts as a sedative and anxiolytic, helping to relieve these symptoms. It works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which helps to calm down the overactive central nervous system during withdrawal. Haloperidol, Imipramine, and Benztropine are not typically used for cocaine withdrawal symptoms.

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119. A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which assessment finding is the most significant?

Explanation

Even, unlabored respirations would be the most significant assessment finding in a male client hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a neurological disorder that can cause paralysis and affect the muscles involved in breathing. Therefore, the client having even, unlabored respirations indicates that their respiratory muscles are functioning properly, which is crucial for maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation. This finding suggests that the client's condition is stable and their respiratory status is not compromised.

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120. Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester weighs approximately:

Explanation

During the third trimester of pregnancy, the weight of the amniotic fluid is approximately 1 kilogram. This fluid surrounds and protects the fetus in the womb, providing cushioning and maintaining a stable environment. It is essential for the baby's development and helps in the functioning of various organs and systems. The weight of the amniotic fluid can vary slightly from person to person, but on average, it is around 1 kilogram.

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121. Baby Marie was born May 23, 1984. Nurse John will expect finger thumb opposition on:

Explanation

Thumb opposition refers to the ability to touch the thumb to the tips of the other fingers. This motor skill typically develops between 8-12 months of age. Since Baby Marie was born in May 1984, by February 1985 she would be around 9 months old. At this age, she would be expected to have developed thumb opposition, making February 1985 the correct answer.

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122. Information in the patients chart is inadmissible in court as evidence when:

Explanation

The client's objection to the use of information in their chart as evidence in court renders it inadmissible. This is because the client has the right to refuse the use of their personal information for legal proceedings.

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123. At what age a child can brush her teeth without help?

Explanation

By the age of 6 years, a child is typically able to brush their teeth without assistance. At this age, they have developed the necessary motor skills and coordination to effectively brush their teeth and reach all areas of their mouth. It is important for parents to supervise and ensure that proper brushing techniques are being followed to maintain good oral hygiene.

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124. Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of given alternatives are known as?

Explanation

Close-ended questions are questions that provide a set of pre-determined answer options for respondents to choose from. These questions do not allow for open-ended responses and are designed to gather specific information in a structured and standardized way. The other options mentioned in the question, such as survey, questionnaire, and demographic, are not specific types of questions but rather broader terms related to data collection methods or characteristics of a population.

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125. The nurse is aware that cocaine is classified as:

Explanation

Cocaine is classified as a psycho stimulant because it acts on the central nervous system to increase alertness, energy, and euphoria. It stimulates the release of dopamine, a neurotransmitter associated with pleasure and reward, leading to its addictive properties. Cocaine also increases heart rate, blood pressure, and body temperature. It does not fall under the categories of hallucinogen, anxiolytic, or narcotic, as it does not produce hallucinations, reduce anxiety, or have the same pain-relieving effects as narcotics.

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126. Nurse Candy is aware that the family planning method that may give 98% protection to another pregnancy to women

Explanation

The correct answer is Lactational Amenorrhea method (LAM). LAM is a natural family planning method that involves exclusive breastfeeding, which can suppress ovulation and provide up to 98% protection against pregnancy in the first six months after childbirth. This method relies on the hormonal changes that occur during breastfeeding to prevent pregnancy. It is important for Nurse Candy to be aware of this method and provide accurate information to women seeking family planning options.

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127. Which of the following is not a part of IMCI case management process

Explanation

Identifying the illness is a crucial step in the IMCI case management process, as it helps healthcare providers determine the appropriate treatment for the child. The other options, including counseling the mother, assessing the child, and treating the child, are all essential components of the IMCI case management process.

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128. The common characteristic of autism child is:

Explanation

The common characteristic of autism children is withdrawal. Autism is a developmental disorder that affects social interaction and communication skills. Children with autism often have difficulty engaging in social interactions and may prefer to be alone. They may exhibit withdrawal by avoiding eye contact, not responding to their name, and showing limited interest in others. This withdrawal behavior is a key characteristic of autism and can make it challenging for these children to form and maintain relationships with others.

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129. An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an:

Explanation

In this question, the correct answer is "Element". In the context of a general population, an individual or object can be considered as an element. An element refers to a single member or component of a larger group or set. It represents a part of the whole population, without any specific connotation or role attached to it. Therefore, "Element" is the most appropriate term to describe an individual or object belonging to a general population.

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130. A male child has an intelligence quotient of approximately 40. Which kind of environment and interdisciplinary program most likely to benefit this child would be best described as:

Explanation

Habit training would be the most beneficial environment and interdisciplinary program for a male child with an intelligence quotient of approximately 40. Habit training focuses on developing positive habits and routines, which can help improve the child's skills and abilities. This approach is often used in special education to teach self-care, social, and communication skills. By providing a structured and consistent environment, habit training can support the child's learning and development in a way that is tailored to their specific needs and abilities.

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131. The nurse is aware that ataractics or psychic energizers are also known as:

Explanation

Antipsychotics are also known as ataractics or psychic energizers. These medications are commonly used to treat symptoms of psychosis, such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. They work by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which helps to reduce symptoms of psychosis. While anti-manic medications are used to treat symptoms of mania in bipolar disorder, antidepressants are used to treat symptoms of depression, and anti-anxiety medications are used to treat symptoms of anxiety disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is antipsychotics.

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132. A therapy that focuses on here and now principle to promote self-acceptance?

Explanation

Gestalt therapy is a type of therapy that emphasizes the importance of the present moment and encourages individuals to fully experience and accept themselves. It focuses on the here and now principle, where individuals are encouraged to be aware of their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the present moment. Through this awareness, individuals can gain insight into their patterns and make changes to promote self-acceptance and personal growth. Therefore, Gestalt therapy is the correct answer as it aligns with the therapy approach described in the question.

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133. When is the first certification of nursing informatics given?

Explanation

The first certification of nursing informatics was given in 2001-2002. This means that during this specific time period, individuals were able to obtain certification in the field of nursing informatics. It is important to note that this answer is based on the information provided and assumes that there is no additional context or information missing from the question.

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134. When performing Weber's test, Nurse Rosean expects that this client will hear

Explanation

When performing Weber's test, Nurse Rosean expects that this client will hear on the affected side by bone conduction. This is because Weber's test is used to assess for unilateral hearing loss. In a normal hearing individual, sound is heard equally in both ears. However, in cases of unilateral hearing loss, the sound will be perceived louder in the unaffected ear due to the absence of competition from the affected ear. This occurs because the sound is conducted through bone to the affected ear, bypassing any issues with the outer or middle ear. Therefore, the client is expected to hear the sound primarily in the affected ear during Weber's test.

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135. TT? provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?

Explanation

TT (Tetanus Toxoid) provides 90% protection against tetanus. Tetanus Toxoid is a vaccine that helps prevent tetanus, a serious bacterial infection that affects the nervous system. The vaccine stimulates the body's immune system to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin, providing immunity. While the vaccine is highly effective, it does not provide 100% protection, hence the correct answer is 90%.

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136. Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed with endometritis. Which position would you expect to place her based on this diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the diagnosis of endometritis, placing the postpartum client in a semi-fowlers position would be expected. This position involves elevating the head of the bed between 30 and 45 degrees, which helps to promote drainage and reduce pressure on the pelvic area. By placing the client in a semi-fowlers position, it can help alleviate discomfort and facilitate healing in cases of endometritis.

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137. Ribivarin (Virazole) is prescribed for a female hospitalized child with RSV. Nurse Judy prepare this medication via which route?

Explanation

Ribavirin (Virazole) is a medication used to treat respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection. It is administered via an oxygen tent. An oxygen tent is a device that delivers oxygen to the patient by enclosing their head and upper body in a plastic tent-like structure. The medication is aerosolized and delivered to the patient through the oxygen tent, allowing them to inhale it. This route of administration ensures that the medication reaches the respiratory system directly, where it can effectively combat the RSV infection.

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138. This quality is being demonstrated by Nurse Ron who raises the side rails of a confused and disoriented patient?

Explanation

Prudence is the correct answer because Nurse Ron's action of raising the side rails for a confused and disoriented patient demonstrates cautiousness and carefulness. By taking this precautionary measure, Nurse Ron is ensuring the safety and well-being of the patient, showing good judgment and thoughtfulness in their actions.

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139. Nurse John is aware that self mutilation among Bipolar disorder patients is a means of:

Explanation

Self-mutilation among Bipolar disorder patients is a means of overcoming feelings of insecurity. This behavior may provide a temporary sense of control and relief from the overwhelming emotions and uncertainty that come with Bipolar disorder. By inflicting physical pain on themselves, individuals may feel a sense of power and release from their insecurities. It is important for nurses like John to understand this underlying motivation and provide appropriate support and interventions to address the root causes of insecurity and help patients develop healthier coping mechanisms.

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140. In caring for clients with renal calculi, which is the priority nursing intervention?

Explanation

The priority nursing intervention in caring for clients with renal calculi is to administer analgesics as prescribed. Renal calculi, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain. Administering analgesics helps to alleviate the pain and provide comfort to the client. While recording vital signs, straining urine, and limiting fluids are important interventions in the care of clients with renal calculi, they are not the priority in this case. The priority is to address the client's pain and provide relief.

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141. The nurse is aware that clients with severe depression, possess which defense mechanism:

Explanation

Introjection is a defense mechanism where individuals internalize the beliefs, values, and attitudes of others, often without questioning or critically evaluating them. Clients with severe depression may exhibit introjection as a way to cope with their feelings of low self-worth and helplessness. They may take on negative beliefs about themselves or adopt a pessimistic outlook on life, which further contributes to their depressive symptoms. This defense mechanism can be detrimental to their mental health as it reinforces negative thought patterns and inhibits personal growth and self-acceptance.

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142. When Nurse Clarence respects the client's self-disclosure, this is a gauge for the nurses'

Explanation

When Nurse Clarence respects the client's self-disclosure, it demonstrates that she can be trusted with sensitive information. Trustworthiness is an essential quality for nurses to possess as it helps to establish a strong therapeutic relationship with clients. By respecting the client's self-disclosure, Nurse Clarence shows that she can be relied upon to maintain confidentiality and act in the best interest of the client. This behavior also promotes open communication and encourages clients to feel comfortable sharing their thoughts and feelings with the nurse.

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143. Situation: A 19 year old nursing student has lost 36 lbs for 4 weeks. Her parents brought her to the hospital for medical evaluation. The diagnosis was ANOREXIA NERVOSA. The Primary gain of a client with anorexia nervosa is:

Explanation

The primary gain of a client with anorexia nervosa is reducing anxiety. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. Individuals with anorexia often restrict their food intake to an extreme degree in an attempt to control their weight and shape. This behavior is driven by the underlying anxiety and fear associated with gaining weight. By losing weight, individuals with anorexia believe they can alleviate their anxiety and gain a sense of control over their lives.

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144. The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by:

Explanation

Percussion is a method used to assess the degree of abdominal distension in patients. It involves tapping on the abdomen and listening for the resulting sound. This technique helps to identify the presence of fluid or gas in the abdomen, which can contribute to distension. By percussing different areas of the abdomen, healthcare professionals can determine the extent of distension and gather information about the underlying condition causing it. Auscultation involves listening to bowel sounds, palpation involves feeling the abdomen for abnormalities, and inspection involves visually examining the abdomen. While these techniques can provide valuable information, percussion specifically focuses on assessing the degree of abdominal distension.

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145. The nurse is aware that ego development begins during:

Explanation

During infancy, which is the period from birth to around 1 year of age, ego development begins. This is when the infant starts to develop a sense of self and becomes aware of their own individuality. They start to differentiate themselves from their caregivers and learn to trust and rely on others. This stage is crucial for the formation of a healthy ego, which is essential for later stages of development.

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146. The ANA recognized nursing informatics heralding its establishment as a new field in nursing during what year?

Explanation

In 1994, the ANA (American Nurses Association) recognized nursing informatics as a new field in nursing. This recognition marked the establishment of nursing informatics as a distinct branch within the nursing profession.

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147. Linda, A 30 year old post hysterectomy client has visited the health center. She inquired about BSE and asked the nurse when BSE should be performed. You answered that the BSE is best performed:

Explanation

Performing breast self-examination (BSE) at the same day each month is the best practice because it helps in establishing a regular routine and makes it easier to detect any changes or abnormalities in the breasts. By performing BSE on the same day each month, Linda can become familiar with the normal look and feel of her breasts, making it easier for her to notice any changes that may occur. This regularity also ensures that she does not miss any potential signs of breast issues or abnormalities.

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148. Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of milk?

Explanation

Estrogen is a hormone that stimulates the growth of mammary glands in preparation for milk production. It plays a role in the development of the milk ducts and the production of milk during pregnancy. While prolactin is the primary hormone responsible for milk production, estrogen works in conjunction with prolactin to stimulate and maintain lactation. Progesterone, on the other hand, inhibits milk production, while oxytocin is responsible for the release of milk from the breasts during breastfeeding. Therefore, estrogen is the correct answer as it directly stimulates the secretion of milk.

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149. For a female client with suspected intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is:

Explanation

Promoting the elimination of carbon dioxide is a most appropriate respiratory goal for a female client with suspected intracranial pressure (ICP). Elevated levels of carbon dioxide can increase intracranial pressure, which can be detrimental to the client's condition. By promoting the elimination of carbon dioxide, the respiratory system can help maintain a balanced level of gases in the body, reducing the risk of further complications related to intracranial pressure.

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150. The greatest danger of an uncorrected atrial fibrillation for a male patient will be which of the following:

Explanation

The greatest danger of an uncorrected atrial fibrillation for a male patient is thrombus formation. Atrial fibrillation is a condition where the heart's upper chambers beat irregularly, causing blood to pool and potentially form clots. If a clot forms in the atria and travels to other parts of the body, it can cause a blockage in the blood vessels, leading to serious complications such as stroke or heart attack. Therefore, thrombus formation poses the highest risk in this scenario.

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An example of subjective data is:
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The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines...
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Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of...
It is a flip over card usually kept in portable file at nursing...
Self governance, ability to choose or carry out decision without undue...
What is the best position in palpating the breast?
The Nurse is aware that the ability to enter into the life of another...
What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old?
In caring for a dying client, you should perform which of the...
A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?
Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult...
An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are...
In assessing a client's incision 1 day after the surgery, Nurse Betty...
A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior?
Which of the following may cause an increase in the cystitis symptoms?
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After delivery of a baby girl. Nurse Gina examines the umbilical cord...
Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in...
Which of the following should be given the highest priority before...
Nurse Hazel knows that Myrna understands her condition well when she...
The present chairman of the Board of Nursing in the Philippines is:
During the evening round Nurse Tina saw Mr. Toralba meditating and...
The nurse is aware that the primary nursing diagnosis for the client...
Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of...
When is the best time in performing breast self examination?
Which is the most frequent reason for postpartum hemorrhage?
A male patient complained because his scheduled surgery was cancelled...
The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient's assignment for the AM...
It is the certification recognition program that develop and promotes...
Which is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis?
Which of the following is not a good source of iron?
How many ml of blood is loss during the first 24 hours post delivery...
Which of the following activity would be best for a depressed client?
The one filing the criminal care against an accused party is said to...
A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse...
Which of the following information cannot be seen in the PRC...
The appropriate nutrition for Bipolar I disorder, in manic phase is:
Nurse Emma provides teaching to a patient with recurrent urinary tract...
Toy with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for...
Which nursing assessment would identify the earliest sign of ICP?
Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate some dehydration?
Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Which of...
Breastfeeding is being enforced by milk code or:
Florence nightingale is born on:
The leaking fluid is tested with nitrazine paper. Nurse Kelly confirms...
Nurse Randy is planning to administer oral medication to a 3 year old...
After 14 days in the hospital, which finding indicates that her...
A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an...
Objective data is also called:
Nurse Carla is aware that one of the following vaccines is done by...
Which of the following cannot be corrected by dialysis?
Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic...
What is the primary prevention of leprosy?
Known as mood elevators:
In patient with renal failure, the diet should be:
How long will nurse John obtain an accurate reading of temperature via...
Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which...
Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish...
EPI is based on?
Being on time, meeting deadlines and completing all scheduled duties...
Autism is diagnosed at:
A client has many irrational thoughts. The goal of therapy is to...
Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is...
Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?
Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an...
Nurse Carla is aware that Myla's second stage of labor is beginning...
Baby Reese is a 12 month old child. Nurse Oliver would anticipate how...
An infant is ordered to recive 500 ml of D5NSS for 24 hours. The...
What is the first line for dysentery?
Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV...
Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for...
The obligation to maintain efficient ethical standards in the practice...
In community health nursing, it is the most important risk factor in...
The termination phase of the NPR is best described one of the...
Jose has undergone thoracentesis. The nurse in charge is aware that...
Freud states that temper tantrums is observed in which of the...
Disposal of medical records in government hospital/institutions must...
The nurse is aware that the most common indication in using ECT is:
When examining a client with abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should...
A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:
Budgeting is under in which part of management process?
It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff...
If a young child has pneumonia when should the mother bring him back...
A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect...
Which of the following is the primary antidote for Tylenol poisoning?
Mr. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of D5RL to run for 12 hours. The...
Diptheria is a:
After amniotomy, the priority nursing action is:
Community/Public health bag is defined as:
Third postpartum visit must be done by public health nurse:
Which of the following is formal continuing education?
The BSN curriculum prepares the graduates to become?
The nurse is assessing a female client with possible diagnosis of...
"To be the leading hospital in the Philippines" is best illustrate in:
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Gentian Violet is used for:
The balance of a research's benefit vs. its risks to the subject is:
Tony with infection is receiving antibiotic therapy. Later the client...
The Nurse is aware that the following tasks can be safely delegated by...
The priority of care for a client with Alzheimer's disease is
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A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an...
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TT4 provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?
All of the following are characteristics of crisis except
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A male client complains of vertigo. Nurse Bea anticipates that the...
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Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel...
Asin law is on which legal basis:
Nurse Christine provides health teaching for the parents of a child...
A male nurse was found guilty of negligence. His license was revoked....
Which assessment finding indicates circulatory constriction in a male...
Nurse Judy is aware that following condition would reflect presence of...
During the process of cocaine withdrawal, the physician orders which...
A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which...
Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester...
Baby Marie was born May 23, 1984. Nurse John will expect finger thumb...
Information in the patients chart is inadmissible in court as evidence...
At what age a child can brush her teeth without help?
Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of...
The nurse is aware that cocaine is classified as:
Nurse Candy is aware that the family planning method that may give 98%...
Which of the following is not a part of IMCI case management process
The common characteristic of autism child is:
An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an:
A male child has an intelligence quotient of approximately 40. Which...
The nurse is aware that ataractics or psychic energizers are also...
A therapy that focuses on here and now principle to promote...
When is the first certification of nursing informatics given?
When performing Weber's test, Nurse Rosean expects that this client...
TT? provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?
Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed with endometritis. Which...
Ribivarin (Virazole) is prescribed for a female hospitalized child...
This quality is being demonstrated by Nurse Ron who raises the side...
Nurse John is aware that self mutilation among Bipolar disorder...
In caring for clients with renal calculi, which is the priority...
The nurse is aware that clients with severe depression, possess which...
When Nurse Clarence respects the client's self-disclosure, this is a...
Situation: A 19 year old nursing student has lost 36 lbs for 4 weeks....
The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by:
The nurse is aware that ego development begins during:
The ANA recognized nursing informatics heralding its establishment as...
Linda, A 30 year old post hysterectomy client has visited the health...
Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of milk?
For a female client with suspected intracranial pressure (ICP), a most...
The greatest danger of an uncorrected atrial fibrillation for a male...
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