Subjective Gynaecology Quiz

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Subjective Gynaecology Quiz - Quiz

Gynaecology or gynecology is the medical practice dealing with the health of the female reproductive system. Almost all modern gynaecologists are also obstetricians. In many areas, the specialities of gynaecology and obstetrics overlap.
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1 A 25-year-old man presents 1 week after discovering that his left testicle is twice the normal size. Physical examination reveals a nontender, testicular mass that cannot be transilluminated. Serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein and human chorionic gonadotropin are normal. A hemiorchiectomy is performed, and histologic examination of the surgical specimen shows embryonal carcinoma. Compared to normal adult somatic cells, this germ cell neoplasm would most likely show high levels of expression of which of the following proteins?

    • A.

      (A) Desmin

    • B.

      (B) Dystrophin

    • C.

      (C) Cytochrome c

    • D.

      (D) P selectin

    • E.

      (E) Telomerase

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Telomerase
    Explanation
    1 The answer is E: Telomerase. Somatic cells do not normally
    express telomerase, which is an enzyme that adds repetitive
    sequences to maintain the length of the telomere. Thus, with
    each round of somatic cell replication, the telomere shortens.
    The length of telomeres may act as a “molecular clock” and
    govern the lifespan of replicating cells. Because cancer cells
    and embryonic cells express high levels of telomerase, the
    reactivation of this enzyme may be important for maintaining
    stem cell proliferation. Most human cancers show activation
    of the gene for the catalytic subunit of telomerase: human
    telomerase reverse transcriptase. P selectin (choice D) is a cell
    adhesion molecule that mediates the margination of neutrophils
    during acute infl ammation. The

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  • 2. 

    3 The patient described in Question 2 undergoes a hysterectomy. In addition to a focus of invasive carcinoma, the pathologist identifi es dysplastic squamous cells occupying the entire thickness of the cervical epithelium, with no evidence of epithelial maturation. The basal membrane in these areas appears intact. Which of the following terms best describes this cervical lesion?

    • A.

      (A) Atypical hyperplasia

    • B.

      (B) Carcinoma in situ

    • C.

      (C) Carcinomatosis

    • D.

      (D) Complex hyperplasia

    • E.

      (E) Koilocytic atypia

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Carcinoma in situ
    Explanation
    3 The answer is B: Carcinoma in situ. Most carcinomas begin
    as localized growths confi ned to the epithelium in which they
    arise. As long as these early cancers do not penetrate the basement
    membrane on which the epithelium rests, such tumors
    are labeled carcinoma in situ. When the in situ tumor acquires
    invasive potential and extends directly through the underlying
    basement membrane, it is in a position to compromise
    neighboring tissues and metastasize. Carcinomatosis (choice
    C) is a clinical term used to describe widespread dissemination
    of cancer. Koilocytosis (choice E) implies the presence of
    squamous cells with perinuclear halos and nuclear changes. It
    is indicative of human papillomavirus infection and carries an
    increased risk of carcinoma. Atypical and complex hyperplasia
    (choices A and D) refer to proliferative lesions of the glands
    within the uterine endometrium.
    Diagnosis: Cervical carcinoma, carcinoma in situ

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  • 3. 

    5 An 80-year-old man complains of lower abdominal pain, increasing weakness, and fatigue. He has lost 16 lb (7.3 kg) in the past 6 months. The prostate-specifi c antigen test is elevated (8.5 ng/mL). Rectal examination reveals an enlarged and nodular prostate. A needle biopsy of the prostate discloses invasive prostatic adenocarcinoma. Histologic grading of this patient’s carcinoma is based primarily on which of the following criteria?

    • A.

      (A) Capsular involvement

    • B.

      (B) Extent of regional lymph nodes involvement

    • C.

      (C) Pulmonary metastases

    • D.

      (D) Resemblance to normal tissue of origin

    • E.

      (E) Volume of prostate involved by tumor

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Resemblance to normal tissue of origin
    Explanation
    5 The answer is D: Resemblance to normal tissue of origin. To
    establish criteria for therapy, many cancers are classifi ed
    according to histologic grading schemes or by staging protocols
    that describe the extent of spread. Cancer grading refl ects
    cellular characteristics. Low-grade tumors are well differentiated,
    whereas high-grade tumors lack differentiated features
    (anaplasia). The general correlation between cytologic grade
    and the behavior of a neoplasm is not invariable. Indeed, there
    are many examples of tumors of low cytologic grades that
    exhibit substantial malignant properties. The other choices
    pertain to cancer staging.
    Diagnosis: Prostate cancer

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  • 4. 

    4 A 62-year-old woman presents with a breast lump that she discovered 6 days ago. A breast biopsy shows lobular carcinoma in situ. Compared to normal epithelial cells of the breast lobule, these malignant cells would most likely show decreased expression of which of the following proteins?

    • A.

      (A) Desmin

    • B.

      (B) E-cadherin

    • C.

      (C) Lysyl hydroxylase

    • D.

      (D) P selectin

    • E.

      (E) Telomerase

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) E-cadherin
    Explanation
    4 The answer is B: E-cadherin. Cadherins are Ca2+-dependent
    transmembrane glycoproteins that mediated cell–cell adhesion.
    E-cadherin is expressed on the surface of all epithelia
    and mediates cell adhesion by “zipper-like” interactions.
    Overall, cadherins suppress invasion and metastasis. Thus, it
    is perhaps not surprising that the expression of E-cadherin is
    reduced in most carcinomas. Desmin (choice A) is an intermediate
    fi lament protein found in cells of mesenchymal origin.
    Lysyl hydroxylase (choice C) is involved in the posttranslational
    modifi cation of collagen. P selectin is a cell adhesion
    molecule that mediates the margination of neutrophils during
    acute infl ammation. Telomerase (choice E) is increased in certain
    malignancies.
    Diagnosis: Breast cancer

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  • 5. 

    2 A 25-year-old woman presents for a gynecologic examination. The cervical Pap smear shows “koilocytic atypia” characterized by perinuclear halos and wrinkled nuclei (shown in the image). A cervical biopsy reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Molecular tests for human papillomavirus (HPV) in the tumor cells are positive. Which of the following mechanisms of disease best explains the role of HPV in the pathogenesis of neoplasia in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Activation of cellular oncogenes

    • B.

      B) Enhanced transcription of telomerase gene

    • C.

      (C) Episomal viral replication

    • D.

      (D) Inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins

    • E.

      (E) Insertional mutagenesis

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins
    Explanation
    2 The answer is D: Inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins.
    Unlike RNA tumor viruses, whose oncogenes have
    normal cellular counterparts, the transforming genes of DNA
    viruses are not homologous with any cellular genes. This
    conundrum was resolved with the discovery that the gene
    products of oncogenic DNA viruses inactivate tumor suppressor
    proteins. For example, proteins encoded by the E6 and
    E7 genes of HPV16 bind p53 and pRb. The other choices are
    involved in the pathogenesis of neoplasia, but they are not
    specifi c for HPV.
    Diagnosis: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, HPV infection

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  • 6. 

    6 A 50-year-old woman presents with a lump in her breast. A 4-cm firm and fixed mass is noted on breast examination. Excisional biopsy reveals malignant cells that form glandlike structures and solid nests, surrounded by a dense collagenous stroma. A connective tissue stain (trichrome) of the biopsy is shown in the image. Which of the following descriptive terms best describes the blue areas observed in this specimen?

    • A.

      (A) Colloid carcinoma

    • B.

      (B) Comedocarcinoma

    • C.

      (C) Desmoplastic change

    • D.

      (D) Medullary carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Desmoplastic change
    Explanation
    6 The answer is C: Desmoplastic change. Secondary descriptors
    are used to refer to a tumor’s morphologic and functional
    characteristics. Papillomatosis (choice E) describes frond-like
    ​​​​​​​structures. Medullary (choice D) signifi es a soft cellular tumor,
    whereas scirrhous or desmoplastic implies dense fi brous
    stroma. Colloid carcinomas (choice A) secrete abundant
    mucus. Comedocarcinoma (choice B) is an intraductal neoplasm
    in which necrotic material can be expressed from the
    ducts.
    Diagnosis: Breast cancer

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  • 7. 

    7 A 65-year-old man complains of muscle weakness and a dry cough for 4 months. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 45 years. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm central, left lung mass. Laboratory studies reveal hyperglycemia and hypertension. A transbronchial biopsy is diagnosed as small cell carcinoma. Metastases to the liver are detected by CT scan. Which of the following might account for the development of hyperglycemia and hypertension in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Adrenal metastases

    • B.

      (B) Paraneoplastic syndrome

    • C.

      (C) Pituitary adenoma

    • D.

      (D) Pituitary metastases

    • E.

      (E) Thrombosis of the renal artery

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Paraneoplastic syndrome
    Explanation
    7 The answer is B: Paraneoplastic syndrome. Cancers may produce
    remote effects, collectively termed paraneoplastic syndromes.
    For example, the secretion of corticotropin (ACTH)
    by a tumor leads to clinical features of Cushing syndrome,
    including hyperglycemia and hypertension. Corticotropin
    production is most commonly seen with cancers of the lung,
    particularly small cell carcinoma. Adrenal and pituitary metastases
    (choices A and D) would lead to loss of adrenal function
    (Addison disease). Although pituitary adenoma (choice C) is
    a possible cause of Cushing syndrome, this choice would be
    unlikely in a patient with lung cancer.
    Diagnosis: Small cell carcinoma of lung, paraneoplastic
    syndrome

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  • 8. 

    8 A 60-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of increasing weight loss, wheezing, and shortness of breath. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 40 years. His past medical history is signifi cant for emphysema and chronic bronchitis. A chest X-ray shows a 10-cm mass in the left lung. Bronchoscopy discloses obstruction of the left main stem bronchus. A biopsy is obtained (shown in the image). Immunohistochemical studies of this biopsy specimen would most likely show strong expression of which of the following tumor markers?

    • A.

      (A) Alpha-fetoprotein

    • B.

      (B) Calretinin

    • C.

      (C) Carcinoembryonic antigen

    • D.

      (D) Cytokeratins

    • E.

      (E) Synaptophysin

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Cytokeratins
    Explanation
    8 The answer is D: Cytokeratins. Tumor markers are products
    of malignant neoplasms that can be detected in cells or body
    fl uids. Useful tumor markers include immunoglobulins, fetal
    proteins, enzymes, hormones, and cytoskeletal proteins. Carcinomas
    uniformly express cytokeratins, which are intermediate
    fi laments. Alpha-fetoprotein (choice A) is a marker for
    yolk sac carcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma. Calretinin
    (choice B) provides a marker for mesothelioma. Carcinoembryonic
    antigen (choice C) is a marker for colon carcinoma
    and many other malignancies. Synaptophysin (choice E) is a
    marker for neuroendocrine tumors, including small cell carcinoma
    of the lung.
    Diagnosis: Squamous cell carcinoma of lung

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  • 9. 

    9 Which of the following potent carcinogens was most likely involved in the pathogenesis of lung cancer in the patient described in Question 8?

    • A.

      (A) Afl atoxin B1

    • B.

      (B) Asbestos

    • C.

      (C) Azo dyes

    • D.

      (D) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

    • E.

      (E) Vinyl chloride

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
    Explanation
    9 The answer is D: Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. Polycyclic
    aromatic hydrocarbons, originally derived from coal tar, are
    among the most extensively studied carcinogens. These compounds
    produce cancers at the site of application. Since polycyclic
    hydrocarbons have been identifi ed in cigarette smoke,
    it has been suggested (but not proved) that they are involved
    in the pathogenesis of lung cancer. Afl atoxin B1 (choice A), a
    natural product of the fungus Aspergillus fl avus, is among the
    most potent liver carcinogens. Asbestos (choice B), a mineral,
    is associated with mesothelioma and adenocarcinoma of lung.
    Industrial workers exposed to high levels of vinyl chloride
    (choice E) in the ambient atmosphere developed angiosarcomas
    of the liver.
    Diagnosis: Squamous cell carcinoma of lung

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  • 10. 

    10 A 33-year-old woman discovers a lump in her left breast on self-examination. Her mother and sister both had breast cancer. A mammogram demonstrates an ill-defi ned density in the outer quadrant of the left breast, with microcalcifi cations. Needle aspiration reveals the presence of malignant, ductal epithelial cells. Genetic screening identifi es a mutation in BRCA1. In addition to cell cycle control, BRCA1 protein promotes which of the following cellular functions?

    • A.

      (A) Apoptosis

    • B.

      (B) Cell adhesion

    • C.

      (C) DNA repair

    • D.

      (D) Gene transcription

    • E.

      (E) Transmembrane signaling

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) DNA repair
    Explanation
    10 The answer is C: DNA repair. Breast (BR) cancer (CA) susceptibility
    genes (BRCA1 and BRCA2) encode tumor suppressor
    proteins involved in checkpoint functions related to progression
    of the cell cycle into S phase. BRCA1 and BRCA2 proteins
    also promote DNA repair by binding to RAD51, a molecule
    that mediates DNA double-strand repair breaks. The other
    choices may be abnormal in neoplasia, but they are not primarily
    affected by BRCA1.

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  • 11. 

    11 A 60-year-old man who worked for 30 years in a chemical factory complains of blood in his urine. Urine cytology discloses dysplastic cells. A bladder biopsy demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma. Which of the following carcinogens was most likely involved in the pathogenesis of bladder cancer in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Aniline dyes

    • B.

      (B) Arsenic

    • C.

      (C) Benzene

    • D.

      (D) Cisplatinum

    • E.

      (E) Vinyl chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. (A) Aniline dyes
    Explanation
    11 The answer is A: Aniline dyes. Transitional cell carcinoma is
    the most common malignant tumor of the urinary bladder,
    and the incidence of bladder cancer is increased in aniline dye
    workers. These azo dyes are converted to water-soluble carcinogens
    in the liver. They are excreted in the urine, where
    they primarily affect the transitional epithelium of the bladder.
    Benzene exposure (choice C) is associated with leukemia.
    Vinyl chloride exposure (choice E) has been associated with
    hepatic angiosarcomas.
    Diagnosis: Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder

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  • 12. 

    12 A 60-year-old man presents with an ulcerated, encrusted, and infi ltrating lesion on the sun-exposed dorsal aspect of a fi nger (shown in the image). A biopsy reveals squamous cell carcinoma. The metastatic potential of this neoplasm would be enhanced by upregulation of the gene for which of the following proteins?

    • A.

      (A) Collagen type IV

    • B.

      (B) Desmin

    • C.

      (C) E-cadherin

    • D.

      (D) Glutathione peroxidase

    • E.

      (E) Plasminogen activator

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Plasminogen activator
    Explanation
    12 The answer is E: Plasminogen activator. Malignant cells and
    stromal cells associated with cancers elaborate a variety of proteases
    that degrade basement membrane components. Such
    enzymes include the urokinase-type plasminogen activator
    (u-PA) and matrix metalloproteinases. u-PA converts serum
    plasminogen to plasmin, a serine protease that degrades
    laminin and activates type IV procollagenase. Changes in the
    expression of u-PA, the u-PA receptor, and PA inhibitors have
    been reported in different cancers. Metastatic cells would be
    expected to show reduced expression of collagens (choice A)
    and cadherins (choice C). Desmin (choice B) is found in cells
    of mesenchymal origin.
    Diagnosis: Squamous cell carcinoma of skin

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  • 13. 

    13 A 45-year-old man presents with a 9-month history of a reddish nodule on his foot. Biopsy of the nodule discloses a poorly demarcated lesion composed of fi broblasts and endothelial-like cells lining vascular spaces. Further work-up identifi es similar lesions in the lymph nodes and liver. The tumor cells contain sequences of human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8). This patient most likely has which of the following diseases?

    • A.

      (A) Acquired immunodefi ciency

    • B.

      (B) Ataxia telangiectasia

    • C.

      (C) Li-Fraumeni syndrome

    • D.

      (D) Neurofi bromatosis type I

    • E.

      (E) Xeroderma pigmentosum

    Correct Answer
    A. (A) Acquired immunodefi ciency
    Explanation
    13 The answer is A: Acquired immunodefi ciency. Kaposi sarcoma
    is the most common neoplasm associated with
    acquired immunodefi ciency syndrome (AIDS). The neoplastic
    cells contain sequences of a novel virus, HHV-8, which
    is also known as Kaposi sarcoma–associated herpesvirus. In
    addition to infecting the spindle cells of Kaposi sarcoma,
    HHV-8 is lymphotropic and has been implicated in two
    uncommon B-cell lymphoid malignancies, namely, primary
    effusion lymphoma and multicentric Castleman disease.
    Like other DNA viruses, the HHV-8 genome encodes proteins
    that interfere with the p53 and pRb tumor suppressor
    pathways. The other choices are hereditary conditions
    associated with cancer; however, these patients do not typically
    acquire Kaposi sarcoma. The predominant malignancy
    seen in patients with ataxia telangiectasia (choice B) is lymphoma/
    leukemia.
    Diagnosis: Kaposi sarcoma, AIDS

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  • 14. 

    14 During a routine checkup, a 50-year-old man is found to have blood in his urine. He is otherwise in excellent health. An abdominal CT scan reveals a 2-cm right renal mass. You inform the patient that staging of this tumor is key to selecting treatment and evaluating prognosis. Which of the following is the most important staging factor for this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Histologic grade of the tumor

    • B.

      (B) Metastases to regional lymph nodes

    • C.

      (C) Proliferative capacity of the tumor cells

    • D.

      (D) Somatic mutations in the p53 tumor suppressor gene

    • E.

      (E) Tumor cell karyotype (aneuploidy)

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Metastases to regional lymph nodes
    Explanation
    14 The answer is B: Metastases to regional lymph nodes. The
    choice of surgical approach or treatment modalities is infl uenced
    more by the stage of a cancer than by its cytologic
    grade. The signifi cant criteria used for staging vary with
    different organs. Commonly used criteria include (1) tumor
    size, (2) extent of local growth, (3) presence of lymph node
    metastases, and (4) presence of distant metastases. The other
    choices refl ect grade of the tumor.
    Diagnosis: Renal cell carcinoma

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  • 15. 

    15 A 68-year-old man who has worked in a shipyard and manufacturing plant all his adult life complains of a 4-month history of chest discomfort, malaise, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion. The patient dies 5 months later of cardiorespiratory failure. The lung at autopsy is shown in the image. This malignant neoplasm is associated with environmental exposure to which of the following carcinogens?  

    • A.

      (A) Afl atoxin B1

    • B.

      (B) Asbestos

    • C.

      (C) Beryllium

    • D.

      (D) Ionizing radiation

    • E.

      (E) Silica

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Asbestos
    Explanation
    15 The answer is B: Asbestos. The characteristic tumor associated
    with asbestos exposure is mesothelioma of the pleural
    and peritoneal cavities. This cancer has been reported to
    occur in 2% to 3% of heavily exposed workers. The pipe fi tters
    in shipyards were the most exposed workers. Many of
    these workers developed mesotheliomas 20 to 40 years after
    exposure. It is reasonable to surmise that mesotheliomas of
    both the pleura and the peritoneum refl ect the close contact
    of these membranes with asbestos fi bers transported to them
    by lymphatic channels. Like the polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons,
    afl atoxin B1 (choice A) can bind covalently to DNA
    and is among the most potent liver carcinogens recognized.
    Beryllium (choice C) and silica (choice E) cause lung disease,
    but they are not carcinogenic.
    Diagnosis: Mesothelioma

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  • 16. 

    16 A 58-year-old woman with colon cancer presents with 3 months of increasing shortness of breath. A chest X-ray reveals numerous, bilateral, round masses in both lungs. Histologic examination of an open-lung biopsy discloses malignant gland-like structures, which are nearly identical to the colon primary. Which of the following changes in cell behavior was the fi rst step in the process leading to tumor metastasis from the colon to the lung in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Arrest within the circulating blood or lymph

    • B.

      (B) Exit from the circulation into a new tissue

    • C.

      (C) Invasion of the underlying basement membrane

    • D.

      (D) Penetration of vascular or lymphatic channels

    • E.

      (E) Stimulation of angiogenesis within the pulmonarymetastases

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Invasion of the underlying basement membrane
    Explanation
    16 The answer is C: Invasion of the underlying basement
    membrane. The fi rst event in tumor cell invasion is breach
    of the basement membrane that separates an epithelium from
    the underlying mesenchyme. After invading the interstitial tissue,
    malignant cells penetrate lymphatic or vascular channels
    (choice D). In the lymph nodes, communications between the
    lymphatics and venous tributaries allow malignant cells access
    to the systemic circulation. The other choices are important
    for tumor metastases, but they occur later than basement
    membrane invasion.
    Diagnosis: Adenocarcinoma of colon

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  • 17. 

    17 A 68-year-old man complains of recent changes in bowel habits and blood-tinged stools. Colonoscopy reveals a 3-cm mass in the sigmoid colon. Biopsy of the mass shows infi ltrating malignant glands. These neoplastic cells have most likely acquired a set of mutations that cause which of the following changes in cell behavior?

    • A.

      (A) Decreased cellular motility

    • B.

      (B) Enhanced stem cell differentiation

    • C.

      (C) Increased cell-cell adhesion

    • D.

      (D) Increased susceptibility to apoptosis

    • E.

      (E) Loss of cell cycle restriction point control

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Loss of cell cycle restriction point control
    Explanation
    17 The answer is E: Loss of cell cycle restriction point control.
    Cancer cells often display loss of cell cycle restriction
    point control through mechanisms such as overexpression
    of cyclin D1, loss of Cdk inhibitors, or inactivation of the
    pRb or p53 proteins. The p53 gene is deleted or mutated in
    75% of cases of colorectal cancer and frequently mutated in
    numerous other tumors. The p53 protein is a negative regulator
    of cell division. Inactivating mutations of p53 cause loss of
    cell cycle restriction point control and allow cells with damaged
    DNA to progress through the cell cycle. Malignant cells
    have increased cellular motility (see choice A), reduced stem
    cell differentiation (see choice B), decreased cell adhesion
    (see choice C), and decreased susceptibility to apoptosis (see
    choice D).
    Diagnosis: Adenocarcinoma of colon

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  • 18. 

    18 A 35-year-old woman complains of nipple discharge and irregular menses of 5 months duration. Physical examination reveals a milky discharge from both nipples. MRI shows an enlargement of the anterior pituitary. Which of the following is the most likely histologic diagnosis of this patient’s pituitary tumor?

    • A.

      (A) Adenoma

    • B.

      (B) Choristoma

    • C.

      (C) Hamartoma

    • D.

      (D) Papilloma

    • E.

      (E) Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    A. (A) Adenoma
    Explanation
    18 The answer is A: Adenoma. Benign tumors arising from a
    glandular epithelium are termed adenomas. Patients with a
    prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma present with amenorrhea
    and galactorrhea. Ectopic islands of normal tissue are
    called choristomas (choice B). Localized, disordered differentiation
    during development results in a hamartoma (choice C).
    Papillomas (choice D) do not occur in the pituitary. Benign
    tumors that arise from germ cells and contain all three germ
    layers are termed teratomas (choice E).
    Diagnosis: Pituitary adenoma, prolactinoma

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  • 19. 

    19 A 52-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of upper truncal obesity and moderate depression. Physical examination shows hirsutism and moon facies. A CT scan of the thorax displays a hilar mass. A transbronchial lung biopsy discloses small cell carcinoma. Electron microscopy of this patient’s lung tumor will most likely reveal which of the following cytologic features?

    • A.

      (A) Councilman bodies

    • B.

      (B) Hyperplasia of endoplasmic reticulum

    • C.

      (C) Mitochondrial calcifi cation

    • D.

      (D) Myelin fi gures in lysosomes

    • E.

      (E) Neuroendocrine granules

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Neuroendocrine granules
    Explanation
    19 The answer is E: Neuroendocrine granules. Neuroendocrine
    tumors may synthesize a number of hormones. The presence
    of small, membrane-bound granules with a dense core is a feature
    of these neoplasms. Dense granules are visible by electron
    microscopy. In this way, electron microscopy may aid in the
    diagnosis of poorly differentiated cancers, whose classifi cation
    is problematic by light microscopy. Carcinomas often exhibit
    desmosomes and specialized junctional complexes, which
    are structures that are not typical of sarcomas or lymphomas.
    Myelin fi gures (choice D) are seen in patients with inherited
    lysosomal storage disease. Councilman bodies (choice A) are
    apoptotic hepatocytes (acidophilic bodies).
    Diagnosis: Small cell carcinoma of lung, paraneoplastic
    syndrome

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  • 20. 

    20 Cytogenetic studies in a 40-year-old woman with follicular lymphoma demonstrate a t(14;18) chromosomal translocation involving the bcl-2 gene. Constitutive expression of the protein encoded by the bcl-2 gene inhibits which of the following processes in this patient’s transformed lymphocytes?

    • A.

      (A) Apoptosis

    • B.

      (B) DNA excision repair

    • C.

      (C) G1-to-S cell cycle progression

    • D.

      (D) Oxidative phosphorylation

    • E.

      (E) Protein (N-linked) glycosylation

    Correct Answer
    A. (A) Apoptosis
    Explanation
    20 The answer is A: Apoptosis. Many human cancers show
    abnormalities in the control of apoptosis. For example, follicular
    B-cell lymphomas display a characteristic chromosomal
    translocation in which the bcl-2 gene is brought under
    the transcriptional control of the immunoglobulin light-chain
    gene promoter, thereby causing overexpression of bcl-2. As a
    result of the antiapoptotic properties of bcl-2, the neoplastic
    clone accumulates in lymph nodes. Since its demonstration
    in follicular lymphomas, bcl-2 expression has been observed
    in a variety of other human cancers. None of the other choices
    describes the function of bcl-2.
    Diagnosis: Follicular lymphoma

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  • 21. 

    21 A 60-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of increasing weight loss and fatigue. Physical examination reveals conspicuous hepatomegaly. An abdominal CT scan reveals multiple “canon ball” nodules in the liver (shown in the image). A CTguided biopsy reveals a mucous-secreting adenocarcinoma. This patient’s metastatic liver cancer most likely originated in which of the following anatomic locations? 

    • A.

      (A) Adrenal medulla

    • B.

      (B) Bone marrow

    • C.

      (C) Brain

    • D.

      (D) Pancreas

    • E.

      (E) Urinary bladder

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Pancreas
    Explanation
    The answer is D: Pancreas. Radiologic evidence of “canon
    ball” lesions in the liver or lung suggests metastatic cancer.
    The liver is involved in a third of all metastatic cancers, including
    half of those of the gastrointestinal tract, breast, and lung.
    Other tumors that characteristically metastasize to the liver
    are pancreatic carcinoma and malignant melanoma. Liver
    metastases are the most common cause of massive hepatomegaly.
    Visible secretions of tumor cells, such as mucin or
    serous fl uid, provide important clues for tumor diagnosis.
    Mucin-secreting glandular epithelium and mucin-secreting
    adenocarcinoma are expected in the pancreas. None of the
    other organs are composed of glandular epithelial cells or produce
    mucin.
    Diagnosis: Metastatic cancer

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  • 22. 

    24 A 59-year-old man complains of progressive weakness. He reports that his stools are very dark. Physical examination demonstrates fullness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies show iron defi ciency anemia, with a serum hemoglobin level of 7.4 g/dL. Stool specimens are positive for occult blood. Colonoscopy discloses an ulcerating lesion of the cecum. Which of the following serum tumor markers is most likely to be useful for following this patient after surgery?

    • A.

      (A) Alpha-fetoprotein

    • B.

      (B) Carcinoembryonic antigen

    • C.

      (C) Chorionic gonadotropin

    • D.

      (D) Chromogranin

    • E.

      (E) Coagulation factor VIII

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Carcinoembryonic antigen
    Explanation
    The answer is B: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). Colorectal
    cancer is asymptomatic in its initial stages. As the tumor
    grows, the most common sign is occult blood in feces,
    especially when the tumor is in the proximal portion of the
    colon. Chronic, asymptomatic bleeding typically causes
    iron- defi ciency anemia. Adenocarcinomas of the colon usually
    express CEA, a glycoprotein that is released into the circulation
    and serves as a serologic marker for these tumors
    CEA is also found in association with malignant tumors of
    the pancreas, lung, and ovary. AFP (choice A) is expressed by
    hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors. Chromogranin
    (choice D) is expressed by neuroendocrine tumors. Chorionic
    gonadotropin (choice C) is secreted by choriocarcinoma.
    Diagnosis: Colon cancer

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  • 23. 

    23 A 65-year-old man dies after a protracted battle with metastatic colon carcinoma. At autopsy, the liver is fi lled with multiple nodules of cancer, many of which display central necrosis (umbilication). Which of the following best explains the pathogenesis of tumor umbilication in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Biphasic tumor

    • B.

      (B) Chronic infl ammation

    • C.

      (C) Granulomatous infl ammation

    • D.

      (D) Ischemia and infarction

    • E.

      (E) Stimulation of angiogenesis

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Ischemia and infarction
    Explanation
    The answer is D: Ischemia and infarction. Angiogenesis is a
    requirement for the continued growth of cancers, whether primary
    or metastatic. In the absence of new vessels to supply the
    nutrients and remove waste products, malignant tumors do
    not grow larger than 1 to 2 mm in diameter. In general, causes
    of tumor cell death in situ include (1) programmed cell death
    (apoptosis); (2) inadequate blood supply, with consequent
    ischemia; (3) a paucity of nutrients; and (4) vulnerability to
    specifi c and nonspecifi c host defenses. The CT scan provided
    for Question 21 shows central necrosis (umbilication) in most
    of the metastatic tumor nodules. None of the other choices are
    likely causes of tumor necrosis.
    Diagnosis: Metastatic cancer

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  • 24. 

    22 A 59-year-old woman presents with increasing pigmentation of the skin. Physical examination shows hyperkeratosis and hyperpigmentation of the axilla, neck, fl exures, and anogenital region. Endocrinologic studies reveal normal serum levels of adrenal corticosteroids and glucocorticoids. If this patient’s skin pigmentation represents a paraneoplastic syndrome, the primary tumor would most likely be found in which of the following anatomic locations?

    • A.

      (A) Bladder

    • B.

      (B) Cervix

    • C.

      (C) Esophagus

    • D.

      (D) Pleura

    • E.

      (E) Stomach

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Stomach
    Explanation
    22 The answer is E: Stomach. Acanthosis nigricans is a cutaneous
    disorder marked by hyperkeratosis and pigmentation
    of the axilla, neck, fl exures, and anogenital region. It is of
    particular interest because more than half of patients with
    acanthosis nigricans have cancer. Over 90% of cases occur in
    association with gastrointestinal carcinomas (primarily stomach
    cancer). The other tumors are uncommon causes of acanthosis
    nigricans.
    Diagnosis: Paraneoplastic syndrome, acanthosis nigricans

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  • 25. 

    26 A 20-year-old woman has an ovarian tumor removed. The surgical specimen is 10 cm in diameter and cystic. The cystic cavity is found to contain black hair and sebaceous material. Histologic examination of the cyst wall reveals a variety of benign differentiated tissues, including skin, cartilage, brain, and mucinous glandular epithelium. What is the diagnosis?

    • A.

      (A) Adenoma

    • B.

      (B) Chondroma

    • C.

      (C) Hamartoma

    • D.

      (D) Teratocarcinoma

    • E.

      (E) Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Teratoma
    Explanation
    26 The answer is E: Teratoma. Teratomas are benign tumors
    composed of tissues derived from all three primary germ layers:
    ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. They are most common
    in the ovary but also occur in the testis and extragonadal
    sites. Teratocarcinomas (choice D) are malignant tumors that
    harbor embryonal carcinoma stem cells. Adenoma (choice A)
    is a benign tumor of epithelial origin. Chondroma (choice B)
    is a benign cartilaginous tumor. Hamartoma (choice C) is disorganized
    normal tissue.
    Diagnosis: Mature teratoma

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  • 26. 

    27 A 42-year-old man presents with upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Upper endoscopy and biopsy reveal gastric adenocarcinoma. Which country of the world has the highest incidence of this malignant neoplasm?

    • A.

      (A) Argentina

    • B.

      (B) Canada

    • C.

      (C) Japan

    • D.

      (D) Mexico

    • E.

      (E) United States

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Japan
    Explanation
    27 The answer is C: Japan. The highest incidence of stomach
    cancer occurs in Japan, where the disease is almost ten times
    as frequent as it is among American whites. A study of Japanese
    residents of Hawaii found that emigrants from Japanese
    regions with the highest risk of stomach cancer continued to
    exhibit an excess risk in Hawaii. By contrast, their offspring
    who were born in Hawaii had the same incidence of this cancer
    as American whites. The highest incidence of colorectal
    cancer is found in the United States (choice E).
    Diagnosis: Gastric cancer

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  • 27. 

    25 Laboratory studies of the surgical specimen obtained from the patient described in Question 24 demonstrate hypermethylation of the p53 gene. Which of the following best characterizes this biochemical change in the neoplastic cells?  

    • A.

      A) Epigenetic modifi cation

    • B.

      (B) Gene amplifi cation

    • C.

      (C) Insertional mutagenesis

    • D.

      (D) Nonreciprocal translocation

    • E.

      (E) Protooncogene mutation

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Epigenetic modifi cation
    Explanation
    25 The answer is A: Epigenetic modifi cation. Hypermethylation
    of many tumor suppressor and DNA repair genes has been
    demonstrated in human tumors. The pathways controlled by
    these genes are, therefore, suppressed. For example, the normal
    p53 gene can be inactivated by hypermethylation. Thus,
    aberrant methylation of tumor suppressor genes may be an
    epigenetic mechanism for a “second hit,” leading to loss of
    heterozygosity. Unlike genetic changes in cancer, epigenetic
    changes are reversible, and a search for drugs that infl uence
    DNA methylation is under way. The other choices are unrelated
    to DNA methylation.
    Diagnosis: Colon cancer

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  • 28. 

    28 An 8-year-old girl with numerous hypopigmented, ulcerated, and crusted patches on her face and forearms develops an indurated, crater-like, skin nodule on the back of her left hand. Biopsy of this skin nodule discloses a squamous cell carcinoma. Molecular biology studies reveal that this patient has germline mutations in the gene encoding a nucleotide excision repair enzyme. What is the appropriate diagnosis?

    • A.

      (A) Ataxia telangiectasia

    • B.

      (B) Hereditary albinism

    • C.

      (C) Li-Fraumeni syndrome

    • D.

      (D) Neurofi bromatosis, type I

    • E.

      (E) Xeroderma pigmentosum

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Xeroderma pigmentosum
    Explanation
    28 The answer is E: Xeroderma pigmentosum. Xeroderma
    pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive disease in which
    increased sensitivity to sunlight is accompanied by a high
    incidence of skin cancers, including basal cell carcinoma,
    squamous cell carcinoma, and malignant melanoma. Several
    xeroderma pigmentosum genes are involved in nucleotide
    excision of ultraviolet-damaged DNA. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
    (choice C) refers to an inherited predisposition to develop
    cancers in many organs due to germline mutations of p53.
    Ataxia telangiectasia (choice A) features cerebellar degeneration,
    immunologic abnormalities, and a predisposition to
    cancer. The mutated gene codes for a nuclear phosphoprotein
    involved in regulation of the cell cycle and DNA repair.
    Patients with hereditary albinism (choice B) are also at high
    risk for development of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin,
    but they do not have a defect in DNA excision repair. Patients
    with neurofi bromatosis (choice D) develop benign cutaneous
    neurofi bromas.
    Diagnosis: Xeroderma pigmentosum

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  • 29. 

    29 A 59-year-old woman complains of “feeling light-headed” and losing 5 kg (11 lb) in the last month. A CBC reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia. The patient subsequently dies of metastatic cancer. Based on current epidemiologic data for cancer-associated mortality in women, which of the following is the most likely primary site for this patient’s malignant neoplasm?

    • A.

      (A) Brain

    • B.

      (B) Breast

    • C.

      (C) Colon

    • D.

      (D) Lung

    • E.

      (E) Urinary bladder

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Lung
    Explanation
    29 The answer is D: Lung. Lung carcinoma is the cause of most
    cancer-related deaths in the United States and Western Europe
    in men and women. The second most common cause of death
    from cancer in women is breast cancer (choice B). One of the
    most common fi ndings in patients with cancer is anemia,
    but the mechanism for this paraneoplastic syndrome is not
    clear. The anemia is usually normocytic and normochromic,
    although iron defi ciency anemia is common in cancers that
    bleed into the gastrointestinal tract.
    Diagnosis: Lung cancer

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  • 30. 

    30 The parents of a 6-month-old girl palpate a mass on the left side of the child’s abdomen. Urinalysis shows high levels of vanillylmandelic acid. A CT scan reveals an abdominal tumor and bony metastases. The primary tumor is surgically resected. Histologic examination of the surgical specimen discloses neuroblastoma. Evaluation of the N-myc protooncogene in this child’s tumor will most likely demonstrate which of the following genetic changes?

    • A.

      (A) Chromosomal translocation

    • B.

      (B) Exon deletion

    • C.

      (C) Expansion of a trinucleotide repeat

    • D.

      (D) Frameshift mutation

    • E.

      (E) Gene amplifi cation

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Gene amplifi cation
    Explanation
    30 The answer is E: Gene amplifi cation. Chromosomal alterations
    that result in an increased number of copies of a gene
    have been found primarily in solid tumors. Such aberrations
    are recognized as (1) homogeneous staining regions (HSRs);
    (2) abnormal banding regions on chromosomes; or (3) double
    minutes, which are visualized as small, paired cytoplasmic
    bodies. In some cases, gene amplifi cation has been shown to
    involve protooncogenes. For example, HSRs may be seen in
    neuroblastomas and are all derived from the N-myc protooncogene.
    The presence of N-myc HSRs is associated with up to
    700-fold amplifi cation of this gene and is a marker of advanced
    disease with a poor prognosis. Although the other choices are
    mechanisms for protooncogene activation, they do not cause
    upregulation of N-myc in patients with neuroblastoma.
    Diagnosis: Neuroblastoma

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  • 31. 

    31 An 8-year-old African boy presents with swelling in his jaw and massive facial disfi guration. Biopsy reveals a tumor invading the bone marrow of the jaw. The pathogenesis of this malignant neoplasm is associated with a virus that exhibits a tropism for which of the following cells?

    • A.

      (A) Chondrocytes

    • B.

      (B) Fibroblasts

    • C.

      (C) Lymphocytes

    • D.

      (D) Macrophages

    • E.

      (E) Osteocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    31 The answer is C: Lymphocytes. Four DNA viruses (human
    papillomavirus, Epstein-Barr virus [EBV], hepatitis B virus,
    and herpesvirus-8) are incriminated in the development of
    human cancers. EBV was the fi rst virus to be unequivocally
    linked to the development of a human tumor. In 1958, Burkitt
    described a form of childhood lymphoma in a geographical
    belt across equatorial Africa, which he suggested might have
    a viral etiology. A few years later, Epstein and Barr discovered
    viral particles in cell lines cultured from patients with Burkitt
    lymphoma. African Burkitt lymphoma is a B-cell tumor, in
    which the neoplastic lymphocytes invariably contain EBV in
    their DNA and manifest EBV-related antigens. EBV does not
    infect the other choices.
    Diagnosis: Burkitt lymphoma, EBV

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  • 32. 

    32 A 58-year-old woman undergoes routine colonoscopy. A 2-cm submucosal nodule is identifi ed in the appendix. Biopsy of the nodule shows nests of cells with round, uniform nuclei. Electron microscopy reveals numerous neuroendocrine granules in the cytoplasm. This patient’s neoplastic disease is associated with which of the following clinical features?

    • A.

      (A) Congestive heart failure

    • B.

      (B) Flushing and wheezing

    • C.

      (C) Muscular dystrophy

    • D.

      (D) Progressive systemic sclerosis

    • E.

      (E) Pulmonary embolism

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Flushing and wheezing
    Explanation
    32 The answer is B: Flushing and wheezing. Carcinoid syndrome
    is a systemic paraneoplastic disease caused by the release of
    hormones from carcinoid tumors (via neuroendocrine granules)
    into venous blood. Symptoms of fl ushing, bronchial
    wheezing, watery diarrhea, and abdominal colic are caused by
    the release of serotonin, bradykinin, and histamine. Carcinoids
    are neuroendocrine tumors of low malignancy that are most
    commonly located in the submucosa of the intestines (e.g.,
    appendix, terminal ileum, and rectum). The other choices are
    not associated with this paraneoplastic syndrome.
    Diagnosis: Carcinoid tumor, paraneoplastic syndrome

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  • 33. 

    33 A 55-year-old woman presents with increasing weight loss and fatigue and subsequently dies of metastatic cancer. The vertebral column at autopsy is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

    • A.

      (A) Chondrosarcoma

    • B.

      (B) Melanoma

    • C.

      (C) Multiple myeloma

    • D.

      (D) Osteosarcoma

    • E.

      (E) Rhabdomyosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Melanoma
    Explanation
    33 The answer is B: Melanoma. The photograph shows pigmented
    cells in the vertebral bodies of a person who died
    of malignant melanoma. This autopsy fi nding illustrates the
    point that accurate tumor identifi cation depends on morphologic
    resemblance to normal tissue. Tumor emboli in this case
    probably reached bone after surviving passage through the
    pulmonary microcirculation. None of the other tumors show
    pigmentation.
    Diagnosis: Melanoma

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  • 34. 

    34 A 45-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. A hysterectomy is performed and shows a benign tumor of the uterus derived from a smooth muscle cell. What is the appropriate diagnosis?

    • A.

      (A) Angiomyolipoma

    • B.

      (B) Leiomyoma

    • C.

      (C) Leiomyosarcoma

    • D.

      (D) Myxoma

    • E.

      (E) Rhabdomyoma

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Leiomyoma
    Explanation
    34 The answer is B: Leiomyoma. Leiomyoma is the most common
    benign tumor of the uterus, usually arising in women of
    reproductive age. It originates from smooth muscle cells of the
    myometrium. None of the other choices are benign tumors of
    smooth muscle.
    Diagnosis: Leiomyoma of uterus

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  • 35. 

    35 Cytogenetic studies in a 70-year-old woman with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) demonstrate a t(9;22) chromosomal translocation. Which of the following best explains the role of this translocation in the pathogenesis of leukemia in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Altered DNA methylation status

    • B.

      (B) Enhanced expression of telomerase gene

    • C.

      (C) Expansion of a trinucleotide repeat

    • D.

      (D) Inactivation of tumor suppressor protein

    • E.

      (E) Protooncogene activation

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Protooncogene activation
    Explanation
    35 The answer is E: Protooncogene activation. The best-known
    example of an acquired chromosomal translocation in a human
    cancer is the Philadelphia chromosome, which is found in 95%
    of patients with CML. The c-abl protooncogene on chromosome
    9 is translocated to chromosome 22, it is placed in juxtaposition
    to the breakpoint cluster region (bcr). The c-abl gene
    and bcr region unite to produce a hybrid oncogene that codes
    for an aberrant protein with very high levels of tyrosine kinase
    activity, which generates mitogenic and antiapoptotic signals.
    Diagnosis: Chronic myelogenous leukemia, Philadelphia
    chromosome

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  • 36. 

    37 A 63-year-old woman with chronic bronchitis presents with shortness of breath. A chest X-ray reveals a 2-cm “coin lesion” in the upper lobe of the left lung. A CT-guided lung biopsy is obtained. Which of the following describes the histologic features of this lesion if the diagnosis is hamartoma?

    • A.

      (A) Benign neoplasm of epithelial origin

    • B.

      (B) Disorganized normal tissue

    • C.

      (C) Ectopic islands of normal tissue

    • D.

      (D) Granulation tissue

    • E.

      (E) Granulomatous infl ammation

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) Disorganized normal tissue
    Explanation
    37 The answer is B: Disorganized normal tissue. Localized, disordered
    differentiation during embryonic development results
    in a hamartoma, a disorganized caricature of normal tissue
    components. Such tumors, which are not strictly neoplasms,
    contain varying combinations of cartilage, ducts or bronchi,
    connective tissue, blood vessels, and lymphoid tissue. Ectopic
    islands of normal tissue (choice C), called choristoma, may
    also be mistaken for true neoplasms. These small lesions are
    represented by pancreatic tissue in the wall of the stomach or
    intestine, adrenal rests under the renal capsule, and nodules of
    splenic tissue in the peritoneal cavity.
    Diagnosis: Hamartoma

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  • 37. 

    36 A 33-year-old woman presents with a diffuse scaly skin rash of 4 weeks duration. Biopsy of lesional skin reveals a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (mycosis fungoides). Which of the following immunohistochemical markers would be most useful for identifying malignant cells in the skin of this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Calcitonin

    • B.

      (B) CD4

    • C.

      (C) Desmin

    • D.

      (D) HMB-45

    • E.

      (E) S-100

    Correct Answer
    B. (B) CD4
    Explanation
    36 The answer is B: CD4. CD4 is a cluster-differentiation antigen
    of helper T lymphocytes. HMB-45 and S-100 (choices D and
    E) are markers for malignant melanoma, among other tumors.
    Calcitonin (choice A) is a peptide hormone. Desmin (choice
    C) is an intermediate fi lament protein found in cells of mesenchymal
    origin.
    Diagnosis: Mycosis fungoides

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  • 38. 

    38 A 67-year-old woman presents with a massively swollen abdomen. The patient was diagnosed with papillary, serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary 3 years ago. She dies in a hospice 1 month later. At autopsy, the peritoneum is studded with small tumors (shown in the image), and there are 4 L of ascites. Which of the following routes of tumor metastasis accounts for these autopsy fi ndings?

    • A.

      (A) Direct tumor extension

    • B.

      (B) Hematogenous spread

    • C.

      (C) Lymphatic spread

    • D.

      (D) Seeding of body cavity

    • E.

      (E) Venous spread

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Seeding of body cavity
    Explanation
    38 The answer is D: Seeding of body cavity. The photograph
    shows a loop of small bowel and mesentery studded with small
    nodules of metastatic cancer. Malignant tumors that arise in
    organs adjacent to body cavities (e.g., ovaries, gastrointestinal
    tract, or lung) may shed malignant cells into these spaces. Such
    body cavities include principally the peritoneal and pleural
    cavities, although occasional seeding of the pericardial cavity,
    joint space, and subarachnoid space are observed. Tumor cells
    in these sites grow in masses and often produce fl uid (e.g.,
    ascites or pleural fl uid), sometimes in massive quantities.
    Although the other choices provide routes for tumor metastasis,
    they do not lead to peritoneal carcinomatosis in patients
    with ovarian cancer.
    Diagnosis: Ovarian cancer, carcinomatosis

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  • 39. 

    39 A 2-year-old boy is found to have bilateral retinal tumors. Molecular studies demonstrate a germline mutation in one allele of the Rb gene. Which of the following genetic events best explains the mechanism of carcinogenesis in this patient?

    • A.

      (A) Balanced translocation

    • B.

      (B) Expansion of trinucleotide repeat

    • C.

      (C) Gene amplifi cation

    • D.

      (D) Loss of heterozygosity

    • E.

      (E) Maternal nondisjunction

    Correct Answer
    D. (D) Loss of heterozygosity
    Explanation
    39 The answer is D: Loss of heterozygosity. Retinoblastomas are
    malignant ocular tumors of young children. In cases of hereditary
    retinoblastoma, an affected child inherits one defective Rb
    allele together with one normal gene. This heterozygous state
    is not associated with any observable changes in the retina
    because 50% of the Rb gene product is suffi cient to prevent
    the development of retinoblastoma. However, if the remaining
    normal Rb allele is inactivated by deletion or mutation,
    the loss of its suppressor function leads to the appearance
    of a neoplasm. This genetic process is referred to as loss of
    heterozygosity. The other choices have not been associated
    with the loss of tumor suppressor genes in somatic cells.
    Diagnosis: Retinoblastoma

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  • 40. 

    41 A 53-year-old woman with a longstanding history of ulcerative colitis presents with increasing chest pain and shortness of breath of 2 months duration. She reports four recent episodes of hemoptysis. The patient subsequently develops overwhelming sepsis and expires. A section through the right lung is examined at autopsy (shown in the image). What is the appropriate diagnosis?

    • A.

      (A) Carcinoid tumor of the lung

    • B.

      (B) Primary adenocarcinoma of the lung

    • C.

      (C) Metastatic carcinoma of the lung

    • D.

      (D) Miliary tuberculosis

    • E.

      (E) Sarcoidosis

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Metastatic carcinoma of the lung
    Explanation
    41 The answer is C: Metastatic carcinoma of the lung. This
    patient’s lung shows numerous nodules of metastatic carcinoma
    corresponding to “cannon ball” metastases seen
    radiologically. Pulmonary metastases are more common than
    primary lung tumors, and the histologic appearance of most
    metastases resembles that of the primary tumor. Persons with
    ulcerative colitis (such as this patient) have a higher risk of
    colorectal cancer than the general population. The risk is
    related to the extent of colorectal involvement and the duration
    of the infl ammatory disease. Carcinoid tumor of the lung
    (choice A) and primary lung cancer (choice B) would not typically
    show multiple, circumscribed nodules. Miliary tuberculosis (choice D) and sarcoidosis (choice E) feature mm-sized
    infl ammatory nodules (minute granulomas).
    Diagnosis: Metastatic cancer, metastatic carcinoma of the lung

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  • 41. 

    40 A 48-year-old nulliparous woman complains that her menstrual blood fl ow is more abundant than usual. An ultrasound examination reveals a polypoid mass in the uterine fundus. The patient subsequently, undergoes a hysterectomy, which reveals a poorly differentiated endometrial adenocarcinoma. The development of this neoplasm was preceded by which of the following histopathologic changes in the glandular epithelium?

    • A.

      (A) Atrophy

    • B.

      (B) Hydropic swelling

    • C.

      (C) Hyperplasia

    • D.

      (D) Hypertrophy

    • E.

      (E) Metaplasia

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Hyperplasia
    Explanation
    40 The answer is C: Hyperplasia. The cellular and molecular
    mechanisms of hyperplasia are related to the control of cell
    proliferation and provide a basis for further genetic changes
    that can lead to neoplasia. Endometrial hyperplasia refers to
    a spectrum that ranges from simple glandular crowding to
    conspicuous proliferation of atypical glands. These changes
    are often diffi cult to distinguish from carcinoma. The risk of
    developing endometrial cancer increases with higher degrees
    of endometrial hyperplasia. Estrogen exposure is thought to
    be a risk factor for both endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial
    carcinoma. Neoplastic transformation may occur in the
    setting of a metaplastic epithelium (e.g., cancers of the lung,
    cervix, stomach, and bladder); however, metaplasia (choice
    E) does not precede the development of uterine adenocarcinoma.
    The other choices do not represent risk factors for
    cancer.
    Diagnosis: Endometrial adenocarcinoma

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  • 42. 

    A 50-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of upper truncal obesity and depression. Serum levels of glucose and cortisol are elevated. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a 2-cm suprarenal mass. The surgical specimen is shown in the image. If this neoplasm is benign, which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

    • A.

      (A) Adenoma

    • B.

      (B) Chondroma

    • C.

      (C) Lipoma

    • D.

      (D) Papilloma

    • E.

      (E) Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    A. (A) Adenoma
    Explanation
    42 The answer is A: Adenoma. The patient shows signs and
    symptoms of Cushing syndrome (upper truncal obesity and
    hypercortisolism). The surgical specimen reveals a circumscribed
    tumor of the adrenal cortex that produces cortisol.
    Histologic examination of this tumor reveals nests of clear,
    lipid-laden epithelial cells. None of the other choices describe
    a benign tumor of glandular epithelial origin.
    Diagnosis: Adrenal adenoma, Cushing syndrome

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  • 43. 

    43 A 65-year-old man presents with a pearly papule on his upper lip (patient shown in the image). A biopsy reveals buds of atypical, deeply basophilic keratinocytes extending from the overlying epidermis into the papillary dermis. Which of the following carcinogenic stimuli was the most important risk factor for development of this patient’s skin cancer?

    • A.

      (A) Afl atoxin B1

    • B.

      (B) Divalent metal cations

    • C.

      (C) Aromatic amines and azo dyes

    • D.

      (D) Vinyl chloride

    • E.

      (E) Sunlight

    Correct Answer
    E. (E) Sunlight
    Explanation
    43 The answer is E: Sunlight. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is the
    most common malignant tumor in persons with pale skin.
    BCC usually develops on the sun-damaged skin of people with
    fair skin and freckles. There is a direct correlation between
    total exposure to sunlight and the incidence of BCC, as well
    as squamous cell carcinoma and melanoma. The deleterious
    effects of sunlight (UV radiation) include enzyme inactivation,
    mutagenesis, and cell death. Divalent metal cations such
    as nickel, lead, cadmium, cobalt, and beryllium (choice B)
    can react with biomolecules and induce cancer. Most metalinduced
    cancers occur in an occupational setting; however the
    carcinogenic mechanisms are unknown.
    Diagnosis: Basal cell carcinoma

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  • 44. 

    44 A 28-year-old man with a familial disease affecting the gastrointestinal tract undergoes a colectomy. The surgical specimen is shown in the image. Molecular studies demonstrate a germline mutation in the APC gene. The normal product of this gene (protooncogene) primarily regulates which of the following cell behaviors?

    • A.

      (A) Apoptosis

    • B.

      (B) Autophagy

    • C.

      (C) Cell cycle

    • D.

      (D) Differentiation

    • E.

      (E) Motility

    Correct Answer
    C. (C) Cell cycle
    Explanation
    44 The answer is C: Cell cycle. The surgical specimen reveals
    thousands of small adenomatous polyps on the mucosal surface
    of the colon. Patients with adenomatous polyposis coli
    have mutations in the APC tumor suppressor gene. Most cases
    are familial, but 30% to 50% represent new mutations. The
    mean age for occurrence of symptoms is 36 years. Without
    the APC protooncogene, cells are unable to downregulate
    signals from E-cadherin to b-catenin to nuclear transcription
    factors (myc and cyclin D) that regulate cell cycle progression.
    Autophagy (choice B) is a normal catabolic process in
    which cellular components and organelles are degraded in
    lysosomes. Autophagy is often a response to cell injury. It is
    also believed to protect cells from intracellular pathogens and
    slow the progression of various chronic diseases, including
    cancer.
    Diagnosis: Adenomatous polyposis coli

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 30, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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