Polymath IT PC AptITude Test

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Polymath IT PC AptITude Test - Quiz

PolyMath IT Quiz #1 - Potential Employees and Independent Contractors


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which is not part of a typical computer?

    • A.

      RAM

    • B.

      ROM

    • C.

      Hard Drive

    • D.

      Flux Capacitor

    • E.

      System Board

    Correct Answer
    D. Flux Capacitor
    Explanation
    A flux capacitor is not a part of a typical computer. It is a fictional component from the movie "Back to the Future" that allows time travel. In reality, computers consist of components such as RAM (Random Access Memory), ROM (Read-Only Memory), Hard Drive, and System Board.

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  • 2. 

    A mouse, keyboard, and scanner are types of _________ devices?

    • A.

      Output

    • B.

      Input

    • C.

      Storage

    Correct Answer
    B. Input
    Explanation
    A mouse, keyboard, and scanner are all types of input devices. These devices allow users to input data or commands into a computer system. They provide a way for users to interact with the computer and provide input that can be processed and used by the system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Input".

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  • 3. 

    A Hard Drive is a type of _________ device?

    • A.

      Output

    • B.

      Input

    • C.

      Storage

    Correct Answer
    C. Storage
    Explanation
    A hard drive is a type of storage device because it is used to store and retrieve digital data on a long-term basis. It uses magnetic storage to store data on spinning disks, allowing users to save and access their files, documents, programs, and other data. Unlike input devices that are used to enter data into a computer and output devices that display or provide information to the user, a hard drive primarily focuses on storing and preserving data for future use.

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  • 4. 

    The “enemy” of the PC component is ESD.  ESD only takes place when two objects that store different amounts of potential _________ come in contact.

    • A.

      Current

    • B.

      Electricity

    • C.

      Static Electricity

    Correct Answer
    C. Static Electricity
    Explanation
    ESD stands for Electrostatic Discharge, which is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different amounts of static electric charge. Static electricity occurs when there is an imbalance of electric charges on the surface of an object. Therefore, the correct answer is Static Electricity.

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  • 5. 

    The secret to avoiding ESD is?

    • A.

      Being aware of the midichlorian levels in the PC.

    • B.

      To keep you and the parts of the PC you touch at the same electrical potential.

    • C.

      Only working on PC’s when environmental conditions are optimal.

    Correct Answer
    B. To keep you and the parts of the PC you touch at the same electrical potential.
    Explanation
    To avoid ESD (electrostatic discharge), it is important to keep yourself and the parts of the PC you touch at the same electrical potential. This means ensuring that there is no difference in charge between your body and the PC components, as a sudden discharge of static electricity can damage sensitive electronic parts. This can be achieved by grounding yourself before working on the PC, using an ESD wrist strap or mat, and taking precautions to minimize static buildup, such as working in a low-humidity environment and using anti-static bags for components.

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  • 6. 

    Common items used to avoid ESD are?Choose all that apply.

    • A.

      Anti-Static Wrist Strap

    • B.

      Rubber Sole Shoes

    • C.

      Anti-Static Rings

    • D.

      Anti-Static Mat

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Anti-Static Wrist Strap
    D. Anti-Static Mat
    Explanation
    Common items used to avoid ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) are an Anti-Static Wrist Strap and an Anti-Static Mat. An Anti-Static Wrist Strap is worn on the wrist and is connected to a grounding point to prevent the buildup of static electricity. An Anti-Static Mat is placed on the work surface to provide a grounded surface and prevent the discharge of static electricity. Rubber Sole Shoes and Anti-Static Rings are not typically used to avoid ESD.

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  • 7. 

    The risk of ESD is higher in?

    • A.

      Dry, Cool Environments

    • B.

      Dry, Warm Environments

    • C.

      Humid, Cool Environments

    • D.

      Humid, Warm Environments

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry, Cool Environments
    Explanation
    ESD stands for electrostatic discharge, which is the sudden flow of electricity between two objects caused by a buildup of static electricity. Dry environments have lower humidity levels, which means that there is less moisture in the air to conduct electricity. Cool environments also contribute to higher risk of ESD because lower temperatures can cause materials to become more static-prone. Therefore, the combination of dry and cool environments increases the risk of ESD.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of port is faster?

    • A.

      Firewire

    • B.

      USB 2.0

    • C.

      USB 1.0

    • D.

      Parallel

    • E.

      Serial

    Correct Answer
    A. Firewire
    Explanation
    Firewire is faster than the other options listed because it has a higher data transfer rate. Firewire, also known as IEEE 1394, was designed specifically for high-speed data transfer and is commonly used in devices such as external hard drives, video cameras, and audio interfaces. USB 2.0 is slower than Firewire, while USB 1.0 is even slower. Parallel and Serial ports are older technologies that are significantly slower than Firewire and USB.

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  • 9. 

    RJ-45 is a connector that plugs into?

    • A.

      Modems

    • B.

      Printers

    • C.

      Network Adapters

    • D.

      Speakers

    Correct Answer
    C. Network Adapters
    Explanation
    RJ-45 is a connector that is commonly used for Ethernet connections. It is specifically designed to plug into network adapters, which are devices that allow computers and other devices to connect to a network. Modems, printers, and speakers do not typically use RJ-45 connectors for their connections, making network adapters the correct answer.

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  • 10. 

    Which are NOT types of video connectors?Choose all that apply.

    • A.

      HDMI

    • B.

      DVI

    • C.

      VGA

    • D.

      S-Video

    • E.

      Optical

    • F.

      MIDI

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. Optical
    F. MIDI
    Explanation
    Optical and MIDI are not types of video connectors. Optical refers to a type of audio connection that uses fiber optic cables to transmit audio signals, while MIDI is a protocol used for connecting musical instruments and devices. Both are not directly related to video transmission or display. HDMI, DVI, VGA, and S-Video, on the other hand, are all types of video connectors commonly used to connect devices such as computers, televisions, and projectors.

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  • 11. 

    Which are NOT types of connections found on a computer?Choose all that apply.

    • A.

      USB

    • B.

      PS/1

    • C.

      PS/2

    • D.

      IEEE 1394

    • E.

      RJ-45

    • F.

      IEEE 1362

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. PS/1
    F. IEEE 1362
    Explanation
    The types of connections that are NOT found on a computer are PS/1 and IEEE 1362. PS/1 is not a valid type of connection, while IEEE 1362 does not exist as a recognized connection standard.

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  • 12. 

    What type of port is a IEEE 1394?

    • A.

      USB

    • B.

      Firewire

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Keyboard/Mouse

    Correct Answer
    B. Firewire
    Explanation
    IEEE 1394 is a type of port commonly known as Firewire. Firewire is a high-speed data transfer technology used for connecting devices such as cameras, external hard drives, and audio interfaces to a computer. It provides a fast and reliable connection, making it suitable for tasks that require large amounts of data to be transferred quickly, such as video editing or data backup. Unlike USB, Firewire allows for peer-to-peer communication between devices, making it a preferred choice for professionals in certain industries.

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  • 13. 

    A fan is NOT required for a CPU.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A fan is required for a CPU because it helps to cool down the processor by dissipating the heat generated during its operation. Without a fan, the CPU can overheat, leading to performance issues and potential damage to the processor. The fan helps to maintain a safe operating temperature for the CPU, ensuring its longevity and optimal performance.

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  • 14. 

    Which item looses all information stored in/on it when the system is turned off?

    • A.

      ROM

    • B.

      RAM

    • C.

      CMOS

    Correct Answer
    B. RAM
    Explanation
    RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of computer memory that is volatile, meaning it loses all information stored in it when the system is turned off. Unlike ROM (Read-Only Memory) and CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor), which retain their data even when the power is off, RAM requires a constant flow of electricity to maintain its stored information. Therefore, when the system is turned off, the data stored in RAM is erased, making it the correct answer to the question.

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  • 15. 

    The power supply converts standard 100-volt AC power from the wall into:

    • A.

      12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt A/C power

    • B.

      12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt DC power

    • C.

      9-volt, 3.5-volt, and 1.8-volt A/C power

    • D.

      9-volt, 3.5-volt, and 1.8-volt DC power

    Correct Answer
    B. 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt DC power
    Explanation
    The power supply converts the standard 100-volt AC power from the wall into 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt DC power. This means that the power supply takes the alternating current (AC) power from the wall and converts it into direct current (DC) power at different voltages. The 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt DC power can then be used to power various electronic devices that require these specific voltage levels.

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  • 16. 

    SATA is a type of connection used to connect what types of devices?

    • A.

      Hard Drive

    • B.

      CD/DVD-ROM

    • C.

      Printers

    • D.

      Video Cards

    • E.

      Network Cards

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hard Drive
    B. CD/DVD-ROM
    Explanation
    SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) is a type of connection used to connect Hard Drives and CD/DVD-ROM devices. SATA provides a high-speed data transfer rate and is commonly used in modern computer systems for connecting storage devices. Printers, Video Cards, and Network Cards do not typically use SATA connections for connectivity.

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  • 17. 

    PCI is a type of connection used to connect what types of devices?

    • A.

      Hard Drives

    • B.

      CS/DVD-ROMS

    • C.

      Printers

    • D.

      Video Cards

    • E.

      Network Cards

    Correct Answer
    E. Network Cards
    Explanation
    PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect) is a type of connection used to connect various types of devices, including hard drives, CD/DVD-ROMs, printers, video cards, and network cards. Network cards are specifically designed to enable a computer to connect to a network, allowing for communication and data transfer between devices.

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  • 18. 

    AGP is a type of connection used to connect what types of devices?

    • A.

      Hard Drive

    • B.

      CD/DVD-ROM

    • C.

      Printers

    • D.

      Video Cards

    • E.

      Network Cards

    Correct Answer
    D. Video Cards
    Explanation
    AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is a type of connection used to connect video cards. It is specifically designed to provide a high-speed pathway for the video card to communicate with the computer's motherboard and CPU. This allows for faster and more efficient processing of graphics and visuals, making it ideal for gaming and multimedia applications. AGP connections are not used for connecting hard drives, CD/DVD-ROM drives, printers, or network cards.

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  • 19. 

    Which device is typically capable of storing more data?

    • A.

      Hard Drive

    • B.

      RAM

    • C.

      CMOS

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard Drive
    Explanation
    A hard drive is typically capable of storing more data compared to RAM and CMOS. RAM (Random Access Memory) is a volatile memory that is used for temporary storage of data while the computer is running. It provides fast access to data but has limited storage capacity. CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) is a type of memory that stores the system configuration settings of a computer, such as date, time, and hardware settings. It has a very small storage capacity. On the other hand, a hard drive is a non-volatile storage device that can store a large amount of data even when the computer is turned off.

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  • 20. 

    A page file is?

    • A.

      A section of the Hard Drive used to supplement RAM

    • B.

      A file that tracks where items are on the Hard Drive

    Correct Answer
    A. A section of the Hard Drive used to supplement RAM
    Explanation
    A page file is a section of the hard drive that is used as virtual memory to supplement the physical RAM in a computer. When the RAM becomes full, the operating system moves less frequently used data from RAM to the page file, freeing up space in RAM for more actively used data. This helps improve the overall performance and allows the computer to run more programs simultaneously.

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  • 21. 

    Where do you go to change what device the computer boots from first?

    • A.

      My Computer

    • B.

      BIOS

    • C.

      Control Panel

    • D.

      Devices and Printers

    Correct Answer
    B. BIOS
    Explanation
    To change the device the computer boots from first, you need to access the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). The BIOS is a firmware that is stored on a chip on the computer's motherboard. It is responsible for initializing hardware components and loading the operating system. By accessing the BIOS settings, you can change the boot order and prioritize which device the computer should boot from first, such as the hard drive, CD/DVD drive, or USB drive. This allows you to control the startup process and troubleshoot booting issues.

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  • 22. 

    How many MB is a Gigabyte?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      1,000

    • D.

      10,000

    Correct Answer
    C. 1,000
    Explanation
    A Gigabyte is equal to 1,000 Megabytes. This is because the metric system uses powers of 10, where each unit is 1,000 times larger than the previous one. Therefore, 1 Gigabyte is 1,000 times larger than 1 Megabyte.

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  • 23. 

    What happens first?

    • A.

      O/S Loads

    • B.

      POST

    Correct Answer
    B. POST
    Explanation
    POST (Power-On Self-Test) is a diagnostic test that is performed by the computer's firmware (BIOS or UEFI) when the system is powered on. It checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning correctly before the operating system (O/S) is loaded. Therefore, the POST process occurs before the O/S loads.

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  • 24. 

    What type of Electricity travels in one (1) direction?

    • A.

      AC

    • B.

      DC

    Correct Answer
    B. DC
    Explanation
    DC stands for Direct Current, which is a type of electricity that flows in one direction only. Unlike AC (Alternating Current), which changes direction periodically, DC maintains a constant flow of electrons in a single direction. This makes DC suitable for applications such as batteries, electronic devices, and certain types of motors that require a steady and unidirectional flow of electricity.

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  • 25. 

    In terms of electricity, what measurement is used for resistance?

    • A.

      Amps

    • B.

      Ohms

    Correct Answer
    B. Ohms
    Explanation
    Ohms is the correct answer because resistance is measured in ohms. Ohms is the unit of electrical resistance in the International System of Units (SI). It represents the amount of opposition to the flow of electric current in a circuit. Amps, on the other hand, is the unit of electric current. While amps measure the rate of flow of electric charge, ohms measure the resistance to that flow.

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  • 26. 

    In terms of Electricity, which item is typically labeled with "I"?

    • A.

      Volts

    • B.

      Ohms

    • C.

      Watts

    • D.

      Amps

    Correct Answer
    D. Amps
    Explanation
    In terms of electricity, "I" typically represents amps. Amps, or amperes, is a unit used to measure electric current. It represents the rate at which electric charges flow through a circuit. The symbol "I" is commonly used to denote amps in electrical equations and diagrams. Volts, ohms, and watts are also important electrical measurements, but they are not typically labeled with "I".

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  • 27. 

    A power supply can be turned on without a connection to a motherboard or a PSU tester.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because a power supply cannot be turned on without a connection to a motherboard or a PSU tester. The motherboard or a PSU tester provides the necessary signals and connections for the power supply to function properly. Without these connections, the power supply will not receive the necessary instructions to turn on and provide power to the system.

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  • 28. 

    What "RUN" command do you use to open the Command Prompt?

    • A.

      CPROMPT

    • B.

      Commander.exe

    • C.

      CMD

    Correct Answer
    C. CMD
    Explanation
    CMD is the correct answer because it is the actual command used to open the Command Prompt in Windows operating systems. When CMD is entered in the "Run" dialog box or in the search bar, it launches the Command Prompt, allowing users to execute various commands and perform tasks using the command-line interface.

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  • 29. 

    What command do you use to drop the IP address from the comptuer?

    • A.

      Dropip

    • B.

      Iprelease

    • C.

      Ipconfig /release

    • D.

      Release /ip

    Correct Answer
    C. Ipconfig /release
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ipconfig /release" because this command is used to release the IP address assigned to a computer. By running this command, the computer will release its current IP address and request a new one from the DHCP server. This is useful in situations where you want to release and renew the IP address to troubleshoot network connectivity issues or to obtain a new IP address from the network.

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  • 30. 

    What is WEP?

    • A.

      A type of security used for wireless networks

    • B.

      A type of security used for protecting files

    • C.

      A type of security used on CD's and DVD's

    Correct Answer
    A. A type of security used for wireless networks
    Explanation
    WEP stands for Wired Equivalent Privacy and it is a type of security used for wireless networks. It was introduced as a security protocol for Wi-Fi networks to provide encryption and protect the data transmitted over the network. However, WEP is now considered to be weak and easily hackable, and it has been largely replaced by more secure protocols such as WPA and WPA2.

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  • 31. 

    The available versions of Windows 7 are?

    • A.

      Starter, Home Premium, Professional, Ultimate

    • B.

      Home, Home Premium, Business, Ultimate

    • C.

      Home Premium, Business, Professional, Ultimate

    Correct Answer
    A. Starter, Home Premium, Professional, Ultimate
    Explanation
    The available versions of Windows 7 are Starter, Home Premium, Professional, and Ultimate.

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  • 32. 

    Which versions of Windows have the native ability to join a domain?

    • A.

      7 Pro

    • B.

      7 Home Premium

    • C.

      XP Pro

    • D.

      XP Home

    • E.

      7 Ultimate

    • F.

      Vista Home

    • G.

      Vista Business

    • H.

      2K Pro

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 7 Pro
    C. XP Pro
    E. 7 Ultimate
    G. Vista Business
    H. 2K Pro
    Explanation
    The versions of Windows that have the native ability to join a domain are 7 Pro, XP Pro, 7 Ultimate, Vista Business, and 2K Pro. These versions have the necessary features and functionalities to connect to a domain network, allowing users to access shared resources and collaborate with other users within the domain.

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  • 33. 

    To access the Device Manager of a widows XP machine you perform the following commands:

    • A.

      Right-click “My Computer”, choose “Properties”, choose “Hardware” tab, then choose “Device Manager”

    • B.

      Open My Computer, Open Control Panel, Open Device Manger

    • C.

      Open Control Panel, Open Device Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Right-click “My Computer”, choose “Properties”, choose “Hardware” tab, then choose “Device Manager”
    Explanation
    To access the Device Manager of a Windows XP machine, you need to right-click on "My Computer" and select "Properties". Then, navigate to the "Hardware" tab and click on "Device Manager". This will open the Device Manager window where you can manage and view the devices connected to your computer.

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