Planning For Dental Hygiene care

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 14,186
Questions: 34 | Attempts: 218

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Dental Hygiene Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A patient with end stage renal disease, hepatic, infectious disease, or terminal cancer

    • A.

      ASA I

    • B.

      ASA II

    • C.

      ASA IV

    • D.

      ASA V

    Correct Answer
    D. ASA V
    Explanation
    ASA V is the correct answer because it represents a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. End stage renal disease, hepatic disease, infectious disease, and terminal cancer are all examples of severe systemic diseases that can significantly impact a patient's overall health and increase the risk of complications during surgery. ASA V classification is reserved for patients who are not expected to survive without the operation.

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  • 2. 

    A patient with unstable cardiovascular conditions, extremely elevated blood pressure, uncontrolled epilepsy, or uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetes.

    • A.

      ASA I

    • B.

      ASA III

    • C.

      ASA IV

    • D.

      ASA V

    Correct Answer
    C. ASA IV
    Explanation
    ASA IV is the correct answer because it indicates that the patient has severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Conditions such as unstable cardiovascular conditions, extremely elevated blood pressure, uncontrolled epilepsy, or uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetes fall under this category. These patients require immediate medical attention and may have a high risk of complications during surgery.

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  • 3. 

    A patient with chronic cardiovascular conditions, controlled insulin-dependent diabetes, chronic pulmonary diseases, elevated blood pressure

    • A.

      ASA I

    • B.

      ASA II

    • C.

      ASA III

    • D.

      ASA IV

    Correct Answer
    C. ASA III
    Explanation
    ASA III is the correct answer because the patient has multiple chronic conditions, including cardiovascular diseases, insulin-dependent diabetes, pulmonary diseases, and elevated blood pressure. ASA III classification is given to patients with severe systemic diseases that limit their activity but are not incapacitating. These patients may have limitations in their daily activities and require medical management for their conditions.

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  • 4. 

    A patient with well-controlled chronic conditions, upper respiratory infections, healthy pregnant women, allergies

    • A.

      ASA I

    • B.

      ASA II

    • C.

      ASA III

    • D.

      ASA V

    Correct Answer
    B. ASA II
    Explanation
    ASA II refers to patients with mild systemic disease. In this case, the patient has well-controlled chronic conditions, upper respiratory infections, healthy pregnant women, and allergies. These conditions may cause mild limitations but are not incapacitating or life-threatening. Therefore, the patient falls under ASA II classification.

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  • 5. 

    A patient who is able to walk up a flight of stairs with no distress.

    • A.

      ASA I

    • B.

      ASA II

    • C.

      ASA III

    • D.

      ASA IV

    Correct Answer
    A. ASA I
    Explanation
    The patient's ability to walk up a flight of stairs with no distress suggests that they are in good health and have no significant medical conditions. ASA I classification is given to patients who are healthy, with no systemic disease and no functional limitations.

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  • 6. 

    ______________ ________________ knowledge level of the patient provides a baseline for interventions.

    Correct Answer
    oral healthcare
    Explanation
    The answer "oral healthcare" is correct because assessing the knowledge level of the patient in regards to oral healthcare provides a starting point for planning appropriate interventions. By understanding the patient's level of understanding and awareness about oral healthcare practices, healthcare professionals can tailor their interventions to address specific areas of improvement and educate the patient on proper oral hygiene techniques. This knowledge baseline is essential for promoting oral health and preventing dental issues.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT a systemic condition related to periodontal infection

    • A.

      Varicella Zoster

    • B.

      Infective endocarditis

    • C.

      Cardiovascular disease

    • D.

      Adverse pregnancy outcomes

    Correct Answer
    A. Varicella Zoster
    Explanation
    Varicella Zoster is not a systemic condition related to periodontal infection. Varicella Zoster is a viral infection that causes chickenpox and shingles, and it is not directly linked to periodontal infection. On the other hand, infective endocarditis, cardiovascular disease, and adverse pregnancy outcomes have all been associated with periodontal infection.

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  • 8. 

    Preprocedural removal of dental biofilm will lower the bacterial count in aerosols and decrease the potential for _________.

    Correct Answer
    bacteremia
    Explanation
    Preprocedural removal of dental biofilm refers to the cleaning of the teeth and gums before a dental procedure. This process helps to reduce the amount of bacteria present in the mouth. As a result, the chances of bacteria entering the bloodstream and causing bacteremia, which is the presence of bacteria in the blood, are decreased. Therefore, the correct answer is bacteremia.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following are the correct risk factors for oral cancer?

    • A.

      Periodontal disease, tobacco use, alcohol use

    • B.

      Tobacco use, alcohol use, sun exposure

    • C.

      Chewing tobacco, smoking, sun exposure

    • D.

      Periodontal disease, alcohol use, sun exposure

    Correct Answer
    B. Tobacco use, alcohol use, sun exposure
    Explanation
    Tobacco use, alcohol use, and sun exposure are the correct risk factors for oral cancer. Tobacco use, including smoking and chewing tobacco, is a well-known risk factor for oral cancer. Alcohol use, particularly heavy and prolonged consumption, increases the risk of developing oral cancer. Sun exposure, specifically prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, can also contribute to the development of oral cancer. These risk factors have been extensively studied and are widely recognized in the medical community.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for dental caries?

    • A.

      Low Fluoride

    • B.

      Xerostomia

    • C.

      Genetic Factors

    • D.

      Tobacco use

    Correct Answer
    D. Tobacco use
    Explanation
    Tobacco use is not a risk factor for dental caries. Dental caries, also known as tooth decay, is primarily caused by the presence of bacteria in the mouth, which produce acids that erode the tooth enamel. Low fluoride levels, xerostomia (dry mouth), and genetic factors can all contribute to an increased risk of dental caries. However, tobacco use does not directly contribute to the development of tooth decay.

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  • 11. 

    Iatrogenic factors such as overhangs and open contacts are a risk factor for what?

    • A.

      Periodontal Disease

    • B.

      Dental Caries

    • C.

      Oral Cancer

    • D.

      Exposed Dentin

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodontal Disease
    Explanation
    Iatrogenic factors refer to conditions or complications that are caused by medical or dental treatment. Overhangs and open contacts in dental restorations can create areas where plaque and bacteria can accumulate, leading to gum inflammation and periodontal disease. Therefore, iatrogenic factors such as overhangs and open contacts are a risk factor for periodontal disease.

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  • 12. 

    Check all of the following that are risk factors for dental caries.

    • A.

      Dietary Factors

    • B.

      Hormonal considerations

    • C.

      Inadequate biofilm removal

    • D.

      Family history

    • E.

      Tobacco use

    • F.

      Xerostomia

    • G.

      Systemic conditions (diabetes, decreased immune factors)

    • H.

      Iatrogenic factors

    • I.

      Tooth morphology and position

    • J.

      Low Fluoride

    • K.

      Developmental factors

    • L.

      Prosthetics

    • M.

      Genetic factors

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Dietary Factors
    C. Inadequate biofilm removal
    D. Family history
    F. Xerostomia
    I. Tooth morphology and position
    J. Low Fluoride
    K. Developmental factors
    M. Genetic factors
    Explanation
    The risk factors for dental caries include dietary factors, inadequate biofilm removal, family history, xerostomia (dry mouth), tooth morphology and position, low fluoride levels, developmental factors, and genetic factors. These factors contribute to the formation of dental caries by either promoting the growth of harmful bacteria in the mouth, weakening the tooth structure, or impairing the natural defense mechanisms of the oral cavity.

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  • 13. 

    Check all of the following that are risk factors for periodontal disease.

    • A.

      Inadequate biofilm removal

    • B.

      Tobacco use

    • C.

      Low Fluoride

    • D.

      Xerostomia

    • E.

      Genetic factors

    • F.

      Nutritional status

    • G.

      Dietary Factors

    • H.

      Tooth morphology and position

    • I.

      Iatrogenic factors

    • J.

      Inadequate biofilm removal

    • K.

      Systemic conditions

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Inadequate biofilm removal
    B. Tobacco use
    E. Genetic factors
    F. Nutritional status
    I. Iatrogenic factors
    J. Inadequate biofilm removal
    K. Systemic conditions
    Explanation
    The risk factors for periodontal disease include inadequate biofilm removal, tobacco use, genetic factors, nutritional status, iatrogenic factors, and systemic conditions. Inadequate biofilm removal refers to not properly cleaning the teeth and gums, which can lead to the buildup of plaque and bacteria. Tobacco use, such as smoking, can also contribute to periodontal disease by causing inflammation and reducing blood flow to the gums. Genetic factors can play a role in determining an individual's susceptibility to periodontal disease. Nutritional status, including a diet low in essential nutrients, can weaken the immune system and make it harder for the body to fight off infections. Iatrogenic factors refer to complications or side effects caused by dental treatments. Systemic conditions, such as diabetes or heart disease, can increase the risk of periodontal disease.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a factor that determines prognosis?

    • A.

      Patients Age

    • B.

      Evidence from scientific literature

    • C.

      Patients culture

    • D.

      Patients gender

    Correct Answer
    B. Evidence from scientific literature
    Explanation
    Prognosis refers to the predicted outcome or course of a disease. Evidence from scientific literature plays a crucial role in determining prognosis as it provides reliable and validated information about the disease, its progression, and potential treatment options. Scientific literature includes studies, research papers, and clinical trials that have been conducted by experts in the field. This evidence helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the likely outcomes for a patient based on previous research and data. Age, culture, and gender may influence certain aspects of prognosis, but evidence from scientific literature is a more objective and comprehensive factor in determining prognosis.

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  • 15. 

    Physical status determines _______ necessary during treatment.

    Correct Answer
    modifications
    Explanation
    Physical status determines the necessary modifications during treatment. This means that depending on a person's physical condition or health status, adjustments or changes may need to be made to their treatment plan. For example, if someone has a physical limitation or disability, modifications may be necessary to accommodate their needs and ensure their safety and comfort during treatment. Physical status plays a crucial role in determining the specific modifications that are required for effective and appropriate treatment.

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  • 16. 

    The primary objective of the dental hygiene plan for periodontal therapy is to:

    • A.

      Control dental caries

    • B.

      Reduce risk factors for periodontitis

    • C.

      Restore and maintain health of the periodontal tissues

    • D.

      Reduce bleeding on probing

    Correct Answer
    C. Restore and maintain health of the periodontal tissues
    Explanation
    The primary objective of the dental hygiene plan for periodontal therapy is to restore and maintain the health of the periodontal tissues. This means that the goal is to improve the condition of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth, which may have been affected by periodontitis. This includes addressing any inflammation, infection, or damage to the tissues, and implementing measures to prevent further deterioration. Controlling dental caries, reducing risk factors for periodontitis, and reducing bleeding on probing may be important components of the overall plan, but the ultimate aim is to restore and maintain the health of the periodontal tissues.

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  • 17. 

    Check all of the following options that you would include in a care plan for dental caries control.

    • A.

      Fluorides

    • B.

      Dental sealants

    • C.

      Dietary control of fermentable carbohydrates

    • D.

      Dietary control of meat and vegetables

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fluorides
    B. Dental sealants
    C. Dietary control of fermentable carbohydrates
    Explanation
    A care plan for dental caries control would include the use of fluorides, dental sealants, and dietary control of fermentable carbohydrates. Fluorides are effective in preventing tooth decay by strengthening the enamel and reducing the ability of bacteria to produce acid. Dental sealants are a protective coating applied to the chewing surfaces of teeth to prevent bacteria and food particles from getting trapped in the pits and fissures. Dietary control of fermentable carbohydrates involves limiting the consumption of sugary and starchy foods that can contribute to tooth decay.

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  • 18. 

    True or False, you can design a care plan to fit every patient that comes into the office.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is false that you can design a care plan to fit every patient that comes into the office. Each patient is unique and has different needs, medical conditions, preferences, and circumstances. A care plan should be personalized and tailored to the individual patient to ensure the best possible outcomes and meet their specific requirements.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following would a well-prepared dental hygiene care plan NOT include?

    • A.

      Plans care for patient needs based on assessment data collected

    • B.

      Is flexible and realistic

    • C.

      Contains treatment goals that address the most common problems most patients have

    • D.

      Provides interventions and recommendations based on current scientific evidence

    Correct Answer
    C. Contains treatment goals that address the most common problems most patients have
    Explanation
    A well-prepared dental hygiene care plan should not only focus on the most common problems that most patients have. It should be individualized and tailored to address the specific needs of each patient based on the assessment data collected. By considering the unique needs and conditions of each patient, the care plan can provide more effective and personalized treatment goals, interventions, and recommendations.

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  • 20. 

    This is a caries risk assessment tool that provides guidelines for identifying caries risk status and selecting dental hygiene interventions based on risk factor assessment.

    • A.

      CAMBRA

    • B.

      OSCAR

    • C.

      ASA

    • D.

      ADL

    Correct Answer
    A. CAMBRA
    Explanation
    CAMBRA stands for Caries Management By Risk Assessment. It is a caries risk assessment tool that helps dental professionals identify a patient's caries risk status and select appropriate dental hygiene interventions based on risk factor assessment. This tool helps in preventing and managing dental caries by addressing individual risk factors and tailoring treatment plans accordingly. By using CAMBRA, dental professionals can provide personalized care and interventions to patients, reducing the risk of caries development and promoting oral health.

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  • 21. 

    Check all of the following that you think may cause a poor response to periodontal therapy.

    • A.

      Frequent snacking

    • B.

      Inadequate biofilm removal

    • C.

      Consuming alcohol

    • D.

      Noncompliance

    • E.

      Diet

    • F.

      Tobacco use

    • G.

      Systemic conditions (diabetes, osteoporosis)

    • H.

      Patients age

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Inadequate biofilm removal
    D. Noncompliance
    E. Diet
    F. Tobacco use
    G. Systemic conditions (diabetes, osteoporosis)
    Explanation
    Poor response to periodontal therapy can be caused by inadequate biofilm removal, noncompliance with treatment recommendations, an unhealthy diet, tobacco use, and systemic conditions such as diabetes and osteoporosis. These factors can contribute to the persistence of periodontal disease and hinder the effectiveness of therapy. Age alone may not necessarily cause a poor response, but it can be a risk factor for periodontal disease and may affect the overall response to treatment.

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  • 22. 

    Dental hygiene diagnostic models . .  .

    • A.

      Address health functioning and behaviors

    • B.

      Describe actual or potential health problems that dental hygienists are educated and licensed to treat

    • C.

      Classify diagnostic statements according to disease process

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      Options A, B and C only

    Correct Answer
    E. Options A, B and C only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Options A, B and C only. This is because dental hygiene diagnostic models address health functioning and behaviors, describe actual or potential health problems that dental hygienists are educated and licensed to treat, and classify diagnostic statements according to the disease process. Therefore, all of these options are correct.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the dental hygiene three part plan?

    • A.

      Teach the patient

    • B.

      Gingival/Periodontal

    • C.

      Dental Caries

    • D.

      Prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Teach the patient
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Teach the patient." This is because teaching the patient is actually a part of the dental hygiene three part plan. The three parts of the plan include gingival/periodontal care, prevention of dental caries, and teaching the patient. Therefore, the answer "Teach the patient" is incorrect.

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  • 24. 

    As long as the dentist is not needed to treat the patient, you do not need to discuss the care plan with the dentist before treatment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because it is important to discuss the care plan with the dentist before treatment, regardless of whether they are needed to treat the patient or not. The dentist's expertise and input are crucial in determining the best course of action for the patient's oral health. It is essential to have open communication and collaboration with the dentist to ensure the most effective and appropriate treatment plan is implemented.

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  • 25. 

    Informed consent can be lacking even when a document is signed.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Informed consent can be lacking even when a document is signed because signing a document does not necessarily mean that the person fully understands the information or implications involved. It is possible for someone to sign a document without being adequately informed or without fully comprehending the consequences of their decision. Therefore, the presence of a signed document does not guarantee that informed consent has been obtained.

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  • 26. 

    When is the best time to teach the patient?

    • A.

      After the appointment is over

    • B.

      At the first recall appointment

    • C.

      Before the appointment

    • D.

      During the appointment

    Correct Answer
    C. Before the appointment
    Explanation
    The best time to teach the patient is before the appointment. This allows the patient to receive important information and instructions prior to their visit, enabling them to come prepared and make the most out of their appointment. Teaching the patient before the appointment also gives them time to ask any questions or seek clarification, ensuring a more productive and efficient consultation.

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  • 27. 

    Xerostomia is a

    • A.

      Disease

    • B.

      Symptom

    • C.

      Sign

    • D.

      Condition

    Correct Answer
    B. Symptom
    Explanation
    Xerostomia is a symptom. Xerostomia refers to the condition of having a dry mouth, which is often caused by reduced saliva production. It is not a disease itself, but rather a manifestation or indication of an underlying condition or disease. Xerostomia can be a symptom of various health issues such as Sjögren's syndrome, diabetes, or certain medications. Therefore, it is important to identify and address the underlying cause of xerostomia in order to effectively manage and treat the symptom.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of halitosis?

    • A.

      Not Flossing

    • B.

      Xerostomia

    • C.

      Throat infection

    • D.

      Vitamin C deficiency

    Correct Answer
    D. Vitamin C deficiency
    Explanation
    Vitamin C deficiency is not a cause of halitosis. Halitosis, or bad breath, can be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene (not flossing), dry mouth (xerostomia), and throat infections. However, a deficiency in vitamin C does not directly contribute to the development of halitosis. Vitamin C deficiency is more commonly associated with other health issues such as scurvy, weakened immune system, and poor wound healing.

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  • 29. 

    Check all of the following which are non-oral reasons for halitosis.

    • A.

      Renal or Hepatic failure

    • B.

      Acid reflux

    • C.

      Carcinomas

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Cirrhosis of the liver

    • F.

      Herpes

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Renal or Hepatic failure
    C. Carcinomas
    D. Diabetes
    E. Cirrhosis of the liver
    Explanation
    Halitosis, or bad breath, can be caused by various factors, including oral and non-oral reasons. The given answer includes non-oral reasons for halitosis. Renal or hepatic failure refers to the failure of the kidneys or liver, both of which can lead to the accumulation of toxins in the body and contribute to bad breath. Carcinomas, which are cancerous tumors, can release foul-smelling substances that cause halitosis. Diabetes, a metabolic disorder, can lead to the production of ketones, resulting in a fruity odor on the breath. Cirrhosis of the liver, a condition characterized by liver damage, can also cause bad breath due to the buildup of toxins in the body.

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  • 30. 

    Mouthrinses only have temporary fixes and can damage the oral tissue with overuse.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Mouthrinses are only able to provide temporary fixes for oral issues, such as bad breath or plaque buildup. Using them excessively can actually harm the oral tissue, causing damage. Therefore, it is true that mouthrinses only offer temporary solutions and can potentially be damaging if overused.

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  • 31. 

    Check mark the boxes with the statements that would be considered "IMPLIED" consent. The other remaining statements are "INFORMED" consent.

    • A.

      A patient appears for their appointment

    • B.

      The patient allows us to collect data

    • C.

      We prepare a presentation of our findings and the patient agrees with treatment

    • D.

      Patient allows us to go forward with treatment plan without discussion

    • E.

      The patient signs a legal document regarding their care

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A patient appears for their appointment
    B. The patient allows us to collect data
    D. Patient allows us to go forward with treatment plan without discussion
    Explanation
    The statements "A patient appears for their appointment," "The patient allows us to collect data," and "Patient allows us to go forward with treatment plan without discussion" would be considered "IMPLIED" consent. These actions imply that the patient is giving consent for the collection of data and for the treatment plan to proceed without further discussion. The statement "The patient signs a legal document regarding their care" would be considered "INFORMED" consent, as signing a legal document indicates that the patient has been provided with information and has made an informed decision regarding their care.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 01, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Kelly
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