Pharm II - Quiz 3
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A quiz reviewing the material for Quiz 3. Sympathomimetics, Calcium channel blockers, Peripheral Vasodilators.
- 1.What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?
- A.
Acetylcholine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Tyrosine
- 2.What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?
- A.
Acetylcholine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Tyrosine
- 3.Which of the following is release from the adrenal gland in times of stress and acts on alpha and beta receptors?
- A.
Dopamine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Acetylcholine
- 4.Where is norepinephrine synthesized?
- A.
Post-synaptic Neurons
- B.
Pineal Body
- C.
Posterior Lobe of Pituitary
- D.
Synaptic Vessicles
- 5.When Tyrosine is hydroxylated it becomes what?
- A.
Dopa
- B.
Phenylalanine
- C.
Norepinephrine
- D.
Epinephrine
- 6.What enzyme acts on Dopamine to turn it into Norepinephrine?
- A.
N-methyltransferase
- B.
Dopamine B-Hydroxylase
- C.
DOPA decarboxylase
- D.
Dopamine does not directly turn into norepi… you’re missing a step.
- 7.Which of the following is not one of the 3 mechanisms for termination of norepinephrine?
- A.
Re-uptake
- B.
Diffusion from receptor sites
- C.
Irreversible protein binding
- D.
Enzyme degredation
- 8.When a neurotransmitter binds to a postsynaptic receptor it is likely to likely cause which of the following?
- A.
Opening of an ion channel
- B.
Activation of a second messenger such as cAMP or inositol phosphate
- C.
Depolarization
- D.
All of above.
- 9.After the breakdown of epinephrine by MAO and COMT, what product is excreted in the urine?
- A.
Vanillymandelic Acid
- B.
3,7-dicarboxyvandelic acid
- C.
Nelson-Mandelic Acid
- D.
4,6-Pheocomtic acid
- 10.Norepinephrine is synthesized from ______ which is hydroxylated to form Dopa.
- A.
Dopamine
- B.
Tyrosine
- C.
COMT
- D.
Phenylalanine
- 11.Where does dopa-b hydroxylase act upon dopamine to turn it into norepinephrine?
- A.
Mitochondria
- B.
Synaptic cleft
- C.
Synaptic Vessicles
- D.
Storage Vessicles
- 12.Which of the following is not a cardiac effect of alpa 1 receptor activation?
- A.
Decrease SVR
- B.
Vasoconstriction
- C.
Increase LV afterload
- D.
Increase arterial BP
- 13.Which of the following is a pre-synaptic receptor?
- A.
Alpha 1
- B.
Alpha 2
- C.
Beta 1
- D.
Beta 2
- 14.Activation of Alpha 2 receptors inhibits ______ activity.
- A.
Dopa-b hydroxylase
- B.
Tyrosine
- C.
Adenylate cyclase
- D.
COMT
- 15.Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors is likely to have all of the following effects except …
- A.
Increase Contractility
- B.
Increase HR
- C.
Increase CO
- D.
Decreased SVR
- 16.Beta 2 agonism may result in which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A.
Hypokalemia
- B.
Hypochloremia
- C.
Hyponatremia
- D.
None of above
- 17.Which of the following is not a direct sympathomimetic?
- A.
Phenylephrine
- B.
Amphetamine
- C.
Isoproterenol
- D.
Dobutamine
- 18.Which of the following is not a direct acting catecholamine?
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Dobutamine
- C.
Phenylephrine
- D.
Isoproterenol
- 19.What is the most potent activator of alpha adrenergic receptors?
- A.
Norepinephrine
- B.
Ephedrine
- C.
Phenylephrine
- D.
Epinephrine
- 20.Which of the following would not be an effect of epinephrine?
- A.
Increased renal blood flow
- B.
Increase rate of phase IV depolarization
- C.
Bronchodilation
- D.
Increase cerebral perfusion pressure
- 21.What is the appropriate shock and allergic reaction dose of epinephrine?
- A.
1:1000 solution .1-.5 ml SQ/IM
- B.
0.5 -1mg IV
- C.
2-20 ug/min
- D.
Racemic inhalation 0.5 ml of 2.25% solution
- 22.A 1: 10,000 mix of epinephrine contains how many micrograms of epinephrine per ml?
- A.
10
- B.
5
- C.
100
- D.
20
- 23.Epinephrine should be used cautiously in patients with what condition?
- A.
Dysrhythmias
- B.
Renal Failure
- C.
COPD
- D.
Hypertensive ischemic heart disease
- 24.Norepinephrine exerts its greatest action on which receptors?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Beta 1
- C.
Beta 2
- D.
All are equal
- 25.Which of the following is not an effect of norepinephrine?
- A.
Increase myocardial O2 demand
- B.
Increase CO
- C.
Bradycardia
- D.
Increase Afterload
- 26.Which of the following would be the best choice to increase cardiac contractility in a pt with CHF and CAD?
- A.
Phenylephrine
- B.
Dopamine
- C.
Dobutamine
- D.
Norepinephrine
- 27.Which of the following is an appropriate renal dose of dopamine?
- A.
2 mcg/kg/min
- B.
8 mcg/kg/min
- C.
15 mcg/kg/min
- D.
All of above
- 28.What dose of dopamine would you give to achieve selective beta 1 agonism?
- A.
16 mcg/kg/min
- B.
- C.
24 mcg/kg/min
- D.
5 mcg/kg/min
- 29.What dose of Dopamine would you give to achieve alpha 1 agonism and an increase in PVR?
- A.
16 mcg/kg/min
- B.
- C.
24 mcg/kg/min
- D.
5 mcg/kg/min
- 30.Why do direct acting non-catecholamine have a longer serum half life than catecholamine?
- A.
They are not metabolized by MAO or COMT
- B.
Higher degree of protein binding
- C.
Increase volume of distribution
- D.
All of above
- 31.Phenylephrine primarily acts upon which receptor?
- A.
Beta 2
- B.
Alpha 1
- C.
Beta 1
- D.
Alpha 2
- 32.Which of the following has both direct and indirect sympathomimetic activity?
- A.
Norepinephrine
- B.
Amphetamine
- C.
Ephedrine
- D.
Phenylephrine
- 33.What is the preferred medication to raise the BP of an OB patient?
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Amphetamine
- C.
Dopamine
- D.
Ephedrine
- 34.What effect will ephedrine have on your MAC?
- A.
Increase MAC
- B.
Decrease MAC
- C.
No effect on MAC
- 35.How will a pt who has a history of chronic amphetamine abuse affect your anesthetic requirements?
- A.
Increase MAC
- B.
Decrease MAC
- C.
No Effect
- 36.Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist?
- A.
Phenylephrine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Clonodine
- D.
Dopamine
- 37.Which of the following is not an effect of precedex?
- A.
Maintaining respiratory stability
- B.
Sedation
- C.
Reduces brain Noradrenergic Activity
- D.
Increase pt BP
- 38.How will Renal impairment effect metabolism of Precedex?
- A.
It won’t effect it… only hepatic impairment will.
- B.
You will need to decrease the dose
- C.
You will need to increase the dose
- D.
Pt will be more prone to bradycardia and hypotension
- 39.Which of the following is not a factor associated with cardiac dysrhythmias?
- A.
Altered sympathetic nervous system activity
- B.
Venous Hypoxia
- C.
Myocardial Ischemia
- D.
Bradycardia
- 40.What occurs during Phase 0 of action potential?
- A.
Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current
- B.
Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current
- C.
Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
- D.
Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
- E.
Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential
- 41.What occurs during Phase 1 of action potential?
- A.
Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current
- B.
Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current
- C.
Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
- D.
Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
- E.
Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential
- 42.What occurs during Phase 2 of action potential?
- A.
Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current
- B.
Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current
- C.
Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
- D.
Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
- E.
Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential
- 43.What occurs during Phase 3 of action potential?
- A.
Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current
- B.
Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current
- C.
Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
- D.
Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
- E.
Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential
- 44.What occurs during Phase 4 of action potential?
- A.
Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current
- B.
Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current
- C.
Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
- D.
Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
- E.
Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential
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