Pharm II - Quiz 3

44 Questions | Total Attempts: 118

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Pharm II - Quiz 3

A quiz reviewing the material for Quiz 3. Sympathomimetics, Calcium channel blockers, Peripheral Vasodilators.


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Tyrosine

  • 2. 
    What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Tyrosine

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is release from the adrenal gland in times of stress and acts on alpha and beta receptors?
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine

  • 4. 
    Where is norepinephrine synthesized?
    • A. 

      Post-synaptic Neurons

    • B. 

      Pineal Body

    • C. 

      Posterior Lobe of Pituitary

    • D. 

      Synaptic Vessicles

  • 5. 
    When Tyrosine is hydroxylated it becomes what?
    • A. 

      Dopa

    • B. 

      Phenylalanine

    • C. 

      Norepinephrine

    • D. 

      Epinephrine

  • 6. 
    What enzyme acts on Dopamine to turn it into Norepinephrine?
    • A. 

      N-methyltransferase

    • B. 

      Dopamine B-Hydroxylase

    • C. 

      DOPA decarboxylase

    • D. 

      Dopamine does not directly turn into norepi… you’re missing a step.

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not one of the 3 mechanisms for termination of norepinephrine?
    • A. 

      Re-uptake

    • B. 

      Diffusion from receptor sites

    • C. 

      Irreversible protein binding

    • D. 

      Enzyme degredation

  • 8. 
    When a neurotransmitter binds to a postsynaptic receptor it is likely to likely cause which of the following?
    • A. 

      Opening of an ion channel

    • B. 

      Activation of a second messenger such as cAMP or inositol phosphate

    • C. 

      Depolarization

    • D. 

      All of above.

  • 9. 
    After the breakdown of epinephrine by MAO and COMT, what product is excreted in the urine?
    • A. 

      Vanillymandelic Acid

    • B. 

      3,7-dicarboxyvandelic acid

    • C. 

      Nelson-Mandelic Acid

    • D. 

      4,6-Pheocomtic acid

  • 10. 
    Norepinephrine is synthesized from ______ which is hydroxylated to form Dopa.
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Tyrosine

    • C. 

      COMT

    • D. 

      Phenylalanine

  • 11. 
    Where does dopa-b hydroxylase act upon dopamine to turn it into norepinephrine?
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Synaptic cleft

    • C. 

      Synaptic Vessicles

    • D. 

      Storage Vessicles

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is not a cardiac effect of alpa 1 receptor activation?
    • A. 

      Decrease SVR

    • B. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • C. 

      Increase LV afterload

    • D. 

      Increase arterial BP

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is a pre-synaptic receptor?
    • A. 

      Alpha 1

    • B. 

      Alpha 2

    • C. 

      Beta 1

    • D. 

      Beta 2

  • 14. 
    Activation of Alpha 2 receptors inhibits ______ activity.
    • A. 

      Dopa-b hydroxylase

    • B. 

      Tyrosine

    • C. 

      Adenylate cyclase

    • D. 

      COMT

  • 15. 
    Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors is likely to have all of the following effects except …
    • A. 

      Increase Contractility

    • B. 

      Increase HR

    • C. 

      Increase CO

    • D. 

      Decreased SVR

  • 16. 
    Beta 2 agonism may result in which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
    • A. 

      Hypokalemia

    • B. 

      Hypochloremia

    • C. 

      Hyponatremia

    • D. 

      None of above

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is not a direct sympathomimetic?
    • A. 

      Phenylephrine

    • B. 

      Amphetamine

    • C. 

      Isoproterenol

    • D. 

      Dobutamine

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is not a direct acting catecholamine?               
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Dobutamine

    • C. 

      Phenylephrine

    • D. 

      Isoproterenol

  • 19. 
    What is the most potent activator of alpha adrenergic receptors?
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Ephedrine

    • C. 

      Phenylephrine

    • D. 

      Epinephrine

  • 20. 
    Which of the following would not be an effect of epinephrine?               
    • A. 

      Increased renal blood flow

    • B. 

      Increase rate of phase IV depolarization

    • C. 

      Bronchodilation

    • D. 

      Increase cerebral perfusion pressure

  • 21. 
    What is the appropriate shock and allergic reaction dose of epinephrine?
    • A. 

      1:1000 solution .1-.5 ml SQ/IM

    • B. 

      0.5 -1mg IV

    • C. 

      2-20 ug/min

    • D. 

      Racemic inhalation 0.5 ml of 2.25% solution

  • 22. 
    A 1: 10,000 mix of epinephrine contains how many micrograms of epinephrine per ml?               
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      20

  • 23. 
    Epinephrine should be used cautiously in patients with what condition?
    • A. 

      Dysrhythmias

    • B. 

      Renal Failure

    • C. 

      COPD

    • D. 

      Hypertensive ischemic heart disease

  • 24. 
    Norepinephrine exerts its greatest action on which receptors?
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta 1

    • C. 

      Beta 2

    • D. 

      All are equal

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is not an effect of norepinephrine?               
    • A. 

      Increase myocardial O2 demand

    • B. 

      Increase CO

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Increase Afterload

  • 26. 
    Which of the following would be the best choice to increase cardiac contractility in a pt with CHF and CAD?
    • A. 

      Phenylephrine

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Dobutamine

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 27. 
    Which of the following is an appropriate renal dose of dopamine?
    • A. 

      2 mcg/kg/min

    • B. 

      8 mcg/kg/min

    • C. 

      15 mcg/kg/min

    • D. 

      All of above

  • 28. 
    What dose of dopamine would you give to achieve selective beta 1 agonism?
    • A. 

      16 mcg/kg/min

    • B. 

    • C. 

      24 mcg/kg/min

    • D. 

      5 mcg/kg/min

  • 29. 
    What dose of Dopamine would you give to achieve alpha 1 agonism and an increase in PVR?               
    • A. 

      16 mcg/kg/min

    • B. 

    • C. 

      24 mcg/kg/min

    • D. 

      5 mcg/kg/min

  • 30. 
    Why do direct acting non-catecholamine have a longer serum half life than catecholamine?
    • A. 

      They are not metabolized by MAO or COMT

    • B. 

      Higher degree of protein binding

    • C. 

      Increase volume of distribution

    • D. 

      All of above

  • 31. 
    Phenylephrine primarily acts upon which receptor?
    • A. 

      Beta 2

    • B. 

      Alpha 1

    • C. 

      Beta 1

    • D. 

      Alpha 2

  • 32. 
    Which of the following has both direct and indirect sympathomimetic activity?
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Amphetamine

    • C. 

      Ephedrine

    • D. 

      Phenylephrine

  • 33. 
    What is the preferred medication to raise the BP of an OB patient?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Amphetamine

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Ephedrine

  • 34. 
    What effect will ephedrine have on your MAC?
    • A. 

      Increase MAC

    • B. 

      Decrease MAC

    • C. 

      No effect on MAC

  • 35. 
    How will a pt who has a history of chronic amphetamine abuse affect your anesthetic requirements?
    • A. 

      Increase MAC

    • B. 

      Decrease MAC

    • C. 

      No Effect

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist?
    • A. 

      Phenylephrine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Clonodine

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 37. 
    Which of the following is not an effect of precedex?
    • A. 

      Maintaining respiratory stability

    • B. 

      Sedation

    • C. 

      Reduces brain Noradrenergic Activity

    • D. 

      Increase pt BP

  • 38. 
    How will Renal impairment effect metabolism of Precedex?
    • A. 

      It won’t effect it… only hepatic impairment will.

    • B. 

      You will need to decrease the dose

    • C. 

      You will need to increase the dose

    • D. 

      Pt will be more prone to bradycardia and hypotension

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is not a factor associated with cardiac dysrhythmias?
    • A. 

      Altered sympathetic nervous system activity

    • B. 

      Venous Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Myocardial Ischemia

    • D. 

      Bradycardia

  • 40. 
    What occurs during Phase 0 of action potential?
    • A. 

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B. 

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C. 

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D. 

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E. 

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

  • 41. 
    What occurs during Phase 1 of action potential?
    • A. 

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B. 

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C. 

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D. 

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E. 

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

  • 42. 
    What occurs during Phase 2 of action potential?
    • A. 

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B. 

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C. 

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D. 

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E. 

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

  • 43. 
    What occurs during Phase 3 of action potential?
    • A. 

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B. 

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C. 

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D. 

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E. 

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

  • 44. 
    What occurs during Phase 4 of action potential?
    • A. 

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B. 

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C. 

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D. 

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E. 

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential