Perception MCQ

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Perception MCQ

Perception is a state of mind that makes someone takes a point of understanding of a situation. Sometimes, the very first experience may either create the right perception or the wrong one. Find it all below.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following words does NOT describe perception
    • A. 

      A passive process

    • B. 

      A psychological process

    • C. 

      No direct contact with the physical world

    • D. 

      Using sense organs

  • 2. 
    What percentage of the cortex are visual brain areas?
    • A. 

      50%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      30%

    • D. 

      2%

  • 3. 
    Which of the sensory modalities is the most studied/understood?
    • A. 

      Vision

    • B. 

      Touch

    • C. 

      Taste/Smell

    • D. 

      They are all heavily studied

  • 4. 
    Psychophysics has a central concept of measuring the ... of sensory systems?
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Detection limits

    • C. 

      Discrimination limits

    • D. 

      Thresholds

  • 5. 
    Measuring detection thresholds, a favoured practice of Fechner, can be carried out by three methods, which of the following is NOT one of them?
    • A. 

      Absolute method

    • B. 

      Limit method

    • C. 

      Adjustment method

    • D. 

      Constant stimuli method

  • 6. 
    What percentage correct performance is necessary in psychophysical trials to determine a threshold of perception (discriminatory or detection)
    • A. 

      75%

    • B. 

      90%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      67%

  • 7. 
    It is possible during a psychophysical trial that the SAME stimulus strength will cause different answers from the same participant, what offers an explanation as to why our threshold detections are not discrete?
    • A. 

      Signal detection theory

    • B. 

      Noisy wiring theory

    • C. 

      Stimulus discrimination theory

    • D. 

      Judgement bias theory

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is incorrect about neurophysiological single cell recording in vision?
    • A. 

      It is intracellular

    • B. 

      It uses a microelectrode that is surgically placed into a visual system area of study

    • C. 

      It records next to the axon of a cell to pick up action potentials from a specific cell

    • D. 

      It is reductionist

  • 9. 
    What type of graph is collected from a neurophysiological experiment of vision?
    • A. 

      Histogram (PSTH)

    • B. 

      Line graph (PSTLG)

    • C. 

      Scatter graph (PSTSG)

    • D. 

      Logarithm graph (PSTL)

  • 10. 
    Thresholds can NOT be calculated from which of the following?
    • A. 

      All of these can measure thresholds

    • B. 

      Neurometric function (single cell)

    • C. 

      Psychometric function (detection)

    • D. 

      Psychometric function (discrimination)

  • 11. 
    Hubel and Wiesel (1959) showed monkeys a bar in various orientations and made what conclusion about neurons?
    • A. 

      They act as feature detectors

    • B. 

      Animal studies should not be applied to humans

    • C. 

      Brain areas respond to different bar orientations

    • D. 

      Receptive fields are crucial for object recognition

  • 12. 
    Of the functional imaging techniques, which one requires radioactive tagging?
    • A. 

      PET

    • B. 

      FMRI

    • C. 

      EEG

    • D. 

      MEG

  • 13. 
    Changes in luminance occurs at many different spatial scales, what change in luminance is responsible for FINE detail?
    • A. 

      Abrupt (sharp) changes

    • B. 

      Medium changes

    • C. 

      Smooth changes

    • D. 

      Course changes

  • 14. 
    How does the brain represent the information in Visual images?
    • A. 

      Sinusoidal gratings

    • B. 

      Luminance changes

    • C. 

      Wavelength changes

    • D. 

      Pixel equivalents

  • 15. 
    Which of the following best describes a sinusoidal grating?
    • A. 

      Luminance varying across space

    • B. 

      Luminance varying across time and space

    • C. 

      Luminance varying across time

    • D. 

      Luminance varying across 1 dimension

  • 16. 
    There are 4 defining characteristics of Sinusoidal Gratings, which of the following is NOT one of them?
    • A. 

      Position

    • B. 

      Spatial Frequency

    • C. 

      Orientation

    • D. 

      Contrast

  • 17. 
    What is the name for the process where by you decompose any image into its unique set of sinusoidal gratings?
    • A. 

      Fourier Analysis

    • B. 

      Fourier Synthesis

    • C. 

      Fourier Disintegration

    • D. 

      Fourier Dissolution

  • 18. 
    What is the name for measuring the visual system's response to simple sinusoidal grating patterns?
    • A. 

      Modulation transfer function

    • B. 

      Spatial frequency function

    • C. 

      Visual acuity function

    • D. 

      Complex image function

  • 19. 
    The Contrast Sensitivity function shows ... ?
    • A. 

      The entire visual system's sensitivity to gratings

    • B. 

      A single cell's sensitivity to gratings

    • C. 

      The entire visual system's sensitivity to contrast changes

    • D. 

      A single cell's sensitivity to contrast changes

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is an explanation for why there is a drop off in sensitivity to high spatial frequency gratings in the human CSF?
    • A. 

      Optical imperfections of the eye

    • B. 

      Receptive fields of ganglion cells do not respond to gratings with too high spatial frequency

    • C. 

      Both of these are correct

    • D. 

      Both of these explain insensitivity to LOW spatial frequency gratings

  • 21. 
    The human Contrast Sensitivity Function shows that humans are most sensitive to sinusoidal gratings with what spatial frequencies?
    • A. 

      Mid-range

    • B. 

      High

    • C. 

      Low

    • D. 

      High and Low

  • 22. 
    Under which luminance level does our system respond to the highest spatial frequencies?
    • A. 

      Photopic

    • B. 

      Mesopic

    • C. 

      Scotopic

    • D. 

      Lumopic

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Mangocellular cells are 10 times more sensitive

    • B. 

      Parvocellular cells are 10 times more sensitive

    • C. 

      Low spatial frequencies become higher when flickering

    • D. 

      Higher spatial frequencies become lower when flickering

  • 24. 
    Optometrists use very high contrast stimuli to assess visual acuity in eye tests, which of the following is not a common eye test?
    • A. 

      Grayson letter discrimination

    • B. 

      Snellen eye chart

    • C. 

      Landholt rings

    • D. 

      Parallel bars

  • 25. 
    What is visual acuity measuring on the CSF
    • A. 

      The highest spatial frequency grating you can detect

    • B. 

      The lowest spatial frequency grating you can detect

    • C. 

      The limits of our spatial frequency grating detection

    • D. 

      The complete range of the spatial frequency gratings we can detect

  • 26. 
    Which of these is an advantage of using CSF over Visual acuity tests to measure spatial visual function clinically?
    • A. 

      It allows us to correctly predict how well pilots would see objects in fog (where fine detail is lost)

    • B. 

      It is quick to administer

    • C. 

      Most causes of loss of sensitivity are optical in nature meaning it reliably picks them up

    • D. 

      It requires no specialist equipment

  • 27. 
    Henning describes 4 basic taste qualities, which of the following is not one of the original 4?
    • A. 

      Umami

    • B. 

      Salty

    • C. 

      Sour

    • D. 

      Bitter

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is incorrect about the origin of the 4 taste components?
    • A. 

      Salty - alkaline substances

    • B. 

      Sour - acidic substances

    • C. 

      Sweet - carbohydrates and amino acids

    • D. 

      Bitter - alkaloids

  • 29. 
    The average human has ... tastebuds?
    • A. 

      10,000

    • B. 

      1000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      1,000,000

  • 30. 
    What are the little bumps on the tongue that contain tastebuds?
    • A. 

      Papillae

    • B. 

      Foliate

    • C. 

      Filoform

    • D. 

      Fungiform

  • 31. 
    There are 3 sets of afferent nerve fibres that carry taste information from the taste buds to the brain, which of these is NOT one of them?
    • A. 

      Circumpharyngeal

    • B. 

      Chorda tympani

    • C. 

      Glossopharyngeal

    • D. 

      Vagus

  • 32. 
    Which brain area do taste afferent fibres not travel through?
    • A. 

      Hippocampus

    • B. 

      Brain stem

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

  • 33. 
    The degree of pleasantness a sensory (particularly taste) stimulus provides is likely mediated by afferent connections to which brain area?
    • A. 

      Orbito-frontal cortex

    • B. 

      Thalamus

    • C. 

      Somatosensory cortex

    • D. 

      Brain stem

  • 34. 
    Cross-fibre theory suggests that ...
    • A. 

      Most neurons responds to several taste stimuli but are tuned to a particular taste

    • B. 

      Neurons are wired to one taste stimuli and integrate to build a taste repertoire

    • C. 

      Neurons respond to all taste stimuli equally and the combined response of all the neurons separates out unique tastes

    • D. 

      Neurons have a varying amount of 'preferred' tastes and the combination of these neurons with one, two, three or four preferred tastes builds a representation of the quality of the taste experienced

  • 35. 
    The front of the tongue is most sensitive to ...
    • A. 

      Sweet and Bitter

    • B. 

      Salty

    • C. 

      Sour and Bitter

    • D. 

      Sweet and Salty

  • 36. 
    What temperature correlates with the greatest taste sensitivity regardless of taste quality?
    • A. 

      22-32 degrees

    • B. 

      17-22 degrees

    • C. 

      32-42 degrees

    • D. 

      37 degrees exactly

  • 37. 
    25% of the population have twice as many papillae than the 'non tasters' and experience taste very strongly, what are they called?
    • A. 

      Supertasters

    • B. 

      Extremetasters

    • C. 

      Megatasters

    • D. 

      OMGtasters

  • 38. 
    Which of these is true about both smell and taste?
    • A. 

      They are most likely encoded by cross fibre theory

    • B. 

      There are an agreed set of qualities

    • C. 

      There is a straightforward relationship between the sensation and the chemical properties

    • D. 

      These are all true for both

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is not a destination for the afferent nerves from the olfactory bulb?
    • A. 

      Brain stem

    • B. 

      Olfactory cortex

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      Limbic system

  • 40. 
    Which of the following does the sensation of touch have in common with all of the other sensory modalities?
    • A. 

      Provides information about objects in the world that are in direct contact with us

    • B. 

      Receptors distributed throughout the entire body

    • C. 

      An extremely diverse response to different qualities and types of stimulation

    • D. 

      All the sensory modalities share these properties

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is FALSE about human smell sensitivity?
    • A. 

      Men are more sensitive to odours than women in general

    • B. 

      Young adults are more sensitive to odours than the elderly

    • C. 

      Up to 1 in 3 individuals suffer from a form of anosmia

    • D. 

      Humans can detect some foul smelling compounds at 1 part per 50 billion

  • 42. 
    There are 4 mechanoreceptors found in SMOOTH skin, which of the following is not found?
    • A. 

      Basket cell

    • B. 

      Pacinian Corpuscle

    • C. 

      Merkel discs

    • D. 

      Ruffini endings

  • 43. 
    How many mechanoreceptors are on the hairless skin of the hand?
    • A. 

      17,000

    • B. 

      44,000

    • C. 

      122,000

    • D. 

      5,500

  • 44. 
    Which of the following mechanoreceptors is a rapidly adapting fibre with a small receptor size that responds to fluttering vibrations?
    • A. 

      Meissner corpuscle

    • B. 

      Pacinian corpuscle

    • C. 

      Ruffini ending

    • D. 

      Merkel discs

  • 45. 
    Which of the following mechanoreceptors is a slow adapting fibre with a small receptive field size that responds to pressure sensations?
    • A. 

      Merkel discs

    • B. 

      Pacinian corpuscle

    • C. 

      Meissner corpuscle

    • D. 

      Ruffini ending

  • 46. 
    Which of the mechanoreceptors is the most well studied?
    • A. 

      Pacinian corpuscle

    • B. 

      Merkel discs

    • C. 

      Meissner corpuscle

    • D. 

      Ruffini ending

  • 47. 
    Pacinian corpusble is the ...
    • A. 

      Largest mechanoreceptor

    • B. 

      Most numerous mechanoreceptor

    • C. 

      Most superficially located mechanoreceptor

    • D. 

      All of these things

  • 48. 
    To measure absolute thresholds for passive touch on the skin, what stimulus is deployed?
    • A. 

      Nylon filament

    • B. 

      Human fingertip

    • C. 

      Fine hair

    • D. 

      Silk

  • 49. 
    Information about pain and temperature is carried by the ... ?
    • A. 

      Spinothalamic tract

    • B. 

      Dorsal side of the spinal cord

    • C. 

      Contralateral tract

    • D. 

      Substantia gelatinosa

  • 50. 
    Which of these words does NOT describe the fibres that carry touch information into the dorsal side of the spinal cord
    • A. 

      Efferent

    • B. 

      Large

    • C. 

      Fast

    • D. 

      Myelinated

  • 51. 
    The homunculus that represents the distribution of neural tissue in the somatosensory cortex for each body part does NOT have enlarged ... ?
    • A. 

      Feet

    • B. 

      Hands

    • C. 

      Lips

    • D. 

      Tongue

  • 52. 
    Actively exploring the world through proprioceptive and tactile information is more aptly termed?
    • A. 

      Haptics

    • B. 

      Proprioception

    • C. 

      Tactile Proprioception

    • D. 

      Active exploration

  • 53. 
    Why is Braille easier to read than embossed Roman letters?
    • A. 

      Mechanical blurring of Roman letters

    • B. 

      Mechanical blurring of Braille letters

    • C. 

      Visual blurring of Roman letters

    • D. 

      Visual blurring of Braille letters

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is NOT a reason to distinguish pain as a distinct sensory experience?
    • A. 

      It is possible to isolate a specific evoking stimulus for pain in everyone

    • B. 

      It is a subjective experience`

    • C. 

      It is difficult to asses quality/intensity

    • D. 

      Psychological factors greatly influence the intensity

  • 55. 
    Nociceptors are the receptor for pain, what is the most likely candidate out of the human receptors we know about
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini endings

    • C. 

      Merkel discs

    • D. 

      Basket cells

  • 56. 
    Pain afferent fibres have only one of the following properties, which one?
    • A. 

      Large receptive fields

    • B. 

      Low - threshold

    • C. 

      Myelinated

    • D. 

      Fast conduction velocity

  • 57. 
    Gate control theory of pain, that involves the substantia gelatinosa behaving as a gate to pain, explains how rubbing skin alleviates pain how?
    • A. 

      Activity in fast touch fibres partially closes the gate to reduce pain

    • B. 

      Slow pain fibres open the gate to pain and rubbing reduces their activity

    • C. 

      Descending pathways from the brain close the gate when the skin is rubbed (psychological numbing)

    • D. 

      Rubbing skin activates T cells that inhibit the substantia gelatinosa, closing the gate

  • 58. 
    The human CSF reflects ... ?
    • A. 

      The combined activity of many independent filters

    • B. 

      The combined activity of many interdependent filters

    • C. 

      The activity of a single detection mechanism

    • D. 

      The activity of a single detection mechanism regulated by a number of filters

  • 59. 
    What did Campbell and Robson base their 1968 claim that the human CSF is a combination on a number of independent filters from?
    • A. 

      Square-wave gratings

    • B. 

      Sinusoidal gratings

    • C. 

      Electrophysiological recordings

    • D. 

      Animal studies

  • 60. 
    How many times lower was the contrast threshold for square wave gratings than the equivalent sinusoidal gratings considering they are perceptually indiscriminable?
    • A. 

      1.27

    • B. 

      3.60

    • C. 

      0

    • D. 

      7

  • 61. 
    Graham and Nachmias (1971) found that what quality of gratings did not effect detection?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Contrast

    • C. 

      Spatial frequency

    • D. 

      Orientation

  • 62. 
    Blakemore and Campbell (1969) found that what happened to the CSF after prolonged viewing of high contrast patterns?
    • A. 

      There is a diminished sensitivity to that spatial frequency and its neighbours

    • B. 

      There is a diminished sensitivity to that spatial frequency only

    • C. 

      There is a diminished sensitivity across all spatial frequencies

    • D. 

      There is a selective spatial frequency diminishing affect but no frequency is left unaffected

  • 63. 
    Which model explains the Blakemore and Sutton Aftereffect on Adaption to sinusoidal gratings
    • A. 

      Distribution shift model

    • B. 

      Adaption model

    • C. 

      Spatial frequency shift model

    • D. 

      Disturbed gratings model

  • 64. 
    The best estimate to the number of filters we have in the human CSF is?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      3

  • 65. 
    What is the name for the condition whereby one can no longer discriminate objects?
    • A. 

      Object agnosia

    • B. 

      Item agnosia

    • C. 

      Discriminatory agnosia

    • D. 

      Spatial agnosia

  • 66. 
    Object recognition is NOT?
    • A. 

      An ability all humans possess

    • B. 

      Hierarchically modulated

    • C. 

      Highly flexible

    • D. 

      A difficult process

  • 67. 
    Which of these models for object recognition is the simplest?
    • A. 

      Template-matching

    • B. 

      Feature-detector

    • C. 

      Structural description

    • D. 

      View-dependent

  • 68. 
    Marr's 3 levels of analysis to follow a computational approach to object recognition does NOT include?
    • A. 

      Functional

    • B. 

      Computational

    • C. 

      Algorithmic

    • D. 

      Implementation

  • 69. 
    Why is template matching most likely to be wrong?
    • A. 

      It is very constrained

    • B. 

      It is very inaccurate

    • C. 

      It is computationally impossible

    • D. 

      All of these are reasons

  • 70. 
    Marr and Nishihara's (1978) Structural description model requires 5 criteria to have a good representation of an object that is invariant to transformations, which of the following is not one of them?
    • A. 

      Flexibility

    • B. 

      Accessibility

    • C. 

      Scope

    • D. 

      Uniqueness (same object = always same description)

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 71. 
    What did Marr and Nishihara suggest are the primitives to their object centre model of recognition?
    • A. 

      Generalised cones

    • B. 

      Edges

    • C. 

      2 1/2 D sketches

    • D. 

      Intensity and wave length of light at each point

  • 72. 
    Biederman (1987) suggested there are how many geons that make up all the objects?
    • A. 

      36

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      48

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is not evidence for structural models of object recognition?
    • A. 

      Human object recognition is not perfectly viewpoint invariant

    • B. 

      Recognition is more impaired by removal of geons than equal amounts of other information

    • C. 

      IT neurons will fire at complex objects and keep firing until geons are gone

    • D. 

      Some IT neurons are selective for objects with particular medial axis configurations

  • 74. 
    What are the primitives for view-dependent models of object recognition?
    • A. 

      Sub-regions of the image

    • B. 

      Generalised cones

    • C. 

      2 1/2 D sketch

    • D. 

      Intensity and wavelength of light at each point

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is NOT evidence for a view-dependent model of object recognition?
    • A. 

      Some IT neurons are selective for medial axis configurations

    • B. 

      Monkey IT neurons are selective for particular viewpoints

    • C. 

      Simulations achieve good invariance and show similar errors to humans

    • D. 

      Human object recognition is not perfectly viewpoint invariant

  • 76. 
    Which model for object recognition has the most empirical support?
    • A. 

      View dependent

    • B. 

      Structural description

    • C. 

      Feature-detector

    • D. 

      Template matching

  • 77. 
    Which model of object recognition is the most 'computationally elegant'
    • A. 

      Structural description

    • B. 

      View dependent

    • C. 

      Template matching

    • D. 

      Feature-detector

  • 78. 
    Which lobe of the brain seems critical for object recognition?
    • A. 

      Temporal

    • B. 

      Frontal

    • C. 

      Occipital

    • D. 

      Parietal

  • 79. 
    Evidence that the fusi-form face area is involved in facial recognition does NOT come from?
    • A. 

      FFA only responds to faces

    • B. 

      FFA stimulation in monkeys

    • C. 

      FFA stimulation causes face morphing

    • D. 

      FFA recordings are very coordinated with when faces are shown

  • 80. 
    Which of the following pieces of evidence supports the expertise hypothesis rather than the domain specific hypothesis (a unique cognitive process) of face recognition?
    • A. 

      Effect of familiarity

    • B. 

      Neonate face discrimination and Prosopagnosia

    • C. 

      Reliance on facial configuration

    • D. 

      The Inversion effect - faces are harder to distinguish when upside down than other objects

    • E. 

      The part-whole effect and the composite effect - parts are difficult to tell apart from the whole

  • 81. 
    Young et al (1987) found what observation in his composite effect study?
    • A. 

      Inverted faces showed a significant improvement for misaligned faces

    • B. 

      Inverted faces showed a significant improvement for aligned faces

    • C. 

      Inverted faces showed a significant decreased performance for misaligned face

    • D. 

      Inverted faces showed a significant decreased performance for aligned faces

  • 82. 
    Which of these effects is true concerning face recognition?
    • A. 

      Inversion disrupts configural more than featural information in faces

    • B. 

      Inversion disrupts featural more than configural information in faces

    • C. 

      Scrambling disrupts featural more than configural information in faces

    • D. 

      Scrambling disrupts configural more than featural information in faces

  • 83. 
    Which of the following is not a piece of evidence in support of the Expertise hypothesis of facial recognition? 
    • A. 

      Part-whole and Inversion effect for faces

    • B. 

      Effect of unfamiliarity

    • C. 

      Other-race effect

    • D. 

      FFA activation for objects of expertise

  • 84. 
    Greebles were used in an experiment to test what phenomenon was true?
    • A. 

      Part-whole effect for objects

    • B. 

      Composite effect for objects

    • C. 

      Inversion effect for objects

    • D. 

      Effects of unfamiliarity

  • 85. 
    What is the central fixation point of the retina?
    • A. 

      Fovea

    • B. 

      Blind spot

    • C. 

      Cornea

    • D. 

      Ora serrata

  • 86. 
    Why is there a physiological blind spot?
    • A. 

      There is a point on the retina occupied by the optic nerve

    • B. 

      Part of the retina is folded

    • C. 

      It is an evolutionary adaption in the visual cortex

    • D. 

      It is an artifact from having forward facing overlapping vision

  • 87. 
    How many distinct layers are there in the retina?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      5

  • 88. 
    The fovea ... ?
    • A. 

      Is all of these things

    • B. 

      Contains exclusively cones

    • C. 

      Constitutes 1/7 of all connections between brain and retina

    • D. 

      Is the area of the retina that thins and forms a pit

  • 89. 
    Excluding photoreceptors, which of the following is NOT one of the 5 major types of neuron in the human retina?
    • A. 

      Vertical cells

    • B. 

      Bipolar cells

    • C. 

      Horizontal cells

    • D. 

      Amacrine cells

  • 90. 
    Visible light falls between wavelengths ... ?
    • A. 

      400-700

    • B. 

      300-500

    • C. 

      800-900

    • D. 

      600-800

  • 91. 
    Which of the following is part of the duplex theory of retinal processing allowing eyes to operate in light and dark?
    • A. 

      Colour vision

    • B. 

      Pupil constriction

    • C. 

      Rod-driven scotopic system

    • D. 

      Cone-driven photopic system

  • 92. 
    Which of the following is correct for retinal processing?
    • A. 

      Photoreceptor - Bipolar cell - Ganglion cell - Optic fibre

    • B. 

      Photoreceptor - Ganglion cell - Bipolar cell - Optic fibre

    • C. 

      Horizontal cells form connections between ganglion cells

    • D. 

      Amacrine cells form connections between photoreceptors

  • 93. 
    How does the information from 127 million photoreceptors get collated by only 1.25 million ganglion cells?
    • A. 

      Centre-surround antagonism

    • B. 

      Information filters

    • C. 

      Condensing and redispursing

    • D. 

      Visual system rearrangement

  • 94. 
    What is the most important function of horizontal cells for retinal processing?
    • A. 

      Lateral inhibiton

    • B. 

      Signal collation

    • C. 

      Lateral activation

    • D. 

      Structural support

  • 95. 
    Neurons always display some level of ongoing spontaneous activity, with this in mind what is a ganglionic OFF response?
    • A. 

      A marked reduction of the firing rate when the light is on and then a rapid burst when the light is switched off

    • B. 

      A marked reduction of the firing rate when the light is off and then a rapid burst when the light is switched on

    • C. 

      A region where the light causes an increase in the firing rate

    • D. 

      A region where the light causes a decrease in the firing rate

  • 96. 
    What is the purpose of ganglionic centre-surround antagonism?
    • A. 

      To find edges in images

    • B. 

      To find contrast in images

    • C. 

      To find wavelengths in images

    • D. 

      To find the sinusoidal gratings that make up an image

  • 97. 
    Cells in the fovea have ... 
    • A. 

      The smallest receptive fields with high spatial resolution

    • B. 

      The smallest receptive fields with low spatial resolution

    • C. 

      The largest receptive fields with high spatial resolution

    • D. 

      The largest receptive fields with low spatial resolution

  • 98. 
    Why do we have separate ON and OFF systems of ganglial processing?
    • A. 

      To detect incremental and decremental changes in light

    • B. 

      To detect light and dark contrast changes

    • C. 

      To detect high and low frequency changes

    • D. 

      To detect edges and depth in images

  • 99. 
    Ganglion cells can be effectively subdivided based on all but one of the following, which one is incorrect?
    • A. 

      Shape

    • B. 

      Size

    • C. 

      ON/OFF

    • D. 

      M, P or K

  • 100. 
    What percentage of optic nerve fibres cross at the optic chiasm and become contralateral fibres and how many remain on the same side to become ipsilateral fibres?
    • A. 

      50/50

    • B. 

      70/30

    • C. 

      30/70

    • D. 

      100% cross over

  • 101. 
    Why is it important that nerve fibres cross at the optic chiasm?
    • A. 

      So that each hemisphere has all the information from the opposite visual field

    • B. 

      So that each hemisphere has all the information from the corresponding visual field

    • C. 

      So that each hemisphere has all the information from the corresponding retina

    • D. 

      So that each hemisphere has all the information from the opposite retina

  • 102. 
    The LGN receives 80% of ganglion input and is made up of six layers, which of the layers receive input from the Magnocellular cells, leaving the rest of the layers to receive input from the Parvocellular cells
    • A. 

      1-2

    • B. 

      4-6

    • C. 

      3-4

    • D. 

      3-6

  • 103. 
    In the LGN, Contralateral fibres input into which layers?
    • A. 

      1,4,6

    • B. 

      1,3,5

    • C. 

      2,4,6

    • D. 

      2,3,5

  • 104. 
    In the LGN input into layer 1 will be
    • A. 

      Contralateral M cells

    • B. 

      Contralateral P cells

    • C. 

      Ipsilateral P cells

    • D. 

      Ipsilateral P cells

  • 105. 
    In the LGN, input into layer 5 will be?
    • A. 

      Ipsilateral P cells

    • B. 

      Ipsilateral M cells

    • C. 

      Contralateral M cells

    • D. 

      Contralateral P cells

  • 106. 
    The LGN's function is NOT ...
    • A. 

      To create colour vision

    • B. 

      To relay information between the retina and visual cortex

    • C. 

      To segregate M and P systems for cortical processing

    • D. 

      Receive feedback from the cortex to modulate signal quality

  • 107. 
    LGN cell receptive fields are ... ?
    • A. 

      Orientation independent

    • B. 

      Size independent

    • C. 

      Colour independent

    • D. 

      Strength independent

  • 108. 
    The visual cortex has 6 layers, what is the layer where the vast majority is dedicated to central vision?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

  • 109. 
    The pattern of alternate eyes driving all the cells within a penetration perpendicular to the surface of the brain is called?
    • A. 

      Ocular dominance columns

    • B. 

      Cortical processing

    • C. 

      Alternating retinotopic map

    • D. 

      Cortical magnification

  • 110. 
    The central 10 degrees of the visual field are linked to what percentage of cortical cells?
    • A. 

      80%

    • B. 

      60%

    • C. 

      40%

    • D. 

      50%

  • 111. 
    Cortical cells are unique to ganglion cells because they are selective on a number of dimensions, which of the following is NOT one of them?
    • A. 

      Shape

    • B. 

      Orientation

    • C. 

      Size

    • D. 

      Colour

  • 112. 
    Moving from a column to a hypercolumn in the visual cortex adds what dimension to the structure?
    • A. 

      A complete range of orientations

    • B. 

      A complete range of colours

    • C. 

      A complete range of motion directions

    • D. 

      A complete range of sizes

  • 113. 
    Which of these is not an important colour term?
    • A. 

      Depth

    • B. 

      Hue

    • C. 

      Brightness

    • D. 

      Saturation

  • 114. 
    A metamer is ... ?
    • A. 

      Sensory stimuli that are physically different but perceptually equivalent

    • B. 

      Sensory stimuli that are perceptually different but physically equivalent

    • C. 

      Sensory stimuli that are perceptually equivalent and physically equivalent

    • D. 

      Sensory stimuli that are physically different and perceptually different

  • 115. 
    Any single photopigment is colour blind through the principle of ... ?
    • A. 

      Univariance

    • B. 

      Multivariance

    • C. 

      Monochromacy

    • D. 

      Achromacy

  • 116. 
    Humans are ...
    • A. 

      Trichromats

    • B. 

      Dichromats

    • C. 

      Pentachromats

    • D. 

      Monochromats

  • 117. 
    Which type of cone is there the least of and is also absent from the fovea
    • A. 

      S

    • B. 

      M

    • C. 

      L

    • D. 

      S and M

  • 118. 
    Individual difference in retinal topography lies in the geographical layout of ... ? 
    • A. 

      L and M cones

    • B. 

      L and S cones

    • C. 

      M and S cones

    • D. 

      L, M and S cones

  • 119. 
    Which type of ganglion cells have chromatically opponent receptive fields? 
    • A. 

      Parvocellular

    • B. 

      Magnocellular

    • C. 

      Koniocellular

    • D. 

      All of them do

  • 120. 
    The change in perceived colour is called ...
    • A. 

      Chromatic induction

    • B. 

      Colour constancy

    • C. 

      Colour opponency

    • D. 

      Illumination

  • 121. 
    What cones must be missing for a Blue-Yellow dichromat?
    • A. 

      S

    • B. 

      M

    • C. 

      L

    • D. 

      S and M

  • 122. 
    An individual with three photopigments but the absorption properties of one is atypcial is called a ... ?
    • A. 

      Anomalous trichromat

    • B. 

      Atypcial trichromat

    • C. 

      Malabsorbing trichromat

    • D. 

      Tryharderchromat