Air Force PDG Practice Test

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Air Force PDG Practice Test - Quiz


If you're someone who works for the Air Force Department or someone preparing for the same, you must try this 'Air Force PDG Practice Test' given below. As you would already know, the Air Force authorities conduct the Professional Development Guide (PDG) test every year to determine if Airmen should be promoted to higher ranks. So, if you're planning to give PDG the test this year, you should consider trying this quiz first to see if you're actually prepared for this test or not. We wish you good luck on this as well as your upcoming test!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What did the National Defense Act of 1920 do?

    • A.

      Called for an air arm of 16,000 enlisted men and established the basic grade structure the Air Force uses today

    • B.

      Made the Air Service an official combat arm of the Army

    • C.

      Transferred Army aviation from Signal Corps control to the Secrtetary of War

    • D.

      Automatically promoted sergeant pilots to flight officers and reserved the cockpit for the commissioned

    Correct Answer
    A. Called for an air arm of 16,000 enlisted men and established the basic grade structure the Air Force uses today
    Explanation
    The National Defense Act of 1920 called for an air arm of 16,000 enlisted men and established the basic grade structure the Air Force uses today. This means that the act mandated the creation of a specific number of enlisted positions within the air arm and also set the framework for the hierarchical structure within the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    Name the NCO who shot down two MiGs on 12 April 1951, a feat unmatched by any other gunner.

    • A.

      Cpl Harry LaVene

    • B.

      SSgt Nyle S. Mickley

    • C.

      Sgt Billie Beach

    • D.

      MSgt LeRoy Henderson

    Correct Answer
    C. Sgt Billie Beach
    Explanation
    Sgt Billie Beach is the correct answer because he is the only one mentioned who shot down two MiGs on 12 April 1951, a feat unmatched by any other gunner. The other options do not mention any specific accomplishments or feats.

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  • 3. 

    Who was posthumously awarded the Air Force Cross for saving the lives of his entire rescue team by engaging and destroying the first enemy position and advancing to the second during the 17-hour battle of Operation Anaconda?

    • A.

      SrA Jason D. Cunningham

    • B.

      TSgt John A. Chapman

    • C.

      SSgt Scott Sather

    • D.

      TSgt Timothy A. Wilkinson

    Correct Answer
    B. TSgt John A. Chapman
    Explanation
    TSgt John A. Chapman was posthumously awarded the Air Force Cross for his heroic actions during the 17-hour battle of Operation Anaconda. He saved the lives of his entire rescue team by engaging and destroying the first enemy position and advancing to the second. His bravery and selflessness in the face of danger demonstrated his commitment to protecting his team and completing the mission. As a result, he was recognized and honored for his exceptional courage and sacrifice.

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  • 4. 

    Who was the first person on the 55 most wanted leaders list issued by the coalition during Operation Iraqi Freedon to surrender?

    • A.

      Iraq's science advisor

    • B.

      Iraq's minister of information

    • C.

      Iraq's minister of defense

    • D.

      The Iraqi Intelligence Service (IIS) director

    Correct Answer
    A. Iraq's science advisor
    Explanation
    During Operation Iraqi Freedom, the coalition issued a list of the 55 most wanted leaders in Iraq. The first person on this list to surrender was Iraq's science advisor.

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  • 5. 

    The five Under Secretaries of Defense include Policy; Comptroller; Personnel and Readiness; Acquisition, Technology and Logistics; and

    • A.

      Strategic Direction

    • B.

      Intelligence

    • C.

      Operations Planning

    • D.

      Resource Allocation

    Correct Answer
    B. Intelligence
    Explanation
    The five Under Secretaries of Defense are responsible for different areas within the Department of Defense. The given options are Strategic Direction, Intelligence, Operations Planning, and Resource Allocation. Among these options, Intelligence is the most logical choice as it aligns with the other areas mentioned such as Policy, Comptroller, Personnel and Readiness, and Acquisition, Technology and Logistics. Intelligence plays a crucial role in informing and shaping defense policy, resource allocation, and operations planning, making it an essential component of the Under Secretary's responsibilities.

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  • 6. 

    Preparing forces, maintaining mobile reserves in readiness, budgeting, administering funds and helping each other accomplish respective functions are examples of _____ functions of the armed forces.

    • A.

      General functions

    • B.

      Peacetime functions

    • C.

      Special functions

    • D.

      Specific functions

    Correct Answer
    D. Specific functions
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Specific functions". This is because the examples provided, such as preparing forces, maintaining mobile reserves, budgeting, administering funds, and helping each other accomplish respective functions, are all specific tasks or responsibilities that the armed forces carry out. These functions are distinct and focused, serving specific purposes within the overall operations of the armed forces.

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  • 7. 

    PACAF was renamed four years after the Korean War armistice. What was its previous name?

    • A.

      Far East Air Forces

    • B.

      5th Air Force

    • C.

      13th Air Force

    • D.

      Far East Materiel Command

    Correct Answer
    A. Far East Air Forces
    Explanation
    After the Korean War armistice, PACAF, which stands for Pacific Air Forces, was renamed. Its previous name was Far East Air Forces, which suggests that it was primarily responsible for air operations in the Far East region.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following sentences is true for Doctrine? 

    • A.

      It shapes how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips and sustains its forces

    • B.

      Guides military forces' actions in support of multinational objectives through fundamental principles.

    • C.

      Provides unique terminology for air and space forces.

    • D.

      Should be followed to the letter to be most effective

    Correct Answer
    A. It shapes how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips and sustains its forces
    Explanation
    Doctrine is a set of principles and guidelines that shape how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains its forces. It provides a framework for decision-making and guides the actions of military forces in support of multinational objectives. While it may not necessarily need to be followed to the letter, adhering to doctrine is important for the effectiveness and efficiency of the Air Force.

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  • 9. 

    A Joint Force must have a single, cohesive organization with clearly defined lines of command and commanders with requisite authorities at appropriate levels to achieve unity of command and

    • A.

      Unity of authority

    • B.

      Unity of power

    • C.

      Unity of force

    • D.

      Unity of effort

    Correct Answer
    D. Unity of effort
    Explanation
    Unity of effort is the correct answer because it refers to the coordination and synchronization of efforts among different units or organizations towards a common objective. In a Joint Force, which consists of multiple branches or services, unity of effort is crucial to ensure that all elements work together effectively and avoid duplication of efforts. It requires a cohesive organization with clear lines of command and commanders with the necessary authority to coordinate and direct the combined efforts of the force. Unity of effort allows for efficient and effective use of resources, enhances cooperation, and maximizes the overall effectiveness of the Joint Force.

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  • 10. 

    Which principle of war calls for concentrating compbat power at a decisive time and place?

    • A.

      Economy of force

    • B.

      Maneuver

    • C.

      Mass

    • D.

      Surprise

    Correct Answer
    C. Mass
    Explanation
    The principle of war that calls for concentrating combat power at a decisive time and place is Mass. This principle emphasizes the importance of bringing together a significant force to overwhelm the enemy and achieve a decisive victory. By concentrating forces, commanders can maximize their combat power and create a greater impact on the battlefield, increasing the chances of success. This principle is crucial in achieving superiority and achieving the desired outcome in warfare.

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  • 11. 

    The AEF force management tool establishes a predictable, standardized battle.

    • A.

      Plan

    • B.

      Rhythm

    • C.

      Outcome

    • D.

      Pulse

    Correct Answer
    B. Rhythm
    Explanation
    The AEF force management tool establishes a predictable, standardized rhythm. This means that it helps create a consistent and regular pattern or sequence of activities and operations. This ensures that the battle plan and overall management of forces follow a set schedule and flow, allowing for better coordination and efficiency in military operations.

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  • 12. 

    The Air Force presents forces to the JFC as

    • A.

      AEFs

    • B.

      AETFs

    • C.

      AEWs

    • D.

      NEAFs

    Correct Answer
    B. AETFs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AETFs. AETF stands for Air Expeditionary Task Forces, which are temporary units formed by the Air Force to support Joint Force Commanders (JFC) during military operations. These task forces are composed of various Air Force assets, including aircraft, personnel, and support units, that are deployed to a specific location to carry out specific missions assigned by the JFC. AETFs provide the necessary air power capabilities and support to the JFC, enhancing their operational effectiveness and flexibility.

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  • 13. 

    Which phase of emergency response is considered, to some degree, a part of every phase?

    • A.

      Preparedness

    • B.

      Prevention

    • C.

      Mitigation

    • D.

      Response

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitigation
    Explanation
    Mitigation is considered, to some degree, a part of every phase of emergency response. Mitigation refers to the actions taken to reduce or eliminate the risk and impact of disasters. It involves identifying and implementing measures to prevent or minimize the effects of potential hazards. Mitigation efforts are integrated into preparedness, prevention, and response activities to ensure a comprehensive and effective emergency response. By addressing vulnerabilities and implementing risk reduction strategies, mitigation plays a crucial role in all phases of emergency response.

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  • 14. 

    In which phase of attack do defense actions focus on individual and weapons systems survival?

    • A.

      Pre-attack

    • B.

      Trans-attack

    • C.

      Inter-attack

    • D.

      Post-attack

    Correct Answer
    B. Trans-attack
    Explanation
    In the trans-attack phase of an attack, defense actions focus on individual and weapons systems survival. This phase occurs during the actual attack, where defensive measures are taken to protect individual soldiers and their weapons systems from being destroyed or compromised. This may involve taking cover, evading enemy fire, or employing countermeasures to neutralize threats. The goal is to ensure the survival and effectiveness of the defense forces during the attack.

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  • 15. 

    What general actions should you take during the alarm condition yellow?

    • A.

      MOPP 2 or as directed; protect and cover assets; go to protective shelter or seek overhead cover

    • B.

      MOPP 4 or as directed; report observed attacks; seek immediate protection with overhead cover

    • C.

      MOPP 4 or as directed; defend self and position; report activity; take immediate cover

    • D.

      MOPP 4 or as directed; perform self-aid/buddy care; remain under overhead cover or in shelter until directed otherwise

    Correct Answer
    A. MOPP 2 or as directed; protect and cover assets; go to protective shelter or seek overhead cover
    Explanation
    During the alarm condition yellow, individuals should take the following general actions: MOPP 2 or as directed, which refers to putting on protective clothing and equipment as necessary; protecting and covering assets to prevent damage; and going to a protective shelter or seeking overhead cover for safety. This response ensures that individuals are prepared for potential threats and takes necessary steps to protect themselves and their surroundings.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 28, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 05, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Wetbabiesareslip
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