Hardest ANP Exam II Quiz!

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1. Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food?

Explanation

The salivary glands produce a fluid called saliva, which helps soften food. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down carbohydrates in the food, making it easier to swallow and digest. The saliva also helps to lubricate the food, allowing it to be easily moved around the mouth and down the throat. Therefore, the salivary glands play a crucial role in the initial stages of digestion by producing a fluid that softens the food.

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About This Quiz
Human Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia

The 'Hardest ANP Exam II Quiz!' assesses key functions of the human digestive system and its accessory organs. It covers smooth muscle actions, ingestion, absorption, and the roles of salivary glands, liver, and gallbladder, providing crucial insights for advanced anatomy students.

2. This hormone promotes spermatogenesis.

Explanation

Testosterone is the hormone responsible for promoting spermatogenesis, which is the process of sperm production. It is produced by the testes in males and plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone also regulates other male reproductive functions such as sex drive and the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, it is the correct answer in this context.

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3. This is the connection between the placenta and the embryo.

Explanation

The umbilical cord is the correct answer because it is the structure that connects the placenta to the embryo. It contains blood vessels that transport oxygen and nutrients from the mother to the developing fetus, and waste products from the fetus back to the mother for elimination. The umbilical cord also serves as a support system, providing stability and protection for the developing embryo.

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4. This is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.

Explanation

The cervix is the correct answer because it is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina. It acts as a barrier between the vagina and the uterus, and it also plays a role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. The cervix contains a small opening called the cervical os, which allows menstrual blood to flow out of the uterus and sperm to enter during intercourse. It also dilates during childbirth to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal.

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5. Which of following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?

Explanation

The primary function of the villi of the small intestine is absorption. The villi are finger-like projections that increase the surface area of the small intestine, allowing for more efficient absorption of nutrients from digested food. The villi are lined with specialized cells called enterocytes, which have microvilli on their surface that further increase the surface area for absorption. These cells absorb nutrients such as glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids, as well as vitamins and minerals, and transport them into the bloodstream for distribution to the rest of the body.

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6. Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?

Explanation

The gallbladder is the correct answer because it is an accessory organ that stores bile. Bile is produced by the liver and then stored in the gallbladder before being released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder acts as a storage reservoir for bile and releases it as needed.

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7. Where does the Kreb’s cycle take place?

Explanation

The Kreb's cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle or the tricarboxylic acid cycle, takes place in the mitochondria. This cycle is an important part of cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down to produce energy in the form of ATP. The mitochondria, often referred to as the "powerhouse" of the cell, is responsible for producing the majority of ATP through processes like the Kreb's cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is mitochondria.

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8. These cells may eventually become spermatozoa

Explanation

Spermatogenic cells are the cells in the testes that undergo spermatogenesis, the process of producing spermatozoa (sperm cells). These cells are responsible for the development and maturation of sperm cells, which eventually become fully functional spermatozoa. Sertoli cells, also known as sustentacular cells, are supportive cells in the testes that provide nourishment and support to the spermatogenic cells. Therefore, while both spermatogenic cells and Sertoli cells play important roles in sperm production, it is the spermatogenic cells that actually develop into spermatozoa.

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9. Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?

Explanation

Phosphates are not considered a major nutrient that the body needs. While carbohydrates and proteins are essential macronutrients that provide energy and support various bodily functions, phosphates are not directly classified as a major nutrient. However, phosphates are still important for the body as they play a crucial role in bone and teeth formation, energy production, and cell signaling.

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10. The fusion of the secondary oocyte and the sperm results in which developmental stage?

Explanation

When the secondary oocyte and the sperm fuse together, they form a zygote. The zygote is the first developmental stage of an organism after fertilization. It is formed by the combination of genetic material from both the male and female pronuclei. The zygote then undergoes further development and cell division to eventually form an embryo.

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11. Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form complex structures are known as

Explanation

Anabolism refers to the chemical reactions in which simple molecules and monomers are combined to form complex structures. This process requires energy and is responsible for the growth and maintenance of cells and tissues. It is the opposite of catabolism, which involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. Metabolism, on the other hand, encompasses both anabolism and catabolism, and refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in an organism to maintain life.

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12. Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?

Explanation

During fertilization, the sperm needs to reach the egg in order for fertilization to occur. The Fallopian tube is the structure where this process takes place. The egg is released from the ovary and travels through the Fallopian tube, where it can be fertilized by sperm. Therefore, the correct answer is the Fallopian tube.

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13. How many ATPs can come from substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis?

Explanation

During glycolysis, substrate level phosphorylation occurs twice, resulting in the production of two ATP molecules. This process involves the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate molecule to ADP, forming ATP. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 ATPs.

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14. What is produced by the ovaries?

Explanation

The ovaries produce secondary oocytes, estrogen, and progesterone. Secondary oocytes are the mature eggs that are released during ovulation. Estrogen is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. Progesterone is another hormone that is involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. Together, these substances are essential for fertility and the proper functioning of the female reproductive system.

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15. This is the principle bile pigment.

Explanation

Bilirubin is the correct answer because it is the principle bile pigment. Bile pigments are produced when red blood cells are broken down in the liver. Bilirubin is then excreted in bile and gives stool its characteristic brown color. Stercobilin is a breakdown product of bilirubin and contributes to the brown color of stool, but it is not the principle bile pigment. Therefore, the correct answer is Bilirubin.

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16. This is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous tissue.

Explanation

The given answer is "Penis" because the description matches the anatomical structure of the penis, which is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue (corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum) surrounded by a fibrous tissue (tunica albuginea). The bladder and urethra are not composed of erectile tissue and do not match the given description.

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17. Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?

Explanation

The primary function of the mouth is ingestion. Ingestion refers to the process of taking in food or drink through the mouth. It involves the intake of food and the initial breakdown of food particles by chewing and mixing with saliva. This process prepares the food for further digestion and absorption in the digestive system.

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18. Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?

Explanation

The liver produces a fluid called bile, which functions to emulsify dietary fats. Bile breaks down fats into smaller droplets, increasing their surface area and making it easier for enzymes to digest them. This process is important for the absorption and utilization of fats in the body. The teeth and salivary glands play a role in the initial mechanical breakdown and chemical digestion of food, but they do not produce a fluid specifically for emulsifying fats.

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19. This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens.

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer is that the ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens. The inguinal canal is a passage in the abdominal wall, and the prostate is a gland in the male reproductive system.

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20. This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue that binds the mucosa to the muscularis.

Explanation

The submucosa is the correct answer because it is the layer of the GI tract that is composed of areolar connective tissue and it binds the mucosa to the muscularis. The submucosa provides support and nourishment to the mucosa, as well as contains blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves.

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21. This is the heaviest gland of the body.

Explanation

The liver is the correct answer because it is the heaviest gland in the body. The liver is a large organ located in the upper right side of the abdomen and it plays a crucial role in various metabolic processes. It produces bile, which helps in the digestion of fats, and also filters toxins from the blood. Additionally, the liver stores vitamins and minerals, produces blood-clotting proteins, and helps regulate blood sugar levels. Due to its size and numerous functions, the liver is considered the heaviest gland in the body.

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22. This is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts.

Explanation

Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for releasing milk into the mammary ducts. It is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is essential for the let-down reflex, which allows milk to be released from the mammary glands and flow through the ducts to the nipple for breastfeeding. This hormone is also involved in maternal bonding and social interactions.

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23. This digestive aid, produced by the stomach, begins digestion by denaturing proteins.

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is the correct answer because it is produced by the stomach and plays a crucial role in the digestion process. It denatures proteins, breaking them down into smaller molecules that can be easily absorbed by the body. Without hydrochloric acid, proper digestion of proteins would not occur, leading to nutrient deficiencies and digestive issues. Bile, on the other hand, is produced by the liver and helps in the digestion of fats, while water does not have a significant role in the digestion of proteins.

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24. This structure is the site of sperm production.

Explanation

The seminiferous tubules are the structures in the testes where sperm production occurs. These tubules are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm cells through a process called spermatogenesis. The seminiferous tubules are lined with specialized cells called Sertoli cells, which support and nourish the developing sperm cells. Once the sperm cells are fully developed, they are released into the tubules and then transported to the epididymis through the vas deferens for storage and further maturation. The other options, vas deferens and albuginea, are not directly involved in sperm production.

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25. These are composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the immune response.

Explanation

MALT stands for Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue. It is composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the immune response. MALT is found in various mucosal tissues throughout the body, such as the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and genitourinary tract. These lymphoid nodules contain immune cells, such as lymphocytes, that help protect the mucosal surfaces from pathogens and foreign substances. MALT plays a crucial role in the body's defense against infections and maintaining immune homeostasis at mucosal sites.

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26. When the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP what is formed?

Explanation

When the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP, it forms Adenosine diphosphate (ADP). ATP is a molecule that stores and transfers energy in cells. When one of the phosphate groups is removed from ATP, it becomes ADP. This release of the phosphate group releases energy that can be used for various cellular processes. ADP can then be converted back to ATP through the addition of a phosphate group, thus replenishing the energy storage. GTP and Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) are different molecules and not formed when the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP.

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27. This reaction oxidizes acetyl co-A to produce carbon dioxide, ATP, NADH=H and FADH2.

Explanation

The Krebs cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. It is also known as the citric acid cycle or the tricarboxylic acid cycle. In this cycle, acetyl co-A is oxidized, leading to the production of carbon dioxide, ATP, NADH=H, and FADH2. This cycle plays a crucial role in cellular respiration, as it is responsible for the final breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to generate energy in the form of ATP.

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28. The function of the epididymis is

Explanation

The epididymis is responsible for sperm maturation. It is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle, where sperm produced in the testes are stored and undergo a maturation process. This process involves the sperm acquiring the ability to swim and fertilize an egg. Therefore, the correct answer is "Sperm maturation."

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29. Oxidation is

Explanation

In the context of chemistry, oxidation refers to the process of losing electrons. When a substance undergoes oxidation, it loses electrons, resulting in an increase in its oxidation state. This process is often accompanied by the addition of oxygen or the removal of hydrogen atoms. Therefore, the correct answer is "The removal of electrons."

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30. Reduction is the

Explanation

The correct answer is "The addition of electrons." Reduction is a chemical reaction where electrons are gained, resulting in a decrease in the oxidation state of a molecule or atom. This process is typically accompanied by the addition of electrons to the reactant. The addition of protons does not accurately describe reduction, as it is the addition of electrons that leads to a reduction reaction.

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31. The structure protects and regulates the temperature of the testes

Explanation

The scrotum is the correct answer because it is the external sac that holds the testes. It helps to regulate the temperature of the testes by contracting or relaxing the muscles in response to changes in the external environment. The cremaster muscle, which is attached to the scrotum, helps to raise or lower the testes to maintain the optimal temperature for sperm production. The tunica albuginea, on the other hand, is a fibrous covering that surrounds each testis and provides structural support.

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32. This plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis.

Explanation

The myenteric plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis. It is part of the enteric nervous system (ENS) and is responsible for regulating the motility of the gastrointestinal tract. It controls the contraction and relaxation of the muscles, allowing for the movement of food through the digestive system. The submucosal plexus, on the other hand, is located in the submucosa layer and is responsible for regulating secretions and blood flow in the digestive tract.

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33. Which of the following does is the primary function of the large intestine?

Explanation

The primary function of the large intestine is to form feces. The large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes from the remaining undigested food material, which helps in consolidating the waste and forming solid feces. It also houses bacteria that aid in the final breakdown of any remaining nutrients and the production of certain vitamins. Chemical digestion primarily occurs in the small intestine, while absorption of nutrients occurs in both the small intestine and the large intestine.

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34. This is the site of fertilization.

Explanation

The site of fertilization refers to the location where the sperm and egg meet to form a fertilized embryo. In this case, the correct answer is uterine tubes, also known as fallopian tubes. These tubes connect the ovaries to the uterus and serve as the pathway for the egg to travel from the ovary to the uterus. It is within the uterine tubes that fertilization typically occurs, as the sperm can meet and penetrate the egg here before it continues its journey towards the uterus for implantation.

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35. This is a permanent change in an allele.

Explanation

A mutation refers to a permanent change in an allele, which is a variant form of a gene. It can occur due to various factors such as errors during DNA replication or exposure to certain environmental factors. Mutations can lead to changes in the genotype, which is the genetic makeup of an individual, and ultimately affect the phenotype, which is the observable characteristics or traits of an organism. Therefore, the correct answer is "Mutation."

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36. Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?

Explanation

The smooth muscle layer of the digestive system is responsible for mixing and propelling food along the digestive tract. This layer contracts and relaxes to create rhythmic movements called peristalsis, which helps to mix the food with digestive enzymes and move it through the esophagus, stomach, and intestines. This process ensures that the food is thoroughly broken down and absorbed by the body.

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37. This is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact.

Explanation

Conduction is the correct answer because it is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact. In conduction, heat is transferred from one object to another when they are in direct contact with each other. This transfer occurs through the collision of molecules within the objects, causing the heat energy to be transferred from the hotter object to the cooler one.

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38. This will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus.

Explanation

The chorionic villi of the placenta serve as the primary structure for the exchange of material between the mother and the fetus. These finger-like projections extend from the chorion, which is the outermost layer of the fetal membrane. The chorionic villi contain blood vessels that allow for the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother's blood and the fetus. This exchange is crucial for the fetus's growth and development. The amnion and amniotic fluid, on the other hand, play a different role in protecting and cushioning the fetus within the amniotic sac.

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39. This is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Stage of dilation" because it refers to the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix. This stage is characterized by the gradual opening of the cervix to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. It is an important stage in the process of childbirth and marks the beginning of active labor.

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40. How many stages of deglutition are there?

Explanation

There are three stages of deglutition. Deglutition refers to the process of swallowing. The three stages include the oral phase, pharyngeal phase, and esophageal phase. In the oral phase, food is chewed and mixed with saliva to form a bolus. The pharyngeal phase involves the movement of the bolus from the back of the mouth into the throat and down the esophagus. Lastly, in the esophageal phase, the bolus is pushed down the esophagus and into the stomach.

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41. Most glucose that enters the liver is converted to

Explanation

Glucose that enters the liver is primarily converted into glycogen. Glycogen serves as a storage form of glucose in the liver and muscles, allowing for the regulation of blood sugar levels. When blood sugar levels are high, the liver converts excess glucose into glycogen and stores it. Later, when blood sugar levels drop, the liver can break down glycogen back into glucose and release it into the bloodstream to maintain stable blood sugar levels. This conversion process helps to maintain energy balance and ensure a steady supply of glucose for the body's energy needs.

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42. This portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine.

Explanation

The correct answer is the greater omentum. The greater omentum is a fold of peritoneum that hangs down from the stomach and drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine. It functions to store fat and provide protection to the abdominal organs. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall, while the lesser omentum connects the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and the beginning of the duodenum.

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43. This structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food storage.

Explanation

The rugae refers to the folds or wrinkles in the stomach lining that allow it to expand and stretch when food is consumed. These folds increase the surface area of the stomach, allowing for greater distension and storage of food. This enables the stomach to accommodate larger amounts of food and aids in the digestion and absorption process. The pylorus is the lower part of the stomach that connects to the small intestine, and the sphincter is a ring-like muscle that controls the passage of food between different parts of the digestive system. However, neither of these structures specifically contribute to the greater distension for food storage as the rugae does.

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44. This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.

Explanation

Lipoogenesis is the process of synthesizing triglycerides, which are a type of fat molecule. Gluconeogenesis is the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, and phosphorylation is the addition of a phosphate group to a molecule. Therefore, lipoogenesis is the correct answer because it specifically refers to the synthesis of triglycerides.

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45. Where does glycolysis take place?

Explanation

Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. It is the first step in cellular respiration and occurs in the cytosol of the cell. The cytosol is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm, where many metabolic processes take place. The plasma membrane and nucleus are not involved in glycolysis.

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46. The is the ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation.

Explanation

The preovulatory phase is the correct answer because it refers to the phase between the end of menstruation and the beginning of ovulation. During this phase, the follicles in the ovaries start to mature and prepare for the release of an egg. The hormone estrogen is also produced during this phase, causing the lining of the uterus to thicken in preparation for a potential pregnancy. This phase typically lasts around 10 to 14 days and ends with the release of the mature egg during ovulation.

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47. In the mouth, this runs posteriorly to the sides of the pharynx.

Explanation

The palatopharyngeal arch runs posteriorly to the sides of the pharynx in the mouth.

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48. Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce monosaccarides?

Explanation

Amylase is the correct answer because it is a pancreatic enzyme that acts to produce monosaccharides. Amylase specifically breaks down complex carbohydrates, such as starch and glycogen, into smaller units called monosaccharides. This process is important for the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the small intestine. Chymotrypsin and trypsin are pancreatic enzymes that primarily function to break down proteins.

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49. This structure regulates the flow of material into the colon.

Explanation

The ileocecal sphincter is responsible for regulating the flow of material from the small intestine into the colon. It acts as a valve, allowing the passage of digested food and waste into the large intestine while preventing backflow. This sphincter plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the digestive system by controlling the movement of materials between these two sections of the gastrointestinal tract.

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50. Where can pyruvate dehydrogenase be found?

Explanation

Pyruvate dehydrogenase can be found in the mitochondria. This enzyme plays a crucial role in the conversion of pyruvate, a product of glycolysis, into acetyl-CoA, which is further utilized in the citric acid cycle for energy production. The mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell and is responsible for generating the majority of the cell's energy through processes like oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, it makes sense for pyruvate dehydrogenase to be located in the mitochondria as it is an essential component of energy metabolism.

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51. If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?

Explanation

When one parent has type A blood and the other parent has type B blood, their child can have type B blood, type A blood, or type AB blood. This is because type A blood is characterized by having A antigens on the red blood cells, type B blood has B antigens, and type AB blood has both A and B antigens. Therefore, it is possible for the child to inherit either A antigens from the parent with type A blood, B antigens from the parent with type B blood, or both A and B antigens from both parents, resulting in type AB blood.

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52. The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called

Explanation

Motility refers to the ability of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to move material along its length. This includes the contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the GI tract, which helps to propel food and waste products through the digestive system. Motility is essential for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients, as well as the elimination of waste. Propulsion, on the other hand, specifically refers to the movement of material in one direction through the GI tract.

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53. Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?

Explanation

Emotions such as anger or fear can activate the body's fight-or-flight response, which is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system. When this system is activated, it redirects blood flow away from the digestive system and towards the muscles, heart, and lungs in preparation for physical action. This diversion of blood flow can slow down digestion, as the GI tract receives less blood and therefore less oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, the correct answer is that emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract.

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54. This cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of gastric acid.

Explanation

The G cell is the correct answer because it secretes the hormone that promotes the production of gastric acid.

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55. During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by

Explanation

During pregnancy, the body undergoes various physiological changes to support the growing fetus. One of these changes is an increase in blood volume, which leads to an increase in stroke volume. Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each heartbeat. The correct answer of 30% suggests that during pregnancy, stroke volume can increase by 30% compared to the non-pregnant state. This increase in stroke volume helps to meet the increased oxygen and nutrient demands of both the mother and the developing baby.

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56. An example of incomplete dominance is

Explanation

Sickle-cell disease is an example of incomplete dominance because it is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin gene. In individuals with sickle-cell disease, their red blood cells become sickle-shaped and can cause various health problems. However, individuals who carry only one copy of the mutated gene have a condition called sickle-cell trait, where their red blood cells are a mix of normal and sickle-shaped. This demonstrates incomplete dominance as neither the normal nor the mutated allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in a phenotype that is intermediate between the two.

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57. What hormone stimulates glycogenesis?

Explanation

Insulin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that stimulates glycogenesis, which is the process of converting glucose into glycogen for storage in the liver and muscles. Insulin is released by the pancreas in response to high blood sugar levels and helps to regulate glucose levels in the body. It promotes the uptake of glucose into cells and stimulates the synthesis of glycogen, allowing excess glucose to be stored for later use.

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58. If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?

Explanation

Since the child has B blood and the mother has B blood, the possible genotypes of the father could be B, O, or AB. This is because the child could have inherited the B blood type allele from both the mother and the father, or from one parent and the O blood type allele from the other parent. It is also possible that the child inherited the B blood type allele from one parent and the A blood type allele from the other parent, resulting in an AB genotype.

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59. This portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm.

Explanation

The falciform ligament is a thin, flat ligament that attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm. It is located in the midline of the abdomen and divides the liver into two lobes. The falciform ligament also contains a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein, known as the ligamentum teres. This ligament helps to stabilize the liver and provide support to the abdominal organs. The greater omentum and lesser omentum are other peritoneal attachments, but they do not specifically attach the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm.

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60. This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.

Explanation

Cholecystokinin is the hormone that is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine. It is released by the cells in the lining of the small intestine in response to the presence of fat. Cholecystokinin plays a role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fat by stimulating the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and the contraction of the gallbladder to release bile. This hormone also helps to regulate appetite and promote feelings of fullness after a meal.

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61. Chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones are called:

Explanation

Catabolism refers to the chemical reactions in which complex organic molecules are broken down into simpler ones. This process releases energy and is responsible for the breakdown of nutrients in our body to produce energy for various cellular activities. Unlike anabolism, which involves the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, catabolism involves the opposite process. Therefore, catabolism is the correct answer to the question.

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62. Glucose-6-phosphate

Explanation

Glucose-6-phosphate is an important intermediate in glucose metabolism. It can be used to synthesize glycogen, which is the storage form of glucose in animals. Additionally, it can be converted to pyruvic acid through a series of reactions known as glycolysis. Therefore, all of the given options are correct, as glucose-6-phosphate can indeed be used to synthesize glycogen and can also be converted to pyruvic acid.

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63. Keto acids

Explanation

Keto acids can enter the Krebs cycle or be used for ATP production. This means that they can be utilized as a source of energy by the body. The Krebs cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria and is responsible for generating energy in the form of ATP. Therefore, keto acids can be broken down and used to produce ATP, which is essential for various cellular processes.

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64. This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue containing blood and lymph vessels.

Explanation

The lamina propria is a layer of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract that is composed of areolar connective tissue. It contains blood and lymph vessels, which are important for the transport of nutrients and immune cells. The lamina propria is located within the mucosa layer of the GI tract, which also includes the epithelial lining and the muscularis mucosae. MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) refers to lymphoid tissue that is found within the lamina propria, but it is not the correct answer to this question.

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65. In the mouth, the tooth sockets are lined with

Explanation

The tooth sockets in the mouth are lined with the periodontal ligament. This ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the root of the tooth and attaches it to the surrounding bone. It helps to support the tooth and absorb the forces generated during chewing and biting. The periodontal ligament also plays a role in maintaining the health of the tooth and surrounding tissues by providing a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances.

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66. How long can food stay in the fundus before being mixed with gastric juices?

Explanation

Food can stay in the fundus for up to 1 hour before being mixed with gastric juices. The fundus is the upper part of the stomach, where food is initially stored after ingestion. During this time, the food undergoes mechanical digestion through churning and mixing movements. After approximately 1 hour, the food gradually moves into the lower part of the stomach, called the antrum, where it is further broken down and mixed with gastric juices for chemical digestion.

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67. When a large amount of H+ accumulates between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes:

Explanation

Chemiosmosis is the process by which ATP is synthesized in the mitochondria. It occurs when a large amount of H+ ions accumulate between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes. This accumulation creates a proton gradient, which drives ATP synthesis by allowing H+ ions to flow back into the mitochondrial matrix through ATP synthase. Therefore, the given correct answer, Chemiosmosis, accurately describes the situation where a large amount of H+ accumulates between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes.

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68. The heat promoting center stimulates parts of the brain that

Explanation

The heat promoting center in the brain stimulates skeletal muscle activity. This means that when the heat promoting center is activated, it causes an increase in muscle activity. This can be seen as increased movement or muscle contractions. The heat promoting center plays a role in regulating body temperature, and by stimulating skeletal muscle activity, it helps generate heat and maintain body temperature.

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69. These are located inferior to the prostate on other side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum.

Explanation

The Cowper's glands, also known as bulbourethral glands, are located inferior to the prostate on the other side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum. These glands produce a clear, viscous fluid that helps to lubricate and neutralize the acidity of the urethra, providing a suitable environment for sperm to travel through during ejaculation.

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70. When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:

Explanation

Genomic imprinting refers to the phenomenon where certain genes are expressed differently depending on whether they are inherited from the mother or the father. This can result in significant differences in the phenotype, or observable characteristics, of an individual. For example, certain genetic disorders may only manifest if the mutated gene is inherited from one specific parent. Therefore, the correct answer is genomic imprinting.

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71. This layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid.

Explanation

The correct answer is Serosa. The serosa is a layer of tissue that covers organs in the abdominal cavity and secretes a lubricating fluid. This fluid helps to reduce friction and allows the organs to move smoothly against each other. The serosa is important for protecting and supporting the organs in the abdominal cavity.

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72. Which of the following secrete gastric acid?

Explanation

Parietal cells are responsible for secreting gastric acid in the stomach. They produce hydrochloric acid, which helps in the digestion of food and also kills bacteria present in the stomach. Mucous cells, on the other hand, secrete mucus to protect the stomach lining, while chief cells secrete pepsinogen, an inactive form of the enzyme pepsin, which helps in the breakdown of proteins. However, the main function of secreting gastric acid is performed by parietal cells.

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73. Brunner’s glands

Explanation

Brunner's glands secrete both mucous and an alkaline juice. The mucous helps to protect the lining of the duodenum from the acidic chyme coming from the stomach, while the alkaline juice helps to neutralize the acidity of the chyme. This combination of mucous and alkaline juice helps to create an optimal environment for digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

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74. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the

Explanation

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) is a hormone that stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus, located in the brain, is responsible for producing and secreting TRH. It acts as a control center for regulating various bodily functions, including the release of hormones. The cerebral cortex, on the other hand, is primarily involved in higher cognitive functions and does not secrete TRH. Therefore, the correct answer is the hypothalamus.

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75. This hormone triggers ovulation.

Explanation

LH, or luteinizing hormone, is responsible for triggering ovulation in the menstrual cycle. It is released by the pituitary gland and stimulates the release of an egg from the ovary. This hormone also plays a role in regulating the production of other hormones, such as estrogen and progesterone, which are necessary for the development of the uterine lining and the maintenance of pregnancy. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, is involved in the development of ovarian follicles, while GnRH, or gonadotropin-releasing hormone, stimulates the release of LH and FSH.

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76. A Barr body

Explanation

A Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome. In female cells, one of the two X chromosomes is randomly inactivated during embryonic development, forming a dense, compact structure known as a Barr body. This inactivation ensures that both males and females have the same dosage of X-linked genes. Barr bodies can be visualized under a microscope as a dark-staining mass in the nucleus. They are transcriptionally and translationally inactive, meaning that the genes on the inactivated X chromosome are not expressed.

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77. This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.

Explanation

The correct answer is the pancreatic duct because it is the major duct that carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions. The other options, hepatopancreatic duct and cystic duct, do not carry a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.

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78. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

Explanation

The liver performs various functions in the body, including the conversion of carbohydrates, protein metabolism, and the storage of certain substances. However, the storage of bilirubin is not a function of the liver. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the breakdown of red blood cells and is primarily stored in the gallbladder. The liver plays a role in the metabolism and excretion of bilirubin, but it does not store it.

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79. Glycolysis, formation of acetyl co-A, Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain are all involved in:

Explanation

Glycolysis is the initial step in glucose catabolism, where glucose is broken down into pyruvate. Formation of acetyl co-A occurs when pyruvate is converted into acetyl co-A, which enters the Krebs cycle. The Krebs cycle further breaks down acetyl co-A to produce energy-rich molecules. The electron transport chain is the final step in glucose catabolism, where the energy stored in the energy-rich molecules is used to generate ATP. Therefore, all these processes are involved in glucose catabolism, the breakdown of glucose to produce energy.

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80. Lipogenesis occurs when

Explanation

Lipogenesis is the process in which the body converts excess calories into fat for storage. When more calories are consumed than the body needs for ATP production (the energy currency of cells), the excess calories are converted into triglycerides and stored as fat. This is why the correct answer is "More calories are consumed than required for ATP need."

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81. Which of the following are used in "metabolic crossroads"?

Explanation

Pyruvic acid is used in "metabolic crossroads" because it is an important intermediate in several metabolic pathways. It is produced during glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose, and can be further metabolized through aerobic respiration or fermentation. Pyruvic acid is a key molecule in the citric acid cycle, where it is converted into acetyl-CoA, which enters the cycle to generate energy. It is also involved in the synthesis of amino acids, fatty acids, and glucose. Overall, pyruvic acid plays a crucial role in various metabolic processes and is therefore used in "metabolic crossroads".

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82. Food induced thermogenesis

Explanation

The given options are incorrect because food induced thermogenesis is not inhibited by the hypothalamus, and it is also not the opposite of ketosis. Food induced thermogenesis refers to the increase in energy expenditure that occurs after consuming food, which is caused by the body's metabolic processes. It is regulated by various factors such as the type and amount of food consumed, as well as hormonal and neural signals. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above" as none of the given options accurately describe food induced thermogenesis.

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83. These cells secrete testosterone.

Explanation

Leydig cells are responsible for secreting testosterone. Testosterone is a male sex hormone that plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, support the development and maturation of sperm cells, while spermatogenic cells are involved in the process of spermatogenesis, the production of sperm cells. Therefore, Leydig cells are the correct answer as they specifically secrete testosterone.

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84. This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone that is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation. It plays a crucial role in preparing the uterus for implantation and maintaining pregnancy. Progesterone helps to thicken the uterine lining and inhibit contractions, ensuring a suitable environment for a fertilized egg to implant and grow. It also helps to regulate the menstrual cycle and prepare the breasts for milk production. Therefore, the correct answer is Progesterone.

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85. This exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities.

Explanation

Amniocentesis is a prenatal test performed between 14-16 weeks gestation to detect genetic abnormalities. It involves removing a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus and analyzing the fetal cells present in the fluid. This test is commonly used to screen for conditions such as Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and spina bifida. Sonogram, also known as ultrasound, is a different prenatal test that uses sound waves to create images of the fetus. CVS (chorionic villus sampling) is another prenatal test, but it is typically performed earlier in pregnancy (around 10-12 weeks) and involves taking a sample of cells from the placenta for genetic analysis.

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86. Deciduous molars are replaced by

Explanation

Deciduous molars are the primary teeth that are eventually replaced by permanent teeth. The correct answer, bicuspids, refers to the premolars, which are the teeth that come after the deciduous molars and before the molars. Bicuspids have two cusps or points on their chewing surface and are responsible for grinding and chewing food. Therefore, they are the teeth that replace the deciduous molars in the dental development process.

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87. Provitamins are

Explanation

Provitamins are compounds that can be converted into active forms of vitamins within the body. They serve as the building blocks for the synthesis of vitamins. Once converted, these vitamins play essential roles in various biological processes, such as metabolism, growth, and immune function. Therefore, provitamins are not broken down glucose molecules or derivatives of minerals, but rather the precursors that contribute to the formation of vitamins.

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88. This hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.

Explanation

LH, or luteinizing hormone, is responsible for stimulating the Leydig cells in the testes to secrete testosterone. Testosterone is a crucial hormone for male reproductive health and development. LH is produced and released by the pituitary gland in response to signals from the hypothalamus. Once released, LH travels through the bloodstream to the testes, where it binds to receptors on the Leydig cells, triggering the secretion of testosterone. This hormone plays a vital role in regulating male sexual development, sperm production, and overall reproductive function.

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89. This is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG.

Explanation

The trophoblast is the outer layer of cells in the blastocyst that plays a crucial role in implantation and the production of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). It helps to anchor the blastocyst to the uterine wall and forms the placenta, which is essential for the nourishment and development of the embryo. The production of hCG by the trophoblast is important for maintaining the pregnancy and supporting the production of progesterone by the ovaries.

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90. Labor cannot take place until all of this hormone’s effects are diminished.

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone that is involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. It prepares the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg and helps maintain the pregnancy. If progesterone levels are high, it inhibits the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which is necessary for ovulation to occur. Therefore, labor cannot take place until progesterone levels decrease and its effects are diminished. Estrogen and testosterone are not directly involved in labor and do not have the same inhibitory effect on LH.

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91. Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme?

Explanation

Paneth cells are specialized epithelial cells located in the crypts of Lieberkühn in the small intestine. They secrete various antimicrobial substances, including lysozyme. Lysozyme is an enzyme that helps protect the small intestine from bacterial infections by breaking down the cell walls of certain bacteria. This secretion of lysozyme by Paneth cells plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall health and integrity of the small intestine.

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92. Skene’s glands secrete

Explanation

Skene's glands, also known as the paraurethral glands, are located near the urethra in females. These glands are responsible for secreting mucus. The mucus produced by Skene's glands helps to lubricate the urethra and vaginal opening, making sexual intercourse more comfortable. It also helps to flush out any bacteria that may enter the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Therefore, the correct answer is mucus.

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93. This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines.

Explanation

The mesocolon is the portion of the peritoneum that connects the colon to the posterior abdominal wall. It contains blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves that supply the intestines. It helps to support and suspend the colon in the abdominal cavity, allowing for movement and proper functioning of the intestines. Therefore, it is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines.

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94. How many reactions take place during the Krebs cycle?

Explanation

The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. It is an essential part of cellular respiration, which produces energy in the form of ATP. During the Krebs cycle, a total of eight reactions take place. These reactions involve the breakdown of acetyl-CoA, a molecule derived from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, into carbon dioxide and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used in the electron transport chain to generate ATP. Therefore, the correct answer is 8.

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95. The higher the relative humidity

Explanation

Relative humidity refers to the amount of moisture present in the air compared to the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature. When the relative humidity is higher, the air is already saturated with moisture, making it difficult for evaporation to occur. Evaporation is the process by which liquid water turns into water vapor, and it is an important mechanism for cooling the body through sweat evaporation. Therefore, when the relative humidity is higher, the rate of evaporation decreases, leading to a lower rate of thermoregulation.

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96. Antioxidant vitamins

Explanation

Antioxidant vitamins have the ability to neutralize or inactivate oxygen free radicals. Oxygen free radicals are highly reactive molecules that can cause damage to cells and DNA. Antioxidants work by donating an electron to the free radicals, thus stabilizing them and preventing them from causing harm. This process helps to protect cells and tissues from oxidative stress and potential damage. Therefore, the statement "Can inactivate oxygen free radicals" accurately describes the role of antioxidant vitamins.

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97. ________ hormone secreted by the ____________ controls the ovarian and uterine cycles.

Explanation

GnRH, also known as gonadotropin-releasing hormone, is secreted by the hypothalamus and is responsible for controlling the ovarian and uterine cycles. It stimulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which in turn regulate the development and release of eggs from the ovaries and the thickening and shedding of the uterine lining. Estrogens, on the other hand, are hormones produced by the ovaries and play a role in the development of secondary sexual characteristics and the regulation of the menstrual cycle. HGH, or human growth hormone, is not involved in the control of the ovarian and uterine cycles.

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98. The net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does not include:

Explanation

The complete oxidation of glucose involves the breakdown of glucose molecules to produce carbon dioxide, ATP, and water. Oxygen is not directly involved in the oxidation process itself, but it is required as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, which is part of cellular respiration. Therefore, the net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does not include oxygen.

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99. The hard palate

Explanation

The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth. It is covered by a mucous membrane, which helps to keep the area moist and protected. Therefore, both options a and b are correct. "All of the above" is the correct answer because it includes both options a and b, making it the most comprehensive and accurate choice.

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100. Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat production?

Explanation

Blood volume does not directly affect heat production. Heat production is primarily regulated by metabolic processes in the body, such as cellular respiration and muscle activity. While blood volume indirectly affects heat regulation by influencing circulation and the ability to dissipate heat, it does not directly produce or affect the generation of heat in the body.

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101. The straight tubules in the testis lead into the:

Explanation

The straight tubules in the testis lead into the rete testis. The rete testis is a network of tubules located in the mediastinum of the testis. It serves as a collecting system for spermatozoa produced in the seminiferous tubules. From the rete testis, the spermatozoa then pass into the efferent ducts, which connect the rete testis to the epididymis. The afferent ducts, on the other hand, are responsible for transporting sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.

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102. Involution is

Explanation

Involution refers to the process by which the uterus returns to its pre-pregnancy size and shape after childbirth. This involves the contraction of the uterine muscles and the shedding of the excess uterine lining. It is a natural and important process that allows the uterus to heal and prepare for future pregnancies. The other options mentioned, such as the expulsion of the placenta and the cutting of the umbilical cord, are separate events that occur during childbirth but are not directly related to involution.

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103. Which of the following is not a form of phosphorylation?

Explanation

Reduction phosphorylation is not a form of phosphorylation because phosphorylation involves the addition of a phosphate group to a molecule, typically through the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to the molecule. Reduction, on the other hand, involves the gain of electrons or the decrease in oxidation state of a molecule. Therefore, reduction phosphorylation is not a recognized process in cellular metabolism.

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104. In the absorptive state

Explanation

In the absorptive state, the body is actively storing energy from the food that has been consumed. This is important because it allows the body to have a reserve of energy that can be used when needed, such as during periods of fasting or exercise. Filtration and reabsorption, on the other hand, are processes that occur in the kidneys and are not directly related to energy storage.

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105. This lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and secretes an alkaline, fructose filled fluid.

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Seminal glands". The seminal glands are located posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum. They secrete an alkaline fluid that helps to nourish and protect sperm. This fluid also contains fructose, which provides energy for the sperm.

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106. This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.

Explanation

The suspensory ligament is the correct answer because it is the ligament that arises from the pubic symphysis in males. The fundiform ligament and broad ligament do not have this origin.

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107. This is a derivative of vitamin B.

Explanation

NAD is a derivative of vitamin B. It stands for Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide and is involved in various metabolic processes in the body, particularly in energy production. NAD plays a crucial role in transferring electrons during cellular respiration and is essential for the conversion of nutrients into usable energy. It acts as a cofactor for many enzymes, facilitating important reactions in metabolism. Therefore, NAD being a derivative of vitamin B makes it an important component in maintaining overall health and proper functioning of the body.

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108. Glycogenesis is NOT

Explanation

Glycogenesis is a process in which glucose molecules are converted into glycogen for storage. It is performed by hepatocytes, which are liver cells, and also by muscle fibers. Therefore, the statement "one way to make glycogen" is correct because glycogenesis is indeed one of the ways in which glycogen is produced.

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109. Glycogenolysis is________and stimulated by___________

Explanation

Glycogenolysis is the process of breaking down glycogen into glucose. It is a catabolic process because it involves the breakdown of a larger molecule (glycogen) into smaller molecules (glucose). Epinephrine is a hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis, thus promoting the breakdown of glycogen and the release of glucose into the bloodstream.

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110. Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Mons pubis. The Mons pubis is located anterior to the vagina and urethral openings. It is a rounded mound of fatty tissue that covers the pubic bone. It is a prominent feature in the female genitalia and serves as a protective cushion during sexual activity. The Labia majora and Labia minora are also part of the female external genitalia, but they are not located anterior to the vagina and urethral openings like the Mons pubis.

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111. This develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid.

Explanation

The amnion develops from the epiblast and surrounds the embryo, protecting it with a fluid-filled sac. This fluid provides cushioning and helps regulate temperature for the developing embryo. The amnion is an important structure in the development of mammals, including humans, and is essential for the survival and growth of the embryo.

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112. Each somite may differentiate into a

Explanation

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113. Which of the following gastric enzymes digests proteins?

Explanation

Pepsin is the correct answer because it is a gastric enzyme that specifically digests proteins in the stomach. Lipase, on the other hand, is an enzyme that digests fats. Therefore, pepsin is the correct choice for a gastric enzyme that digests proteins.

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114. This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus.

Explanation

The round ligament is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus. It connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and helps to support the liver in its position.

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115. These transport dietary lipids.

Explanation

Chylomicrons are responsible for transporting dietary lipids. They are large lipoprotein particles that are formed in the small intestine after the digestion and absorption of dietary fats. Chylomicrons contain apoproteins, which are proteins that help stabilize the structure of the lipoprotein and facilitate its transport through the bloodstream. Low density lipoproteins (LDL) are also involved in lipid transport, but they primarily carry cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is Chylomicrons.

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116. Live cells convert:

Explanation

Live cells have the ability to convert ammonia into urea through a process called urea synthesis. This process occurs primarily in the liver and helps to remove toxic ammonia from the body. Ammonia is a waste product that is produced during the breakdown of proteins and amino acids. By converting ammonia into urea, the liver ensures that it can be safely transported to the kidneys and excreted from the body through urine. This conversion is an essential part of the body's nitrogen metabolism and helps to maintain a healthy balance of ammonia in the bloodstream.

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117. How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?

Explanation

There are five pairs of pharyngeal arches. The pharyngeal arches are structures that form in the embryo and give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. Each arch contains specific components such as cartilage, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. These arches play a crucial role in the development of structures like the jaw, facial muscles, and the middle ear. Therefore, the correct answer is 5.

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118. Which of the following contains skeletal muscle?

Explanation

The UES (Upper Esophageal Sphincter) contains skeletal muscle. The UES is a muscular ring located at the top of the esophagus, and it helps to control the passage of food and liquids into the throat. Skeletal muscle is a type of voluntary muscle that is under conscious control, and it is responsible for movements such as walking, talking, and swallowing. Therefore, the UES, which is involved in the swallowing process, contains skeletal muscle.

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119. This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract.

Explanation

Capacitation is the correct answer because it is the process through which sperm undergo functional changes in the female reproductive tract, preparing them for fertilization. During capacitation, the sperm membrane becomes more fluid and cholesterol is removed, allowing the sperm to become more motile and capable of penetrating the egg. This process is essential for successful fertilization to occur.

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120. Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from

Explanation

Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from lactic acid because during periods of intense exercise or low oxygen availability, the muscles switch to anaerobic metabolism. This leads to the production of lactic acid as a byproduct. The lactic acid can then be converted back into glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis, which can be further metabolized to produce ATP. Therefore, lactic acid serves as an alternative energy source for cardiac muscles when glucose availability is limited.

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121. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

Explanation

Vitamin E is a fat-soluble vitamin. It is essential for the proper functioning of the body and acts as an antioxidant, protecting cells from damage. It is found in various foods such as nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils. Being fat-soluble means that it dissolves in fat and can be stored in the body's fatty tissues for later use.

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122. The is the uterine phase when the endometrium becomes more vascular.

Explanation

The proliferative phase is the correct answer because during this phase, the endometrium of the uterus thickens and becomes more vascular. This is in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. The menstrual phase is the shedding of the endometrium, and the preovulatory phase is the phase leading up to ovulation.

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123. The most abundant product of the reactions of the Kreb’s cycle is…

Explanation

The Kreb's cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. During this cycle, energy-rich molecules such as NADH and FADH2 are produced. These molecules are considered reduced coenzymes because they carry high-energy electrons that can be used in the electron transport chain to produce ATP, the energy currency of cells. Therefore, the most abundant product of the Kreb's cycle is reduced coenzymes.

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124. What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?

Explanation

The hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis is the thyroid hormone. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and glycerol. The thyroid hormone plays a crucial role in regulating the body's metabolism, including the production of glucose. It increases the activity of enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis, leading to an increase in glucose production.

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125. Excess amino acids in the body are

Explanation

When there are excess amino acids in the body, they can be converted into glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis. Gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the liver and helps maintain blood glucose levels by converting non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids, into glucose. This glucose can then be used as an energy source by the body or stored as glycogen for later use. Excreting amino acids in urine or feces is not a typical mechanism for dealing with excess amino acids in the body.

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126. Why is "Calorie" is always spelled with a capital "C"?

Explanation

"Calorie" is always spelled with a capital "C" because it is a unit of measurement for energy. It is not named after a specific province or to distinguish it from the chemistry term "calory". The capitalization is simply a convention to indicate that it refers to the specific unit of energy measurement.

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127. CVS is taking cells from where?

Explanation

CVS (Chorionic Villus Sampling) is a prenatal test that involves taking a small sample of cells from the chorion, which is the outermost membrane surrounding the embryo. The chorion is part of the placenta, which provides nutrients and oxygen to the developing fetus. Therefore, the correct answer is Chorion.

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128. Neuropeptide Y stimulates

Explanation

Neuropeptide Y is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating various physiological processes, including food intake. It is known to stimulate appetite and increase food intake. Therefore, the correct answer is "Food intake." Neuropeptide Y does not directly stimulate thirst centers or thermogenesis, which are unrelated processes.

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129. This is the key regulator of the rate of glycolysis.

Explanation

Phosphofructokinase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in regulating the rate of glycolysis, which is the process of breaking down glucose to produce energy. Phosphofructokinase catalyzes the third step of glycolysis and is responsible for the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. This conversion is a key regulatory step in glycolysis, as it determines the overall rate of glucose metabolism and energy production in the cell.

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130. This is any agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo.

Explanation

The given correct answer is "None of the above." This means that both nicotine and radiation are not considered as agents or influences that cause developmental defects in an embryo. The question is asking for an alternative answer that is not listed among the options provided.

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131. Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as products?

Explanation

Lipase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that specifically acts on lipids, breaking them down into fatty acids and glycerol. In the process, lipase produces monoglycerides as one of the products. Amylase and trypsin, on the other hand, are enzymes that act on carbohydrates and proteins respectively, not lipids.

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132. This is the portion of the endometrium that lays between the embryo and the stratum basalis.

Explanation

The correct answer is Decidua basalis. This is the portion of the endometrium that is located between the embryo and the stratum basalis. The decidua basalis plays a crucial role in the implantation and development of the embryo, providing nourishment and support. It forms the maternal part of the placenta and is responsible for the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the developing fetus.

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133. In infants this connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.

Explanation

The ductus venosus is a fetal blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. This allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver and enter the systemic circulation, providing nutrients and oxygen to the developing fetus. After birth, the ductus venosus closes and becomes a ligament known as the ligamentum venosum.

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134. Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins?

Explanation

Chymotrypsin is a pancreatic enzyme that acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins. It functions by cleaving peptide bonds at specific amino acid residues, resulting in the breakdown of proteins into smaller peptide fragments. This process is essential for the digestion and absorption of proteins in the small intestine. Amylase, on the other hand, is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates, while pepsin is a stomach enzyme that digests proteins into smaller peptides.

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135. This hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine.

Explanation

Secretin is a hormone that is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of acidic chyme from the stomach. It acts to counteract the effect of gastric acid by stimulating the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions, which neutralize the acid. This helps to maintain the pH balance in the small intestine and protect its delicate lining from the damaging effects of acid. Gastrin, on the other hand, stimulates the secretion of gastric acid, while cholecystokinin stimulates the release of digestive enzymes and bile.

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136. This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.

Explanation

The suspensory ligament is responsible for attaching the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall. It provides support and stability to these reproductive organs, allowing them to function properly. The mesovarium and ovarian ligament are not involved in this attachment.

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137. Thyroid hormones:

Explanation

Thyroid hormones promote glycolysis, which is the process of breaking down glucose to produce energy. This is important for maintaining a sufficient energy supply in the body. Inhibiting lipogenesis refers to the prevention of fat synthesis, while promoting gluconeogenesis refers to the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. However, in this case, the correct answer is that thyroid hormones promote glycolysis.

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138. How many seminiferous tubules are found in the lobules?

Explanation

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139. Chromosome #15 is considered

Explanation

Chromosome #15 is considered an autosome because it is not involved in determining the sex of an individual. Sex chromosomes, such as the X and Y chromosomes, are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. Autosomes, on the other hand, are chromosomes that do not determine sex and are responsible for carrying genes that control various traits and characteristics. Since chromosome #15 is not involved in sex determination, it is classified as an autosome.

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140. Most cholesterol medications are designed to:

Explanation

Most cholesterol medications are designed to lower cholesterol levels in the body by inhibiting the production of cholesterol in the liver or by increasing the removal of cholesterol from the bloodstream. They do not affect the filtration of cholesterol or inhibit glucose absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above."

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141. The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is

Explanation

During fasting, the body undergoes a significant metabolic change where it starts breaking down stored fat for energy. This process is known as lipolysis. The increase in lipolysis allows the body to utilize the stored fat as a fuel source, leading to weight loss. This metabolic change is essential for survival during periods of food scarcity and is regulated by various hormones and enzymes. It helps maintain energy levels and provides the necessary nutrients for the body's functions when food intake is limited.

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142. Which of the following is not a post absorptive state reaction?

Explanation

Lipogenesis is the process of synthesizing lipids (fats) from glucose or other substrates. It occurs during the fed state when there is an excess of glucose available. In contrast, the post absorptive state is characterized by a decrease in insulin levels and an increase in glucagon levels, which promote the breakdown of stored energy sources such as liver glycogen and the production of glucose through gluconeogenesis. Therefore, lipogenesis is not a post absorptive state reaction as it occurs when there is an abundance of nutrients available for storage.

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143. This hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in the hypothalamus.

Explanation

CRH, or corticotropin-releasing hormone, is the hormone secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in the hypothalamus. This hormone plays a crucial role in regulating the release of cortisol, a stress hormone, from the adrenal glands. It also has effects on the reproductive system, immune system, and other physiological processes. GnRH, or gonadotropin-releasing hormone, is responsible for regulating the release of reproductive hormones, while hCG, or human chorionic gonadotropin, is primarily produced during pregnancy. Therefore, CRH is the correct answer in this context.

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Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften...
This hormone promotes spermatogenesis.
This is the connection between the placenta and the embryo.
This is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.
Which of following processes is the primary function of the villi of...
Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?
Where does the Kreb’s cycle take place?
These cells may eventually become spermatozoa
Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?
The fusion of the secondary oocyte and the sperm results in which...
Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form...
Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
How many ATPs can come from substrate level phosphorylation during...
What is produced by the ovaries?
This is the principle bile pigment.
This is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each...
Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that...
This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and...
This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue...
This is the heaviest gland of the body.
This is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts.
This digestive aid, produced by the stomach, begins digestion by...
This structure is the site of sperm production.
These are composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the...
When the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP what is formed?
This reaction oxidizes acetyl co-A to produce carbon dioxide, ATP,...
The function of the epididymis is
Oxidation is
Reduction is the
The structure protects and regulates the temperature of the testes
This plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth...
Which of the following does is the primary function of the large...
This is the site of fertilization.
This is a permanent change in an allele.
Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle...
This is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact.
This will become the primary structure for exchange of material...
This is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of...
How many stages of deglutition are there?
Most glucose that enters the liver is converted to
This portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and...
This structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food...
This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.
Where does glycolysis take place?
The is the ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning...
In the mouth, this runs posteriorly to the sides of the pharynx.
Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce...
This structure regulates the flow of material into the colon.
Where can pyruvate dehydrogenase be found?
If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what...
The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is...
Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
This cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of gastric...
During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by
An example of incomplete dominance is
What hormone stimulates glycogenesis?
If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the...
This portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior...
This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small...
Chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into...
Glucose-6-phosphate
Keto acids
This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue...
In the mouth, the tooth sockets are lined with
How long can food stay in the fundus before being mixed with gastric...
When a large amount of H+ accumulates between the inner and outer...
The heat promoting center stimulates parts of the brain that
These are located inferior to the prostate on other side of the...
When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental...
This layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid.
Which of the following secrete gastric acid?
Brunner’s glands
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the
This hormone triggers ovulation.
A Barr body
This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
Glycolysis, formation of acetyl co-A, Krebs cycle and the electron...
Lipogenesis occurs when
Which of the following are used in "metabolic crossroads"?
Food induced thermogenesis
These cells secrete testosterone.
This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
This exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to...
Deciduous molars are replaced by
Provitamins are
This hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.
This is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and...
Labor cannot take place until all of this hormone’s effects are...
Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme?
Skene’s glands secrete
This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying...
How many reactions take place during the Krebs cycle?
The higher the relative humidity
Antioxidant vitamins
________ hormone secreted by the ____________ controls the ovarian and...
The net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does not include:
The hard palate
Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat...
The straight tubules in the testis lead into the:
Involution is
Which of the following is not a form of phosphorylation?
In the absorptive state
This lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and...
This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.
This is a derivative of vitamin B.
Glycogenesis is NOT
Glycogenolysis is________and stimulated by___________
Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
This develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid.
Each somite may differentiate into a
Which of the following gastric enzymes digests proteins?
This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a...
These transport dietary lipids.
Live cells convert:
How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?
Which of the following contains skeletal muscle?
This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they...
Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
The is the uterine phase when the endometrium becomes more vascular.
The most abundant product of the reactions of the Kreb’s cycle is…
What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
Excess amino acids in the body are
Why is "Calorie" is always spelled with a capital "C"?
CVS is taking cells from where?
Neuropeptide Y stimulates
This is the key regulator of the rate of glycolysis.
This is any agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an...
Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as...
This is the portion of the endometrium that lays between the embryo...
In infants this connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller...
This hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the...
This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.
Thyroid hormones:
How many seminiferous tubules are found in the lobules?
Chromosome #15 is considered
Most cholesterol medications are designed to:
The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
Which of the following is not a post absorptive state reaction?
This hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in...
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