Part 2 Anp II

143 Questions

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Anp Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Part 2 ANP final


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
    • A. 

      Ingestion

    • B. 

      Secretion

    • C. 

      Mixing and propulsion

  • 2. 
    Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
    • A. 

      Ingestion

    • B. 

      Secretion

    • C. 

      Mixing and propulsion

  • 3. 
    Which of following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
    • A. 

      Secretion

    • B. 

      Mixing and propulsion

    • C. 

      Absorption

  • 4. 
    Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food?
    • A. 

      Teeth

    • B. 

      Salivary glands

    • C. 

      Liver

  • 5. 
    Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?
    • A. 

      Teeth

    • B. 

      Salivary glands

    • C. 

      Liver

  • 6. 
    Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?
    • A. 

      Salivary glad

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Gallbladder

  • 7. 
    The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called
    • A. 

      Motility

    • B. 

      Propulsion

    • C. 

      Digestion

  • 8. 
    This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue containing blood and lymph vessels.
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Lamina propria

    • C. 

      MALT

  • 9. 
    This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue that binds the mucosa to the muscularis.
    • A. 

      Submucosa

    • B. 

      Lamina propria

    • C. 

      Epithelium

  • 10. 
    This layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid.
    • A. 

      Serosa

    • B. 

      Submucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis

  • 11. 
    These are composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the immune response.
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Lamina propria

    • C. 

      MALT

  • 12. 
    This plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis.
    • A. 

      ENS

    • B. 

      Myenteric plexus

    • C. 

      Submucosal plexus

  • 13. 
    Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
    • A. 

      Because they stimulate the parasympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract

    • B. 

      Because they stimulate the somatic nerves that supply the GI tract

    • C. 

      Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract

  • 14. 
    This portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine.
    • A. 

      Greater omentum

    • B. 

      Falciform ligament

    • C. 

      Lesser omentum

  • 15. 
    This portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm.
    • A. 

      Greater omentumc

    • B. 

      Falciform ligament

    • C. 

      Lesser omentum

  • 16. 
    This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines.
    • A. 

      Lesser omentum

    • B. 

      Mesentery

    • C. 

      Mesocolon

  • 17. 
    The hard palate
    • A. 

      Is covered by a mucous membrane

    • B. 

      Both a and b

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    In the mouth, this runs posteriorly to the sides of the pharynx.
    • A. 

      Uvula

    • B. 

      Palatoglossal arch

    • C. 

      Palatopharyngeal arch

  • 19. 
    In the mouth, the tooth sockets are lined with
    • A. 

      Gingivae

    • B. 

      Cementum

    • C. 

      Periodontal ligament

  • 20. 
    Deciduous molars are replaced by
    • A. 

      Bicuspids

    • B. 

      Molars

    • C. 

      Incisors

  • 21. 
    Which of the following contains skeletal muscle?
    • A. 

      UES standard abbreviations

    • B. 

      LES

    • C. 

      Serosa

  • 22. 
    How many stages of deglutition are there?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

  • 23. 
    This structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food storage.
    • A. 

      Pylorus

    • B. 

      Rugae

    • C. 

      Sphincter

  • 24. 
    Which of the following secrete gastric acid?
    • A. 

      Mucous cells

    • B. 

      Parietal cells

    • C. 

      Chief cells

  • 25. 
    This cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of gastric acid.
    • A. 

      Neck cell

    • B. 

      Chief cell

    • C. 

      G cell

  • 26. 
    How long can food stay in the fundus before being mixed with gastric juices?
    • A. 

      30 minutes

    • B. 

      45 minutes

    • C. 

      1 hour

  • 27. 
    This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.
    • A. 

      Pancreatic duct

    • B. 

      Hepatopancreatic duct

    • C. 

      Cystic duct

  • 28. 
    Which of the following gastric enzymes digests proteins?
    • A. 

      Lipase

    • B. 

      Pepsin

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    This is the heaviest gland of the body.
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Pancreas

  • 30. 
    This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus.
    • A. 

      Coronary ligament

    • B. 

      Falciform ligament

    • C. 

      Round ligament

  • 31. 
    This is the principle bile pigment.
    • A. 

      Stercobilin

    • B. 

      Bilirubin

    • C. 

      Both a and b

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
    • A. 

      Conversion of carbohydrates

    • B. 

      Protein metabolism

    • C. 

      Storage of bilirubin

  • 33. 
    Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme?
    • A. 

      Absorptive cells

    • B. 

      Mucosa cells

    • C. 

      Paneth cells

  • 34. 
    Brunner’s glands
    • A. 

      Secrete an alkaline juice

    • B. 

      Secrete mucous and acidic juice

    • C. 

      Both mucous and an alkaline juice

  • 35. 
    Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as products?
    • A. 

      Lipase

    • B. 

      Amylase

    • C. 

      Trypsin

  • 36. 
    Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce monosaccarides?
    • A. 

      Chymotrypsin

    • B. 

      Amylase

    • C. 

      Trypsin

  • 37. 
    Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins?
    • A. 

      Chymotrypsin

    • B. 

      Amylase

    • C. 

      Pepsin

  • 38. 
    This hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine.
    • A. 

      Secretin

    • B. 

      Gastrin

    • C. 

      Cholecystokinin

  • 39. 
    This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.
    • A. 

      Gastrin

    • B. 

      Cholecystokinin

    • C. 

      Amylase

  • 40. 
    This digestive aid, produced by the stomach, begins digestion by denaturing proteins.
    • A. 

      Bile

    • B. 

      Hydrochloric acid

    • C. 

      Water

  • 41. 
    This structure regulates the flow of material into the colon.
    • A. 

      Ileocecal sphincter

    • B. 

      Pyloric sphincter

    • C. 

      Appendix

  • 42. 
    Which of the following does is the primary function of the large intestine?
    • A. 

      Chemical digestion

    • B. 

      Absorption

    • C. 

      Feces formation

  • 43. 
    Chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones are called:
    • A. 

      Metabolism

    • B. 

      Anabolism

    • C. 

      Catabolism

  • 44. 
    Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form complex structures are known as
    • A. 

      Metabolism

    • B. 

      Anabolism

    • C. 

      Catabolism

  • 45. 
    When the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP what is formed?
    • A. 

      Adenosine diphosphate

    • B. 

      GTP

    • C. 

      C. Adenosine monophosphate

  • 46. 
    Oxidation is
    • A. 

      The removal of protons

    • B. 

      The removal of electrons

    • C. 

      The addition of protons

  • 47. 
    Reduction is the
    • A. 

      The addition of protons

    • B. 

      The addition of electrons

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 48. 
    This is a derivative of vitamin B.
    • A. 

      NAD

    • B. 

      FAD

    • C. 

      Lactic acid

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is not a form of phosphorylation?
    • A. 

      Reduction phosphorylation

    • B. 

      Substrate level phosphorylation

    • C. 

      Oxidative phosphorylation

  • 50. 
    Glycogenesis is NOT
    • A. 

      Performed by the hepatocytes

    • B. 

      Performed by muscle fibers

    • C. 

      One way to make glycogen

  • 51. 
    This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.
    • A. 

      Gluconeogensis

    • B. 

      Lipoogenesis

    • C. 

      Phosphorylation

  • 52. 
    This reaction oxidizes acetyl co-A to produce carbon dioxide, ATP, NADH=H and FADH2.
    • A. 

      Glycolysis

    • B. 

      Formation of acetyl co-A

    • C. 

      Krebs cycle

  • 53. 
    Glycolysis, formation of acetyl co-A, Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain are all involved in:
    • A. 

      Lipogensis

    • B. 

      Gluconeogenesis

    • C. 

      Glucose catabolism

  • 54. 
    This is the key regulator of the rate of glycolysis.
    • A. 

      ATP

    • B. 

      NADH

    • C. 

      Phosphofructokinase

  • 55. 
    Where can pyruvate dehydrogenase be found?
    • A. 

      Lysozyme

    • B. 

      Mitochondria

    • C. 

      Interstitial fluid

  • 56. 
    The most abundant product of the reactions of the Kreb’s cycle is…
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      GTP

    • C. 

      Reduced co enzymes

  • 57. 
    The net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does not include:
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      ATP

    • C. 

      oxygen

  • 58. 
    How many reactions take place during the Krebs cycle?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

  • 59. 
    When a large amount of H+ accumulates between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes:
    • A. 

      Proton pump

    • B. 

      Chemiosmosis

    • C. 

      Krebs cycle

  • 60. 
    How many ATPs can come from substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

  • 61. 
    What hormone stimulates glycogenesis?
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Glucase

    • C. 

      Estrogen

  • 62. 
    What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
    • A. 

      Human Growth hormone

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Thyroid

  • 63. 
    Glycogenolysis is________and stimulated by___________
    • A. 

      Anabolic, Insulin

    • B. 

      Catabolic, Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Catabolic, Insulin

  • 64. 
    Thyroid hormones:
    • A. 

      Inhibit lipogenesis

    • B. 

      Promote glycolysis

    • C. 

      Promote gluconeogenesis

  • 65. 
    These transport dietary lipids.
    • A. 

      Apoproteins

    • B. 

      Low density lipoproteins

    • C. 

      Chylomicrons

  • 66. 
    Most cholesterol medications are designed to:
    • A. 

      Decrease the filtration of cholesterol

    • B. 

      Inhibit glucose absorption

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 67. 
    Where does glycolysis take place?
    • A. 

      Cytosol

    • B. 

      Plasma membrane

    • C. 

      Nucleus

  • 68. 
    Where does the Kreb’s cycle take place?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Mitochondria

    • C. 

      Golgi Apparatus

  • 69. 
    Lipogenesis occurs when
    • A. 

      More calories are consumed than required for ATP need

    • B. 

      More cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need

    • C. 

      Less calories are consumed than required for ATP need

  • 70. 
    Excess amino acids in the body are
    • A. 

      Excreted in urine

    • B. 

      Excreted in feces

    • C. 

      Converted into glucose

  • 71. 
    Live cells convert:
    • A. 

      Lactic acid into pyruvic acid

    • B. 

      Pyruvic acid into urea

    • C. 

      Ammonia into urea

  • 72. 
    Glucose-6-phosphate
    • A. 

      Can be used to synthesize glycogen

    • B. 

      Can be converted to pyruvic acid

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 73. 
    Which of the following are used in "metabolic crossroads"?
    • A. 

      Pyruvic acid

    • B. 

      Glycogen

    • C. 

      Ribose

  • 74. 
    In the absorptive state
    • A. 

      Storage of energy is important

    • B. 

      Filtration is important

    • C. 

      Reabsorption is important

  • 75. 
    Most glucose that enters the liver is converted to
    • A. 

      Pyruvic acid

    • B. 

      Glycogen

    • C. 

      Amino acids

  • 76. 
    Keto acids
    • A. 

      Can be used to make lipids

    • B. 

      Can enter Krebs or be used for ATP production

    • C. 

      Convert into aldehydes in the liver

  • 77. 
    Which of the following is not a post absorptive state reaction?
    • A. 

      Breakdown of liver glycogen

    • B. 

      Lipogenesis

    • C. 

      Gluconeogensis using lactic acid

  • 78. 
    Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from
    • A. 

      Lactic acid

    • B. 

      Pyruvic acid

    • C. 

      Glucose-6-phosphate

  • 79. 
    The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
    • A. 

      Inhibition of insulin

    • B. 

      Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure

    • C. 

      Increase in Lipolysis

  • 80. 
    Why is "Calorie" is always spelled with a capital "C"?
    • A. 

      It is named after the provence where it was discovered

    • B. 

      To distinguish it from the chemistry term calory

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat production?
    • A. 

      Nervous system

    • B. 

      Ingestion of food

    • C. 

      Blood volume

  • 82. 
    This is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact.
    • A. 

      Conduction

    • B. 

      Convection

    • C. 

      Radiation

  • 83. 
    The higher the relative humidity
    • A. 

      The higher the rate of convection

    • B. 

      The lower the rate of thermoregulation

    • C. 

      The lower the rate of evaporation

  • 84. 
    The heat promoting center stimulates parts of the brain that
    • A. 

      Decrease smooth muscle tone

    • B. 

      Increase blood glucose

    • C. 

      Stimulates skeletal muscle activity

  • 85. 
    Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the
    • A. 

      Anterior pituitary

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Cerebral cortex

  • 86. 
    Food induced thermogenesis
    • A. 

      Is inhibited by the hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Is the opposite of ketosis

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
    Neuropeptide Y stimulates
    • A. 

      Thirst centers

    • B. 

      Thermogenesis

    • C. 

      Food intake

  • 88. 
    Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?
    • A. 

      Carbohydrates

    • B. 

      Phosphates

    • C. 

      Proteins

  • 89. 
    Provitamins are
    • A. 

      Building blocks of vitamins

    • B. 

      Broken down glucose molecules

    • C. 

      Derivatives of minerals

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
    • A. 

      Vitamin B

    • B. 

      Vitamin E

    • C. 

      Vitamin K

  • 91. 
    Antioxidant vitamins
    • A. 

      Are found in plasma membranes

    • B. 

      Are vitamin derivatives

    • C. 

      Can inactivate oxygen free radicals

  • 92. 
    The structure protects and regulates the temperature of the testes
    • A. 

      Cremaster muscle

    • B. 

      Tunica albuginea

    • C. 

      Scrotum

  • 93. 
    This structure is the site of sperm production.
    • A. 

      Vas deferens

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules

    • C. 

      Albuginea

  • 94. 
    How many seminiferous tubules are found in the lobules?
    • A. 

      1-3

    • B. 

      50-100

    • C. 

      200-300

  • 95. 
    These cells may eventually become spermatozoa
    • A. 

      Sertoli cells

    • B. 

      Sustentacular cells

    • C. 

      Spermatogenic cells

  • 96. 
    These cells secrete testosterone.
    • A. 

      Sertoli cells

    • B. 

      Spermatogenic cells

    • C. 

      Leydig cells

  • 97. 
    This hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.
    • A. 

      LH

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      DHT

  • 98. 
    The straight tubules in the testis lead into the:
    • A. 

      Efferent ducts

    • B. 

      Afferent ducts

    • C. 

      Rete testis

  • 99. 
    The function of the epididymis is
    • A. 

      Sperm maturation

    • B. 

      Produce sperm

    • C. 

      Speratid storage

  • 100. 
    This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens.
    • A. 

      Inguinal canal

    • B. 

      Ejaculatory duct

    • C. 

      Prostate

  • 101. 
    This lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and secretes an alkaline, fructose filled fluid.
    • A. 

      Prostate

    • B. 

      Cowper’s glands

    • C. 

      Seminal glands

  • 102. 
    These are located inferior to the prostate on other side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum.
    • A. 

      Cowper’s glands

    • B. 

      Seminal glands

    • C. 

      Ejaculatory ducts

  • 103. 
    This is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous tissue.
    • A. 

      Bladder

    • B. 

      Penis

    • C. 

      Urethra

  • 104. 
    This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.
    • A. 

      Fundiform ligament

    • B. 

      Broad ligament

    • C. 

      Suspensory ligament

  • 105. 
    What is produced by the ovaries?
    • A. 

      Secondary oocytes, progesterone and cortisol

    • B. 

      Tertiary oocytes, insulin and estrogen

    • C. 

      Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone

  • 106. 
    This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.
    • A. 

      Mesovarium

    • B. 

      Ovarian ligament

    • C. 

      Suspensory ligament

  • 107. 
    This is the site of fertilization.
    • A. 

      Urethra

    • B. 

      Uterine tubes

    • C. 

      Ovaries

  • 108. 
    This is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.
    • A. 

      Urethra

    • B. 

      Cervix

    • C. 

      Uterine tubes

  • 109. 
    Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
    • A. 

      Labia majora

    • B. 

      Labia minor

    • C. 

      Mons pubis

  • 110. 
    Skene’s glands secrete
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Androgens

    • C. 

      Mucus

  • 111. 
    ________ hormone secreted by the ____________ controls the ovarian and uterine cycles.
    • A. 

      GnRH, hypothalamus

    • B. 

      HGH, hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Estrogens, ovaries

  • 112. 
    This hormone promotes spermatogenesis.
    • A. 

      Relaxin

    • B. 

      Testosterone

    • C. 

      Inhibin

  • 113. 
    This hormone triggers ovulation.
    • A. 

      GnRH

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      FSH

  • 114. 
    This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
    • A. 

      Progesterone

    • B. 

      Relaxin

    • C. 

      LH

  • 115. 
    The is the uterine phase when the endometrium becomes more vascular.
    • A. 

      Menstrual phase

    • B. 

      Preovulatory phase

    • C. 

      Proliferative phase

  • 116. 
    The is the ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation.
    • A. 

      Menstrual phase

    • B. 

      Preovulatory phase

    • C. 

      Proliferative phase

  • 117. 
    Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
    • A. 

      Ovary

    • B. 

      Fallopian tube

    • C. 

      Ovarian ligament

  • 118. 
    This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract.
    • A. 

      Maturation

    • B. 

      Fertilization

    • C. 

      Capacitation

  • 119. 
    The fusion of the secondary oocyte and the sperm results in which developmental stage?
    • A. 

      Female pronucleus

    • B. 

      Male pronucleus

    • C. 

      Zygote

  • 120. 
    This is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG.
    • A. 

      Blastocyte

    • B. 

      Blastosphere

    • C. 

      Trophoblast

  • 121. 
    This is the portion of the endometrium that lays between the embryo and the stratum basalis.
    • A. 

      Decidua basalis

    • B. 

      Decidua capsularis

    • C. 

      Decidua parietalis

  • 122. 
    This develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid.
    • A. 

      Yolk sac

    • B. 

      Exocoelomic membrane

    • C. 

      Amnion

  • 123. 
    This will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus.
    • A. 

      Chorionic villi of the placenta

    • B. 

      Amnion

    • C. 

      Amnionic fluid

  • 124. 
    Each somite may differentiate into a
    • A. 

      Sertoli cell

    • B. 

      Dermatome

    • C. 

      Ovary

  • 125. 
    This is the connection between the placenta and the embryo.
    • A. 

      Amnion

    • B. 

      Chorion

    • C. 

      Umbilical cord

  • 126. 
    How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

  • 127. 
    This is any agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo.
    • A. 

      Nicotine

    • B. 

      Radiation

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 128. 
    This exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities.
    • A. 

      Sonogram

    • B. 

      Amniocentesis

    • C. 

      CVS

  • 129. 
    CVS is taking cells from where?
    • A. 

      Amnion

    • B. 

      Chorion

    • C. 

      Placenta

  • 130. 
    This hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in the hypothalamus.
    • A. 

      GnRH

    • B. 

      hCG

    • C. 

      CRH

  • 131. 
    During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      20%

    • C. 

      30%

  • 132. 
    Labor cannot take place until all of this hormone’s effects are diminished.
    • A. 

      Estrogen

    • B. 

      Progesterone

    • C. 

      Testosterone

  • 133. 
    This is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix.
    • A. 

      Stage of dilation

    • B. 

      Stage of expulsion

    • C. 

      Placental stage

  • 134. 
    Involution is
    • A. 

      When the placenta is expelled

    • B. 

      When the umbilical cord is cut

    • C. 

      When the uterus decreases in size

  • 135. 
    In infants this connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
    • A. 

      Ductus venosus

    • B. 

      Ductus arteriosus

    • C. 

      Anteriosum

  • 136. 
    This is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts.
    • A. 

      PRH

    • B. 

      Oxytocin

    • C. 

      GnRH

  • 137. 
    This is a permanent change in an allele.
    • A. 

      Mutation

    • B. 

      Phenotype

    • C. 

      Genotype

  • 138. 
    When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:
    • A. 

      Mutation

    • B. 

      Translocation

    • C. 

      Genomic imprinting

  • 139. 
    An example of incomplete dominance is
    • A. 

      ABO blood groups

    • B. 

      Sickle-cell disease

    • C. 

      Angelman Syndrome

  • 140. 
    If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?
    • A. 

      B

    • B. 

      O

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 141. 
    If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?
    • A. 

      AB

    • B. 

      B or O

    • C. 

      B, O or AB

  • 142. 
    Chromosome #15 is considered
    • A. 

      A sex chromosome

    • B. 

      An autosome

    • C. 

      The SRY chromosome

  • 143. 
    A Barr body
    • A. 

      Is an inactivated X chromosome

    • B. 

      Cannot be stained

    • C. 

      Are transcribed and translated