Part 2 Anp II
Settings
Part 2 ANP final
- 1.Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
- A.
Ingestion
- B.
Secretion
- C.
Mixing and propulsion
- 2.Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
- A.
Ingestion
- B.
Secretion
- C.
Mixing and propulsion
- 3.Which of following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
- A.
Secretion
- B.
Mixing and propulsion
- C.
Absorption
- 4.Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food?
- A.
Teeth
- B.
Salivary glands
- C.
Liver
- 5.Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?
- A.
Teeth
- B.
Salivary glands
- C.
Liver
- 6.Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?
- A.
Salivary glad
- B.
Liver
- C.
Gallbladder
- 7.The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called
- A.
Motility
- B.
Propulsion
- C.
Digestion
- 8.This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue containing blood and lymph vessels.
- A.
Mucosa
- B.
Lamina propria
- C.
MALT
- 9.This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue that binds the mucosa to the muscularis.
- A.
Submucosa
- B.
Lamina propria
- C.
Epithelium
- 10.This layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid.
- A.
Serosa
- B.
Submucosa
- C.
Muscularis
- 11.These are composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the immune response.
- A.
Mucosa
- B.
Lamina propria
- C.
MALT
- 12.This plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis.
- A.
ENS
- B.
Myenteric plexus
- C.
Submucosal plexus
- 13.Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
- A.
Because they stimulate the parasympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract
- B.
Because they stimulate the somatic nerves that supply the GI tract
- C.
Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract
- 14.This portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine.
- A.
Greater omentum
- B.
Falciform ligament
- C.
Lesser omentum
- 15.This portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm.
- A.
Greater omentumc
- B.
Falciform ligament
- C.
Lesser omentum
- 16.This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines.
- A.
Lesser omentum
- B.
Mesentery
- C.
Mesocolon
- 17.The hard palate
- A.
Is covered by a mucous membrane
- B.
Both a and b
- C.
All of the above
- 18.In the mouth, this runs posteriorly to the sides of the pharynx.
- A.
Uvula
- B.
Palatoglossal arch
- C.
Palatopharyngeal arch
- 19.In the mouth, the tooth sockets are lined with
- A.
Gingivae
- B.
Cementum
- C.
Periodontal ligament
- 20.Deciduous molars are replaced by
- A.
Bicuspids
- B.
Molars
- C.
Incisors
- 21.Which of the following contains skeletal muscle?
- A.
UES standard abbreviations
- B.
LES
- C.
Serosa
- 22.How many stages of deglutition are there?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- 23.This structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food storage.
- A.
Pylorus
- B.
Rugae
- C.
Sphincter
- 24.Which of the following secrete gastric acid?
- A.
Mucous cells
- B.
Parietal cells
- C.
Chief cells
- 25.This cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of gastric acid.
- A.
Neck cell
- B.
Chief cell
- C.
G cell
- 26.How long can food stay in the fundus before being mixed with gastric juices?
- A.
30 minutes
- B.
45 minutes
- C.
1 hour
- 27.This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.
- A.
Pancreatic duct
- B.
Hepatopancreatic duct
- C.
Cystic duct
- 28.Which of the following gastric enzymes digests proteins?
- A.
Lipase
- B.
Pepsin
- C.
All of the above
- 29.This is the heaviest gland of the body.
- A.
Heart
- B.
Liver
- C.
Pancreas
- 30.This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus.
- A.
Coronary ligament
- B.
Falciform ligament
- C.
Round ligament
- 31.This is the principle bile pigment.
- A.
Stercobilin
- B.
Bilirubin
- C.
Both a and b
- 32.Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
- A.
Conversion of carbohydrates
- B.
Protein metabolism
- C.
Storage of bilirubin
- 33.Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme?
- A.
Absorptive cells
- B.
Mucosa cells
- C.
Paneth cells
- 34.Brunner’s glands
- A.
Secrete an alkaline juice
- B.
Secrete mucous and acidic juice
- C.
Both mucous and an alkaline juice
- 35.Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as products?
- A.
Lipase
- B.
Amylase
- C.
Trypsin
- 36.Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce monosaccarides?
- A.
Chymotrypsin
- B.
Amylase
- C.
Trypsin
- 37.Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins?
- A.
Chymotrypsin
- B.
Amylase
- C.
Pepsin
- 38.This hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine.
- A.
Secretin
- B.
Gastrin
- C.
Cholecystokinin
- 39.This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.
- A.
Gastrin
- B.
Cholecystokinin
- C.
Amylase
- 40.This digestive aid, produced by the stomach, begins digestion by denaturing proteins.
- A.
Bile
- B.
Hydrochloric acid
- C.
Water
- 41.This structure regulates the flow of material into the colon.
- A.
Ileocecal sphincter
- B.
Pyloric sphincter
- C.
Appendix
- 42.Which of the following does is the primary function of the large intestine?
- A.
Chemical digestion
- B.
Absorption
- C.
Feces formation
- 43.Chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones are called:
- A.
Metabolism
- B.
Anabolism
- C.
Catabolism
- 44.Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form complex structures are known as
- A.
Metabolism
- B.
Anabolism
- C.
Catabolism
- 45.When the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP what is formed?
- A.
Adenosine diphosphate
- B.
GTP
- C.
C. Adenosine monophosphate
- 46.Oxidation is
- A.
The removal of protons
- B.
The removal of electrons
- C.
The addition of protons
- 47.Reduction is the
- A.
The addition of protons
- B.
The addition of electrons
- C.
None of the above
- 48.This is a derivative of vitamin B.
- A.
NAD
- B.
FAD
- C.
Lactic acid
- 49.Which of the following is not a form of phosphorylation?
- A.
Reduction phosphorylation
- B.
Substrate level phosphorylation
- C.
Oxidative phosphorylation
- 50.Glycogenesis is NOT
- A.
Performed by the hepatocytes
- B.
Performed by muscle fibers
- C.
One way to make glycogen
- 51.This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.
- A.
Gluconeogensis
- B.
Lipoogenesis
- C.
Phosphorylation
- 52.This reaction oxidizes acetyl co-A to produce carbon dioxide, ATP, NADH=H and FADH2.
- A.
Glycolysis
- B.
Formation of acetyl co-A
- C.
Krebs cycle
- 53.Glycolysis, formation of acetyl co-A, Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain are all involved in:
- A.
Lipogensis
- B.
Gluconeogenesis
- C.
Glucose catabolism
- 54.This is the key regulator of the rate of glycolysis.
- A.
ATP
- B.
NADH
- C.
Phosphofructokinase
- 55.Where can pyruvate dehydrogenase be found?
- A.
Lysozyme
- B.
Mitochondria
- C.
Interstitial fluid
- 56.The most abundant product of the reactions of the Kreb’s cycle is…
- A.
Carbon dioxide
- B.
GTP
- C.
Reduced co enzymes
- 57.The net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does not include:
- A.
Carbon dioxide
- B.
ATP
- C.
oxygen
- 58.How many reactions take place during the Krebs cycle?
- A.
4
- B.
6
- C.
8
- 59.When a large amount of H+ accumulates between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes:
- A.
Proton pump
- B.
Chemiosmosis
- C.
Krebs cycle
- 60.How many ATPs can come from substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
- A.
0
- B.
1
- C.
2
- 61.What hormone stimulates glycogenesis?
- A.
Insulin
- B.
Glucase
- C.
Estrogen
- 62.What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
- A.
Human Growth hormone
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Thyroid
- 63.Glycogenolysis is________and stimulated by___________
- A.
Anabolic, Insulin
- B.
Catabolic, Epinephrine
- C.
Catabolic, Insulin
- 64.Thyroid hormones:
- A.
Inhibit lipogenesis
- B.
Promote glycolysis
- C.
Promote gluconeogenesis
- 65.These transport dietary lipids.
- A.
Apoproteins
- B.
Low density lipoproteins
- C.
Chylomicrons
- 66.Most cholesterol medications are designed to:
- A.
Decrease the filtration of cholesterol
- B.
Inhibit glucose absorption
- C.
None of the above
- 67.Where does glycolysis take place?
- A.
Cytosol
- B.
Plasma membrane
- C.
Nucleus
- 68.Where does the Kreb’s cycle take place?
- A.
Nucleus
- B.
Mitochondria
- C.
Golgi Apparatus
- 69.Lipogenesis occurs when
- A.
More calories are consumed than required for ATP need
- B.
More cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need
- C.
Less calories are consumed than required for ATP need
- 70.Excess amino acids in the body are
- A.
Excreted in urine
- B.
Excreted in feces
- C.
Converted into glucose
- 71.Live cells convert:
- A.
Lactic acid into pyruvic acid
- B.
Pyruvic acid into urea
- C.
Ammonia into urea
- 72.Glucose-6-phosphate
- A.
Can be used to synthesize glycogen
- B.
Can be converted to pyruvic acid
- C.
All of the above
- 73.Which of the following are used in "metabolic crossroads"?
- A.
Pyruvic acid
- B.
Glycogen
- C.
Ribose
- 74.In the absorptive state
- A.
Storage of energy is important
- B.
Filtration is important
- C.
Reabsorption is important
- 75.Most glucose that enters the liver is converted to
- A.
Pyruvic acid
- B.
Glycogen
- C.
Amino acids
- 76.Keto acids
- A.
Can be used to make lipids
- B.
Can enter Krebs or be used for ATP production
- C.
Convert into aldehydes in the liver
- 77.Which of the following is not a post absorptive state reaction?
- A.
Breakdown of liver glycogen
- B.
Lipogenesis
- C.
Gluconeogensis using lactic acid
- 78.Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from
- A.
Lactic acid
- B.
Pyruvic acid
- C.
Glucose-6-phosphate
- 79.The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
- A.
Inhibition of insulin
- B.
Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
- C.
Increase in Lipolysis
- 80.Why is "Calorie" is always spelled with a capital "C"?
- A.
It is named after the provence where it was discovered
- B.
To distinguish it from the chemistry term calory
- C.
None of the above
- 81.Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat production?
- A.
Nervous system
- B.
Ingestion of food
- C.
Blood volume
- 82.This is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact.
- A.
Conduction
- B.
Convection
- C.
Radiation
- 83.The higher the relative humidity
- A.
The higher the rate of convection
- B.
The lower the rate of thermoregulation
- C.
The lower the rate of evaporation
- 84.The heat promoting center stimulates parts of the brain that
- A.
Decrease smooth muscle tone
- B.
Increase blood glucose
- C.
Stimulates skeletal muscle activity
- 85.Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the
- A.
Anterior pituitary
- B.
Hypothalamus
- C.
Cerebral cortex
- 86.Food induced thermogenesis
- A.
Is inhibited by the hypothalamus
- B.
Is the opposite of ketosis
- C.
None of the above
- 87.Neuropeptide Y stimulates
- A.
Thirst centers
- B.
Thermogenesis
- C.
Food intake
- 88.Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?
- A.
Carbohydrates
- B.
Phosphates
- C.
Proteins
- 89.Provitamins are
- A.
Building blocks of vitamins
- B.
Broken down glucose molecules
- C.
Derivatives of minerals
- 90.Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
- A.
Vitamin B
- B.
Vitamin E
- C.
Vitamin K
- 91.Antioxidant vitamins
- A.
Are found in plasma membranes
- B.
Are vitamin derivatives
- C.
Can inactivate oxygen free radicals
- 92.The structure protects and regulates the temperature of the testes
- A.
Cremaster muscle
- B.
Tunica albuginea
- C.
Scrotum
- 93.This structure is the site of sperm production.
- A.
Vas deferens
- B.
Seminiferous tubules
- C.
Albuginea
- 94.How many seminiferous tubules are found in the lobules?
- A.
1-3
- B.
50-100
- C.
200-300
- 95.These cells may eventually become spermatozoa
- A.
Sertoli cells
- B.
Sustentacular cells
- C.
Spermatogenic cells
- 96.These cells secrete testosterone.
- A.
Sertoli cells
- B.
Spermatogenic cells
- C.
Leydig cells
- 97.This hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.
- A.
LH
- B.
FSH
- C.
DHT
- 98.The straight tubules in the testis lead into the:
- A.
Efferent ducts
- B.
Afferent ducts
- C.
Rete testis
- 99.The function of the epididymis is
- A.
Sperm maturation
- B.
Produce sperm
- C.
Speratid storage
- 100.This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens.
- A.
Inguinal canal
- B.
Ejaculatory duct
- C.
Prostate
- 101.This lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and secretes an alkaline, fructose filled fluid.
- A.
Prostate
- B.
Cowper’s glands
- C.
Seminal glands
- 102.These are located inferior to the prostate on other side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum.
- A.
Cowper’s glands
- B.
Seminal glands
- C.
Ejaculatory ducts
- 103.This is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous tissue.
- A.
Bladder
- B.
Penis
- C.
Urethra
- 104.This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.
- A.
Fundiform ligament
- B.
Broad ligament
- C.
Suspensory ligament
- 105.What is produced by the ovaries?
- A.
Secondary oocytes, progesterone and cortisol
- B.
Tertiary oocytes, insulin and estrogen
- C.
Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone
- 106.This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.
- A.
Mesovarium
- B.
Ovarian ligament
- C.
Suspensory ligament
- 107.This is the site of fertilization.
- A.
Urethra
- B.
Uterine tubes
- C.
Ovaries
- 108.This is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.
- A.
Urethra
- B.
Cervix
- C.
Uterine tubes
- 109.Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
- A.
Labia majora
- B.
Labia minor
- C.
Mons pubis
- 110.Skene’s glands secrete
- A.
Testosterone
- B.
Androgens
- C.
Mucus
- 111.________ hormone secreted by the ____________ controls the ovarian and uterine cycles.
- A.
GnRH, hypothalamus
- B.
HGH, hypothalamus
- C.
Estrogens, ovaries
- 112.This hormone promotes spermatogenesis.
- A.
Relaxin
- B.
Testosterone
- C.
Inhibin
- 113.This hormone triggers ovulation.
- A.
GnRH
- B.
LH
- C.
FSH
- 114.This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
- A.
Progesterone
- B.
Relaxin
- C.
LH
- 115.The is the uterine phase when the endometrium becomes more vascular.
- A.
Menstrual phase
- B.
Preovulatory phase
- C.
Proliferative phase
- 116.The is the ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation.
- A.
Menstrual phase
- B.
Preovulatory phase
- C.
Proliferative phase
- 117.Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
- A.
Ovary
- B.
Fallopian tube
- C.
Ovarian ligament
- 118.This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract.
- A.
Maturation
- B.
Fertilization
- C.
Capacitation
- 119.The fusion of the secondary oocyte and the sperm results in which developmental stage?
- A.
Female pronucleus
- B.
Male pronucleus
- C.
Zygote
- 120.This is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG.
- A.
Blastocyte
- B.
Blastosphere
- C.
Trophoblast
- 121.This is the portion of the endometrium that lays between the embryo and the stratum basalis.
- A.
Decidua basalis
- B.
Decidua capsularis
- C.
Decidua parietalis
- 122.This develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid.
- A.
Yolk sac
- B.
Exocoelomic membrane
- C.
Amnion
- 123.This will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus.
- A.
Chorionic villi of the placenta
- B.
Amnion
- C.
Amnionic fluid
- 124.Each somite may differentiate into a
- A.
Sertoli cell
- B.
Dermatome
- C.
Ovary
- 125.This is the connection between the placenta and the embryo.
- A.
Amnion
- B.
Chorion
- C.
Umbilical cord
- 126.How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- 127.This is any agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo.
- A.
Nicotine
- B.
Radiation
- C.
None of the above
- 128.This exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities.
- A.
Sonogram
- B.
Amniocentesis
- C.
CVS
- 129.CVS is taking cells from where?
- A.
Amnion
- B.
Chorion
- C.
Placenta
- 130.This hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in the hypothalamus.
- A.
GnRH
- B.
hCG
- C.
CRH
- 131.During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by
- A.
10%
- B.
20%
- C.
30%
- 132.Labor cannot take place until all of this hormone’s effects are diminished.
- A.
Estrogen
- B.
Progesterone
- C.
Testosterone
- 133.This is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix.
- A.
Stage of dilation
- B.
Stage of expulsion
- C.
Placental stage
- 134.Involution is
- A.
When the placenta is expelled
- B.
When the umbilical cord is cut
- C.
When the uterus decreases in size
- 135.In infants this connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
- A.
Ductus venosus
- B.
Ductus arteriosus
- C.
Anteriosum
- 136.This is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts.
- A.
PRH
- B.
Oxytocin
- C.
GnRH
- 137.This is a permanent change in an allele.
- A.
Mutation
- B.
Phenotype
- C.
Genotype
- 138.When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:
- A.
Mutation
- B.
Translocation
- C.
Genomic imprinting
- 139.An example of incomplete dominance is
- A.
ABO blood groups
- B.
Sickle-cell disease
- C.
Angelman Syndrome
- 140.If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?
- A.
B
- B.
O
- C.
All of the above
- 141.If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?
- A.
AB
- B.
B or O
- C.
B, O or AB
- 142.Chromosome #15 is considered
- A.
A sex chromosome
- B.
An autosome
- C.
The SRY chromosome
- 143.A Barr body
- A.
Is an inactivated X chromosome
- B.
Cannot be stained
- C.
Are transcribed and translated
Back to top