Paramedic Quiz For Maes Students Chapter 8

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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Are you a paramedic student and you are currently studying Paramedic Maes Students chapter 8? If your answer is yes, then this is the quiz for you. It will test and enrich your knowledge on the subject. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Intracellular fluid

    • A.

      Is the fluid that bathes the cells

    • B.

      Transports red and white blood cells

    • C.

      Is the water contained inside the cells

    • D.

      Accounts for about 15% of body weight

    Correct Answer
    C. Is the water contained inside the cells
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the water contained inside the cells." Intracellular fluid refers to the fluid that is present within the cells of the body. It is the water and other solutes that are contained within the cell membrane. This fluid is essential for the proper functioning of the cells and plays a crucial role in various cellular processes.

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  • 2. 

    Solutes are MOST accurately defined as

    • A.

      Atoms that carry an electrical charge

    • B.

      Solutions that exclusively carry electrolytes

    • C.

      Solutions that contain dissolved components

    • D.

      The dissolved particles contained in a solvent

    Correct Answer
    D. The dissolved particles contained in a solvent
    Explanation
    Solutes are defined as the dissolved particles contained in a solvent. In a solution, the solute is the substance that is dissolved, while the solvent is the substance in which the solute is dissolved. The solute particles are typically smaller in size and are dispersed throughout the solvent. This definition accurately describes the nature of solutes in a solution, distinguishing them from the solvent and emphasizing their dissolved state.

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  • 3. 

    Cations are electrolytes that have an overall___ charge. and anions are electrolytes that have an overall____charge

    • A.

      Negative,neutral

    • B.

      Positive,negative

    • C.

      Neutral,positive

    • D.

      Negative,positive

    Correct Answer
    B. Positive,negative
    Explanation
    Cations are electrolytes that have an overall positive charge because they have lost electrons and become positively charged. Anions, on the other hand, are electrolytes that have an overall negative charge because they have gained electrons and become negatively charged.

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  • 4. 

    Major cations of the body include all of the following,EXCEPT

    • A.

      Sodium

    • B.

      Calcium

    • C.

      Potassium

    • D.

      Bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    D. Bicarbonate
    Explanation
    The major cations of the body are positively charged ions that play important roles in various physiological processes. Sodium, calcium, and potassium are all major cations found in the body. Bicarbonate, on the other hand, is an anion, not a cation. It is an important component of the body's buffering system and helps regulate pH levels. Therefore, bicarbonate is not a major cation of the body.

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  • 5. 

    The principal extracellular cation that regulates the distribution of water throughout the body is

    • A.

      Calcium

    • B.

      Sodium

    • C.

      Chloride

    • D.

      Phosphorus

    Correct Answer
    B. Sodium
    Explanation
    Sodium is the principal extracellular cation that regulates the distribution of water throughout the body. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance and osmotic pressure. Sodium ions are responsible for attracting and holding water molecules, ensuring proper hydration of cells and tissues. Imbalances in sodium levels can result in dehydration or fluid retention, affecting various bodily functions.

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  • 6. 

    The primary buffer used in all circulating body fluids is

    • A.

      Bicarbonate

    • B.

      Phosphorus

    • C.

      Potassium

    • D.

      Magnesium

    Correct Answer
    A. Bicarbonate
    Explanation
    Bicarbonate is the primary buffer used in all circulating body fluids. It helps maintain the pH balance in the body by neutralizing excess acid or base. Bicarbonate ions can combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid, which can then be converted into water and carbon dioxide by the body. This process helps regulate the acidity of the blood and other body fluids, ensuring that they stay within a narrow pH range for optimal function. Phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium are important electrolytes in the body, but they do not function as primary buffers in the same way as bicarbonate.

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  • 7. 

    The chemical sign for sodium bicarbonate is

    • A.

      NaCl

    • B.

      H2CO3

    • C.

      NaHCO3

    • D.

      KCI

    Correct Answer
    C. NaHCO3
    Explanation
    Sodium bicarbonate is commonly known as baking soda and its chemical formula is NaHCO3. This compound consists of one sodium ion (Na+), one hydrogen ion (H+), one carbonate ion (CO3^2-), and one hydroxide ion (OH-). The correct chemical sign for sodium bicarbonate is NaHCO3, as indicated in the answer.

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  • 8. 

    The movement of compounds or charges across a cell membrane to an area of lower concentration is called

    • A.

      Osmosis

    • B.

      Diffusion

    • C.

      Filtration

    • D.

      Selective permeability

    Correct Answer
    B. Diffusion
    Explanation
    Diffusion is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of compounds or charges across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs spontaneously and does not require any energy input. Osmosis, on the other hand, specifically refers to the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a membrane under pressure, and selective permeability refers to the property of allowing certain substances to pass through while restricting others.

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  • 9. 

    Osmosis occurs when

    • A.

      Water moves from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration

    • B.

      Solutes move from an area of lower water concentration to an area of higher water concentration

    • C.

      Water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration

    • D.

      Solutes move from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration

    Correct Answer
    C. Water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration
    Explanation
    Osmosis is the movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. This occurs in order to equalize the solute concentration on both sides of the membrane. The water molecules move in this direction because they are attracted to the higher solute concentration and want to dilute it.

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  • 10. 

    The net effect of osmosis is to

    • A.

      Balance the concentration of water on both sides of the cell wall

    • B.

      Equalize solute concentrations on both sides of the cell membrane

    • C.

      Utilize ATP to actively move solutes across the cell membrane

    • D.

      Maintain a higher concentration of solutes outside of the cell

    Correct Answer
    B. Equalize solute concentrations on both sides of the cell membrane
    Explanation
    Osmosis is the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. The net effect of osmosis is to equalize the solute concentrations on both sides of the cell membrane. This means that water will move from the side with lower solute concentration to the side with higher solute concentration until the concentrations are balanced.

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  • 11. 

    The tonicity of a solution is determined by the

    • A.

      Velocity with which potassium ions shift outside of the cell and sodium ions shift inside the cell

    • B.

      Permeability of the cell and the ability of sodium and potassium to actively move across its membrane

    • C.

      Amount of antidiuretic hormone the body produces and the volume of water that is reabsorbed in the tubules of the kidneys

    • D.

      Concentration of sodium in a solution and the movement of water in relation to the sodium level inside and outside the cell

    Correct Answer
    D. Concentration of sodium in a solution and the movement of water in relation to the sodium level inside and outside the cell
    Explanation
    The tonicity of a solution is determined by the concentration of sodium in the solution and the movement of water in relation to the sodium level inside and outside the cell. Tonicity refers to the ability of a solution to cause a cell to gain or lose water. If the concentration of sodium is higher outside the cell, water will move out of the cell, causing it to shrink and the solution is hypertonic. If the concentration of sodium is lower outside the cell, water will move into the cell, causing it to swell and the solution is hypotonic. If the concentration of sodium is the same inside and outside the cell, there will be no net movement of water and the solution is isotonic.

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  • 12. 

    Signs and symptoms of dehydration include all of the following, EXCEPT

    • A.

      Bradypnea

    • B.

      Flushed, dry skin

    • C.

      Postural hypotension

    • D.

      Dry mucous membranes

    Correct Answer
    A. Bradypnea
    Explanation
    Bradypnea refers to abnormally slow breathing. While dehydration can cause various symptoms such as flushed, dry skin, postural hypotension (low blood pressure when standing up), and dry mucous membranes, it does not typically cause bradypnea. Therefore, bradypnea is the exception among the given signs and symptoms of dehydration.

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  • 13. 

    A common cause of overhydration is

    • A.

      Hypertension

    • B.

      Kidney failure

    • C.

      Gastroinestinal drainage

    • D.

      Prolonged hyperventilation

    Correct Answer
    B. Kidney failure
    Explanation
    Kidney failure can lead to overhydration because when the kidneys are not functioning properly, they are unable to effectively regulate the body's fluid balance. This can result in an excessive accumulation of fluid in the body, leading to overhydration.

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  • 14. 

    The cardinal sign of overhydration is

    • A.

      Edema

    • B.

      Oliguria

    • C.

      Weight gain

    • D.

      Shortness of breath

    Correct Answer
    A. Edema
    Explanation
    Edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the body's tissues, which is a cardinal sign of overhydration. When there is an excessive intake of fluids, the body may struggle to eliminate the excess water, leading to fluid retention and swelling in various parts of the body. This can be observed as swelling in the hands, feet, ankles, or legs. Therefore, edema is a clear indication of overhydration.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements regarding isotonic solutions is MOST correct?

    • A.

      Isotonic solutions have almost the same osmolarity as bodily fluids

    • B.

      D5W becomes an isotonic solution once it is introduced into the body

    • C.

      Normal saline is the only isotonic solution used in the prehospital setting

    • D.

      Isotonic solutions expand the vascular space by shifting fluid from other compartments

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotonic solutions have almost the same osmolarity as bodily fluids
    Explanation
    Isotonic solutions have almost the same osmolarity as bodily fluids. Osmolarity refers to the concentration of solutes in a solution, and isotonic solutions have a similar concentration of solutes as bodily fluids. This means that when isotonic solutions are administered, there is no net movement of water into or out of the cells, as the osmolarity is balanced. This helps to maintain the normal fluid balance in the body and prevent any adverse effects on cells and tissues.

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  • 16. 

    A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is

    • A.

      Hypotonic until it is introduced into the body

    • B.

      Capable of carrying oxygen when it is infused

    • C.

      Of minimal value in expanding the vascular space

    • D.

      Also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution

    Correct Answer
    D. Also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution
    Explanation
    Normal saline, which is a solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride, is called an isotonic solution because it has the same concentration of solutes as the cells in the body. This means that when normal saline is introduced into the body, it does not cause any net movement of water across the cell membrane, making it compatible with the body's cells and tissues. Additionally, normal saline is capable of carrying oxygen when infused and is often used in medical settings for this purpose. It is also of minimal value in expanding the vascular space, meaning it does not significantly increase blood volume.

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  • 17. 

    It is MOST important to exercise caution when administering isotonic solutions to patients with

    • A.

      Hypotension and severe hypovolemia

    • B.

      Hypertension and congestive heart failure

    • C.

      Dehydration secondary to excessive diarrhea

    • D.

      A history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypertension and congestive heart failure
    Explanation
    Administering isotonic solutions to patients with hypertension and congestive heart failure requires caution because these patients already have high blood pressure and compromised heart function. Isotonic solutions can increase blood volume and potentially worsen hypertension and heart failure. Therefore, careful monitoring and adjustment of fluid administration are necessary to prevent further complications in these patients.

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  • 18. 

    Once 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is infused into the body

    • A.

      The body metabolizes the dextrose quickly and the solution becomes hypotonic

    • B.

      It causes fluid to shift from the intracellular space into the vascular space

    • C.

      Ellular uptake of dextrose occurs and the solution quickly becomes isotonic

    • D.

      It rapidly expands the vascular space and effectively increases blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. The body metabolizes the dextrose quickly and the solution becomes hypotonic
    Explanation
    When 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is infused into the body, the dextrose is metabolized quickly by the body. As a result, the solution becomes hypotonic, meaning it has a lower concentration of solutes compared to the intracellular fluid. This causes fluid to shift from the intracellular space into the vascular space, leading to an increase in blood volume. The rapid cellular uptake of dextrose also occurs, causing the solution to quickly become isotonic, meaning it has the same concentration of solutes as the intracellular fluid. This rapid expansion of the vascular space effectively increases blood pressure.

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  • 19. 

    Hypotonic solutions

    • A.

      Include normal saline and lactated Ringer's solution

    • B.

      Draw fluid from the cells and into the vascular space

    • C.

      Hydrate the cells while depleting the vascular compartment

    • D.

      Are the preferred solutions to use in patients with head trauma

    Correct Answer
    C. Hydrate the cells while depleting the vascular compartment
    Explanation
    Hypotonic solutions like normal saline and lactated Ringer's solution have a lower concentration of solutes compared to the cells. When these solutions are administered, they draw fluid from the cells and into the vascular space, causing the cells to become hydrated while depleting the vascular compartment. This can be beneficial in certain situations, such as in patients with head trauma, where reducing brain swelling and maintaining cellular hydration is important.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following questions does the paramedic generally NOT ask himself or herself when determining the most appropriate IV solution to use on a patient

    • A.

      Is the patients condition critical

    • B.

      Will the patient need medications

    • C.

      Has the patient had IV therapy before

    • D.

      Will the patient need fluid replacement

    Correct Answer
    C. Has the patient had IV therapy before
    Explanation
    The paramedic generally does not ask himself or herself if the patient has had IV therapy before when determining the most appropriate IV solution to use. This question is not relevant in the decision-making process because whether or not the patient has had IV therapy before does not impact the choice of IV solution. The paramedic needs to consider the patient's condition, whether the patient will need medications or fluid replacement, and if the patient's condition is critical when determining the appropriate IV solution.

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  • 21. 

    In the prehospital setting, the MOST commonly used IV solutions are

    • A.

      Colloid solutions

    • B.

      Hypotonic crystalloids

    • C.

      Hetastarch and saline

    • D.

      Isotonic crystalloids

    Correct Answer
    D. Isotonic crystalloids
    Explanation
    In the prehospital setting, isotonic crystalloids are the most commonly used IV solutions. Isotonic crystalloids have a similar concentration of solutes as the blood and extracellular fluid, making them compatible with the body's fluid balance. They help to restore and maintain adequate hydration and electrolyte balance. Colloid solutions, hypotonic crystalloids, and hetastarch and saline may also be used in specific situations, but isotonic crystalloids are the preferred choice due to their effectiveness and safety profile.

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  • 22. 

    Once an IV solution is removed from its protective sterile plastic bag, is must be used

    • A.

      Immediately

    • B.

      Within 24 hours

    • C.

      Within 36 hours

    • D.

      Within 48 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. Within 24 hours
    Explanation
    Once an IV solution is removed from its protective sterile plastic bag, it must be used within 24 hours to ensure its safety and effectiveness. This is because once the solution is exposed to air and other contaminants, the risk of bacterial growth and contamination increases over time. Using the solution within 24 hours helps to minimize this risk and ensure that the patient receives a safe and effective treatment.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements regarding intraosseous (IO) cannulation and infusion is MOST correct

    • A.

      The IO space remains patent, even when peripheral veins have collapsed

    • B.

      The IO route is reserved for select medications and certain blood products

    • C.

      IO infusion should only be attempted in children younger than 6 years of age

    • D.

      Medication absorption occurs more slowly through the IO space than through the IV route

    Correct Answer
    A. The IO space remains patent, even when peripheral veins have collapsed
    Explanation
    The IO space remains patent, even when peripheral veins have collapsed. This means that even if the peripheral veins are not accessible or have collapsed, the IO route can still be used for medication administration or fluid infusion. IO cannulation involves inserting a needle directly into the bone marrow, allowing for rapid access to the systemic circulation. This method is often used in emergency situations when intravenous access is difficult or not possible.

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  • 24. 

    If a manually inserted intraosseous needle is placed properly in an adult, it should

    • A.

      Not require a pressure infuser

    • B.

      Be easily removable in the bone

    • C.

      Rest and a 45 degree angle to the bone

    • D.

      Rest at a 90 degree angle to the bone

    Correct Answer
    D. Rest at a 90 degree angle to the bone
    Explanation
    When a manually inserted intraosseous needle is placed properly in an adult, it should rest at a 90 degree angle to the bone. This position ensures that the needle is securely inserted into the bone marrow, allowing for effective delivery of fluids or medications. Placing the needle at a 45 degree angle may not provide optimal access to the bone marrow, while the use of a pressure infuser is not necessary if the needle is correctly positioned. Additionally, the needle should not be easily removable in order to maintain a stable and secure access point.

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  • 25. 

    The site MOST commonly used for inserting an intraosseous needle is the

    • A.

      Manubrium of the sternum

    • B.

      Medial malleolus of the leg

    • C.

      Flat bone of the proximal tibia

    • D.

      Tibial tuberosity below the knee

    Correct Answer
    C. Flat bone of the proximal tibia
    Explanation
    The flat bone of the proximal tibia is the most commonly used site for inserting an intraosseous needle. This is because the proximal tibia provides a large, flat surface that is easily accessible and has a good blood supply. Additionally, the tibia is a weight-bearing bone, which makes it more stable for needle insertion compared to other sites.

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  • 26. 

    Medical control orders you to administer 500 mL of normal saline over 1 hour to your patient. You have a macrodrip administration set that allows 15 gtts/min should you set the IV flow rate

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      110

    • C.

      125

    • D.

      150

    Correct Answer
    C. 125
    Explanation
    To administer 500 mL of normal saline over 1 hour using a macrodrip administration set that allows 15 gtts/min, you need to calculate the flow rate in gtts/min. The formula for calculating flow rate is volume (in mL) divided by time (in minutes), which gives you 500 mL/60 min = 8.33 mL/min. Since the administration set allows 15 gtts/min, you can convert the flow rate from mL/min to gtts/min by multiplying it by the drop factor (gtts/mL), which is 15 gtts/mL. Therefore, 8.33 mL/min x 15 gtts/mL = 124.95 gtts/min, which can be rounded up to 125 gtts/min.

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  • 27. 

    A severely burned patient requires 4,500 mL of isotonic crystalloid solution over 8 hours, so medical control orders you to begin the infusion in the field, If your administration set allows 10 gtts/mL, at how many gtts/min will you set the IV flow rate in order to deliver the order amount of fluid

    • A.

      76

    • B.

      84

    • C.

      88

    • D.

      94

    Correct Answer
    D. 94
    Explanation
    To determine the IV flow rate in gtts/min, we need to calculate the total number of drops required to deliver 4,500 mL over 8 hours. First, we convert 8 hours to minutes by multiplying it by 60, resulting in 480 minutes. Then, we divide the total volume (4,500 mL) by the administration set (10 gtts/mL) to find the total number of drops required, which is 45,000 gtts. Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the total time in minutes (480) to get the flow rate in gtts/min, which is approximately 94. Therefore, the correct answer is 94.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following represents the appropriate metric units of weight from largest to smallest

    • A.

      G,kg,microg,mg

    • B.

      Kg,g,mg,microg

    • C.

      Mg,g,microg,kg,

    • D.

      Kg,mg,g,microg

    Correct Answer
    B. Kg,g,mg,microg
    Explanation
    The appropriate metric units of weight from largest to smallest are kilogram (kg), gram (g), milligram (mg), and microgram (microg). The kilogram is the largest unit, followed by the gram, milligram, and microgram, which is the smallest unit.

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  • 29. 

    A 130 lb patient weighs______kilograms

    • A.

      49

    • B.

      55

    • C.

      59

    • D.

      62

    Correct Answer
    C. 59
    Explanation
    To convert pounds to kilograms, we divide the weight in pounds by 2.2046. In this case, dividing 130 pounds by 2.2046 gives us approximately 58.96 kilograms, which can be rounded up to 59 kilograms. Therefore, the correct answer is 59.

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  • 30. 

    Your protocols call for you to administer 5 mg of diazepam (Valium) to a patient who is seizing. You have a 10 mL vial of valium that contains 10 mg. How many mL will you give

    • A.

      0.5 mL

    • B.

      5 mL

    • C.

      0.25 mL

    • D.

      10 mL

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 mL
    Explanation
    The 10 mL vial of Valium contains 10 mg of the medication. The protocols call for administering 5 mg of diazepam to the patient. To determine how many mL to give, we can set up a proportion: 10 mg is to 10 mL as 5 mg is to x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get 10x = 50, and dividing both sides by 10, we find that x = 5 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 mL.

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  • 31. 

    A 2 y/o girl in cardiac arrest require epinephrine at a dose of 0.01 mg/kg. The mother tells you that her daughter weighs about 25 lbs. How much epinephrine will you administer.

    • A.

      0.1 mg

    • B.

      0.15 mg

    • C.

      0.01 mg

    • D.

      0.2 mg

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.1 mg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.1 mg because the question states that the girl requires a dose of 0.01 mg/kg. Since the girl weighs about 25 lbs, we need to convert her weight to kilograms by dividing it by 2.2 (since 1 kg is approximately 2.2 lbs). 25 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg = 11.36 kg. Multiplying her weight by the dose (0.01 mg/kg) gives us 0.01 mg/kg * 11.36 kg = 0.1136 mg. Rounding to the nearest tenth, we get 0.1 mg. Therefore, we would administer 0.1 mg of epinephrine.

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  • 32. 

    Prior to administering a medication to any patient, the paramedic should

    • A.

      Inquire about drug allergies

    • B.

      Repeat the initial assessment

    • C.

      Always contact medical control

    • D.

      Perform a detailed physical exam

    Correct Answer
    A. Inquire about drug allergies
    Explanation
    Before administering medication to any patient, it is important for the paramedic to inquire about drug allergies. This is crucial to ensure the safety of the patient and prevent any potential adverse reactions or complications. By asking about drug allergies, the paramedic can identify if the patient has any known allergies or sensitivities to certain medications, allowing them to make informed decisions and choose appropriate medications that will not cause harm to the patient. This step is essential in providing quality care and minimizing the risk of allergic reactions.

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  • 33. 

    A drug that is contraindicated for a particular patient 

    • A.

      Will likely result in immediate death

    • B.

      Is usually given at half its usual dose

    • C.

      Should be given with extreme caution

    • D.

      Should not be administered to the patient

    Correct Answer
    D. Should not be administered to the patient
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "should not be administered to the patient." If a drug is contraindicated for a particular patient, it means that the drug is not safe or suitable for that individual due to factors such as allergies, medical conditions, or potential interactions with other medications. Therefore, administering the drug to the patient can lead to harmful or even fatal consequences.

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  • 34. 

    In contrast to an antiseptic, a disinfectant is

    • A.

      Toxic to living tissues and should never be used on a patient

    • B.

      Capable of destroying pathogens but is not toxic to living tissues

    • C.

      Not intended to be used on nondisposable patient care equipment

    • D.

      Used to cleanse an area before performing an invasive procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Toxic to living tissues and should never be used on a patient
    Explanation
    A disinfectant is toxic to living tissues and should never be used on a patient because its purpose is to destroy pathogens, not to be applied directly to the body. Disinfectants are typically used to cleanse surfaces, equipment, or non-living objects in order to reduce the risk of infection. However, they can be harmful to living tissues and may cause irritation, damage, or adverse reactions if applied to the skin or mucous membranes. Therefore, they should be used with caution and only as directed, avoiding direct contact with patients.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements regarding sharps containers is MOST correct?

    • A.

      There should be at least one sharps container in the back of an ambulance

    • B.

      A small sharps container is ideal for carrying in your cargo pants or pocket

    • C.

      Needles should be placed in a sharps container after patient care is complete

    • D.

      Sharps containers should be puncture-proof and should bear a biohazard logo

    Correct Answer
    D. Sharps containers should be puncture-proof and should bear a biohazard logo
    Explanation
    Sharps containers should be puncture-proof and bear a biohazard logo because this ensures the safe disposal of used needles and other sharp medical instruments. Puncture-proof containers prevent accidental injuries and the biohazard logo indicates the presence of potentially infectious materials. This helps to protect healthcare workers and the general public from the risk of needlestick injuries and the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. It is important to follow proper disposal protocols and use appropriate sharps containers to maintain a safe and hygienic healthcare environment.

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  • 36. 

    Medications rarely are given via the oral route in the prehospital setting because

    • A.

      Toxic levels are reached easily

    • B.

      Absorption via this route is slow

    • C.

      Their onset of action is unpredictable

    • D.

      The patient may aspirate the medication

    Correct Answer
    B. Absorption via this route is slow
    Explanation
    Medications are rarely given orally in the prehospital setting because absorption via this route is slow. This means that the medication takes longer to enter the bloodstream and produce its desired effect. In emergency situations, time is critical, and a slow onset of action can be detrimental to the patient's condition. Therefore, other routes of administration, such as intravenous or intramuscular, are preferred as they allow for faster absorption and a more predictable onset of action.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following medications is appropriate to administer via the rectal route

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      Glucagon

    • C.

      Furosemide

    • D.

      Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    D. Diazepam
    Explanation
    Diazepam is appropriate to administer via the rectal route because it is available in a rectal gel form. Rectal administration is useful when the patient is unable to take the medication orally or intravenously. Diazepam is commonly used for the treatment of seizures, and the rectal route provides a rapid and reliable absorption of the medication.

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  • 38. 

    The______ route is the MOST commonly used medication route in the prehospital setting

    • A.

      Intraosseous

    • B.

      Intravenous

    • C.

      Percutaneous

    • D.

      Intramuscular

    Correct Answer
    B. Intravenous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is intravenous. Intravenous (IV) route is the most commonly used medication route in the prehospital setting. This is because IV administration allows for rapid and direct delivery of medications into the bloodstream, ensuring quick onset of action. It is also a reliable route for administering fluids and medications in emergency situations where oral or other routes may not be feasible or effective. In addition, IV access can be easily obtained and maintained by trained healthcare professionals, making it the preferred route in many emergency medical situations.

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  • 39. 

    When drawing medication from an ampule, you should

    • A.

      Cleanse the rubber stopper with an alcohol prep

    • B.

      Always use a 14 or 16 gauge hypodermic needle

    • C.

      Gently tap the ampule if medication is stuck in the neck

    • D.

      Inject air into the ampule before withdrawing the medication

    Correct Answer
    C. Gently tap the ampule if medication is stuck in the neck
    Explanation
    When drawing medication from an ampule, it is important to gently tap the ampule if medication is stuck in the neck. This helps to dislodge any medication that may be clinging to the sides of the ampule, ensuring that the full dose is withdrawn. Cleansing the rubber stopper with an alcohol prep is not necessary when drawing medication from an ampule, as the medication is already sterile. Using a 14 or 16 gauge hypodermic needle is not always necessary and may depend on the specific medication and patient's needs. Injecting air into the ampule before withdrawing the medication is not a recommended practice.

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  • 40. 

    When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, you should

    • A.

      Pinch the skin over the injection site and insert the needle at a 45 degree angle

    • B.

      Stretch the skin over the injection site and insert the needle at a 90 degree angle

    • C.

      Use a 24 to 26 gauge 1/2" to 1" needle to inject medication into the muscle

    • D.

      Use a 21 gauge needle to inject medication into the fatty tissue of the arm

    Correct Answer
    B. Stretch the skin over the injection site and insert the needle at a 90 degree angle
    Explanation
    When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, it is important to stretch the skin over the injection site and insert the needle at a 90 degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered directly into the muscle, allowing for optimal absorption and effectiveness. By stretching the skin, it provides a taut surface for needle insertion, reducing the risk of injecting into fatty tissue or causing unnecessary pain or injury. Inserting the needle at a 90 degree angle also ensures that the medication is delivered to the correct depth within the muscle, maximizing its therapeutic effects.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements regarding subcutaneous medication administration is MOST correct

    • A.

      A subcutaneous injection involves using a 20 or 21 gauge needle

    • B.

      The needle is inserted at a 90 degree angle during a subcutaneous injection

    • C.

      Volumes of a drug given subcutaneously are typically 1 mL or less

    • D.

      The rectus femoris muscle is a common site for subcutaneous injections

    Correct Answer
    C. Volumes of a drug given subcutaneously are typically 1 mL or less
    Explanation
    Subcutaneous medication administration typically involves administering volumes of a drug that are 1 mL or less. This means that the amount of medication given through subcutaneous injection is usually small. Other routes of administration, such as intramuscular or intravenous, may be used for larger volumes of medication.

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  • 42. 

    After inserting the needle during an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, but before delivering the medication, you should

    • A.

      Ensure that you stretch the skin taunt

    • B.

      Inquire about any medication allergies

    • C.

      Look in the barrel of the syringe for blood

    • D.

      Pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood
    Explanation
    Before delivering the medication during an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, it is important to pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood. This step helps to ensure that the needle has not entered a blood vessel. If blood is aspirated into the syringe, it indicates that the needle has punctured a blood vessel, and the medication should not be injected at that site. This step is crucial to prevent accidental injection into a blood vessel, which could lead to adverse effects or complications.

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  • 43. 

    The intravenous(IV) route is the fastest route of medication administration because

    • A.

      Veins do not collapse during hypoperfusion

    • B.

      It bypasses most barriers to drug absorption

    • C.

      Medications immediately enter the right atrium

    • D.

      Blood pressure expedites absorption of the drug

    Correct Answer
    B. It bypasses most barriers to drug absorption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "it bypasses most barriers to drug absorption." When medication is administered intravenously, it is directly injected into the bloodstream, bypassing the need for absorption through the gastrointestinal tract or other barriers. This allows the medication to quickly reach its target and take effect faster compared to other routes of administration.

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  • 44. 

    Neither subcutaneous nor intramuscular injections should be given to patients 

    • A.

      With inadequate peripheral perfusion

    • B.

      Who are morbidly obese or very thin

    • C.

      Who require less than 5 mL or a drug

    • D.

      With a systolic BP greater than 140 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. With inadequate peripheral perfusion
    Explanation
    Patients with inadequate peripheral perfusion should not be given subcutaneous or intramuscular injections. Inadequate peripheral perfusion means that there is poor blood flow to the extremities, which can interfere with the absorption and distribution of the medication. Subcutaneous and intramuscular injections rely on good blood flow to ensure proper absorption and distribution of the drug. Therefore, it is important to avoid these types of injections in patients with inadequate peripheral perfusion to ensure that the medication is effective.

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  • 45. 

    When administering a drug via IV bolus, you are giving the drug

    • A.

      Slowly

    • B.

      Rapidly

    • C.

      Over time

    • D.

      In one mass

    Correct Answer
    D. In one mass
    Explanation
    When administering a drug via IV bolus, you are giving the drug in one mass. This means that the entire dose of the drug is delivered into the bloodstream all at once, rather than slowly or over time. This method allows for a rapid and immediate effect of the drug, as it quickly reaches therapeutic levels in the body.

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  • 46. 

    Failure to pinch the tubing proximal to the injection port when administering a drug via the IV bolus route will

    • A.

      Cause the medication to center the patient's central circulation rapidly

    • B.

      Result in too much of the medication entering the patient's circulation

    • C.

      Cause the medication to flow up the tubing and away from the patient

    • D.

      Negate the need to follow the IV bolus with a 20 mL normal saline flush

    Correct Answer
    B. Result in too much of the medication entering the patient's circulation
    Explanation
    Failure to pinch the tubing proximal to the injection port when administering a drug via the IV bolus route can result in too much of the medication entering the patient's circulation. This occurs because without pinching the tubing, the medication may flow freely into the bloodstream without being adequately diluted, potentially leading to adverse effects or overdose. It is essential to control the flow of medication during IV bolus administration to ensure patient safety and proper dosage delivery.

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  • 47. 

    When administering sublingual nitroglycerin to a patient, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT

    • A.

      Instruct the patient to chew and swallow the tablet

    • B.

      Perform a focused history and physical examination

    • C.

      Ensure that the patient's mucous membranes are moist

    • D.

      Thoroughly assess the patient for any transdermal patches

    Correct Answer
    A. Instruct the patient to chew and swallow the tablet
    Explanation
    When administering sublingual nitroglycerin, it is important to place the tablet under the patient's tongue and allow it to dissolve. Chewing and swallowing the tablet would prevent the medication from being absorbed properly. Performing a focused history and physical examination is necessary to assess the patient's condition and determine the appropriateness of nitroglycerin administration. Ensuring the patient's mucous membranes are moist helps with the absorption of the medication. Thoroughly assessing the patient for any transdermal patches is important to avoid potential drug interactions.

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  • 48. 

    The most common inhaled medication is

    • A.

      Alupent

    • B.

      Oxygen

    • C.

      Ventolin

    • D.

      Bronkosol

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygen
    Explanation
    The most common inhaled medication is oxygen because it is a vital gas that is often administered to patients with respiratory difficulties. Oxygen therapy helps to increase the oxygen levels in the blood, improving breathing and overall oxygenation of the body. While Alupent, Ventolin, and Bronkosol are also inhaled medications, they are specifically used for treating respiratory conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), whereas oxygen is a general therapy used in various medical settings.

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  • 49. 

    Medication routes, from slowest to fastest rates of absorption, are

    • A.

      Subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous

    • B.

      Intramuscular, sublingual, subcutaneous, intravenous, inhalation

    • C.

      Intravenous, inhalation, sublingual, suncutaneous, intramuscular

    • D.

      Subcutaneous, sublingual, inhalation, intramuscular, intravenous

    Correct Answer
    A. Subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous
    Explanation
    The answer "subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous" is correct because it lists the medication routes in order from slowest to fastest rates of absorption. Subcutaneous administration involves injecting the medication into the fatty tissue beneath the skin, which results in slower absorption. Intramuscular administration involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue, which allows for faster absorption compared to subcutaneous. Sublingual administration involves placing the medication under the tongue, where it is rapidly absorbed through the mucous membranes. Inhalation administration involves inhaling the medication into the lungs, which allows for quick absorption through the respiratory system. Intravenous administration involves injecting the medication directly into the bloodstream, resulting in the fastest absorption rate.

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  • 50. 

    An elderly man with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath require and IV line in case medication administration is necessary. Which of the following IV catheters is MOST appropriate to use when starting the IV.

    • A.

      20 gauge 1 1/4"

    • B.

      18 gauge 2 1/4"

    • C.

      16 gauge 1 1/4"

    • D.

      14 gauge 2 1/4"

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 gauge 1 1/4"
    Explanation
    The most appropriate IV catheter to use when starting the IV for an elderly man with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath is the 20 gauge 1 1/4" catheter. This size is suitable for most medication administration and is less likely to cause complications such as infiltration or phlebitis. Using a smaller gauge catheter may be more difficult to administer medications quickly, while using a larger gauge catheter may increase the risk of complications. Therefore, the 20 gauge 1 1/4" catheter strikes a balance between ease of administration and minimizing complications.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jbouren
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