3d052 Vol 2 Ure

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| By KrownedK

KrownedK

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 107

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 107 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

(201) What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?
- A.
  
  Random access memory (RAM).
- B.
  
  Read only memory (ROM).
- C.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- D.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
Correct Answer
A. Random access memory (RAM).

Explanation
Random access memory (RAM) is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is responsible for temporarily storing data that the computer is actively using. Unlike other types of memory such as ROM, BIOS, or CMOS, RAM can be both read from and written to, making it ideal for storing and accessing data quickly. It allows the computer to quickly retrieve and manipulate data, which is essential for running programs and performing tasks efficiently.

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2.

(201) Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM).
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

Explanation
The correct answer is Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS). CMOS is a type of semiconductor chip that is commonly used in computers and other electronic devices. It is highly susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because it contains very small and delicate components. ESD occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical charges. This discharge can cause permanent damage to the CMOS chip, rendering it inoperable. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS chips with caution and take proper ESD precautions to prevent damage.

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3.

(201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM).
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Read only memory (ROM).

Explanation
Nonvolatile permanent memory refers to a type of memory that retains its data even when power is turned off. Among the options provided, Read only memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory. ROM is a type of memory that stores data permanently and cannot be modified or erased. It contains firmware or software instructions that are required for booting up a computer or electronic device. ROM retains its data even when the power is turned off, making it a nonvolatile permanent memory.

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4.

(201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?
- A.
  
  Cache.
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
B. Basic input/output system (BIOS).

Explanation
The correct answer is "Basic input/output system (BIOS)". BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing hardware components and loading the operating system. It is typically stored on a chip on the computer's motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is powered on.

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5.

(202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
- A.
  
  Cache.
- B.
  
  Buffer.
- C.
  
  Interface.
- D.
  
  Interrupt.
Correct Answer
D. Interrupt.

Explanation
An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism used by hardware devices to communicate with the CPU, allowing them to request immediate attention or notify the CPU of an event. Interrupts are used to handle time-sensitive tasks and ensure efficient communication between hardware devices and the CPU.

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6.

(202) Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
- A.
  
  Disk request.
- B.
  
  Utility resource.
- C.
  
  Priority interrupt.
- D.
  
  Integrated resource.
Correct Answer
C. Priority interrupt.

Explanation
The correct answer is priority interrupt. In a computer system, a priority interrupt is a signal that is sent to the CPU from a controller component to request immediate attention. The priority interrupt is used to interrupt the normal execution of the CPU and prioritize the execution of a specific task or process. This allows for important tasks or processes to be given higher priority and ensures that they are executed in a timely manner.

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7.

(202) Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
- A.
  
  2.
- B.
  
  4.
- C.
  
  6.
- D.
  
  8.
Correct Answer
C. 6.

Explanation
IRQ line number 6 is normally used for the floppy disk controller. The floppy disk controller is a device that manages the reading and writing of data to a floppy disk. IRQ lines are used to signal the CPU when a device needs attention or when a specific event occurs. IRQ line 6 is typically assigned to the floppy disk controller, allowing it to communicate with the CPU and perform its functions effectively.

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8.

(202) Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
- A.
  
  Driver.
- B.
  
  Parity bit.
- C.
  
  Data integrity.
- D.
  
  Error correction.
Correct Answer
C. Data integrity.

Explanation
Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data is complete, accurate, and reliable, without any errors or inconsistencies. It involves measures such as data validation, error checking, and encryption to maintain the integrity of data. Therefore, data integrity is the term used to describe that data is whole or complete.

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9.

(202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
- A.
  
  Fault.
- B.
  
  Parity.
- C.
  
  Interrupt.
- D.
  
  Asynchronous.
Correct Answer
B. Parity.

Explanation
Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. Parity involves adding an extra bit to a group of bits to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. This extra bit is used to detect errors during transmission or storage of data. By comparing the parity bit with the received data, errors can be detected and corrected. Therefore, parity is an effective method for ensuring data integrity.

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10.

(202) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
- A.
  
  Interrupt.
- B.
  
  Parity bit.
- C.
  
  Asynchronous.
- D.
  
  Data integrity.
Correct Answer
B. Parity bit.

Explanation
A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit that is added to a group of bits to make the total number of ones either even or odd. When the data is received, the parity bit is checked to ensure that the number of ones is consistent with the chosen parity (even or odd). If the number of ones does not match, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, a parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code.

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11.

(203) What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?
- A.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS).
- B.
  
  Storage area network (SAN).
- C.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
- D.
  
  Array storage.
Correct Answer
B. Storage area network (SAN).

Explanation
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. SANs provide block-level access to storage over a high-speed network, allowing multiple servers to access the storage devices simultaneously. This centralized storage architecture offers improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to other storage solutions like Network Attached Storage (NAS) or Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID). Array storage refers to a collection of storage devices, but it does not specifically address the concept of utilizing them as if they were physically connected to a server.

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12.

(203) What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
- A.
  
  Ease of replacing the hard drive.
- B.
  
  Ease of replacing network connectivity.
- C.
  
  Ease of replacing server.
- D.
  
  Multiple users can access the server at once.
Correct Answer
C. Ease of replacing server.

Explanation
Using a storage area network (SAN) architecture provides the advantage of ease of replacing the server. In a SAN, the storage resources are separate from the servers, allowing for easier replacement or upgrade of servers without affecting the storage infrastructure. This means that if a server fails or needs to be upgraded, it can be done without disrupting the storage system or impacting the availability of data. This flexibility and scalability make SAN architecture a preferred choice for organizations that require high availability and easy server maintenance.

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13.

(203) What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
- A.
  
  Fibre channel.
- B.
  
  ATA over Ethernet (AoE).
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI).
- D.
  
  Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI)
Correct Answer
A. Fibre channel.

Explanation
Fibre channel is the preferred connection type for storage area networks (SAN). Fibre channel provides high-speed, reliable, and scalable connectivity for SANs. It allows for the transfer of large amounts of data between servers and storage devices, ensuring efficient and secure data storage and retrieval. ATA over Ethernet (AoE) is a protocol used for connecting storage devices over Ethernet networks, but it is not commonly used in SANs. Small computer system interface (SCSI) and internet small computer system interface (iSCSI) are also used for SAN connectivity, but fibre channel is generally considered the most suitable choice due to its performance and robustness.

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14.

(203) Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN).
- B.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
- C.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS).
- D.
  
  RHD.
Correct Answer
C. Network attached storage (NAS).

Explanation
Network attached storage (NAS) is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. It allows multiple users to access and share files over a network, making it a convenient solution for centralized storage and file sharing in a network environment. Unlike Storage area network (SAN), which is a separate network dedicated to storage, NAS devices are directly connected to the existing network infrastructure. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) and RHD are not relevant to the question and do not fulfill the requirement of being easily connected to a network and appearing as a network drive.

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15.

(204) Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN).
- B.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS).
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI).
- D.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
Correct Answer
D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).

Explanation
RAID is a storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to provide data storage reliability. It combines the drives into a single logical unit, distributing data across the drives in different ways to ensure redundancy and improve performance. By using techniques such as mirroring and striping, RAID can protect against data loss in case of drive failure and provide faster access to data. Therefore, RAID is the storage device that offers data storage reliability using multiple hard drives.

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16.

(204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as
- A.
  
  One single hard drive.
- B.
  
  A collection of hard drives.
- C.
  
  A single RAID array.
- D.
  
  A single RAID array.
Correct Answer
A. One single hard drive.

Explanation
The correct answer is one single hard drive. In a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, multiple hard drives are combined to appear as a single hard drive to the server. This is done through a technique called disk striping, where data is divided and distributed across the drives in the array. The server sees and interacts with the RAID array as if it were a single drive, providing increased performance, fault tolerance, and storage capacity.

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17.

(204) Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?
- A.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI).
- B.
  
  Serial attached (SAS) SCSI.
- C.
  
  Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA).
- D.
  
  Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe).
Correct Answer
A. Small computer system interface (SCSI).

Explanation
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI allows multiple devices to be connected in a chain, with each device having its own unique identifier. This allows for easy expansion and scalability in RAID arrays, as additional disks can be added to the chain without disrupting the existing setup. SCSI also offers high data transfer rates and supports multiple devices on a single bus, making it a suitable technology for RAID arrays.

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18.

(205) Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
- A.
  
  They are nearly self-documenting.
- B.
  
  They use English-like statements.
- C.
  
  Source codes that are written closest to machine language.
- D.
  
  Programs are transportable between computers with few changes.
Correct Answer
C. Source codes that are written closest to machine language.

Explanation
High-order languages are known for being nearly self-documenting, using English-like statements, and allowing programs to be easily transportable between computers with few changes. However, source codes that are written closest to machine language are not a characteristic of high-order languages. High-order languages are designed to be more abstract and user-friendly, allowing programmers to focus on problem-solving rather than low-level details of the machine.

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19.

(205) What best describes programming machine code?
- A.
  
  Another term for firmware.
- B.
  
  Statements that correspond to complex actions.
- C.
  
  Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer.
- D.
  
  Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer.
Correct Answer
C. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer.

Explanation
Programming machine code refers to instructions that are written in a format that can be understood and executed by a computer. These instructions are in a low-level language that directly corresponds to the hardware and architecture of the computer. It is the most basic form of programming and is often used to control the behavior of a computer at the lowest level. Therefore, "Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer" best describes programming machine code.

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20.

(206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?
- A.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML).
- C.
  
  HyperText Markup Language (HTML).
- D.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML).
Correct Answer
C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML).

Explanation
HTML is the correct answer because it is a set of markup symbols or codes that are used to structure content on a web page. HTML tags are inserted into a file to define elements such as headings, paragraphs, links, images, and more. These tags are interpreted by web browsers to display the content in a formatted manner. SGML, XML, and DHTML are also markup languages, but they are not specifically designed for display on a web browser page.

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21.

(206) Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
- A.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML).
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML).
- C.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).
- D.
  
  Extensible HTML (XHTML).
Correct Answer
D. Extensible HTML (XHTML).

Explanation
XHTML is the most likely web application to succeed HTML because it is an extended version of HTML that combines the features of HTML and XML. It is stricter and more standardized than HTML, making it easier for web developers to create consistent and well-structured web pages. Additionally, XHTML is compatible with XML, which allows for better integration with other web technologies and makes it more future-proof.

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22.

(206) A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a
- A.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS).
- B.
  
  Common gateway interface (CGI).
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES).
- D.
  
  Public key infrastructure (PKI).
Correct Answer
B. Common gateway interface (CGI).

Explanation
A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a common gateway interface (CGI). CGI is a protocol that allows the web server to communicate with external programs or scripts, enabling dynamic content generation. It acts as an intermediary between the user's request and the server's application program, facilitating the exchange of data between them. TLS, DES, and PKI are not directly related to this specific functionality of passing user requests and exchanging data in a web application.

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23.

(206) Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?
- A.
  
  Secure socket layer (SSL).
- B.
  
  Public key infrastructure (PKI).
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES).
- D.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS).
Correct Answer
A. Secure socket layer (SSL).

Explanation
SSL (Secure Socket Layer) is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL provides a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server, ensuring that the data transmitted between them remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. It uses cryptographic protocols to authenticate the server and establish an encrypted connection, preventing eavesdropping, tampering, and forgery of data. SSL has been widely adopted and is used in various applications such as web browsing, email, and file transfers to ensure secure communication over the Internet.

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24.

(207) Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
- A.
  
  Check disk.
- B.
  
  Disk quotas.
- C.
  
  Disk defragmenter.
- D.
  
  Task scheduler.
Correct Answer
D. Task scheduler.

Explanation
Task scheduler is a program that can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule. It allows users to schedule tasks such as running programs, scripts, or commands at specific times or on specific events. This feature is particularly useful for automating repetitive tasks, managing system maintenance, and improving overall efficiency. Disk quotas, disk defragmenter, and check disk are not programs that have the capability to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule.

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25.

(207) Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
- A.
  
  Check disk.
- B.
  
  Disk quotas.
- C.
  
  Task scheduler.
- D.
  
  Disk defragmenter.
Correct Answer
A. Check disk.

Explanation
Check disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system for any inconsistencies or corruption and fixes them if possible. It helps in detecting and repairing issues related to bad sectors, file system errors, and other disk-related problems. Disk quotas, task scheduler, and disk defragmenter do not have the same functionality as check disk and are not specifically designed for monitoring file system errors.

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26.

(208) Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
- A.
  
  Least significant digit (LSD).
- B.
  
  Most significant digit (MSD).
- C.
  
  Exponent.
- D.
  
  Radix.
Correct Answer
B. Most significant digit (MSD).

Explanation
The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value is the most significant digit (MSD). This digit holds the most weight and contributes the most to the value of the number. It is the digit that represents the largest place value in the number.

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27.

(209) What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
- A.
  
  Preventive controls.
- B.
  
  List of critical devices.
- C.
  
  Recovery strategies.
- D.
  
  Emergency action plans.
Correct Answer
B. List of critical devices.

Explanation
Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps in identifying the most important devices that need to be protected and ensures that appropriate preventive controls, recovery strategies, and emergency action plans are in place for these devices. By having a clear understanding of the critical devices, organizations can effectively allocate resources and prioritize their efforts to minimize the impact of disasters on their systems.

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28.

(210) Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?
- A.
  
  Incremental.
- B.
  
  Differential.
- C.
  
  Daily.
- D.
  
  Normal.
Correct Answer
D. Normal.

Explanation
At the end of the week, a normal backup would be used to save all the selected data on the systems. A normal backup involves backing up all the selected data regardless of whether it has been modified or not. This ensures that a complete copy of all the data is saved and can be restored if needed. Incremental backups only save the data that has changed since the last backup, differential backups save all the data that has changed since the last normal backup, and daily backups save all the data that has changed within a day.

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29.

(210) Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
- A.
  
  Daily.
- B.
  
  Normal.
- C.
  
  Incremental.
- D.
  
  Differential.
Correct Answer
A. Daily.

Explanation
A daily backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours. This type of backup is performed on a daily basis and includes all the files that have been modified or created since the last backup. It ensures that the most recent changes are backed up regularly, providing an up-to-date copy of the data.

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30.

(211) What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?
- A.
  
  Active directory.
- B.
  
  Domains manager.
- C.
  
  Domain name service (DNS).
- D.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
Correct Answer
A. Active directory.

Explanation
Active Directory is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network. It is a service provided by Microsoft Windows operating systems to manage and organize network resources. The directory database stores information about users, groups, computers, and other network objects. It allows administrators to centrally manage and control access to resources, enforce security policies, and distribute software and updates across the network.

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31.

(211) What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?
- A.
  
  Domain.
- B.
  
  Forest.
- C.
  
  Schema.
- D.
  
  Tree.
Correct Answer
A. Domain.

Explanation
A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. In a domain, all user accounts, computer accounts, and security policies are managed centrally by a domain controller. This allows for centralized authentication and authorization, making it easier to manage and secure resources within the domain. A domain also provides a hierarchical structure, allowing for the organization of resources into logical units.

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32.

(211) Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers.
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS) servers.
- C.
  
  Domain controllers.
- D.
  
  Global catalog servers.
Correct Answer
C. Domain controllers.

Explanation
A copy of the active directory database resides on domain controllers. Domain controllers are servers that store and manage the active directory database, which contains information about users, groups, computers, and other resources in a Windows domain. The active directory database is replicated across multiple domain controllers in order to provide fault tolerance and ensure that the information is available even if one domain controller fails. Therefore, domain controllers are the correct answer as they are responsible for hosting the active directory database.

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33.

(211) What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
- B.
  
  Domain controller.
- C.
  
  Global catalog.
- D.
  
  Member.
Correct Answer
C. Global catalog.

Explanation
A global catalog server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It is a domain controller that stores a partial replica of all objects in the directory for its own domain and a partial replica of all objects in the directory for every other domain in the forest. This allows for faster and more efficient searches across the entire forest, as the global catalog contains a subset of attributes for every object in the forest.

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34.

(211) What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?
- A.
  
  Access control lists.
- B.
  
  Access policy objects.
- C.
  
  Group policy objects.
- D.
  
  Group rules sets.
Correct Answer
C. Group policy objects.

Explanation
Group policy objects are a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user. These objects allow administrators to manage and enforce various settings, such as security settings, software installation, and user preferences, across a network. By applying group policy objects, administrators can ensure consistent and centralized control over the configuration and behavior of user accounts and computers in an active directory environment.

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35.

(212) Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
- A.
  
  Command line interface.
- B.
  
  Graphical user interface.
- C.
  
  Menu driven interface.
- D.
  
  Palo Alto Research Center user interface.
Correct Answer
B. Graphical user interface.

Explanation
A graphical user interface is considered friendlier for the average user to use because it provides visual elements such as icons, menus, and windows that make it easier to navigate and interact with the computer system. Unlike command line interfaces that require users to type specific commands, a graphical user interface allows users to perform tasks by simply clicking on icons or using drag-and-drop functionality. This makes it more intuitive and user-friendly, especially for individuals who may not be familiar with complex computer commands.

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36.

(212) Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?
- A.
  
  Windows.
- B.
  
  Icons.
- C.
  
  Menus.
- D.
  
  Programs.
Correct Answer
D. Programs.

Explanation
Most graphical user interfaces are composed of windows, icons, and menus. Programs, on the other hand, are not an element of the graphical user interface itself, but rather the software applications that run within the interface. While programs may be accessed and interacted with through the interface, they are not considered a fundamental element of the interface itself.

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37.

(212) Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?
- A.
  
  Automatic.
- B.
  
  Attended.
- C.
  
  Unattended.
- D.
  
  Remote.
Correct Answer
B. Attended.

Explanation
Loading a software patch onto a computer while sitting at the computer implies that the user is actively present and involved in the process. This type of software patch is known as an attended patch, where the user manually initiates and monitors the installation process.

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38.

(212) Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
- A.
  
  Automatic.
- B.
  
  Local.
- C.
  
  Manual.
- D.
  
  Unattended.
Correct Answer
D. Unattended.

Explanation
An unattended patch would utilize a remote installation service (RIS) because it allows for the automated installation of software or patches without requiring any user interaction. This means that the patch can be installed remotely without the need for someone to manually initiate the installation process. Therefore, the correct answer is unattended.

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39.

(213) Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?
- A.
  
  Name servers.
- B.
  
  Resolvers.
- C.
  
  Resource records.
- D.
  
  Forward lookup zone.
Correct Answer
A. Name servers.

Explanation
Name servers in the Domain Name System (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses. They are responsible for storing and managing the information that maps domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. Name servers are crucial in the DNS infrastructure as they handle queries from resolvers and provide the necessary information to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Resolvers, on the other hand, are responsible for initiating DNS queries and requesting information from name servers. Resource records are the individual entries in the DNS database that contain information such as IP addresses, domain names, and other related data. Forward lookup zone is a term used in DNS to refer to a zone that maps domain names to IP addresses.

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40.

(213) Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) query.
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS) query.
- C.
  
  Recursive query.
- D.
  
  Non-recursive query
Correct Answer
D. Non-recursive query

Explanation
A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server. In this type of query, the requesting name server asks the other name server for the requested information, but if the second name server does not have the information, it will not attempt to find it from other sources. Instead, it will simply respond with a "not found" message. This type of query is commonly used in DNS resolution processes.

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41.

(214) Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS).
- C.
  
  Active directory (AD).
- D.
  
  DHCP server.
Correct Answer
A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

Explanation
The correct answer is Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). DHCP is a software program that manages the allocation of IP addresses for a network. It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network, eliminating the need for manual configuration. DHCP also handles other network configuration parameters such as subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses. It allows for efficient management and allocation of IP addresses, making it an essential component of network administration.

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42.

(214) The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a
- A.
  
  Pool.
- B.
  
  Range.
- C.
  
  Scope.
- D.
  
  Zone.
Correct Answer
C. Scope.

Explanation
A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages a group of IP addresses known as a scope. This scope represents a range of IP addresses that can be assigned to client devices on a network. The DHCP server is responsible for dynamically allocating and managing these IP addresses within the defined scope.

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43.

(214) What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?
- A.
  
  One.
- B.
  
  Two.
- C.
  
  Three.
- D.
  
  Five.
Correct Answer
A. One.

Explanation
The minimum number of scopes a DHCP server can have is one. A scope refers to a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to devices on a network. A DHCP server needs at least one scope to allocate IP addresses to devices that connect to the network.

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44.

(214) According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
- A.
  
  15 days.
- B.
  
  30 days.
- C.
  
  45 days.
- D.
  
  60 days.
Correct Answer
B. 30 days.

Explanation
According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease applied to them for 30 days. This means that the workstation will be assigned an IP address for a period of 30 days before it needs to be renewed or released.

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45.

(215) What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS).
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS).
- C.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS.
- D.
  
  Web.
Correct Answer
C. Remote installation services (RIS.

Explanation
Remote installation services (RIS) is the correct answer because it allows network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a centralized location. This service simplifies the process of deploying software updates and configurations, saving time and effort for administrators. DNS, IIS, and web services are unrelated to the specific functionality described in the question.

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46.

(216) Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
- A.
  
  FTP server.
- B.
  
  Internet services manager.
- C.
  
  Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP).
- D.
  
  Simple network management protocol (SNMP).
Correct Answer
D. Simple network management protocol (SNMP).

Explanation
SNMP is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server software package developed by Microsoft that provides services for hosting websites, FTP servers, and SMTP servers. SNMP, on the other hand, is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. While it is commonly used in network management, it is not directly related to IIS.

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47.

(217) What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS).
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS).
- C.
  
  Microsoft management console (MMC).
- D.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS).
Correct Answer
C. Microsoft management console (MMC).

Explanation
The correct answer is Microsoft management console (MMC). The MMC is a component of Windows that provides a unified and simplified interface for managing system tasks. It allows users to access and configure various administrative tools and snap-ins in one central location, making it easier to perform day-to-day system management tasks. DNS, IIS, and RIS are not components that specifically unify and simplify system management tasks.

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48.

(217) Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?
- A.
  
  Universal.
- B.
  
  Distribution.
- C.
  
  Security.
- D.
  
  Access.
Correct Answer
C. Security.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Security." This is because the security group is responsible for managing user's rights assignments and access permissions. Security groups are used to grant or deny access to resources such as files, folders, and network shares. They are commonly used in operating systems and network environments to control access to sensitive information and ensure that only authorized users have the necessary permissions to perform certain actions.

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49.

(217) Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?
- A.
  
  Anonymous logon.
- B.
  
  Everyone.
- C.
  
  Network.
- D.
  
  Interactive.
Correct Answer
D. Interactive.

Explanation
The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to grant permissions and control access for interactive users, who are actively using the computer and interacting with the resources on it.

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50.

(218) What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
- A.
  
  Rights.
- B.
  
  Permissions.
- C.
  
  Access control lists.
- D.
  
  Hardware configuration.
Correct Answer
B. Permissions.

Explanation
Permissions define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. They specify what actions can be taken on the resource and by whom. Permissions determine who can read, write, execute, or modify a resource, and they help enforce security and access control policies. Access control lists (ACLs) are often used to manage and assign permissions to users or groups. Hardware configuration, on the other hand, refers to the physical setup and settings of computer hardware, which does not directly define the rules for resource operations.

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Current Version
Mar 22, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Sep 25, 2014

Quiz Created by
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3d052 Vol 2 Ure

(201) What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?

(201) Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

(201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

(201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?

(202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

(202) Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?

(202) Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

(202) Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?

(202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

(202) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

(203) What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?

(203) What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

(203) What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?

(203) Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?

(204) Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?

(204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as

(204) Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?

(205) Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

(205) What best describes programming machine code?

(206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?

(206) Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?

(206) A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a

(206) Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?

(207) Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

(207) Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

(208) Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

(209) What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?

(210) Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?

(210) Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?

(211) What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?

(211) What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?

(211) Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

(211) What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?

(211) What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?

(212) Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

(212) Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?

(212) Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

(212) Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?

(213) Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?

(213) Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

(214) Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?

(214) The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a

(214) What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?

(214) According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?

(215) What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

(216) Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?

(217) What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

(217) Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?

(217) Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?

(218) What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?