Ocular Disease II Mt 3

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Ocular Disease II Mt 3 - Quiz
About This Quiz

- Acquired maculopathies
- Retinal vascular disease
- Management of GLC

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  • 2. 

    According to the OHTS, reducing IOP by 1 mmHg will reduce the risk of GLC progression by ____%

    Explanation
    According to the OHTS (Ocular Hypertension Treatment Study), reducing intraocular pressure (IOP) by 1 mmHg will result in a 10% reduction in the risk of glaucoma progression. This suggests that even a small decrease in IOP can have a significant impact on preventing the progression of glaucoma.

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  • 3. 

    Less than 10% of patients with CSR have permanent vision loss

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    CSR Prognosis:
    - 80-90% spontaneously resolve w/in 1-6 mo (metamorphosias can remain up to 1 year after resolution)
    - 40% have recurrence due to weaker bonds
    - < 10% have permanent vision loss

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  • 4. 

    Narrow angles are a risk factor for POAG

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Narrow angles are risk factor for ACG not POAG

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  • 5. 

    What is the hallmark presentation of ARMD?

    • Hard Exudates

    • CWS

    • Drusen

    • Flame hemes

    Correct Answer
    A. Drusen
    Explanation
    Drusen: malfunctioning RPE deposits ECM; appear as small yellow/white lesions distributed across PP

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  • 6. 

    What is the gold standard to treat wet ARMD?

    • Anti-VEGF intravitreal injections

    • Steroid intravitreal injections

    • Photocoagulation & Photodynamic therapy

    • Combo therapies

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-VEGF intravitreal injections
    Explanation
    Anti-VEGF: treats classic & occult CNVM (Macugen, Lucentis, Avastin)
    Steroids: supportive tx for edema (Triamcinolone)
    Photocoag & PDT: prior tx to destroy BVs & surrounding tissue / destroy only BVs that broke through Bruch's
    Combo: PDT + VEGF

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  • 7. 

    BID dosing of prostaglandins has greater IOP lowering effects than q Day dosing

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    BID dosing actually has less effect than q day dosing

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following GLC meds has the best IOP-lowering during the night time?

    • Beta blockers

    • CAIs

    • Alpha-2 agonists

    Correct Answer
    A. CAIs
    Explanation
    beta blockers have on effect at night, alpha-2 has some effect at night

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  • 9. 

    Metallic taste and stinging upon instillation are the most commonly associated signs/symptoms of Trusopt

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because metallic taste and stinging upon instillation are indeed the most commonly associated signs/symptoms of Trusopt. Trusopt is a medication used to treat glaucoma and ocular hypertension, and these side effects are commonly reported by patients who use this medication. The metallic taste can occur after using Trusopt eye drops, while stinging upon instillation refers to the temporary discomfort or burning sensation that may be experienced when the eye drops are applied.

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  • 10. 

    BRVO is the most common retinal vascular occlusion

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    BRVO, which stands for branch retinal vein occlusion, is indeed the most common type of retinal vascular occlusion. Retinal vascular occlusion refers to the blockage of blood vessels that supply the retina, leading to impaired blood flow and potentially causing vision loss. BRVO specifically occurs when a branch of the retinal vein becomes blocked, usually due to a blood clot. This condition can result in various symptoms, such as blurry vision, visual field loss, and in severe cases, permanent vision loss. Therefore, the statement that BRVO is the most common retinal vascular occlusion is true.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following atherosclerotic changes to retinal vessels has the greatest risk for CRAO/BRVO?

    • Hollenhorst Plaque

    • Fibrinoplatelet Plaque

    • Calcific Plaque

    • Cholesterol Plaque

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcific Plaque
    Explanation
    Hollehorst: chl @ bifurcations; shiny/reflective --> rare risk for obstruction
    Fibrinoplatelet: chl + platelet; whit plug --> greater risk for obstruction
    Calcific: calcified emolus from heart/coronary arteries --> greatest risk for obstruction

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  • 12. 

    The following signs/symptoms are associated with which disease? - Acute onset reduced vision - Scotoma - Metamorphopsia - Afterimages - Hyperopic shift - Prolonged photostress time

    • CSR

    • Epiretinal membrane

    • Wet ARMD

    • Macular holes

    Correct Answer
    A. CSR
    Explanation
    The signs and symptoms listed are commonly associated with Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR). CSR is a condition where fluid accumulates under the retina, causing a sudden reduction in vision. Scotoma refers to a blind spot in the visual field, metamorphopsia is the distortion of vision, afterimages are persistent images seen after the original stimulus is removed, hyperopic shift is a shift towards farsightedness, and prolonged photostress time refers to a delay in recovery from bright light exposure. These symptoms are all characteristic of CSR.

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  • 13. 

    Rubeosis iridis is more common in hemorrhagic CRVO than venous stasis CRVO

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hemorrhagic --> ischemic retinopathy

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following beta blockers would be best for someone with elevated cholesterol levels?

    • Ocupress

    • Timolol XE

    • Betagan

    • Betimol

    Correct Answer
    A. Ocupress
    Explanation
    Ocupress advantages: does not lower HDLs (like timolol), less stinging, less CNS ADEs

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for beta blockers?

    • Heart block

    • Unstable DM

    • Low BP and/or pulse

    • Asthma

    • Anterior uveitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior uveitis
    Explanation
    anterior uveitis contras: miotics & prostaglandins (these increase inflammation)

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  • 16. 

    What would be the best option for a prostaglandin if someone is very sensitive to preservatives?

    • Xalantan

    • Lumigan

    • Zioptan

    • Travatan

    Correct Answer
    A. Zioptan
    Explanation
    Zioptan & Travatan Z don't have BAK

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  • 17. 

    PVD increases the risk of developing a true macular hole

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    PVD reduces the risk of a true macular hole since there will be no vitreal traction pulling on the macula

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  • 18. 

    If IOP lowering is not effective using Travatan, switching to Lumigan may have better results

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Although Travatan & Lumigan are both prostaglandins, pts have variations of PG receptors and Lumigan has a slightly different mechanism that might prove more effective. However, it would not be advised to substitute between Travatan and Xalantan.

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  • 19. 

    If you're seeing a pregnant patient with advanced GLC, what would be the best management for this pt?

    • Stop taking GLC meds for the duration of pregnancy and breast feeding

    • Betoptic S to avoid Beta1 stimulation

    • Alphagan P 0.1%

    • Any CAI

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphagan P 0.1%
    Explanation
    Ideally a pregnant woman would not be taking any medications, however if they need GLC meds to preserve vision, as in the case of advanced GLC, alphagan P 0.1% is the best option

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  • 20. 

    Hard drusen represent localized areas of RPE detachment

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Hard Drusen: small, well-defined yellow deposits deep in retina; overlying RPE appears depigmented
    --> VA no reduced + Amsler normal
    Soft Drusen: larger, fluffy, yellow deposits; localized zones of RPE detachment
    --> VA reduced + Amsler abnormal

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  • 21. 

    If your pt has unilateral wet ARMD, what are the chances wet ARMD will appear in other eye?

    • 2%

    • 10%

    • 50%

    • 65%

    Correct Answer
    A. 50%
    Explanation
    If a patient has unilateral wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD), it means that only one eye is affected by this condition. The question asks about the chances of wet ARMD appearing in the other eye. Since wet ARMD can affect both eyes, the answer of 50% suggests that there is an equal likelihood of the condition appearing in the other eye. Therefore, there is a 50% chance of wet ARMD appearing in the other eye of a patient with unilateral wet ARMD.

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  • 22. 

    Part of Lumigan's MOA is reducing aqueous production.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Lumigan actually increases aq production by 14%
    But it increase TM outflow by 30% and US OF by 50% so overall lowers IOP

    CAI MOA: reduce aqueous production

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  • 23. 

    If a patient has CSR that does not get better after 4 monthes, experiences recurrent episodes, has secondary CNVM, what would be the recommended management?

    • Continue monthly f/u for 1 year

    • Anti-VEGF injections

    • Argon laser photocoagulation

    • PRP

    Correct Answer
    A. Argon laser photocoagulation
    Explanation
    Argon laser photocoag for tx of CSR:
    - purpose to seal leak
    - decreases time course of resolvement
    - does NOT improve prognosis

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following GLC drugs is associated with reactivation of HSV keratitis?

    • Xalantan

    • Timolol

    • Trusopt

    • Travatan Z

    Correct Answer
    A. Xalantan
    Explanation
    Xalantan can cause pseudodendrites & reactivation of HSV keratitis

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  • 25. 

    Indicate all the contraindications for use of Pilocarpine

    • Youth & Elderly

    • Corneal endothelial dysfunction

    • Axial PSC

    • CHF

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Youth & Elderly
    A. Axial PSC
    Explanation
    Corneal endothelial dysfuncion --> avoid CAIs
    CHF --> avoid beta blockers

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following undergo systemic crossover?

    • Beta Blockers

    • Prostaglandins

    • Miotics

    • Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonsits

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Beta Blockers
    A. Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonsits
    Explanation
    Beta blockers and alpha-2 adrenergic agonists undergo systemic crossover. Systemic crossover refers to the ability of a drug to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert its effects centrally in the brain. Beta blockers are commonly used to treat cardiovascular conditions and they can also cross the blood-brain barrier, leading to central effects such as reducing anxiety and tremors. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists, on the other hand, can also cross the blood-brain barrier and act centrally to reduce sympathetic outflow, resulting in sedation and analgesia. Prostaglandins and miotics do not typically undergo systemic crossover as they primarily act locally in specific tissues or organs.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following prostaglandins has the fewest ocular & systemic side effects?

    • Zioptan

    • Travatan

    • Lumigan

    • Xalantan

    Correct Answer
    A. Lumigan
    Explanation
    Lumigan is the prostaglandin that has the fewest ocular and systemic side effects compared to the other options. This can be inferred from the question, which asks for the prostaglandin with the fewest side effects.

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  • 28. 

    Indicate which of the following meds dilate the pupils.

    • Beta blockers

    • Propine

    • Epinephrine

    • CAIs

    • Prostaglandins

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Beta blockers
    A. Propine
    A. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Beta blockers, Propine, and Epinephrine are medications that can dilate the pupils. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which causes the pupils to dilate. Propine is a medication used to treat glaucoma and can also cause pupil dilation. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a natural hormone that can dilate the pupils when administered as a medication. CAIs (carbonic anhydrase inhibitors) and Prostaglandins are not known to have a direct effect on pupil dilation.

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  • 29. 

    Indicate which of the following retinal disease commonly presents as UNILATERAL (at least initially)

    • Macular holes

    • CME

    • CSR

    • Presumed ocular histoplasosis

    • CRVO

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Macular holes
    A. CSR
    A. CRVO
    Explanation
    Macular holes, CSR (central serous retinopathy), and CRVO (central retinal vein occlusion) are retinal diseases that commonly present as unilateral, at least initially. Macular holes are small breaks in the macula, the central part of the retina, which typically occur in one eye. CSR is characterized by fluid accumulation under the retina, causing vision loss in one eye. CRVO is a blockage of the central retinal vein, leading to sudden vision loss in one eye. These conditions usually affect only one eye initially, although they can progress to involve both eyes in some cases.

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  • 30. 

    Beta blockers are commonly associated with ocular and systemic ADEs

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Beta blockers have many systemic ADEs, but ocular ADEs are relatively rare (dry eye, dec corneal sensitivity, burn/sting on instillation)

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  • 31. 

    Describe what FA & OCT would look like in Wet ARMD.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 1, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 01, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 09, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tseemore
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