Afmg (Mock Test Paper )

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1. The narrowest part of ureter is

Explanation

The correct answer is Uretero vesical junction. This is the narrowest part of the ureter as it enters the bladder. This junction is where the ureter meets the bladder and forms a one-way valve to prevent urine from flowing back up into the ureter. It is a common site for the formation of kidney stones and can also be a site of obstruction or narrowing in certain medical conditions.

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About This Quiz
Afmg (Mock Test Paper ) - Quiz

AFMG (MOCK TEST PAPER) assesses key anatomical knowledge with a focus on clinical scenarios. It covers areas like the trapezius muscle attachments, retinoblastoma, Brachial plexus injuries, and common traumatic conditions like Mallet finger, enhancing understanding for medical professionals.

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2. Lactic acidosis is more likely to be caused by:

Explanation

Metformin is more likely to cause lactic acidosis compared to the other options. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious side effect of metformin therapy. It occurs when there is an accumulation of lactic acid in the body due to the inability to clear it. Metformin can impair the liver's ability to metabolize lactate, leading to its buildup. This can be particularly dangerous in individuals with impaired kidney or liver function. Gliclazide, acarbose, and pioglitazone are not commonly associated with lactic acidosis.

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3. Nerve supply of the skeletal muscles element of diaphragm is

Explanation

The phrenic nerve is the correct answer because it is the primary nerve that supplies the skeletal muscles of the diaphragm. The diaphragm is the main muscle responsible for breathing, and the phrenic nerve controls its movement. It originates from the cervical spine and travels down to innervate the diaphragm. The other nerves listed, such as the thoracodorsal nerve, intercostal nerves, and long thoracic nerve, are not directly involved in the nerve supply of the diaphragm.

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4. Ramstedt's operation is the surgical procedure for:

Explanation

Ramstedt's operation is a surgical procedure used to treat congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. This condition occurs in infants where there is a thickening of the muscle in the pylorus, which is the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. This thickening causes a blockage and leads to symptoms such as projectile vomiting and dehydration. Ramstedt's operation involves making an incision in the pylorus to relieve the blockage and allow normal passage of food from the stomach to the intestine.

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5. Which of the following statement Is true about nitrates

Explanation

Nitrates act by raising cGMP levels, which in turn causes the dephosphorylation of MLCK. They are metabolized by glutathione reductase, and they are also used in the treatment of achalasia cardia. Therefore, all of the given statements about nitrates are true.

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6. A drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate fo 500ml/min. if the desired steady state concentration is 4mg/L , the rate at which it should in infused is:

Explanation

The drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate of 500ml/min. In order to maintain a steady state concentration of 4mg/L, the drug needs to be infused at a rate that matches the rate of clearance. Therefore, the rate at which it should be infused is 2mg/min.

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7. Critical level of alcohol in blood above which thre is impairment in driving is

Explanation

The critical level of alcohol in the blood above which there is impairment in driving is 0.5%. This means that if the alcohol concentration in the blood exceeds 0.5%, it can negatively affect a person's ability to drive safely. It is important to note that different countries may have different legal limits for blood alcohol concentration while driving, but generally, a level of 0.5% or higher is considered to be impairing.

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8. Intercalated disks are found in

Explanation

Intercalated disks are specialized structures found in cardiac muscles. These disks play a crucial role in connecting individual cardiac muscle cells, allowing them to work together as a coordinated unit. They contain gap junctions, which facilitate the rapid transmission of electrical impulses between cells, ensuring synchronized contraction of the heart. Smooth muscles, on the other hand, do not possess intercalated disks. Therefore, the correct answer is cardiac muscles.

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9. All are true of peristalsis except

Explanation

Peristalsis is a coordinated muscular contraction that propels food through the digestive tract. It is a reflex response, meaning it occurs involuntarily in response to a stimulus. It occurs in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, from the esophagus to the rectum. The Basic Electrical Rhythm (BER) coordinates the peristaltic activity by providing a rhythmic electrical impulse to the smooth muscles. However, peristalsis does require the enteric nervous system, which is a network of nerves located within the walls of the digestive tract. The enteric nervous system controls and regulates various digestive processes, including peristalsis.

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10. Age estimation is best done by examination of

Explanation

Dental X-ray is the best method for age estimation because it provides a clear view of the teeth and their development. Teeth development can be used as a reliable indicator of age, as different stages of tooth eruption and formation occur at specific ages. This method is commonly used in forensic dentistry and can provide accurate age estimates, especially in cases where other methods like examining pubic hair or X-ray of the maxilla may not be as reliable or applicable.

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11. Which of the following is not an adrenergec neuron- blocking drug

Explanation

Minoxidil is not an adrenergic neuron-blocking drug. It is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening blood vessels. Adrenergic neuron-blocking drugs, on the other hand, block the release or action of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in the sympathetic nervous system. Reserpine, Guanethidine, and Bretylium are examples of adrenergic neuron-blocking drugs.

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12. Glomeruli are present in:

Explanation

Glomeruli are present in the kidneys. They are small, ball-shaped clusters of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are responsible for filtering waste products and excess water from the blood to form urine. Glomeruli are not present in the brain, spleen, or adrenal cortex.

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13. The total diffusible calcium in plasma (in mmol/L) is about

Explanation

The correct answer is 1.34. This indicates that the total diffusible calcium in plasma is approximately 1.34 mmol/L.

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14. Hemoptysis may occur in all of the following conditions except:

Explanation

Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood or blood-stained mucus from the respiratory tract. Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary tuberculosis, and mitral stenosis are all conditions that can cause hemoptysis. However, pulmonary stenosis is a condition that affects the heart, specifically the pulmonary valve, and does not directly involve the respiratory tract. Therefore, it is not expected to cause hemoptysis.

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15. In CNS the phagocytosis is done by

Explanation

Microglia are a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system (CNS) that are responsible for phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, damaged cells, and cellular debris. Microglia play a crucial role in maintaining the health and homeostasis of the CNS by removing harmful substances and promoting tissue repair. Therefore, the correct answer is Microglia.

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16. In cataract surgery, spectacles are advised after following number of weeks

Explanation

After undergoing cataract surgery, spectacles are typically recommended to be worn after 6 weeks. This is because it takes time for the eye to heal and adjust after the surgery. During this period, the eye may still be sensitive and require protection, hence the need for spectacles. Wearing spectacles also helps to improve vision and provide clarity, especially if there is any residual refractive error after the surgery. It is important to follow the recommended time frame given by the healthcare professional to ensure proper healing and optimal visual outcomes.

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17. Regarding passage of drugs across the placenta, all of the following statements are true except

Explanation

Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy.

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18. All the following are actions of glucagon in liver except

Explanation

Glucagon is a hormone that is released by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels. It acts on the liver to increase blood sugar levels by promoting glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen into glucose), gluconeogenesis (production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources), and lipolysis (breakdown of fats into fatty acids). These actions help to increase the availability of glucose in the bloodstream. However, glucagon does not have any direct role in preventing the formation of ketone bodies (anti-ketotic action). This is primarily carried out by insulin, which promotes the uptake and utilization of glucose by cells, inhibiting the breakdown of fats and the production of ketone bodies.

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19. Mycobacterium leprae grow well in:

Explanation

Mycobacterium leprae is a bacterium that causes leprosy in humans. It has a unique ability to grow well in the body of armadillos. This is believed to be due to the low body temperature of armadillos, which is similar to that of humans. The bacteria can survive and multiply in the armadillo's tissues, making them an ideal host for studying leprosy and developing treatments.

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20. INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from deficiency of

Explanation

Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the affected areas. In this case, the correct answer is B6 because a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to the development of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B6 is important for nerve function and a deficiency can cause damage to the peripheral nerves, leading to the symptoms associated with peripheral neuropathy.

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21. Tubercles of Montgomery are present in

Explanation

Tubercles of Montgomery are small, raised bumps on the areola of the breast. They are sebaceous glands that secrete oils to lubricate and protect the nipple during breastfeeding. These tubercles are unique to the breast and are not present in the anal canal, rectum, or eye. Therefore, the correct answer is breast.

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22. Which of the following blood group antigens serves as receptor forPlasmodium vivax?

Explanation

The correct answer is Duffy. The Duffy antigen serves as a receptor for Plasmodium vivax, which is a parasite that causes malaria. The parasite attaches itself to the Duffy antigen on red blood cells in order to invade and infect them. Individuals who lack the Duffy antigen are resistant to infection by P. vivax.

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23. Which of the following is not true about follicular lymphoma

Explanation

Follicular lymphoma typically affects older adults, not middle-aged adults. This type of lymphoma is characterized by the translocation of the bcL-2 gene, which leads to increased expression of the bcL-2 protein. It is also associated with the presence of CD5+ and CD10 markers. Therefore, the statement "Affects middle-aged adults" is not true about follicular lymphoma.

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24. Sexual asphyxia is associated is associated with which of the following perversion

Explanation

Sexual asphyxia refers to the practice of intentionally restricting oxygen flow during sexual activity to enhance sexual pleasure. This practice is often associated with masochism, which is a sexual perversion characterized by deriving pleasure from experiencing pain or humiliation. Therefore, the correct answer is Masochism.

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25.
  1. A bullet strikes and individual which injures a nerve in the cubital fossa. Which sign is most likely to be present

Explanation

The term "ape hand" refers to a specific hand deformity that occurs when the median nerve is injured in the cubital fossa. This injury can result in the loss of the ability to oppose the thumb, causing the hand to resemble that of an ape. Therefore, the presence of the ape hand sign is most likely when a nerve in the cubital fossa is injured.

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26. Boundaries of Cystic triangle of calot include all expect

Explanation

The boundaries of the Cystic triangle of Calot include all structures except the Common bile duct. The Cystic triangle of Calot is a surgical landmark in the gallbladder region and is formed by the Cystic duct, the Common hepatic duct, and the liver. The Common bile duct is not part of this triangle and is located outside of its boundaries.

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27. Criminal responsibility of an insane is defined in the following section of IPC

Explanation

Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code defines the criminal responsibility of an insane person. According to this section, a person is not criminally responsible for their actions if, at the time of committing the act, they were suffering from a mental illness or defect that prevented them from understanding the nature and consequences of their actions, or from knowing that what they were doing was wrong. This section provides a legal defense for individuals who are deemed to be legally insane at the time of committing a crime.

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28. Blast cells in ALL can be diagnosed by

Explanation

Acid phosphatase can be used to diagnose blast cells in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Blast cells are immature white blood cells that are characteristic of leukemia. Acid phosphatase is an enzyme that is found in high levels in blast cells, making it a useful marker for diagnosing ALL.

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29. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of tfollowing structures are compressed except:

Explanation

During flexion and abduction of the shoulder, the suprascapular nerve is not compressed. This is because the suprascapular nerve travels through the suprascapular notch, which is located on the superior border of the scapula. When the shoulder is flexed and abducted, the suprascapular notch widens, allowing more space for the nerve to pass through without being compressed. Therefore, the suprascapular nerve is not affected during this movement.

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30. Broca's area of speech is located in

Explanation

Broca's area is a region in the brain that is responsible for speech production and language comprehension. It is located in the inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe. This area plays a crucial role in the formation and articulation of words and sentences. Damage to Broca's area can result in Broca's aphasia, a condition characterized by difficulty in speaking fluently and forming coherent sentences while comprehension remains intact. Therefore, the correct answer is the inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe.

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31. Fructose is utilized mainly by which of the following tissues

Explanation

Fructose is mainly utilized by the small intestine. This is because the small intestine contains an enzyme called fructokinase, which helps in the breakdown of fructose. Once broken down, fructose can be absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to various tissues for energy production. Adipose tissue, large intestine, and pancreas do not have the same level of fructokinase activity as the small intestine, so they do not utilize fructose as efficiently.

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32. Which of the following ultra structural features point towards irreversible injury

Explanation

Large amorphous densities of mitochondria indicate irreversible injury. This is because mitochondria play a crucial role in cell metabolism and energy production. When cells are injured, their mitochondria may become damaged and form large, dense structures. This indicates that the injury is severe and irreversible, as the mitochondria are unable to function properly.

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33. A 75 year old patient with advanced metastic cancer and a long history of renal failure has severe bone pain. He is given meperidine. Two days later he develops a generalized seizure. What is likely mechanism of this complication

Explanation

The correct answer is the buildup of meperidine metabolite levels. Meperidine is metabolized in the liver to normeperidine, which can accumulate in patients with renal failure. Normeperidine has neuroexcitatory properties and can lead to seizures, especially in patients with impaired renal function.

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34. Increase in axial length of eyeball by 1 mm increased myopia by

Explanation

An increase in the axial length of the eyeball by 1 mm leads to an increase in myopia by 3 D. This means that as the eyeball becomes longer, the light entering the eye focuses in front of the retina instead of directly on it, causing objects at a distance to appear blurry. The greater the increase in axial length, the more severe the myopia becomes.

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35. Bitter taste is mediated by action of

Explanation

G proteins are a class of proteins that play a crucial role in signal transduction pathways. They are involved in transmitting signals from extracellular stimuli to intracellular responses. Bitter taste is mediated by the activation of specific taste receptors on the taste buds, which then activate G proteins. These G proteins, in turn, initiate a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately result in the perception of a bitter taste. Therefore, G proteins are responsible for mediating the bitter taste sensation.

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36. For diagnosis of lunacy a person can be kept under observation at a stretch for

Explanation

For the diagnosis of lunacy, a person needs to be kept under observation for a sufficient period of time to assess their mental state and behavior accurately. A shorter observation period, such as 2 or 7 days, may not provide enough time to observe and analyze the person's symptoms and behavior comprehensively. On the other hand, a longer period of 30 days may not be necessary in most cases and could potentially infringe on the person's rights and freedom. Therefore, a 10-day observation period strikes a balance between ensuring a thorough assessment and respecting the individual's rights.

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37. Patient with leukokoria,with following histology of specimen after enucleation is suggestive of:

Explanation

The histology of the specimen after enucleation showing leukokoria is suggestive of retinoblastoma. Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumor that originates in the retina of the eye and is commonly associated with leukokoria, which is the abnormal appearance of a white pupil. The presence of leukokoria in combination with the histological findings confirms the diagnosis of retinoblastoma. Melanoma, papilloma, and papilloma are not typically associated with leukokoria and would present with different histological features.

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38. Which one of the following organisms causes pneumonia which most commonly results in pneumatocele?

Explanation

Klebsiella pneumoniae is the correct answer because it is known to cause pneumonia that often leads to the formation of pneumatoceles. Pneumatoceles are air-filled cavities in the lung tissue that can develop as a result of severe pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a gram-negative bacterium that commonly causes pneumonia in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions. It is associated with a more severe form of pneumonia that can lead to complications such as pneumatoceles.

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39. CSF production per minute

Explanation

The correct answer is 0.30-0.35ml/min. This range represents the normal production rate of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) per minute. CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and nutrients. The production of CSF helps maintain a stable environment for the brain and spinal cord. The range of 0.30-0.35ml/min indicates the average rate at which CSF is produced in a healthy individual.

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40. Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions

Explanation

Biotin is involved in carboxylations, which is the process of adding a carboxyl group (-COOH) to a molecule. Biotin acts as a cofactor for enzymes called carboxylases, which are responsible for catalyzing carboxylation reactions. These reactions are important for various metabolic processes, including the production of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids. Biotin binds to carboxylases and helps in the transfer of carbon dioxide from one molecule to another, leading to the addition of a carboxyl group.

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41. Transyloric plane passes through

Explanation

The Transyloric plane is a horizontal plane that passes through the body at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra (L1). This plane is used as a reference point in surgical procedures and radiological imaging to locate and assess structures in the abdomen. In this case, the correct answer is L1 because it is the only option that corresponds to a structure that the Transyloric plane passes through.

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42. "Mallet finger is a common traumatic lesions resulting in flexion deformity of distal interphalangeal joint. The basic pathology of this condition is

Explanation

Mallet finger is a condition where there is a flexion deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint, commonly caused by a traumatic injury. The basic pathology of this condition involves the rupture of the collateral slips of the extensor expansion. These collateral slips are responsible for maintaining the extension of the distal interphalangeal joint. When they rupture, the balance between flexor and extensor tendons is disrupted, leading to the characteristic flexion deformity. Avulsion fracture of the middle phalanx, rupture of the central slip of the extensor expansion, and dislocation of the distal interphalangeal joint are not the primary pathology in mallet finger.

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43. The mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could interfere with the secretion of which of the following hormones

Explanation

A mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could interfere with the secretion of oxytocin. The diencephalon, which is a part of the brain, plays a crucial role in regulating hormone secretion. Oxytocin is a hormone that is primarily produced in the hypothalamus, a region within the diencephalon. It is involved in various physiological processes, such as childbirth, lactation, and social bonding. Therefore, if there is a mutation in the diencephalon, it could disrupt the normal production and secretion of oxytocin, leading to potential abnormalities in these processes.

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44. Posterior wall of rectus sheath below the level of anterior superior iliac spine is formed by

Explanation

The correct answer is Fascia transversalis. The posterior wall of the rectus sheath below the level of the anterior superior iliac spine is formed by the fascia transversalis. The rectus sheath is a fibrous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It is formed by the aponeuroses (fibrous sheets) of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. The fascia transversalis is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the transversus abdominis muscle and forms the innermost layer of the abdominal wall. It helps to provide support and protection to the abdominal organs.

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45. Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in:

Explanation

Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure because they can further depress myocardial contractility and worsen heart failure symptoms. These medications work by blocking calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscle and dilation of blood vessels, reducing blood pressure. However, in acute left ventricular failure, the heart is already unable to pump effectively, and further reducing contractility can be detrimental to the patient's condition. Therefore, calcium channel blockers should be avoided in this situation.

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46. Commonest early symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is:

Explanation

Pruritus, or itching, is the most common early symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis. This symptom occurs due to the buildup of bile acids in the bloodstream, which can cause irritation and itching of the skin. Jaundice, hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), and pale stools are also associated with primary biliary cirrhosis, but they are not typically the earliest symptoms.

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47. Basal metatbolic rate is dependent on

Explanation

Basal metabolic rate is the amount of energy expended by an individual at rest. It is influenced by various factors, including body weight, surface area, amount of adipose tissue, and amount of lean body mass. However, the surface area of the body plays a significant role in determining basal metabolic rate. A larger surface area means more heat loss and therefore a higher metabolic rate to maintain body temperature. Therefore, surface area is a key factor in determining basal metabolic rate.

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48. ​Trapezius is attached to all structures except

Explanation

The trapezius muscle is a large muscle located in the upper back and neck area. It is responsible for movement and stabilization of the shoulder blades and neck. The trapezius muscle is attached to the clavicle, scapula, and occiput. However, it is not directly attached to the first rib. Therefore, the correct answer is the first rib.

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49. All are true about 3rd   part of duodenum except:

Explanation

The 3rd part of the duodenum is not derived from the foregut. The foregut gives rise to the first and second parts of the duodenum, while the third and fourth parts are derived from the midgut.

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50. Wound healing is the summation of following processes except:

Explanation

Wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, including coagulation (blood clotting), matrix synthesis (formation of new extracellular matrix), and angiogenesis (formation of new blood vessels). However, fibrolysis refers to the breakdown of fibrin, a protein involved in blood clot formation, and is not a part of the wound healing process. Therefore, fibrolysis is not included in the processes of wound healing.

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51. Anion gap is mainly due to

Explanation

Protein is the correct answer because anion gap refers to the difference between the concentration of cations and anions in the blood. Protein is an important anion in the blood and contributes significantly to the anion gap. Other substances mentioned in the options, such as sulfate, phosphates, and nitrates, may also contribute to the anion gap, but protein is the primary contributor.

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52. The blood in the vessles normally does clot because

Explanation

The correct answer is "Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx." The smoothness of the vascular endothelium and the presence of glycocalyx prevent the blood from clotting. The smooth surface reduces the chances of platelet adhesion and activation, which are necessary steps for blood clot formation. Additionally, the glycocalyx acts as a protective barrier and prevents the activation of clotting factors.

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53. Morphine causes all, EXCEPT

Explanation

Morphine is a potent analgesic and has several effects on the body. It causes peripheral vasodilatation, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure. It also has antiemetic properties, meaning it can help reduce nausea and vomiting. Additionally, morphine decreases gastrointestinal secretion, which can help alleviate symptoms such as diarrhea. However, morphine does not have any direct effect on intracranial tension. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decrease intracranial tension."

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54. True about Meckel's diverticulum is

Explanation

Meckel's diverticulum is a true diverticulum, meaning it contains all three layers of the intestinal wall, including the mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis propria. This is in contrast to a false diverticulum, which lacks the muscular layer. Meckel's diverticulum is also the second most common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, making this statement true. Treatment for Meckel's diverticulum typically involves diverticulectomy, which is the surgical removal of the diverticulum, and the stump is often treated similarly to an appendicectomy.

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55. Phantom limb phenomenon can be described by

Explanation

The law of projection states that the brain projects sensations to the area of the body where they would normally be felt, even if that body part is no longer present. This phenomenon is commonly observed in individuals who have had amputations and continue to experience sensations or pain in the missing limb. The brain still perceives the presence of the limb and therefore projects sensations to that area, leading to the phantom limb phenomenon.

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56. The caedaic jelly formed arou8nd the hart tube during early development contributes to the formation of  

Explanation

The caedaic jelly formed around the heart tube during early development contributes to the formation of the pericardium. The pericardium is a protective sac that surrounds the heart and helps to prevent friction between the heart and surrounding structures. It consists of two layers, the fibrous pericardium and the serous pericardium, which are formed from the caedaic jelly. The pericardium also helps to anchor the heart in place and provides a barrier against infection and inflammation.

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57. True about sciatica

Explanation

The correct answer is "Weak dorsiflexion at ankle due to compressed L-4". This is true about sciatica because compression of the L-4 nerve root can lead to weakness in the dorsiflexion of the ankle.

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58. The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is:

Explanation

Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is used in the treatment of convulsions in alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can cause neurological symptoms such as convulsions. Thiamine helps to support the proper functioning of the nervous system and is essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates. Therefore, supplementing with thiamine can help to alleviate convulsions and other neurological symptoms associated with alcoholism.

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59. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor is

Explanation

Methotrexate is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor. Dihydrofolate reductase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins. By inhibiting this enzyme, methotrexate prevents the production of these essential molecules, leading to the inhibition of cell division and growth. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of cancer, autoimmune diseases, and ectopic pregnancies. It is an effective chemotherapy drug that targets rapidly dividing cells, such as cancer cells.

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60. Brachial plexus injury with horner's syndrome commonly involves

Explanation

In brachial plexus injury with Horner's syndrome, the commonly involved nerve roots are C8 and T1. Horner's syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms including ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), miosis (constriction of the pupil), and anhidrosis (decreased sweating on the affected side of the face). These symptoms occur due to disruption of the sympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the face and eye. In brachial plexus injuries, the lower nerve roots (C8 and T1) are more commonly affected, leading to the manifestation of Horner's syndrome.

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61. Complete restoration of tensile strength of the wound comparable to normal tissue takes as long as:

Explanation

The complete restoration of tensile strength in a wound refers to the wound's ability to withstand tension and stress similar to that of normal tissue. This process takes time as the body needs to rebuild and strengthen the damaged tissues. Six months is the correct answer as it is a reasonable timeframe for the wound to heal and regain its full tensile strength.

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62. The persons working in dye industry are prone to develop malignancy of:

Explanation

The persons working in the dye industry are prone to develop malignancy of the urinary bladder. This is because exposure to certain chemicals used in the dye industry, such as aromatic amines, can increase the risk of developing bladder cancer. These chemicals can be absorbed through the skin or inhaled, and when they reach the bladder, they can cause DNA damage and lead to the development of cancerous cells. Therefore, individuals working in the dye industry should take precautions to minimize their exposure to these harmful chemicals.

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63. Which one of the following binds tospecific nucleotide sequences that are upstream of the start site of transcription

Explanation

Helicase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that binds to specific nucleotide sequences that are upstream of the start site of transcription. Helicase plays a crucial role in DNA replication and transcription by unwinding the DNA double helix and separating the two strands, allowing other enzymes such as RNA polymerase to access the DNA and initiate transcription.

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64. Which of the following amino acids can be phosphoryated

Explanation

Serine can be phosphorylated because it contains a hydroxyl group (-OH) on its side chain, which can undergo phosphorylation. Phosphorylation is a common post-translational modification that regulates protein function and signaling pathways. It involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein or amino acid residue, typically through the action of protein kinases. Cysteine, leucine, and methionine do not have a hydroxyl group on their side chains, so they cannot be phosphorylated.

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65. Boundaries of ovarian fossa are

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ureter posteriorly" because the boundaries of the ovarian fossa are the structures that surround it. The ureter is located behind the ovarian fossa, making it one of its posterior boundaries.

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66. Which congenital heart disease has the Least chance of heart failure in infants?

Explanation

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease characterized by four different heart defects. It includes a ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Although TOF can cause heart failure in infants, it has the least chance compared to the other options listed. VSD, TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection), and ASD (Atrial Septal Defect) are also congenital heart diseases that can lead to heart failure in infants, but they have a higher likelihood compared to TOF.

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67. All of the following are thyroid binding proteins except (in plasma)

Explanation

Thyroglobulin is not a thyroid binding protein found in plasma. It is a protein produced by the thyroid gland and stored within it. Thyroglobulin plays a crucial role in the synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones within the thyroid gland, but it is not involved in the binding of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. Albumin, Transthyretin, and TBG are examples of thyroid binding proteins that are responsible for transporting thyroid hormones in the blood.

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68. Which one of the following is not true regarding pseudobulbar palsy?

Explanation

Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition characterized by the inability to control facial muscles, resulting in difficulty with speech and swallowing. Emotional incontinence refers to the inability to control emotions, which is a common symptom of pseudobulbar palsy. Exaggerated jaw jerk is also a characteristic feature of this condition. Dysarthria, a speech disorder, is commonly observed in individuals with pseudobulbar palsy. However, a flaccid tongue is not typically associated with this condition.

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69. Anaemia of chronic diseases have all except

Explanation

Anaemia of chronic diseases is a type of anaemia that occurs in individuals with chronic inflammatory conditions, such as infections, autoimmune diseases, or cancer. This type of anaemia is characterized by low levels of circulating iron and decreased red blood cell production. One of the key features of anaemia of chronic diseases is an increase in serum iron binding capacity, which refers to the ability of proteins in the blood to bind and transport iron. This increase in iron binding capacity is a compensatory response to the low levels of circulating iron, allowing the body to better utilize the limited iron available.

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70. A 40 year old female known case of grand mal epilepsy has come to the emergency department with trochanteric injury to the knee joint. Drug to be avoided

Explanation

Nefopam should be avoided in this case because it can lower the seizure threshold and potentially trigger seizures in patients with epilepsy.

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71. Power of a reduced eye is normally

Explanation

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72. Dapirazole hydrochloride (Rev-eyes) most effectively reverses the effect of which one of the following agents?

Explanation

Dapirazole hydrochloride (Rev-eyes) most effectively reverses the effect of Phenylephrine (neo synephrine).

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73. Which of the following test is most confirmatory to identify human blood stains

Explanation

The spectroscopic test is the most confirmatory test to identify human blood stains. This test involves analyzing the absorption and emission of light by the blood sample. It can provide detailed information about the chemical composition of the sample, including the presence of specific compounds found in human blood. This test is highly accurate and reliable in identifying human blood stains, making it the preferred choice in forensic investigations.

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74. Most diffusible ion in excitable tissue is

Explanation

Excitation in tissues is primarily mediated by the movement of ions across the cell membrane. Among the given options, Na+ and K+ are the most commonly involved ions in excitation. Na+ plays a crucial role in depolarization, where it rushes into the cell, while K+ is involved in repolarization, where it moves out of the cell. PO4- is not an ion involved in excitation, and CT is not a recognized ion. Therefore, the correct answer is CT, as it is the only option that is not a relevant ion in excitable tissue.

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75. A 27 year old female consulted a physician with a complaint of attacks of severe headache, starting speontanoulsy after wakening and lasting for 6 hours to 2 days. She described the pain as inilateral, located in the temporal region, throbbing is nature and often accompanied by nausea, abdominal pain, visual disturbances and photocophobia. Which of the following agent is most likel to provide relief to this patient during an acute attack

Explanation

Oral rizatriptan is the most likely agent to provide relief to this patient during an acute attack. Rizatriptan is a selective serotonin receptor agonist that works by constricting the blood vessels in the brain and reducing inflammation, which can help alleviate the symptoms of a migraine headache. It is specifically indicated for the treatment of migraines and has been shown to be effective in relieving pain, reducing nausea, and improving sensitivity to light and sound. Ergotamine and pizotifen are also used in the treatment of migraines, but rizatriptan has been found to be more effective in providing relief during an acute attack.

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The narrowest part of ureter is
Lactic acidosis is more likely to be caused by:
Nerve supply of the skeletal muscles element of diaphragm is
Ramstedt's operation is the surgical procedure for:
Which of the following statement Is true about nitrates
A drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate fo 500ml/min. if the...
Critical level of alcohol in blood above which thre is impairment in...
Intercalated disks are found in
All are true of peristalsis except
Age estimation is best done by examination of
Which of the following is not an adrenergec neuron- blocking drug
Glomeruli are present in:
The total diffusible calcium in plasma (in mmol/L) is about
Hemoptysis may occur in all of the following conditions except:
In CNS the phagocytosis is done by
In cataract surgery, spectacles are advised after following number of...
Regarding passage of drugs across the placenta, all of the following...
All the following are actions of glucagon in liver except
Mycobacterium leprae grow well in:
INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from deficiency of
Tubercles of Montgomery are present in
Which of the following blood group antigens serves as receptor...
Which of the following is not true about follicular lymphoma
Sexual asphyxia is associated is associated with which of the...
A bullet strikes and individual which injures a nerve in the cubital...
Boundaries of Cystic triangle of calot include all expect
Criminal responsibility of an insane is defined in the following...
Blast cells in ALL can be diagnosed by
In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of tfollowing structures are...
Broca's area of speech is located in
Fructose is utilized mainly by which of the following tissues
Which of the following ultra structural features point towards...
A 75 year old patient with advanced metastic cancer and a long history...
Increase in axial length of eyeball by 1 mm increased myopia by
Bitter taste is mediated by action of
For diagnosis of lunacy a person can be kept under observation at a...
​Patient with leukokoria,with following histology of specimen after...
Which one of the following organisms causes pneumonia which most...
CSF production per minute
Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions
Transyloric plane passes through
"Mallet finger is a common traumatic lesions resulting in flexion...
The mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could...
Posterior wall of rectus sheath below the level of anterior superior...
Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in:
Commonest early symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is:
Basal metatbolic rate is dependent on
​Trapezius is attached to all structures except
All are true about 3rd   part of duodenum except:
Wound healing is the summation of following processes except:
Anion gap is mainly due to
The blood in the vessles normally does clot because
Morphine causes all, EXCEPT
True about Meckel's diverticulum is
Phantom limb phenomenon can be described by
The caedaic jelly formed arou8nd the hart tube during early...
True about sciatica
The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is:
Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor is
Brachial plexus injury with horner's syndrome commonly involves
Complete restoration of tensile strength of the wound comparable to...
The persons working in dye industry are prone to develop malignancy...
Which one of the following binds tospecific nucleotide sequences that...
Which of the following amino acids can be phosphoryated
Boundaries of ovarian fossa are
Which congenital heart disease has the Least chance of heart failure...
All of the following are thyroid binding proteins except (in plasma)
Which one of the following is not true regarding...
Anaemia of chronic diseases have all except
A 40 year old female known case of grand mal epilepsy has come to the...
Power of a reduced eye is normally
Dapirazole hydrochloride (Rev-eyes) most effectively reverses the...
Which of the following test is most confirmatory to identify human...
Most diffusible ion in excitable tissue is
A 27 year old female consulted a physician with a complaint of attacks...
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