Afmg (Mock Test Paper )

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  • 1/75 Questions

    ​Trapezius is attached to all structures except

    • First rib
    • Clavicle
    • Scapula
    • Occiput
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About This Quiz

AFMG (MOCK TEST PAPER) assesses key anatomical knowledge with a focus on clinical scenarios. It covers areas like the trapezius muscle attachments, retinoblastoma, Brachial plexus injuries, and common traumatic conditions like Mallet finger, enhancing understanding for medical professionals.

Afmg (Mock Test Paper ) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    ​Patient with leukokoria,with following histology of specimen after enucleation is suggestive of:

    • Retinoblastoma

    • Melanoma

    • Papilloma

    • Papilloma

    Correct Answer
    A. Retinoblastoma
    Explanation
    The histology of the specimen after enucleation showing leukokoria is suggestive of retinoblastoma. Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumor that originates in the retina of the eye and is commonly associated with leukokoria, which is the abnormal appearance of a white pupil. The presence of leukokoria in combination with the histological findings confirms the diagnosis of retinoblastoma. Melanoma, papilloma, and papilloma are not typically associated with leukokoria and would present with different histological features.

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  • 3. 

    Brachial plexus injury with horner’s syndrome commonly involves

    • C6

    • C7

    • C8

    • T1

    Correct Answer
    A. T1
    Explanation
    In brachial plexus injury with Horner's syndrome, the commonly involved nerve roots are C8 and T1. Horner's syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms including ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), miosis (constriction of the pupil), and anhidrosis (decreased sweating on the affected side of the face). These symptoms occur due to disruption of the sympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the face and eye. In brachial plexus injuries, the lower nerve roots (C8 and T1) are more commonly affected, leading to the manifestation of Horner's syndrome.

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  • 4. 

    Tubercles of Montgomery are present in

    • Anal canal

    • Rectum

    • Eye

    • Breast

    Correct Answer
    A. Breast
    Explanation
    Tubercles of Montgomery are small, raised bumps on the areola of the breast. They are sebaceous glands that secrete oils to lubricate and protect the nipple during breastfeeding. These tubercles are unique to the breast and are not present in the anal canal, rectum, or eye. Therefore, the correct answer is breast.

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  • 5. 

    1. A bullet strikes and individual which injures a nerve in the cubital fossa. Which sign is most likely to be present

    • Waiter’s tip

    • Hand claw hand

    • Wrist drop

    • Ape hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Ape hand
    Explanation
    The term "ape hand" refers to a specific hand deformity that occurs when the median nerve is injured in the cubital fossa. This injury can result in the loss of the ability to oppose the thumb, causing the hand to resemble that of an ape. Therefore, the presence of the ape hand sign is most likely when a nerve in the cubital fossa is injured.

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  • 6. 

    “Mallet finger is a common traumatic lesions resulting in flexion deformity of distal interphalangeal joint. The basic pathology of this condition is

    • Avlusion fracture of middle phalanx

    • Rupture of collateral slips of extensor expansion

    • Rupture of central slip of extensor expansion

    • Dislocation of distal interphalangeal joint

    Correct Answer
    A. Rupture of collateral slips of extensor expansion
    Explanation
    Mallet finger is a condition where there is a flexion deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint, commonly caused by a traumatic injury. The basic pathology of this condition involves the rupture of the collateral slips of the extensor expansion. These collateral slips are responsible for maintaining the extension of the distal interphalangeal joint. When they rupture, the balance between flexor and extensor tendons is disrupted, leading to the characteristic flexion deformity. Avulsion fracture of the middle phalanx, rupture of the central slip of the extensor expansion, and dislocation of the distal interphalangeal joint are not the primary pathology in mallet finger.

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  • 7. 

    Posterior wall of rectus sheath below the level of anterior superior iliac spine is formed by

    • Internal oblique

    • Transverses abdominis

    • Fascia transversalis

    • Lacunar ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Fascia transversalis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fascia transversalis. The posterior wall of the rectus sheath below the level of the anterior superior iliac spine is formed by the fascia transversalis. The rectus sheath is a fibrous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It is formed by the aponeuroses (fibrous sheets) of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. The fascia transversalis is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the transversus abdominis muscle and forms the innermost layer of the abdominal wall. It helps to provide support and protection to the abdominal organs.

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  • 8. 

    Nerve supply of the skeletal muscles element of diaphragm is

    • Thoracodorsal nerve

    • Intercostals nerves

    • Phrenic nerve

    • Long thoracic nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Phrenic nerve
    Explanation
    The phrenic nerve is the correct answer because it is the primary nerve that supplies the skeletal muscles of the diaphragm. The diaphragm is the main muscle responsible for breathing, and the phrenic nerve controls its movement. It originates from the cervical spine and travels down to innervate the diaphragm. The other nerves listed, such as the thoracodorsal nerve, intercostal nerves, and long thoracic nerve, are not directly involved in the nerve supply of the diaphragm.

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  • 9. 

    boundaries of Cystic triangle of calot include all expect

    • Liver

    • Cystic duct

    • Common bile duct

    • Common hepatic duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Common bile duct
    Explanation
    The boundaries of the Cystic triangle of Calot include all structures except the Common bile duct. The Cystic triangle of Calot is a surgical landmark in the gallbladder region and is formed by the Cystic duct, the Common hepatic duct, and the liver. The Common bile duct is not part of this triangle and is located outside of its boundaries.

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  • 10. 

    True about sciatica

    • Pressure on L5 weakness plantar flexion and absent ankle reflex

    • Pain radiates down the back and lateral side of leg till sole

    • Weak dorsiflexion at ankle due to compressed L-4

    • Sensory symptoms of L3, 4 roots compression are evident

    Correct Answer
    A. Weak dorsiflexion at ankle due to compressed L-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Weak dorsiflexion at ankle due to compressed L-4". This is true about sciatica because compression of the L-4 nerve root can lead to weakness in the dorsiflexion of the ankle.

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  • 11. 

    Boundaries of ovarian fossa are

    • Obliterated umbilical artery posteriorly

    • Ureter posteriorly

    • Uterine tube anteriorly

    • Internal iliac artery laterally

    Correct Answer
    A. Ureter posteriorly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ureter posteriorly" because the boundaries of the ovarian fossa are the structures that surround it. The ureter is located behind the ovarian fossa, making it one of its posterior boundaries.

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  • 12. 

    The narrowest part of ureter is

    • Uretero pelvic junction

    • Iliac vessel crossing

    • Pelvic ureter

    • Uretero vesical junction

    Correct Answer
    A. Uretero vesical junction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Uretero vesical junction. This is the narrowest part of the ureter as it enters the bladder. This junction is where the ureter meets the bladder and forms a one-way valve to prevent urine from flowing back up into the ureter. It is a common site for the formation of kidney stones and can also be a site of obstruction or narrowing in certain medical conditions.

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  • 13. 

    The caedaic jelly formed arou8nd the hart tube during early development contributes to the formation of  

    • Pericardium

    • Mesocardium

    • Myocardium

    • Endocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardium
    Explanation
    The caedaic jelly formed around the heart tube during early development contributes to the formation of the pericardium. The pericardium is a protective sac that surrounds the heart and helps to prevent friction between the heart and surrounding structures. It consists of two layers, the fibrous pericardium and the serous pericardium, which are formed from the caedaic jelly. The pericardium also helps to anchor the heart in place and provides a barrier against infection and inflammation.

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  • 14. 

    The mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could interfere with the secretion of which of the following hormones

    • Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

    • Epinephrine

    • Oxytocin

    • Prolactin

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    A mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could interfere with the secretion of oxytocin. The diencephalon, which is a part of the brain, plays a crucial role in regulating hormone secretion. Oxytocin is a hormone that is primarily produced in the hypothalamus, a region within the diencephalon. It is involved in various physiological processes, such as childbirth, lactation, and social bonding. Therefore, if there is a mutation in the diencephalon, it could disrupt the normal production and secretion of oxytocin, leading to potential abnormalities in these processes.

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  • 15. 

    Intercalated disks are found in

    • Smooth muscle

    • Cardiac muscles

    • Both

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac muscles
    Explanation
    Intercalated disks are specialized structures found in cardiac muscles. These disks play a crucial role in connecting individual cardiac muscle cells, allowing them to work together as a coordinated unit. They contain gap junctions, which facilitate the rapid transmission of electrical impulses between cells, ensuring synchronized contraction of the heart. Smooth muscles, on the other hand, do not possess intercalated disks. Therefore, the correct answer is cardiac muscles.

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  • 16. 

    Phantom limb phenomenon can be described by

    • Weber Fechner law

    • Power law

    • Bell magendie law

    • Law of projection

    Correct Answer
    A. Law of projection
    Explanation
    The law of projection states that the brain projects sensations to the area of the body where they would normally be felt, even if that body part is no longer present. This phenomenon is commonly observed in individuals who have had amputations and continue to experience sensations or pain in the missing limb. The brain still perceives the presence of the limb and therefore projects sensations to that area, leading to the phantom limb phenomenon.

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  • 17. 

    Most diffusible ion in excitable tissue is

    • Na+

    • K+

    • PO4-

    • CT

    Correct Answer
    A. CT
    Explanation
    Excitation in tissues is primarily mediated by the movement of ions across the cell membrane. Among the given options, Na+ and K+ are the most commonly involved ions in excitation. Na+ plays a crucial role in depolarization, where it rushes into the cell, while K+ is involved in repolarization, where it moves out of the cell. PO4- is not an ion involved in excitation, and CT is not a recognized ion. Therefore, the correct answer is CT, as it is the only option that is not a relevant ion in excitable tissue.

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  • 18. 

    In CNS the phagocytosis is done by

    • Oligodendroglia

    • Microglia

    • Astrocytes

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Microglia
    Explanation
    Microglia are a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system (CNS) that are responsible for phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, damaged cells, and cellular debris. Microglia play a crucial role in maintaining the health and homeostasis of the CNS by removing harmful substances and promoting tissue repair. Therefore, the correct answer is Microglia.

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  • 19. 

    Broca’s area of speech is located in

    • Superior temporal gyrus

    • Parietal lobe

    • Inferior gyrus of frontal lobe

    • Superior gyrus of frontal lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior gyrus of frontal lobe
    Explanation
    Broca's area is a region in the brain that is responsible for speech production and language comprehension. It is located in the inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe. This area plays a crucial role in the formation and articulation of words and sentences. Damage to Broca's area can result in Broca's aphasia, a condition characterized by difficulty in speaking fluently and forming coherent sentences while comprehension remains intact. Therefore, the correct answer is the inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe.

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  • 20. 

    CSF production per minute

    • 0.30-0.35ml/min

    • 0.5ml/min

    • 2ml/min

    • 1ml/mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.30-0.35ml/min
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.30-0.35ml/min. This range represents the normal production rate of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) per minute. CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and nutrients. The production of CSF helps maintain a stable environment for the brain and spinal cord. The range of 0.30-0.35ml/min indicates the average rate at which CSF is produced in a healthy individual.

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  • 21. 

    Anion gap is mainly due to

    • Sufate

    • Phosphates

    • Protein

    • Nitrates

    Correct Answer
    A. Protein
    Explanation
    Protein is the correct answer because anion gap refers to the difference between the concentration of cations and anions in the blood. Protein is an important anion in the blood and contributes significantly to the anion gap. Other substances mentioned in the options, such as sulfate, phosphates, and nitrates, may also contribute to the anion gap, but protein is the primary contributor.

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  • 22. 

    All are true of peristalsis except

    • It is a reflex response

    • It occurs in all parts of GIT (from oesophagus to rectum)

    • B.E.R coordinates peristaltic activity

    • It does not require the enteric nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. It does not require the enteric nervous system
    Explanation
    Peristalsis is a coordinated muscular contraction that propels food through the digestive tract. It is a reflex response, meaning it occurs involuntarily in response to a stimulus. It occurs in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, from the esophagus to the rectum. The Basic Electrical Rhythm (BER) coordinates the peristaltic activity by providing a rhythmic electrical impulse to the smooth muscles. However, peristalsis does require the enteric nervous system, which is a network of nerves located within the walls of the digestive tract. The enteric nervous system controls and regulates various digestive processes, including peristalsis.

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  • 23. 

    All of the following are thyroid binding proteins except (in plasma)

    • Albumin

    • Transthyretin

    • TBG

    • Thyroglobulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroglobulin
    Explanation
    Thyroglobulin is not a thyroid binding protein found in plasma. It is a protein produced by the thyroid gland and stored within it. Thyroglobulin plays a crucial role in the synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones within the thyroid gland, but it is not involved in the binding of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. Albumin, Transthyretin, and TBG are examples of thyroid binding proteins that are responsible for transporting thyroid hormones in the blood.

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  • 24. 

    All the following are actions of glucagon in liver except

    • Glycogenolytic

    • Gluconeogenetic

    • Lipolytic

    • Anti ketotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti ketotic
    Explanation
    Glucagon is a hormone that is released by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels. It acts on the liver to increase blood sugar levels by promoting glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen into glucose), gluconeogenesis (production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources), and lipolysis (breakdown of fats into fatty acids). These actions help to increase the availability of glucose in the bloodstream. However, glucagon does not have any direct role in preventing the formation of ketone bodies (anti-ketotic action). This is primarily carried out by insulin, which promotes the uptake and utilization of glucose by cells, inhibiting the breakdown of fats and the production of ketone bodies.

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  • 25. 

    The total diffusible calcium in plasma (in mmol/L) is about

    • 2.50

    • 1.34

    • 1.16

    • 0.24

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.34
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1.34. This indicates that the total diffusible calcium in plasma is approximately 1.34 mmol/L.

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  • 26. 

    Which one of the following binds tospecific nucleotide sequences that are upstream of the start site of transcription

    • Helicase

    • Histone protein

    • Primase

    • RNAS polymerase

    Correct Answer
    A. Helicase
    Explanation
    Helicase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that binds to specific nucleotide sequences that are upstream of the start site of transcription. Helicase plays a crucial role in DNA replication and transcription by unwinding the DNA double helix and separating the two strands, allowing other enzymes such as RNA polymerase to access the DNA and initiate transcription.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following amino acids can be phosphoryated

    • Cysteine

    • Leucine

    • Methionine

    • Serine

    Correct Answer
    A. Serine
    Explanation
    Serine can be phosphorylated because it contains a hydroxyl group (-OH) on its side chain, which can undergo phosphorylation. Phosphorylation is a common post-translational modification that regulates protein function and signaling pathways. It involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein or amino acid residue, typically through the action of protein kinases. Cysteine, leucine, and methionine do not have a hydroxyl group on their side chains, so they cannot be phosphorylated.

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  • 28. 

    Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions

    • Hydroxylation

    • Carboxylations

    • Decarboxylations

    • Dehydrations

    Correct Answer
    A. Carboxylations
    Explanation
    Biotin is involved in carboxylations, which is the process of adding a carboxyl group (-COOH) to a molecule. Biotin acts as a cofactor for enzymes called carboxylases, which are responsible for catalyzing carboxylation reactions. These reactions are important for various metabolic processes, including the production of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids. Biotin binds to carboxylases and helps in the transfer of carbon dioxide from one molecule to another, leading to the addition of a carboxyl group.

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  • 29. 

    Fructose is utilized mainly by which of the following tissues

    • Adipose tissue

    • Large intestine

    • Small intestine

    • Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine
    Explanation
    Fructose is mainly utilized by the small intestine. This is because the small intestine contains an enzyme called fructokinase, which helps in the breakdown of fructose. Once broken down, fructose can be absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to various tissues for energy production. Adipose tissue, large intestine, and pancreas do not have the same level of fructokinase activity as the small intestine, so they do not utilize fructose as efficiently.

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  • 30. 

    Criminal responsibility of an insane is defined in the following section of IPC

    • 82

    • 84

    • 85

    • 87

    Correct Answer
    A. 84
    Explanation
    Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code defines the criminal responsibility of an insane person. According to this section, a person is not criminally responsible for their actions if, at the time of committing the act, they were suffering from a mental illness or defect that prevented them from understanding the nature and consequences of their actions, or from knowing that what they were doing was wrong. This section provides a legal defense for individuals who are deemed to be legally insane at the time of committing a crime.

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  • 31. 

    Critical level of alcohol in blood above which thre is impairment in driving is

    • 0.1%

    • 0.5%

    • 0.2%

    • 0.3%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5%
    Explanation
    The critical level of alcohol in the blood above which there is impairment in driving is 0.5%. This means that if the alcohol concentration in the blood exceeds 0.5%, it can negatively affect a person's ability to drive safely. It is important to note that different countries may have different legal limits for blood alcohol concentration while driving, but generally, a level of 0.5% or higher is considered to be impairing.

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  • 32. 

    Age estimation is best done by examination of

    • Pubic hair

    • Dental X- ray

    • X-ray of maxilla

    • Eyes

    Correct Answer
    A. Dental X- ray
    Explanation
    Dental X-ray is the best method for age estimation because it provides a clear view of the teeth and their development. Teeth development can be used as a reliable indicator of age, as different stages of tooth eruption and formation occur at specific ages. This method is commonly used in forensic dentistry and can provide accurate age estimates, especially in cases where other methods like examining pubic hair or X-ray of the maxilla may not be as reliable or applicable.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following test is most confirmatory to identify human blood stains

    • Precipitin test

    • Benzidine test

    • Hemin crystals

    • Spectroscopic test

    Correct Answer
    A. Spectroscopic test
    Explanation
    The spectroscopic test is the most confirmatory test to identify human blood stains. This test involves analyzing the absorption and emission of light by the blood sample. It can provide detailed information about the chemical composition of the sample, including the presence of specific compounds found in human blood. This test is highly accurate and reliable in identifying human blood stains, making it the preferred choice in forensic investigations.

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  • 34. 

    For diagnosis of lunacy a person can be kept under observation at a stretch for

    • 2 days

    • 7 days

    • 10 days

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 days
    Explanation
    For the diagnosis of lunacy, a person needs to be kept under observation for a sufficient period of time to assess their mental state and behavior accurately. A shorter observation period, such as 2 or 7 days, may not provide enough time to observe and analyze the person's symptoms and behavior comprehensively. On the other hand, a longer period of 30 days may not be necessary in most cases and could potentially infringe on the person's rights and freedom. Therefore, a 10-day observation period strikes a balance between ensuring a thorough assessment and respecting the individual's rights.

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  • 35. 

    Morphine causes all, EXCEPT

    • Peripheral vasodilatation

    • Decrease intracranial tension

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Decrease in gastrointestinal secretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease intracranial tension
    Explanation
    Morphine is a potent analgesic and has several effects on the body. It causes peripheral vasodilatation, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure. It also has antiemetic properties, meaning it can help reduce nausea and vomiting. Additionally, morphine decreases gastrointestinal secretion, which can help alleviate symptoms such as diarrhea. However, morphine does not have any direct effect on intracranial tension. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decrease intracranial tension."

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  • 36. 

    INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from deficiency of

    • B1

    • B2

    • B6

    • B12

    Correct Answer
    A. B6
    Explanation
    Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the affected areas. In this case, the correct answer is B6 because a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to the development of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B6 is important for nerve function and a deficiency can cause damage to the peripheral nerves, leading to the symptoms associated with peripheral neuropathy.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is not an adrenergec neuron- blocking drug

    • Reserpine

    • Guanethidine

    • Bretylium

    • Minoxidil

    Correct Answer
    A. Minoxidil
    Explanation
    Minoxidil is not an adrenergic neuron-blocking drug. It is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening blood vessels. Adrenergic neuron-blocking drugs, on the other hand, block the release or action of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in the sympathetic nervous system. Reserpine, Guanethidine, and Bretylium are examples of adrenergic neuron-blocking drugs.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statement Is true about nitrates

    • Acts by raising cGMP which causes dephosphorylation of MLCK

    • Metabolised by glutathione reductase

    • Used in achalasia cardia

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Nitrates act by raising cGMP levels, which in turn causes the dephosphorylation of MLCK. They are metabolized by glutathione reductase, and they are also used in the treatment of achalasia cardia. Therefore, all of the given statements about nitrates are true.

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  • 39. 

    Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor is

    • Mithotrexate

    • Adrimycin

    • Vincristine

    • Cyclophosphamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Mithotrexate
    Explanation
    Methotrexate is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor. Dihydrofolate reductase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins. By inhibiting this enzyme, methotrexate prevents the production of these essential molecules, leading to the inhibition of cell division and growth. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of cancer, autoimmune diseases, and ectopic pregnancies. It is an effective chemotherapy drug that targets rapidly dividing cells, such as cancer cells.

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  • 40. 

    A 27 year old female consulted a physician with a complaint of attacks of severe headache, starting speontanoulsy after wakening and lasting for 6 hours to 2 days. She described the pain as inilateral, located in the temporal region, throbbing is nature and often accompanied by nausea, abdominal pain, visual disturbances and photocophobia. Which of the following agent is most likel to provide relief to this patient during an acute attack

    • Oral sumatriptan

    • Oral ergotamine

    • Oral rizatriptan

    • Oral pizotifen

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral rizatriptan
    Explanation
    Oral rizatriptan is the most likely agent to provide relief to this patient during an acute attack. Rizatriptan is a selective serotonin receptor agonist that works by constricting the blood vessels in the brain and reducing inflammation, which can help alleviate the symptoms of a migraine headache. It is specifically indicated for the treatment of migraines and has been shown to be effective in relieving pain, reducing nausea, and improving sensitivity to light and sound. Ergotamine and pizotifen are also used in the treatment of migraines, but rizatriptan has been found to be more effective in providing relief during an acute attack.

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  • 41. 

    A drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate fo 500ml/min. if the desired steady state concentration is 4mg/L , the rate at which it should in infused is:

    • 1mg/min

    • 3mg/min

    • 2mg/min

    • 5mg/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 2mg/min
    Explanation
    The drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate of 500ml/min. In order to maintain a steady state concentration of 4mg/L, the drug needs to be infused at a rate that matches the rate of clearance. Therefore, the rate at which it should be infused is 2mg/min.

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  • 42. 

    Regarding passage of drugs across the placenta, all of the following statements are true except

    • Lipohilic drugs diffuse across the placenta easily

    • Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy

    • Drugs highly bound to placenta proteins do not readily cross the placenta

    • Rate of transfer of drugs across the placenta is also dependent on placental blood flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy
    Explanation
    Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy.

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  • 43. 

    A 40 year old female known case of grand mal epilepsy has come to the emergency department with trochanteric injury to the knee joint. Drug to be avoided

    • Nabumetone

    • Nefopam

    • Ketorolac

    • Opiates

    Correct Answer
    A. Nefopam
    Explanation
    Nefopam should be avoided in this case because it can lower the seizure threshold and potentially trigger seizures in patients with epilepsy.

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  • 44. 

    A 75 year old patient with advanced metastic cancer and a long history of renal failure has severe bone pain. He is given meperidine. Two days later he develops a generalized seizure. What is likely mechanism of this complication

    • Buildup of meperidine

    • Buildup of meperidine metabolite levels

    • Brain metastases

    • Hypercalcemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Buildup of meperidine metabolite levels
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the buildup of meperidine metabolite levels. Meperidine is metabolized in the liver to normeperidine, which can accumulate in patients with renal failure. Normeperidine has neuroexcitatory properties and can lead to seizures, especially in patients with impaired renal function.

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  • 45. 

    Anaemia of chronic diseases have all except

    • Increased ferritin level

    • Increase s. iron binding capacity

    • Decreased S. iron

    • Increased BM macrophage iron

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase s. iron binding capacity
    Explanation
    Anaemia of chronic diseases is a type of anaemia that occurs in individuals with chronic inflammatory conditions, such as infections, autoimmune diseases, or cancer. This type of anaemia is characterized by low levels of circulating iron and decreased red blood cell production. One of the key features of anaemia of chronic diseases is an increase in serum iron binding capacity, which refers to the ability of proteins in the blood to bind and transport iron. This increase in iron binding capacity is a compensatory response to the low levels of circulating iron, allowing the body to better utilize the limited iron available.

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  • 46. 

    Blast cells in ALL can be diagnosed by

    • Sudden black

    • Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase

    • Acid phosphatase

    • Cholinesterase

    Correct Answer
    A. Acid phosphatase
    Explanation
    Acid phosphatase can be used to diagnose blast cells in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Blast cells are immature white blood cells that are characteristic of leukemia. Acid phosphatase is an enzyme that is found in high levels in blast cells, making it a useful marker for diagnosing ALL.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not true about follicular lymphoma

    • BcL-2 expression

    • (14.18) translocation

    • Affects middle aged adults

    • CD5+, CD10

    Correct Answer
    A. Affects middle aged adults
    Explanation
    Follicular lymphoma typically affects older adults, not middle-aged adults. This type of lymphoma is characterized by the translocation of the bcL-2 gene, which leads to increased expression of the bcL-2 protein. It is also associated with the presence of CD5+ and CD10 markers. Therefore, the statement "Affects middle-aged adults" is not true about follicular lymphoma.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following ultra structural features point towards irreversible injury

    • Chromatin clumping

    • Detachment of ribosome form EC

    • Large amorphous densities of mitochondria

    • Blebs

    Correct Answer
    A. Large amorphous densities of mitochondria
    Explanation
    Large amorphous densities of mitochondria indicate irreversible injury. This is because mitochondria play a crucial role in cell metabolism and energy production. When cells are injured, their mitochondria may become damaged and form large, dense structures. This indicates that the injury is severe and irreversible, as the mitochondria are unable to function properly.

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  • 49. 

    Transyloric plane passes through

    • T12

    • L1

    • L2

    • L4

    Correct Answer
    A. L1
    Explanation
    The Transyloric plane is a horizontal plane that passes through the body at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra (L1). This plane is used as a reference point in surgical procedures and radiological imaging to locate and assess structures in the abdomen. In this case, the correct answer is L1 because it is the only option that corresponds to a structure that the Transyloric plane passes through.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 25, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 25, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 01, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Jishnufmgs

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