Afmg (Mock Test Paper )

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  • 1/75 Questions

    The narrowest part of ureter is

    • Uretero pelvic junction
    • Iliac vessel crossing
    • Pelvic ureter
    • Uretero vesical junction
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About This Quiz

AFMG (MOCK TEST PAPER) assesses key anatomical knowledge with a focus on clinical scenarios. It covers areas like the trapezius muscle attachments, retinoblastoma, Brachial plexus injuries, and common traumatic conditions like Mallet finger, enhancing understanding for medical professionals.

Afmg (Mock Test Paper ) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Lactic acidosis is more likely to be caused by:

    • Gliclazide

    • Acarbose

    • Metformin

    • Pioglitazone

    Correct Answer
    A. Metformin
    Explanation
    Metformin is more likely to cause lactic acidosis compared to the other options. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious side effect of metformin therapy. It occurs when there is an accumulation of lactic acid in the body due to the inability to clear it. Metformin can impair the liver's ability to metabolize lactate, leading to its buildup. This can be particularly dangerous in individuals with impaired kidney or liver function. Gliclazide, acarbose, and pioglitazone are not commonly associated with lactic acidosis.

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  • 3. 

    Nerve supply of the skeletal muscles element of diaphragm is

    • Thoracodorsal nerve

    • Intercostals nerves

    • Phrenic nerve

    • Long thoracic nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Phrenic nerve
    Explanation
    The phrenic nerve is the correct answer because it is the primary nerve that supplies the skeletal muscles of the diaphragm. The diaphragm is the main muscle responsible for breathing, and the phrenic nerve controls its movement. It originates from the cervical spine and travels down to innervate the diaphragm. The other nerves listed, such as the thoracodorsal nerve, intercostal nerves, and long thoracic nerve, are not directly involved in the nerve supply of the diaphragm.

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  • 4. 

    Ramstedt’s operation is the surgical procedure for:

    • Congenital atresia of duodenum

    • Hallux valgus

    • Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

    • Atresia of bile duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
    Explanation
    Ramstedt's operation is a surgical procedure used to treat congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. This condition occurs in infants where there is a thickening of the muscle in the pylorus, which is the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. This thickening causes a blockage and leads to symptoms such as projectile vomiting and dehydration. Ramstedt's operation involves making an incision in the pylorus to relieve the blockage and allow normal passage of food from the stomach to the intestine.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following statement Is true about nitrates

    • Acts by raising cGMP which causes dephosphorylation of MLCK

    • Metabolised by glutathione reductase

    • Used in achalasia cardia

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Nitrates act by raising cGMP levels, which in turn causes the dephosphorylation of MLCK. They are metabolized by glutathione reductase, and they are also used in the treatment of achalasia cardia. Therefore, all of the given statements about nitrates are true.

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  • 6. 

    A drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate fo 500ml/min. if the desired steady state concentration is 4mg/L , the rate at which it should in infused is:

    • 1mg/min

    • 3mg/min

    • 2mg/min

    • 5mg/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 2mg/min
    Explanation
    The drug is cleared from the plasma at a rate of 500ml/min. In order to maintain a steady state concentration of 4mg/L, the drug needs to be infused at a rate that matches the rate of clearance. Therefore, the rate at which it should be infused is 2mg/min.

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  • 7. 

    Critical level of alcohol in blood above which thre is impairment in driving is

    • 0.1%

    • 0.5%

    • 0.2%

    • 0.3%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5%
    Explanation
    The critical level of alcohol in the blood above which there is impairment in driving is 0.5%. This means that if the alcohol concentration in the blood exceeds 0.5%, it can negatively affect a person's ability to drive safely. It is important to note that different countries may have different legal limits for blood alcohol concentration while driving, but generally, a level of 0.5% or higher is considered to be impairing.

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  • 8. 

    Intercalated disks are found in

    • Smooth muscle

    • Cardiac muscles

    • Both

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac muscles
    Explanation
    Intercalated disks are specialized structures found in cardiac muscles. These disks play a crucial role in connecting individual cardiac muscle cells, allowing them to work together as a coordinated unit. They contain gap junctions, which facilitate the rapid transmission of electrical impulses between cells, ensuring synchronized contraction of the heart. Smooth muscles, on the other hand, do not possess intercalated disks. Therefore, the correct answer is cardiac muscles.

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  • 9. 

    All are true of peristalsis except

    • It is a reflex response

    • It occurs in all parts of GIT (from oesophagus to rectum)

    • B.E.R coordinates peristaltic activity

    • It does not require the enteric nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. It does not require the enteric nervous system
    Explanation
    Peristalsis is a coordinated muscular contraction that propels food through the digestive tract. It is a reflex response, meaning it occurs involuntarily in response to a stimulus. It occurs in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, from the esophagus to the rectum. The Basic Electrical Rhythm (BER) coordinates the peristaltic activity by providing a rhythmic electrical impulse to the smooth muscles. However, peristalsis does require the enteric nervous system, which is a network of nerves located within the walls of the digestive tract. The enteric nervous system controls and regulates various digestive processes, including peristalsis.

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  • 10. 

    Age estimation is best done by examination of

    • Pubic hair

    • Dental X- ray

    • X-ray of maxilla

    • Eyes

    Correct Answer
    A. Dental X- ray
    Explanation
    Dental X-ray is the best method for age estimation because it provides a clear view of the teeth and their development. Teeth development can be used as a reliable indicator of age, as different stages of tooth eruption and formation occur at specific ages. This method is commonly used in forensic dentistry and can provide accurate age estimates, especially in cases where other methods like examining pubic hair or X-ray of the maxilla may not be as reliable or applicable.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not an adrenergec neuron- blocking drug

    • Reserpine

    • Guanethidine

    • Bretylium

    • Minoxidil

    Correct Answer
    A. Minoxidil
    Explanation
    Minoxidil is not an adrenergic neuron-blocking drug. It is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening blood vessels. Adrenergic neuron-blocking drugs, on the other hand, block the release or action of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in the sympathetic nervous system. Reserpine, Guanethidine, and Bretylium are examples of adrenergic neuron-blocking drugs.

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  • 12. 

    Glomeruli are present in:

    • Brain

    • Spleen

    • Adrenal cortex

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    Glomeruli are present in the kidneys. They are small, ball-shaped clusters of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are responsible for filtering waste products and excess water from the blood to form urine. Glomeruli are not present in the brain, spleen, or adrenal cortex.

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  • 13. 

    The total diffusible calcium in plasma (in mmol/L) is about

    • 2.50

    • 1.34

    • 1.16

    • 0.24

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.34
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1.34. This indicates that the total diffusible calcium in plasma is approximately 1.34 mmol/L.

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  • 14. 

    In CNS the phagocytosis is done by

    • Oligodendroglia

    • Microglia

    • Astrocytes

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Microglia
    Explanation
    Microglia are a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system (CNS) that are responsible for phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, damaged cells, and cellular debris. Microglia play a crucial role in maintaining the health and homeostasis of the CNS by removing harmful substances and promoting tissue repair. Therefore, the correct answer is Microglia.

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  • 15. 

    Regarding passage of drugs across the placenta, all of the following statements are true except

    • Lipohilic drugs diffuse across the placenta easily

    • Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy

    • Drugs highly bound to placenta proteins do not readily cross the placenta

    • Rate of transfer of drugs across the placenta is also dependent on placental blood flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy
    Explanation
    Heparin readily crosses the placenta and should be avoided during pregnancy.

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  • 16. 

    Hemoptysis may occur in all of the following conditions except:

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Pulmonary tuberculosis

    • Pulmonary stenosis

    • Mitral stenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary stenosis
    Explanation
    Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood or blood-stained mucus from the respiratory tract. Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary tuberculosis, and mitral stenosis are all conditions that can cause hemoptysis. However, pulmonary stenosis is a condition that affects the heart, specifically the pulmonary valve, and does not directly involve the respiratory tract. Therefore, it is not expected to cause hemoptysis.

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  • 17. 

    In cataract surgery, spectacles are advised after following number of weeks

    • 6 weeks

    • 10 weeks

    • 12 weeks

    • 14 weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 weeks
    Explanation
    After undergoing cataract surgery, spectacles are typically recommended to be worn after 6 weeks. This is because it takes time for the eye to heal and adjust after the surgery. During this period, the eye may still be sensitive and require protection, hence the need for spectacles. Wearing spectacles also helps to improve vision and provide clarity, especially if there is any residual refractive error after the surgery. It is important to follow the recommended time frame given by the healthcare professional to ensure proper healing and optimal visual outcomes.

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  • 18. 

    Tubercles of Montgomery are present in

    • Anal canal

    • Rectum

    • Eye

    • Breast

    Correct Answer
    A. Breast
    Explanation
    Tubercles of Montgomery are small, raised bumps on the areola of the breast. They are sebaceous glands that secrete oils to lubricate and protect the nipple during breastfeeding. These tubercles are unique to the breast and are not present in the anal canal, rectum, or eye. Therefore, the correct answer is breast.

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  • 19. 

    All the following are actions of glucagon in liver except

    • Glycogenolytic

    • Gluconeogenetic

    • Lipolytic

    • Anti ketotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti ketotic
    Explanation
    Glucagon is a hormone that is released by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels. It acts on the liver to increase blood sugar levels by promoting glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen into glucose), gluconeogenesis (production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources), and lipolysis (breakdown of fats into fatty acids). These actions help to increase the availability of glucose in the bloodstream. However, glucagon does not have any direct role in preventing the formation of ketone bodies (anti-ketotic action). This is primarily carried out by insulin, which promotes the uptake and utilization of glucose by cells, inhibiting the breakdown of fats and the production of ketone bodies.

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  • 20. 

    INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from deficiency of

    • B1

    • B2

    • B6

    • B12

    Correct Answer
    A. B6
    Explanation
    Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the affected areas. In this case, the correct answer is B6 because a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to the development of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B6 is important for nerve function and a deficiency can cause damage to the peripheral nerves, leading to the symptoms associated with peripheral neuropathy.

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  • 21. 

    Mycobacterium leprae grow well in:

    • Cat

    • Dog

    • Armadillo

    • Platypus

    Correct Answer
    A. Armadillo
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium leprae is a bacterium that causes leprosy in humans. It has a unique ability to grow well in the body of armadillos. This is believed to be due to the low body temperature of armadillos, which is similar to that of humans. The bacteria can survive and multiply in the armadillo's tissues, making them an ideal host for studying leprosy and developing treatments.

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  • 22. 

    1. A bullet strikes and individual which injures a nerve in the cubital fossa. Which sign is most likely to be present

    • Waiter’s tip

    • Hand claw hand

    • Wrist drop

    • Ape hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Ape hand
    Explanation
    The term "ape hand" refers to a specific hand deformity that occurs when the median nerve is injured in the cubital fossa. This injury can result in the loss of the ability to oppose the thumb, causing the hand to resemble that of an ape. Therefore, the presence of the ape hand sign is most likely when a nerve in the cubital fossa is injured.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not true about follicular lymphoma

    • BcL-2 expression

    • (14.18) translocation

    • Affects middle aged adults

    • CD5+, CD10

    Correct Answer
    A. Affects middle aged adults
    Explanation
    Follicular lymphoma typically affects older adults, not middle-aged adults. This type of lymphoma is characterized by the translocation of the bcL-2 gene, which leads to increased expression of the bcL-2 protein. It is also associated with the presence of CD5+ and CD10 markers. Therefore, the statement "Affects middle-aged adults" is not true about follicular lymphoma.

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  • 24. 

    Sexual asphyxia is associated is associated with which of the following perversion

    • Voyerurism

    • Masochism

    • Sadism

    • Fetichism

    Correct Answer
    A. Masochism
    Explanation
    Sexual asphyxia refers to the practice of intentionally restricting oxygen flow during sexual activity to enhance sexual pleasure. This practice is often associated with masochism, which is a sexual perversion characterized by deriving pleasure from experiencing pain or humiliation. Therefore, the correct answer is Masochism.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following blood group antigens serves as receptor forPlasmodium vivax?

    • Duffy

    • ABO

    • Kell

    • Rh

    Correct Answer
    A. Duffy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Duffy. The Duffy antigen serves as a receptor for Plasmodium vivax, which is a parasite that causes malaria. The parasite attaches itself to the Duffy antigen on red blood cells in order to invade and infect them. Individuals who lack the Duffy antigen are resistant to infection by P. vivax.

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  • 26. 

    boundaries of Cystic triangle of calot include all expect

    • Liver

    • Cystic duct

    • Common bile duct

    • Common hepatic duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Common bile duct
    Explanation
    The boundaries of the Cystic triangle of Calot include all structures except the Common bile duct. The Cystic triangle of Calot is a surgical landmark in the gallbladder region and is formed by the Cystic duct, the Common hepatic duct, and the liver. The Common bile duct is not part of this triangle and is located outside of its boundaries.

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  • 27. 

    Criminal responsibility of an insane is defined in the following section of IPC

    • 82

    • 84

    • 85

    • 87

    Correct Answer
    A. 84
    Explanation
    Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code defines the criminal responsibility of an insane person. According to this section, a person is not criminally responsible for their actions if, at the time of committing the act, they were suffering from a mental illness or defect that prevented them from understanding the nature and consequences of their actions, or from knowing that what they were doing was wrong. This section provides a legal defense for individuals who are deemed to be legally insane at the time of committing a crime.

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  • 28. 

    Blast cells in ALL can be diagnosed by

    • Sudden black

    • Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase

    • Acid phosphatase

    • Cholinesterase

    Correct Answer
    A. Acid phosphatase
    Explanation
    Acid phosphatase can be used to diagnose blast cells in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Blast cells are immature white blood cells that are characteristic of leukemia. Acid phosphatase is an enzyme that is found in high levels in blast cells, making it a useful marker for diagnosing ALL.

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  • 29. 

    In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of tfollowing structures are compressed except:

    • Subacromial bursa

    • Long head of biceps

    • Suprascapular nerve

    • Supraspinatus tendon

    Correct Answer
    A. Suprascapular nerve
    Explanation
    During flexion and abduction of the shoulder, the suprascapular nerve is not compressed. This is because the suprascapular nerve travels through the suprascapular notch, which is located on the superior border of the scapula. When the shoulder is flexed and abducted, the suprascapular notch widens, allowing more space for the nerve to pass through without being compressed. Therefore, the suprascapular nerve is not affected during this movement.

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  • 30. 

    Broca’s area of speech is located in

    • Superior temporal gyrus

    • Parietal lobe

    • Inferior gyrus of frontal lobe

    • Superior gyrus of frontal lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior gyrus of frontal lobe
    Explanation
    Broca's area is a region in the brain that is responsible for speech production and language comprehension. It is located in the inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe. This area plays a crucial role in the formation and articulation of words and sentences. Damage to Broca's area can result in Broca's aphasia, a condition characterized by difficulty in speaking fluently and forming coherent sentences while comprehension remains intact. Therefore, the correct answer is the inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe.

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  • 31. 

    Fructose is utilized mainly by which of the following tissues

    • Adipose tissue

    • Large intestine

    • Small intestine

    • Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine
    Explanation
    Fructose is mainly utilized by the small intestine. This is because the small intestine contains an enzyme called fructokinase, which helps in the breakdown of fructose. Once broken down, fructose can be absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to various tissues for energy production. Adipose tissue, large intestine, and pancreas do not have the same level of fructokinase activity as the small intestine, so they do not utilize fructose as efficiently.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following ultra structural features point towards irreversible injury

    • Chromatin clumping

    • Detachment of ribosome form EC

    • Large amorphous densities of mitochondria

    • Blebs

    Correct Answer
    A. Large amorphous densities of mitochondria
    Explanation
    Large amorphous densities of mitochondria indicate irreversible injury. This is because mitochondria play a crucial role in cell metabolism and energy production. When cells are injured, their mitochondria may become damaged and form large, dense structures. This indicates that the injury is severe and irreversible, as the mitochondria are unable to function properly.

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  • 33. 

    A 75 year old patient with advanced metastic cancer and a long history of renal failure has severe bone pain. He is given meperidine. Two days later he develops a generalized seizure. What is likely mechanism of this complication

    • Buildup of meperidine

    • Buildup of meperidine metabolite levels

    • Brain metastases

    • Hypercalcemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Buildup of meperidine metabolite levels
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the buildup of meperidine metabolite levels. Meperidine is metabolized in the liver to normeperidine, which can accumulate in patients with renal failure. Normeperidine has neuroexcitatory properties and can lead to seizures, especially in patients with impaired renal function.

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  • 34. 

    Increase in axial length of eyeball by 1 mm increased myopia by

    • 1 D

    • 2 D

    • 3 D

    • 4 D

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 D
    Explanation
    An increase in the axial length of the eyeball by 1 mm leads to an increase in myopia by 3 D. This means that as the eyeball becomes longer, the light entering the eye focuses in front of the retina instead of directly on it, causing objects at a distance to appear blurry. The greater the increase in axial length, the more severe the myopia becomes.

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  • 35. 

    ​Patient with leukokoria,with following histology of specimen after enucleation is suggestive of:

    • Retinoblastoma

    • Melanoma

    • Papilloma

    • Papilloma

    Correct Answer
    A. Retinoblastoma
    Explanation
    The histology of the specimen after enucleation showing leukokoria is suggestive of retinoblastoma. Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumor that originates in the retina of the eye and is commonly associated with leukokoria, which is the abnormal appearance of a white pupil. The presence of leukokoria in combination with the histological findings confirms the diagnosis of retinoblastoma. Melanoma, papilloma, and papilloma are not typically associated with leukokoria and would present with different histological features.

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  • 36. 

    For diagnosis of lunacy a person can be kept under observation at a stretch for

    • 2 days

    • 7 days

    • 10 days

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 days
    Explanation
    For the diagnosis of lunacy, a person needs to be kept under observation for a sufficient period of time to assess their mental state and behavior accurately. A shorter observation period, such as 2 or 7 days, may not provide enough time to observe and analyze the person's symptoms and behavior comprehensively. On the other hand, a longer period of 30 days may not be necessary in most cases and could potentially infringe on the person's rights and freedom. Therefore, a 10-day observation period strikes a balance between ensuring a thorough assessment and respecting the individual's rights.

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  • 37. 

    Bitter taste is mediated by action of

    • Guanyl cyclase

    • G protein

    • Tyrosine kinase

    • Epiterhlial Na chain

    Correct Answer
    A. G protein
    Explanation
    G proteins are a class of proteins that play a crucial role in signal transduction pathways. They are involved in transmitting signals from extracellular stimuli to intracellular responses. Bitter taste is mediated by the activation of specific taste receptors on the taste buds, which then activate G proteins. These G proteins, in turn, initiate a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately result in the perception of a bitter taste. Therefore, G proteins are responsible for mediating the bitter taste sensation.

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  • 38. 

    “Mallet finger is a common traumatic lesions resulting in flexion deformity of distal interphalangeal joint. The basic pathology of this condition is

    • Avlusion fracture of middle phalanx

    • Rupture of collateral slips of extensor expansion

    • Rupture of central slip of extensor expansion

    • Dislocation of distal interphalangeal joint

    Correct Answer
    A. Rupture of collateral slips of extensor expansion
    Explanation
    Mallet finger is a condition where there is a flexion deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint, commonly caused by a traumatic injury. The basic pathology of this condition involves the rupture of the collateral slips of the extensor expansion. These collateral slips are responsible for maintaining the extension of the distal interphalangeal joint. When they rupture, the balance between flexor and extensor tendons is disrupted, leading to the characteristic flexion deformity. Avulsion fracture of the middle phalanx, rupture of the central slip of the extensor expansion, and dislocation of the distal interphalangeal joint are not the primary pathology in mallet finger.

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  • 39. 

    CSF production per minute

    • 0.30-0.35ml/min

    • 0.5ml/min

    • 2ml/min

    • 1ml/mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.30-0.35ml/min
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.30-0.35ml/min. This range represents the normal production rate of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) per minute. CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and nutrients. The production of CSF helps maintain a stable environment for the brain and spinal cord. The range of 0.30-0.35ml/min indicates the average rate at which CSF is produced in a healthy individual.

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  • 40. 

    Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions

    • Hydroxylation

    • Carboxylations

    • Decarboxylations

    • Dehydrations

    Correct Answer
    A. Carboxylations
    Explanation
    Biotin is involved in carboxylations, which is the process of adding a carboxyl group (-COOH) to a molecule. Biotin acts as a cofactor for enzymes called carboxylases, which are responsible for catalyzing carboxylation reactions. These reactions are important for various metabolic processes, including the production of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids. Biotin binds to carboxylases and helps in the transfer of carbon dioxide from one molecule to another, leading to the addition of a carboxyl group.

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  • 41. 

    Transyloric plane passes through

    • T12

    • L1

    • L2

    • L4

    Correct Answer
    A. L1
    Explanation
    The Transyloric plane is a horizontal plane that passes through the body at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra (L1). This plane is used as a reference point in surgical procedures and radiological imaging to locate and assess structures in the abdomen. In this case, the correct answer is L1 because it is the only option that corresponds to a structure that the Transyloric plane passes through.

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  • 42. 

    Which one of the following organisms causes pneumonia which most commonly results in pneumatocele?

    • Klebsiella pneumoniae

    • Haemophilus influenza

    • Staphylococcus aureus

    • Streptococcus pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    Explanation
    Klebsiella pneumoniae is the correct answer because it is known to cause pneumonia that often leads to the formation of pneumatoceles. Pneumatoceles are air-filled cavities in the lung tissue that can develop as a result of severe pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a gram-negative bacterium that commonly causes pneumonia in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions. It is associated with a more severe form of pneumonia that can lead to complications such as pneumatoceles.

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  • 43. 

    Posterior wall of rectus sheath below the level of anterior superior iliac spine is formed by

    • Internal oblique

    • Transverses abdominis

    • Fascia transversalis

    • Lacunar ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Fascia transversalis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fascia transversalis. The posterior wall of the rectus sheath below the level of the anterior superior iliac spine is formed by the fascia transversalis. The rectus sheath is a fibrous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It is formed by the aponeuroses (fibrous sheets) of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. The fascia transversalis is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the transversus abdominis muscle and forms the innermost layer of the abdominal wall. It helps to provide support and protection to the abdominal organs.

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  • 44. 

    The mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could interfere with the secretion of which of the following hormones

    • Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

    • Epinephrine

    • Oxytocin

    • Prolactin

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    A mutation affecting the development of the diencephalon could interfere with the secretion of oxytocin. The diencephalon, which is a part of the brain, plays a crucial role in regulating hormone secretion. Oxytocin is a hormone that is primarily produced in the hypothalamus, a region within the diencephalon. It is involved in various physiological processes, such as childbirth, lactation, and social bonding. Therefore, if there is a mutation in the diencephalon, it could disrupt the normal production and secretion of oxytocin, leading to potential abnormalities in these processes.

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  • 45. 

    ​Trapezius is attached to all structures except

    • First rib

    • Clavicle

    • Scapula

    • Occiput

    Correct Answer
    A. First rib
    Explanation
    The trapezius muscle is a large muscle located in the upper back and neck area. It is responsible for movement and stabilization of the shoulder blades and neck. The trapezius muscle is attached to the clavicle, scapula, and occiput. However, it is not directly attached to the first rib. Therefore, the correct answer is the first rib.

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  • 46. 

    Basal metatbolic rate is dependent on

    • Body weight

    • Surface area

    • Amount of adipose tissue

    • Amount of lean body mass

    Correct Answer
    A. Surface area
    Explanation
    Basal metabolic rate is the amount of energy expended by an individual at rest. It is influenced by various factors, including body weight, surface area, amount of adipose tissue, and amount of lean body mass. However, the surface area of the body plays a significant role in determining basal metabolic rate. A larger surface area means more heat loss and therefore a higher metabolic rate to maintain body temperature. Therefore, surface area is a key factor in determining basal metabolic rate.

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  • 47. 

    Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in:

    • Acute left ventricular failure

    • Essential hypertension

    • Peripheral vascular disease

    • Primary pulmonary hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute left ventricular failure
    Explanation
    Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure because they can further depress myocardial contractility and worsen heart failure symptoms. These medications work by blocking calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscle and dilation of blood vessels, reducing blood pressure. However, in acute left ventricular failure, the heart is already unable to pump effectively, and further reducing contractility can be detrimental to the patient's condition. Therefore, calcium channel blockers should be avoided in this situation.

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  • 48. 

    Commonest early symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is:

    • Pruritus

    • Jaundice

    • Hepatomegaly

    • Pale stools

    Correct Answer
    A. Pruritus
    Explanation
    Pruritus, or itching, is the most common early symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis. This symptom occurs due to the buildup of bile acids in the bloodstream, which can cause irritation and itching of the skin. Jaundice, hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), and pale stools are also associated with primary biliary cirrhosis, but they are not typically the earliest symptoms.

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  • 49. 

    Anion gap is mainly due to

    • Sufate

    • Phosphates

    • Protein

    • Nitrates

    Correct Answer
    A. Protein
    Explanation
    Protein is the correct answer because anion gap refers to the difference between the concentration of cations and anions in the blood. Protein is an important anion in the blood and contributes significantly to the anion gap. Other substances mentioned in the options, such as sulfate, phosphates, and nitrates, may also contribute to the anion gap, but protein is the primary contributor.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 25, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 25, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 01, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Jishnufmgs

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