2AX7X Volume 2 UREs (2013)

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  • 1/70 Questions

    (203) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware.
    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.
    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
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2AX7X Volume 2 UREs (2013) - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz contains all the URE questions from USAF AFSC 2AX7X CDCs. It is intended for training and practice purposes only. Consider all choices carefully and select the best answer to each question.

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  • 2. 

    (205) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to gather information about the trainee's goals, skills, and qualifications, as well as to ensure that the supervisor is supportive of the trainee's career development. The Unit training manager plays a crucial role in coordinating and facilitating the career development process for trainees.

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  • 3. 

    (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Air Training Command (ATC)

    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This command is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. TDs are specialized units that provide specific training to individuals or groups within the Air Force. Therefore, it makes sense that they would be assigned to the command responsible for overall training and education.

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  • 4. 

    (202) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" and individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X." Lower-ranking individuals, such as Technical Sergeants or Senior Airmen, do not have the authority to make this decision. The higher rank requirement ensures that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are entrusted with the responsibility of downgrading a "Red-X" and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the aircraft or equipment.

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  • 5. 

    (207) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedlue your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • 12 hours.

    • 13 hours.

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. This means that you can schedule your workers for a maximum continuous duty time of 12 hours without needing approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). Scheduling workers for longer than 12 hours would require approval from the MXG/CC.

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  • 6. 

    (225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality Verification Inspection (QVI)

    • Management Inspection (MI)

    • Personnel Evaluation (PE)

    • Special Inspection (SI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Evaluation (PE)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment that involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task is called Personnel Evaluation (PE). This assessment allows for direct observation and evaluation of the technician's performance in real-time. It provides an opportunity to assess the individual's skills, knowledge, and adherence to standard procedures. The evaluator can provide immediate feedback and identify any areas that may require improvement. The Personnel Evaluation (PE) is an effective method to ensure that technicians are performing tasks correctly and maintaining the required standards.

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  • 7. 

    (207) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour sift up to

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours.
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for employees to work beyond the regular 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve it for up to 16 hours.

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  • 8. 

    (216) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

    • 8 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    • 32 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within 24 hours. This means that once a significant deficiency is identified, it must be reported within a day to ensure that it is promptly addressed and necessary actions can be taken. This time frame allows for timely communication and resolution of the deficiency to maintain safety and efficiency in the process.

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  • 9. 

    (223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Quality Assurance section.

    • Engine Management section.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is typically located within the Quality Assurance section. This section is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and practices are in compliance with established standards and regulations. The FOD monitor plays a crucial role in preventing foreign object damage to the aircraft's wings by monitoring and inspecting the work area for any potential debris or objects that could cause damage. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section, as they are responsible for maintaining the highest level of quality and safety in aircraft maintenance operations.

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  • 10. 

    (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Orientation

    • General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This course provides an overview of the maintenance organization and introduces new personnel to the policies, procedures, and responsibilities within the maintenance field. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a concentrated and comprehensive manner, allowing for efficient and effective training. This method is particularly suitable for the Maintenance Orientation course as it covers a wide range of introductory topics that can be easily organized into blocks for instruction.

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  • 11. 

    (222) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9, indicating that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 12. 

    (225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection (SI)

    • Personnel Evaluation (PE)

    • Management Inspection (MI)

    • Quality Verification Inspection (QVI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection (QVI)
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection (QVI) is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This assessment ensures that the task has been completed to the required standards and quality. It involves inspecting the work done by the technician to verify its accuracy and compliance with established maintenance procedures. The QVI helps to identify any potential issues or deficiencies in the completed task and ensures that the maintenance standards are upheld.

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  • 13. 

    (209) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3.

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  • 14. 

    (210) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment, minerals, or algae. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct signs of pollution.

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  • 15. 

    (223) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • Bolt

    • Panel

    • Safety pin

    • Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard to personnel or equipment.

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  • 16. 

    (208) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance Squadron (MXS).

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing and coordinating logistics support functions, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. As such, it makes sense that maintenance supply liaison personnel would report to the LRS commander, as they play a crucial role in facilitating the flow of supplies and materials for maintenance operations.

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  • 17. 

    (205) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it  has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed a grace period of 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have 30 days to complete their recertification once they are back from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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  • 18. 

    (210) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-2, Uncerviceable (Repairable) Tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
  • 19. 

    (223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager withing how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame allows for prompt reporting and investigation of the incident, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate any potential damage or safety risks caused by foreign objects. It also allows for timely communication and coordination between the wing and the MAJCOM FOD manager to address any necessary follow-up actions or preventive measures.

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  • 20. 

    (213) Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations Group Commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the operations and security of the installation, including the storage and handling of classified materials. They have the authority to grant permission for temporary storage and ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect the classified material.

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  • 21. 

    (219) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that products and services meet the required standards and specifications. The Product Improvement Manager would be responsible for identifying areas of improvement in the products and processes, implementing changes, and monitoring the effectiveness of those changes to enhance the overall quality of the maintenance operations.

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  • 22. 

    (206) Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded.

    • Unfunded.

    • Unvalidated.

    • Both funded and unfunded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded.
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations being "funded" means that the necessary resources, such as budget and personnel, have been allocated and approved to support the authorized positions. This indicates that the organization has the financial means to hire and maintain the required workforce.

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  • 23. 

    (209) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio Visual Center

    • Engineering Data Service Center

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • Communication and Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing important engineering documents and information. This can be useful for engineers and other professionals who need to access this data for reference or to collaborate on projects. The Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System do not have the same function of storing engineering data, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 24. 

    (212) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document helps to keep track of the documents that have been processed, ensuring that all necessary paperwork is accounted for and nothing is missed. It serves as a record of the documents processed and can be used for reference or auditing purposes.

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  • 25. 

    (213) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, he/she must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour.

    • 2 hours.

    • 3 hours.

    • 4 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours.
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary to ensure its security by conducting regular security checks. These checks are crucial to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the confidential equipment. The correct answer of 3 hours suggests that security checks should be arranged every 3 hours to maintain the safety and integrity of the aircraft and its secret or confidential equipment.

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  • 26. 

    (225) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

    • Wing Inspector General

    • MAJCOM Inspector General

    • Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    • Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed.

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  • 27. 

    (208) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This suggests that the HPMSK is intended for immediate or urgent use in a mission, and after 30 days, it is expected that the assets will have been utilized or replaced by the host base. Transferring the assets into the Standard Base Supply System account ensures proper tracking and accountability of the resources.

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  • 28. 

    (214) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply deivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer

    • Maintenance Supply support

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer is the one who decides how urgently they need the parts and communicates this information to the relevant parties. The customer's input is crucial in prioritizing the supply delivery and ensuring that their needs are met in a timely manner.

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  • 29. 

    (220) Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

    • A4MT

    • A4YE

    • A4U

    • A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. A4U
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A4U. A4U refers to the Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, Engineering, and Force Protection. As the Deputy Chief of Staff, this individual is responsible for overseeing and setting policies for the Air Force's Technical Order (TO) system. This includes determining the guidelines and regulations that govern the TO system and ensuring its effective implementation across the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    (221) Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • Air aborts.

    • Late takeoffs.

    • Ground aborts.

    • Aircraft status changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes.
    Explanation
    Red Ball maintenance refers to a system used in aviation to ensure the continuous availability and operational readiness of aircraft. It involves regular inspections, repairs, and maintenance activities. However, Red Ball maintenance is not specifically designed to prevent aircraft status changes. Aircraft status changes can occur due to various factors such as technical issues, weather conditions, or operational requirements. While Red Ball maintenance plays a crucial role in maintaining aircraft readiness, it does not directly address or prevent aircraft status changes.

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  • 31. 

    (224) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, is the correct answer because this publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. It outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance recovery procedures in case of equipment failure or breakdown.

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  • 32. 

    (208) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.

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  • 33. 

    (209) The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to cover the needs of the organization for a period of 30 days without running out. Having a 30-day supply ensures that there is enough stock on hand to meet demand and prevent disruptions in operations.

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  • 34. 

    (211) Whcih Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to track and manage the inventory of these items and ensure that the correct materials are used in production.

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  • 35. 

    (219) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given options represent different categories of technical order (TO) change priorities. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid categories of TO change priorities. However, "Standard" is not a category of TO change priority. Therefore, "Standard" is the correct answer as it does not belong to the TO change priority category.

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  • 36. 

    (221) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Programs and Resources Flight.

    • Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D).

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D).
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D). PS&D is responsible for maintaining documentation related to maintenance activities and scheduling. By notifying PS&D, they can update the necessary records and ensure that the cannibalization is properly documented and accounted for. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring the quality of maintenance activities, Programs and Resources Flight is responsible for managing resources, and Maintenance Management analysis (MMA) is responsible for analyzing maintenance data. None of these options specifically deal with the documentation and scheduling aspect, making PS&D the correct answer.

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  • 37. 

    (214) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. These codes indicate that the repair is urgent and needs to be prioritized in order to ensure the proper functioning of the LRU or SRU.

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  • 38. 

    (225) When a unit has received and unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    When a unit receives an unsatisfactory MSET rating, the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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  • 39. 

    (211) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron Commander

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian.

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  • 40. 

    (211) What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIb of supply training.

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  • 41. 

    (215) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • Operations Officer.

    • Aircraft Section flight chief.

    • Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all maintenance activities for the aircraft. They are the central hub for communication between supply personnel, maintenance personnel, and other relevant parties. Therefore, it makes sense for supply personnel to notify the MOC when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB.

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  • 42. 

    (221) Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

    • Weapons loading operations

    • Radiographic inspections

    • Fuel system repair

    • Aircraft on jacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons loading operations
    Explanation
    Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated spaces where specific maintenance tasks are performed and access is limited to authorized personnel. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require controlled access and specialized equipment, making them restricted maintenance areas. However, weapons loading operations typically take place in designated loading areas and do not require the same level of restricted access as the other maintenance tasks mentioned.

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  • 43. 

    (205) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This suggests that the MTF regularly updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training activities, ensuring that the commander is kept informed about the progress and any necessary adjustments that need to be made. This frequent briefing allows for effective communication and coordination within the maintenance group, ensuring that training goals are met and any issues are addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 44. 

    (203) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • Open suspenses

    • System upgrades

    • Application problems

    • Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    A. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the TBA software, users will be informed through the "System Messages" board. This allows users to stay updated and aware of any problems that may affect their training experience.

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  • 45. 

    (204) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The training phase with the sub-phases multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training is Phase II.

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  • 46. 

    (209) Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new experation date?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Shelf life items that are still serviceable can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date.

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  • 47. 

    (210) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This individual is in a position of authority within the section and has direct oversight of the personnel working there. They are responsible for ensuring that all employees are aware of the hazards present in their work environment and are trained on how to safely handle and mitigate those hazards. The section supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and healthy work environment for their team.

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  • 48. 

    (211) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and repair of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and available for use when needed. The ELO works closely with other units and organizations to ensure efficient management of SPRAM assets and support the overall mission of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

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  • 49. 

    (217) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

    • Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.

    • Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.

    • Resolving TO availability problems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
    Explanation
    The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to technical order distribution. These duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 22, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jmtutolo

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