Anatomy Of Perception: Eye, Ear, Nose, And Throat Quiz

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  • 1/77 Questions

    In caring for a patient with angle closure glaucoma, the most appropriate action is:

    • Prompt referral to an ophthamologist
    • To provide analgesia and repeat the exam when the patient is more comfortable
    • To instill a corticosteroid ophthalmic solution
    • To patch the eye and arrange follow-up in 24 hours
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About This Quiz

The Ear, Eye, Nose, and Throat are essential organs of the body for proper functioning. This quiz contains various ENT practice questions ranging from east, medium, to high level that will gauge your expertise in the topic. If you are someone who is preparing for a medical exam, this quiz will be of immense benefit to you. Share the quiz with your friends and family if you find it informative. All the best!

Anatomy Of Perception: Eye, Ear, Nose, And Throat Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    First-line intervention for anterior epistaxis includes:

    • Nasal packing

    • Application of topical thrombin

    • Firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage

    • Chemical cauterization

    Correct Answer
    A. Firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage
    Explanation
    The first-line intervention for anterior epistaxis is firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage. This technique, known as the "pinch and blow" method, involves pinching the soft part of the nose just below the nasal bone and applying firm pressure for about 10-15 minutes. This helps to compress the blood vessels and stop the bleeding. Nasal packing, application of topical thrombin, and chemical cauterization are alternative interventions that may be used if firm pressure is ineffective or if the bleeding is severe.

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  • 3. 

    A 19-year-old woman presents with a complaint of bilaterally itchy, red eyes with tearing that occurs intermittently throughout the year and is often accompanied by a rope-like eye discharge and clear nasal discharge. This is most consistent with conjunctival inflammation caused by a(n):

    • Bacterium

    • Virus

    • Allergen

    • Injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Allergen
    Explanation
    The symptoms described, including bilateral itchy, red eyes with tearing, rope-like eye discharge, and clear nasal discharge, are characteristic of allergic conjunctivitis. Allergens, such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, can trigger an immune response in susceptible individuals, leading to inflammation of the conjunctiva. This type of conjunctivitis is typically chronic and occurs intermittently throughout the year. Bacteria and viruses can cause conjunctivitis as well, but the symptoms described are more indicative of an allergic response. Injury would typically present with different symptoms, such as pain or trauma to the eye.

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  • 4. 

    Clinical presentation of peritonsillar abscesses includes:

    • Occipital lymphadenopathy

    • Congested cough

    • Muffled "hot potato" voice

    • Abdominal pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Muffled "hot potato" voice
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Muffled 'hot potato' voice." Peritonsillar abscesses are collections of pus that form in the tissues around the tonsils. The muffled "hot potato" voice is a characteristic symptom of this condition. It occurs because the abscess puts pressure on the surrounding structures, including the vocal cords, leading to a hoarse and muffled voice. The other symptoms listed, such as occipital lymphadenopathy, congested cough, and abdominal pain, are not typically associated with peritonsillar abscesses.

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  • 5. 

    Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:

    • HTN

    • Bleeding disorders

    • Localized nasal mucosa trauma

    • A foreign body

    Correct Answer
    A. Localized nasal mucosa trauma
    Explanation
    Anterior epistaxis refers to nosebleeds that occur in the front part of the nose. The most common cause of anterior epistaxis is localized nasal mucosa trauma, which can result from activities such as nose picking, blowing the nose forcefully, or irritation from dry air. High blood pressure (HTN), bleeding disorders, and foreign bodies can also contribute to nosebleeds, but they are less commonly associated with anterior epistaxis.

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  • 6. 

    Physical exam findings in otitis externa include:

    • Tympanic membrane immobility

    • Increased ear pain with tragus palpation

    • Tympanic membrane erythema

    • Tympanic membrane bullae

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased ear pain with tragus palpation
    Explanation
    Increased ear pain with tragus palpation is a common finding in otitis externa. Tragus palpation involves pressing on the small, pointed cartilage in front of the ear canal. In otitis externa, the ear canal is inflamed and infected, leading to pain and tenderness. Pressing on the tragus can worsen the pain, indicating the presence of otitis externa. This finding, along with other symptoms such as tympanic membrane erythema and bullae, helps in diagnosing and confirming otitis externa.

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  • 7. 

    A 74-year-old woman with well-controlled HTN who is taking HCTZ presents with a 3-day history of unilateral throbbing headache with difficulty chewing because of the pain. On physical exam, you find a tender, noncompressible temporal artery. BP is 160/88 mmHg, apical pulse is 98 bpm and respiratory rate is 22/min. The patient is visibly uncomfortable. The most likely diagnosis is:

    • Giant cell arteritis

    • Impending TIA

    • Complicated migraine

    • Temporal mandibular joint dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Giant cell arteritis
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of a unilateral throbbing headache, difficulty chewing, and tender, noncompressible temporal artery is highly suggestive of giant cell arteritis. Giant cell arteritis is an inflammatory condition that affects medium and large arteries, particularly the temporal arteries. It commonly presents in older individuals and is associated with symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances. The elevated blood pressure and discomfort further support this diagnosis. Impending TIA, complicated migraine, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction do not explain the characteristic findings of tender temporal artery and elevated blood pressure.

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  • 8. 

    Oral decongestant use should be discouraged in patients with:

    • Allergic rhinitis

    • Migraine headache

    • Cardiovascular disease

    • Chronic bronchitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiovascular disease
    Explanation
    The use of oral decongestants should be discouraged in patients with cardiovascular disease. This is because decongestants can cause vasoconstriction, which can increase blood pressure and heart rate. In patients with cardiovascular disease, this can put them at a higher risk of experiencing adverse cardiovascular events such as heart attack or stroke. Therefore, it is important to avoid oral decongestant use in these patients to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a first-line therapy for the treatment of ABRS in an adult with no recent antimicrobial use?

    • Amoxicillin

    • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

    • Clarithromycin

    • Levofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. Amoxicillin
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin is a first-line therapy for the treatment of Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS) in an adult with no recent antimicrobial use. ABRS is commonly caused by bacterial infection, and amoxicillin is an effective antibiotic that targets a wide range of bacteria. It is often prescribed as the initial treatment due to its efficacy, safety, and low cost. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, clarithromycin, and levofloxacin are alternative options but may be reserved for patients who are allergic to amoxicillin or have failed initial treatment.

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  • 10. 

    An 88-year-old, community-dwelling man who lives alone has limited mobility because of osteoarthritis. Since his last office visit 2 months ago, he has lost 5% of his body weight and has developed angular cheilitis. You expect to find the following on exam:

    • Fissuring and cracking at the corners of the mouth

    • Marked erythema of the hard and soft palates

    • White plaques on the lateral borders of the buccal mucosa

    • Raised, painless lesions on the gingiva

    Correct Answer
    A. Fissuring and cracking at the corners of the mouth
    Explanation
    The presence of fissuring and cracking at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, is indicative of a nutritional deficiency, specifically of vitamin B2 (riboflavin). This is supported by the fact that the patient has also experienced weight loss and has developed angular cheilitis, both of which can be associated with malnutrition. The other findings mentioned, such as marked erythema of the hard and soft palates, white plaques on the buccal mucosa, and raised, painless lesions on the gingiva, are not typically associated with a deficiency in vitamin B2.

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  • 11. 

    The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for treating ABRS in a 45-year-old person who is moderately ill with the condition is:

    • Erythromycin

    • High-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate

    • Cephalexin

    • Ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. High-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate
    Explanation
    The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for treating acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) in a moderately ill 45-year-old person is high-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate. This combination is effective against the most common pathogens causing ABRS, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Erythromycin is not the first-line treatment for ABRS and is typically reserved for patients with penicillin allergy. Cephalexin is not as effective against the common pathogens causing ABRS. Ciprofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic but is generally reserved for more severe cases or when other antibiotics have failed.

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  • 12. 

    Antihystamines work primarily through:

    • Vasoconstriction

    • Action on the histamine-1 (H1) receptor sites

    • Inflammatory mediation

    • Peripheral vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Action on the histamine-1 (H1) receptor sites
    Explanation
    Antihistamines work primarily by acting on the histamine-1 (H1) receptor sites. Histamine is a chemical released by the body during an allergic reaction, causing symptoms such as itching, sneezing, and watery eyes. Antihistamines block the H1 receptors, preventing histamine from binding to them and reducing the allergic response. This action helps to relieve symptoms like itching and congestion.

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  • 13. 

    A 19-year-old man presents with a chief complaint of a red, irritated right eye for the past 48 hours with eyelids that were "stuck together" this morning when he awoke. Exam reveals injected palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva; reactive pupils; vision screen with the Snellen chart of 20/30 in the right eye (OD), left eye (OS) and both eyes (OU); and purulent eye discharge on the right. This presentation is most consistent with:

    • Suppurative conjunctivitis

    • Viral conjunctivitis

    • Allergic conjunctivitis

    • Mechanical injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Suppurative conjunctivitis
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of redness, irritation, and purulent eye discharge, along with the presence of injected palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva, suggest an infection of the conjunctiva. Suppurative conjunctivitis, also known as bacterial conjunctivitis, is characterized by these symptoms and is commonly caused by bacterial pathogens. Viral conjunctivitis and allergic conjunctivitis typically do not present with purulent discharge. Mechanical injury would not explain the presence of purulent discharge and the other symptoms described. Therefore, suppurative conjunctivitis is the most likely explanation for the patient's presentation.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following best describes hearing loss associated with presbycusis?

    • Rapidly progressive, often asymmetric, and in all frequencies

    • Slowly progressive, usually symmetric and predominantly high frequencies

    • Variable in progression, usually unilateral, and in the midrange frequencies

    • Primarily conductive and bilateral with slow progress

    Correct Answer
    A. Slowly progressive, usually symmetric and predominantly high frequencies
    Explanation
    Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that is commonly associated with aging. It is characterized by a gradual and slow progression of hearing loss. The term "progressive" indicates that the hearing loss worsens over time. It is also typically symmetric, meaning that it affects both ears equally. Additionally, presbycusis primarily affects the higher frequencies, making it difficult for individuals to hear high-pitched sounds. Therefore, the answer "Slowly progressive, usually symmetric and predominantly high frequencies" best describes the hearing loss associated with presbycusis.

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  • 15. 

    Risk factors for POAG include all of the following except:

    • African ancestry

    • DM-II

    • Advanced age

    • Blue eye color

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue eye color
    Explanation
    The correct answer is blue eye color. Blue eye color is not considered a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). POAG is more common in individuals of African ancestry, those with diabetes mellitus type II (DM-II), and older individuals. However, there is no evidence to suggest that blue eye color increases the risk of developing POAG.

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  • 16. 

    Patients with strep throat can be cleared to return to work or school after ____ hours of antimicrobial therapy.

    • 12

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Patients with strep throat can be cleared to return to work or school after 24 hours of antimicrobial therapy. This is because strep throat is highly contagious and can easily spread to others through respiratory droplets. Antimicrobial therapy helps to kill the bacteria causing strep throat and reduce the risk of transmission. After 24 hours of treatment, the patient's symptoms should improve, and they become less contagious, making it safe for them to return to work or school.

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  • 17. 

    Expected findings in AOM include:

    • Prominent bony landmarks

    • Tympanic membrane immobility

    • Itchiness and crackling in the affected ear

    • Submental lymphadenopathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Tympanic membrane immobility
    Explanation
    The expected finding in AOM (acute otitis media) is tympanic membrane immobility. This means that the eardrum is not able to move properly in response to sound waves. This is a characteristic sign of AOM and can be detected during a physical examination of the ear. The other options listed (prominent bony landmarks, itchiness and crackling in the affected ear, submental lymphadenopathy) are not typically associated with AOM.

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  • 18. 

    One of the most serious complications of giant cell arteritis is:

    • Hemiparesis

    • Arthritis

    • Blindness

    • Uveitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Blindness
    Explanation
    Blindness is the correct answer because giant cell arteritis is a condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels, particularly in the head and neck. If the blood vessels supplying the optic nerve become inflamed, it can lead to a condition called anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, which can cause sudden and permanent vision loss. Therefore, blindness is a serious complication of giant cell arteritis.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a patient with untreated POAG?

    • Excessive cupping of the optic disk

    • Arteriovenous nicking

    • Papilledema

    • Flame-shaped hemorrhages

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive cupping of the optic disk
    Explanation
    Excessive cupping of the optic disk is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a patient with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). This is because POAG is characterized by progressive damage to the optic nerve, which leads to the excavation or cupping of the optic disk. As the disease progresses, the cupping becomes more pronounced, indicating worsening damage to the optic nerve. Arteriovenous nicking, papilledema, and flame-shaped hemorrhages are not typically associated with POAG and may be indicative of other ocular or systemic conditions.

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  • 20. 

    A firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node would most likely be seen in the diagnosis of:

    • Herpes simplex

    • Acute otitis media

    • Bacterial pharyngitis

    • Oral cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral cancer
    Explanation
    A firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node is a characteristic finding in oral cancer. Oral cancer can cause the enlargement of lymph nodes in the submandibular area, which may feel firm to the touch. This is in contrast to conditions like herpes simplex, acute otitis media, and bacterial pharyngitis, which typically do not cause such specific lymph node changes. Therefore, the presence of a firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node would be more indicative of oral cancer than the other options.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?

    • URIs persisting beyond 7-10 days or worsening after 5-7 days.

    • Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness

    • Preauricular lymphadenopathy

    • Marked eyelid edema

    Correct Answer
    A. URIs persisting beyond 7-10 days or worsening after 5-7 days.
    Explanation
    The finding of URIs persisting beyond 7-10 days or worsening after 5-7 days is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS). This is because ABRS is characterized by the persistence or worsening of upper respiratory symptoms, such as nasal congestion, facial pain, and headache, beyond the expected duration of a viral upper respiratory infection. The other findings, including mild midfacial fullness and tenderness, preauricular lymphadenopathy, and marked eyelid edema, can also be seen in ABRS but are less specific to the diagnosis.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is consistent with the visual problems associated with macular degeneration?

    • Peripheral vision loss

    • Blurring of near vision

    • Difficulty with distant vision

    • Loss of central vision field

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of central vision field
    Explanation
    Loss of central vision field is consistent with the visual problems associated with macular degeneration. Macular degeneration affects the macula, which is responsible for central vision. As the disease progresses, individuals may experience a loss of their central vision field, making it difficult to see objects directly in front of them. Peripheral vision loss, blurring of near vision, and difficulty with distant vision are not typically associated with macular degeneration, making them inconsistent with the condition.

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  • 23. 

    An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a "sore throat and swollen glands" for the past 3 days. Her physical exam includes a temp of 101F, exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

    • Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis

    • Infectious mononucleosis

    • Viral pharyngitis

    • Vincent angina

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis. This is supported by the presence of symptoms such as sore throat, swollen glands, and exudative pharyngitis, along with a fever of 101F. Additionally, the tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is a common finding in streptococcal pharyngitis. The absence of right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness suggests that the infection is localized to the throat and lymph nodes, rather than involving the liver or spleen, which would be more characteristic of infectious mononucleosis.

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  • 24. 

    A 25-year-old woman who has seasonal allergic rhinitis likes to spend time outdoors. She asks you when the pollen count is likely to be the lowest. You respond:

    • Early in the morning

    • During breezy times of the day

    • After a rain shower

    • When the sky is overcast

    Correct Answer
    A. After a rain shower
    Explanation
    After a rain shower, the pollen count is likely to be lower because the rain washes away the pollen from the air and surfaces. This provides temporary relief for individuals with seasonal allergies like allergic rhinitis.

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  • 25. 

    The most common causative bacterial pathogen in ABRS is:

    • M. pneumoniae

    • S. pneumoniae

    • M. catarrhalis

    • H. influenzae

    Correct Answer
    A. S. pneumoniae
    Explanation
    S. pneumoniae is the most common causative bacterial pathogen in Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS). This bacterium is responsible for causing a majority of sinus infections. It is a leading cause of respiratory infections and can lead to severe symptoms such as facial pain, nasal congestion, and sinus inflammation. S. pneumoniae is a gram-positive bacterium commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and can cause infections when the sinus cavities become blocked or infected. Prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment are necessary to prevent complications associated with ABRS.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following represents a therapeutic option for ABRS in a patient with no recent antimicrobial care with treatment failure after 72 hours of appropriate-dose first-line antimicrobial therapy?

    • Clindamycin

    • Clarithromycin

    • Ofloxacin

    • High-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate

    Correct Answer
    A. High-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate
    Explanation
    High-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate is a therapeutic option for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) in a patient who has not received recent antimicrobial care and has experienced treatment failure after 72 hours of appropriate-dose first-line antimicrobial therapy. This combination medication is effective against the most common pathogens causing ABRS, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. The addition of clavulanate helps to overcome beta-lactamase production by some bacteria, enhancing the efficacy of amoxicillin. Clindamycin, clarithromycin, and ofloxacin are alternative treatment options for ABRS, but high-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate is the preferred choice in this scenario.

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  • 27. 

    A 22-year-old woman presents with a "bump" on her right eyelid. Exam reveals a 2-mm hard, non-tender swelling on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent with:

    • A chalazion

    • A hordeolum

    • Blepharitis

    • Cellulitis

    Correct Answer
    A. A chalazion
    Explanation
    The presentation of a 2-mm hard, non-tender swelling on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin is most consistent with a chalazion. A chalazion is a painless, chronic granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian gland, which can cause a firm, non-tender nodule on the eyelid. A hordeolum, on the other hand, presents as an acute, tender, erythematous swelling, usually involving the eyelash follicle. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margins, typically causing redness and crusting. Cellulitis is a more severe infection involving the soft tissues around the eye, which would present with erythema, warmth, tenderness, and systemic symptoms.

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  • 28. 

    You inspect the oral cavity of a 69-year-old man who has a 100-pack-year cigarette smoking history. You find a lesion suspicious for malignancy and describe it as:

    • Raised, red and painful

    • A denuded patch with a removable white coating

    • An ulcerated lesion with indurated margins

    • A vesicular-form lesion with macerated margins

    Correct Answer
    A. An ulcerated lesion with indurated margins
    Explanation
    The description of an ulcerated lesion with indurated margins suggests a possible malignancy. Ulceration refers to the presence of an open sore or wound, while indurated margins indicate hardened or firm edges around the lesion. These characteristics are concerning for a cancerous growth, as they can be indicative of tissue destruction and infiltration. It is important to further evaluate and potentially biopsy this lesion to confirm the diagnosis and determine appropriate management.

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  • 29. 

    Therapeutic interventions for the patient with Giant Cell Arteritis should include:

    • Systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months

    • Addition of an ACEI for her antihypertensive regimen.

    • Warfarin therapy

    • Initiation of topiramate (Topamax) therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months. Giant Cell Arteritis is an inflammatory disease that affects the blood vessels, particularly the arteries in the head and neck. Systemic corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for this condition, as they help reduce inflammation and prevent complications such as vision loss. The therapy usually lasts for many months to ensure adequate control of the disease. The other options, addition of an ACEI, warfarin therapy, and initiation of topiramate therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of Giant Cell Arteritis.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a common vision problem in the person with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?

    • Peripheral vision loss

    • Blurring of near vision

    • Difficulty with distant vision

    • Need for increased illumination

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral vision loss
    Explanation
    Untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) commonly leads to peripheral vision loss. This occurs because the optic nerve, which transmits visual information from the eye to the brain, becomes damaged over time due to increased pressure in the eye. As a result, the person gradually loses their ability to see objects and movement in their side or peripheral vision, while their central vision remains relatively unaffected. This symptom is a hallmark of POAG and can significantly impact a person's daily activities and mobility if left untreated.

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  • 31. 

    A 22-year-old woman presents with a "pimple" on her right eyelid. Exam reveals a 2-mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent with:

    • A chalazion

    • A hordeolum

    • Blepharitis

    • Cellulitis

    Correct Answer
    A. A hordeolum
    Explanation
    A hordeolum, also known as a stye, is a common condition characterized by a pustule or abscess on the eyelid margin. It is typically caused by an infection of the oil glands in the eyelid. The presentation of a 2-mm pustule on the lateral border of the eyelid margin aligns with the classic clinical findings of a hordeolum. Chalazion, another eyelid condition, is characterized by a painless, non-infectious, chronic granulomatous inflammation, which is not consistent with the given presentation. Blepharitis is a chronic inflammation of the eyelid margins, but it does not typically present with a pustule. Cellulitis is a more severe infection involving the deeper tissues of the eyelid, and it would present with more significant signs and symptoms than described in the question stem.

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  • 32. 

    In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be used as:

    • An agent to relieve nasal itch

    • An inflammatory inhibitor

    • A rescue drug

    • An intervention in acute inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. An inflammatory inhibitor
    Explanation
    Leukotriene modifiers are drugs that work by inhibiting the production or activity of leukotrienes, which are inflammatory substances released during allergic reactions. By inhibiting inflammation, leukotriene modifiers can help alleviate the symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as nasal itch. Therefore, they are used as inflammatory inhibitors in the treatment of allergic rhinitis.

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  • 33. 

    Prevention and prophylaxis in Meniere's disease include all of the following except:

    • Avoiding ototoxic drugs

    • Protecting the ears from loud noise

    • Limiting sodium intake

    • Restricting fluid intake

    Correct Answer
    A. Restricting fluid intake
    Explanation
    Restricting fluid intake is not a recommended prevention or prophylaxis method for Meniere's disease. Meniere's disease is characterized by an excess buildup of fluid in the inner ear, leading to symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Restricting fluid intake could potentially worsen the condition by causing dehydration and imbalances in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid ototoxic drugs, protect the ears from loud noise, and limit sodium intake to manage Meniere's disease, but restricting fluid intake is not necessary.

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  • 34. 

    Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with PCN allergies include all of the following except:

    • Azithromycin

    • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

    • Clarithromycin

    • Erythromycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
    Explanation
    Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is not a recommended treatment option for streptococcal pharyngitis in patients with PCN allergies. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin are alternative antibiotics that can be used in such cases. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is not effective against streptococcal bacteria and is not commonly used to treat this infection.

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  • 35. 

    According to the Global Resources in Allergy (GLORIA) guidelines, which of the following is recommended for intervention in persistent allergic conjunctivitis?

    • Topical mast cell stabilizer with a topical antihistamine

    • Ocular decongestant

    • Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

    • Topical corticosteroid

    Correct Answer
    A. Topical mast cell stabilizer with a topical antihistamine
    Explanation
    The Global Resources in Allergy (GLORIA) guidelines recommend the use of a topical mast cell stabilizer with a topical antihistamine for intervention in persistent allergic conjunctivitis. This combination helps to stabilize mast cells, which release histamine during an allergic reaction, and also provides relief from symptoms such as itching and redness. Topical decongestants, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and corticosteroids are not the recommended interventions for persistent allergic conjunctivitis according to the GLORIA guidelines.

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  • 36. 

    A risk factor for malignant external otitis includes:

    • The presence of an immunocompromised condition

    • Age younger than 21 years

    • A history of a recent URI

    • A complicated course of otitis media with effusion

    Correct Answer
    A. The presence of an immunocompromised condition
    Explanation
    The presence of an immunocompromised condition is a risk factor for malignant external otitis. This is because individuals with weakened immune systems are more susceptible to infections, including those affecting the ear. Malignant external otitis is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection of the external ear canal and surrounding tissues. Immunocompromised individuals, such as those with diabetes, HIV/AIDS, or undergoing chemotherapy, have a reduced ability to fight off infections, making them more vulnerable to developing this condition.

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  • 37. 

    Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) helps control nasal secretions through:

    • Antihistamine action

    • Anticholinergic effect

    • Vasodilation

    • Vasoconstriction

    Correct Answer
    A. Anticholinergic effect
    Explanation
    Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) helps control nasal secretions through its anticholinergic effect. This means that it blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates the production of nasal secretions. By inhibiting the effects of acetylcholine, ipratropium bromide reduces the production of nasal secretions and helps to control them.

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  • 38. 

    Cromolyn's mechanism of action is a/an:

    • Anti-immunoglobulin E antibody

    • Vasoconstrictor

    • Mast cell stabilizer

    • Leukotriene modifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Mast cell stabilizer
    Explanation
    Cromolyn's mechanism of action involves stabilizing mast cells. Mast cells play a crucial role in allergic reactions by releasing histamine and other inflammatory substances. By stabilizing mast cells, cromolyn prevents the release of these substances and helps to reduce the symptoms of allergies and asthma. It does not function as an anti-immunoglobulin E antibody, vasoconstrictor, or leukotriene modifier.

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  • 39. 

    Concomitant disease seen with giant cell arteritis includes:

    • Polymyalgia rheumatica

    • Acute pancreatitis

    • Psoriatic arthritis

    • Reiter syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Polymyalgia rheumatica
    Explanation
    Giant cell arteritis is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica, a condition characterized by muscle pain and stiffness, especially in the shoulders and hips. Both conditions often occur together and share similar symptoms such as joint pain and inflammation. This association is believed to be due to the autoimmune nature of both diseases, where the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues. Therefore, polymyalgia rheumatica is a concomitant disease frequently seen in patients with giant cell arteritis.

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  • 40. 

    The incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually:

    • 1-3 days

    • 3-5 days

    • 6-9 days

    • 10-13 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-5 days
    Explanation
    The incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually 3-5 days. This means that after being exposed to the bacteria, it takes about 3-5 days for symptoms to develop. During this time, the bacteria are multiplying and establishing an infection in the body. It is important to note that the incubation period can vary depending on factors such as the individual's immune system and the specific strain of S. pyogenes.

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  • 41. 

    A 78-year-old woman has early bilateral senile cataracts. Which of the following situations would likely pose the greatest difficulty?

    • Reading the newspaper

    • Distinguishing between the primary colors

    • Following extraocular movements

    • Reading road signs while driving

    Correct Answer
    A. Reading road signs while driving
    Explanation
    A 78-year-old woman with early bilateral senile cataracts would likely have the greatest difficulty in reading road signs while driving. Cataracts cause clouding of the lens in the eye, leading to blurred vision and decreased visual acuity. This can make it challenging to see and read road signs, which are essential for safe driving. While reading the newspaper, distinguishing between primary colors, and following extraocular movements may also be affected to some extent, they are not as critical for driving as reading road signs.

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  • 42. 

    Treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following ophthalmic preparations except:

    • Bacitracin-polymyxin B

    • Ciprofloxacin

    • Erythromycin

    • Penicillin

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis, and the correct answer is Penicillin. This means that Penicillin is not a recommended ophthalmic preparation for treating suppurative conjunctivitis. The other options listed, Bacitracin-polymyxin B, Ciprofloxacin, and Erythromycin, are all commonly used ophthalmic preparations for treating this condition.

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  • 43. 

    Clindamycin is most effective against which of the following organisms?

    • S. pneumoniae

    • H. influenzae

    • M. catarrhalis

    • Adenovirus

    Correct Answer
    A. S. pneumoniae
    Explanation
    Clindamycin is most effective against S. pneumoniae because it is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that targets and inhibits the growth of bacteria. S. pneumoniae is a common bacterial pathogen that causes respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia. Clindamycin works by binding to the bacterial ribosome and inhibiting protein synthesis, ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. It is not effective against viruses like Adenovirus, as it specifically targets bacteria.

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  • 44. 

    A 58-year-old woman presents with a sudden left-sided headache that is most painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred and the left pupil is slightly dilated and poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected and the eyeball is firm. Vision screen with the Snellen chart is 20/30 OD and 20/90 OS. The most likely diagnosis is:

    • Unilateral herpetic conjunctivitis

    • Open-angle glaucoma

    • Angle closure glaucoma

    • Anterior uveitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Angle closure glaucoma
    Explanation
    The patient's sudden left-sided headache, blurred vision, dilated and poorly reactive left pupil, injected conjunctiva, and firm eyeball are all consistent with the symptoms of angle closure glaucoma. Additionally, the significant difference in vision between the right and left eyes (20/30 OD and 20/90 OS) suggests that there is a problem specifically with the left eye. These findings indicate that the most likely diagnosis is angle closure glaucoma, which is characterized by a sudden increase in intraocular pressure due to the closure of the drainage angle in the eye.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is true regarding Meniere disease?

    • Neuroimaging helps locate the offending cochlear lesion

    • Associated high-frequency hearing loss is common

    • It is largely a diagnosis of exclusion

    • Tinnitus is rarely reported

    Correct Answer
    A. It is largely a diagnosis of exclusion
    Explanation
    Meniere's disease is largely a diagnosis of exclusion, meaning that other possible causes of the symptoms must be ruled out before a diagnosis of Meniere's disease can be made. This is because the symptoms of Meniere's disease, such as vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, can also be caused by other conditions. Neuroimaging is not typically used to locate the offending cochlear lesion in Meniere's disease, and associated high-frequency hearing loss is actually common in this condition. Tinnitus is a common symptom of Meniere's disease, not rarely reported.

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  • 46. 

    Treatment of otitis media with effusion usually includes:

    • Symptomatic treatment

    • Antimicrobial therapy

    • An antihistamine

    • A mucolytic

    Correct Answer
    A. Symptomatic treatment
    Explanation
    Symptomatic treatment is the most appropriate option for the treatment of otitis media with effusion. This approach focuses on managing the symptoms rather than targeting the underlying cause. Otitis media with effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the middle ear, causing hearing loss and discomfort. Symptomatic treatment may include pain relievers, such as analgesics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, to alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. It may also involve the use of decongestants or nasal sprays to relieve nasal congestion and improve Eustachian tube function. Additionally, warm compresses or ear drops may be recommended to alleviate symptoms and promote drainage of fluid from the middle ear.

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  • 47. 

    All of the following are consistent with normal age-related vision changes except:

    • Need for increased illumination

    • Increasing sensitivity to glare

    • Washing out of colors

    • Gradual loss of peripheral vision

    Correct Answer
    A. Gradual loss of peripheral vision
    Explanation
    As people age, they may experience normal age-related vision changes such as the need for increased illumination, increasing sensitivity to glare, and washing out of colors. However, gradual loss of peripheral vision is not a normal age-related vision change. Peripheral vision loss is typically associated with conditions like glaucoma or retinitis pigmentosa, rather than the natural aging process.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is consistent with the visual problems associated with presbyopia?

    • Bilateral peripheral vision loss

    • Blurring of near vision

    • Difficulty with distant vision

    • Loss of central vision field

    Correct Answer
    A. Blurring of near vision
    Explanation
    Presbyopia is an age-related condition that affects the ability to focus on objects up close. Blurring of near vision is consistent with the visual problems associated with presbyopia because it becomes increasingly difficult to see objects clearly at a close distance. This is due to the hardening of the lens in the eye, which makes it less flexible and less able to change shape to focus on near objects. This blurring of near vision is a common symptom of presbyopia and can be corrected with reading glasses or other vision aids.

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  • 49. 

    Treatment options for POAG include all of the following topical agents except:

    • Beta-adrenergic antagonists

    • Alpha2-agonists

    • Prostaglandin analogues

    • Mast cell stabilizers

    Correct Answer
    A. Mast cell stabilizers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mast cell stabilizers because they are not used as a treatment option for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Mast cell stabilizers are typically used to treat allergic conditions such as allergic conjunctivitis, not glaucoma. The other options listed (beta-adrenergic antagonists, alpha2-agonists, and prostaglandin analogues) are commonly used topical agents for managing POAG.

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  • Dec 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Nov 11, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Ctichy84
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