Anatomy Of Perception: Eye, Ear, Nose, And Throat Quiz

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1. In caring for a patient with angle closure glaucoma, the most appropriate action is:

Explanation

Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist is the most appropriate action in caring for a patient with angle closure glaucoma. Angle closure glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. It is characterized by a sudden increase in intraocular pressure, which can lead to irreversible vision loss if not treated promptly. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist ensures that the patient receives the necessary specialized care and treatment to relieve the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve.

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About This Quiz
Anatomy Of Perception: Eye, Ear, Nose, And Throat Quiz - Quiz

The Ear, Eye, Nose, and Throat are essential organs of the body for proper functioning. This quiz contains various ENT practice questions ranging from east, medium, to high... see morelevel that will gauge your expertise in the topic. If you are someone who is preparing for a medical exam, this quiz will be of immense benefit to you. Share the quiz with your friends and family if you find it informative. All the best! see less

2. First-line intervention for anterior epistaxis includes:

Explanation

The first-line intervention for anterior epistaxis is firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage. This technique, known as the "pinch and blow" method, involves pinching the soft part of the nose just below the nasal bone and applying firm pressure for about 10-15 minutes. This helps to compress the blood vessels and stop the bleeding. Nasal packing, application of topical thrombin, and chemical cauterization are alternative interventions that may be used if firm pressure is ineffective or if the bleeding is severe.

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3. A 19-year-old woman presents with a complaint of bilaterally itchy, red eyes with tearing that occurs intermittently throughout the year and is often accompanied by a rope-like eye discharge and clear nasal discharge. This is most consistent with conjunctival inflammation caused by a(n):

Explanation

The symptoms described, including bilateral itchy, red eyes with tearing, rope-like eye discharge, and clear nasal discharge, are characteristic of allergic conjunctivitis. Allergens, such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, can trigger an immune response in susceptible individuals, leading to inflammation of the conjunctiva. This type of conjunctivitis is typically chronic and occurs intermittently throughout the year. Bacteria and viruses can cause conjunctivitis as well, but the symptoms described are more indicative of an allergic response. Injury would typically present with different symptoms, such as pain or trauma to the eye.

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4. Clinical presentation of peritonsillar abscesses includes:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Muffled 'hot potato' voice." Peritonsillar abscesses are collections of pus that form in the tissues around the tonsils. The muffled "hot potato" voice is a characteristic symptom of this condition. It occurs because the abscess puts pressure on the surrounding structures, including the vocal cords, leading to a hoarse and muffled voice. The other symptoms listed, such as occipital lymphadenopathy, congested cough, and abdominal pain, are not typically associated with peritonsillar abscesses.

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5. Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:

Explanation

Anterior epistaxis refers to nosebleeds that occur in the front part of the nose. The most common cause of anterior epistaxis is localized nasal mucosa trauma, which can result from activities such as nose picking, blowing the nose forcefully, or irritation from dry air. High blood pressure (HTN), bleeding disorders, and foreign bodies can also contribute to nosebleeds, but they are less commonly associated with anterior epistaxis.

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6. Physical exam findings in otitis externa include:

Explanation

Increased ear pain with tragus palpation is a common finding in otitis externa. Tragus palpation involves pressing on the small, pointed cartilage in front of the ear canal. In otitis externa, the ear canal is inflamed and infected, leading to pain and tenderness. Pressing on the tragus can worsen the pain, indicating the presence of otitis externa. This finding, along with other symptoms such as tympanic membrane erythema and bullae, helps in diagnosing and confirming otitis externa.

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7. Oral decongestant use should be discouraged in patients with:

Explanation

The use of oral decongestants should be discouraged in patients with cardiovascular disease. This is because decongestants can cause vasoconstriction, which can increase blood pressure and heart rate. In patients with cardiovascular disease, this can put them at a higher risk of experiencing adverse cardiovascular events such as heart attack or stroke. Therefore, it is important to avoid oral decongestant use in these patients to ensure their safety and well-being.

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8. Which of the following is a first-line therapy for the treatment of ABRS in an adult with no recent antimicrobial use?

Explanation

Amoxicillin is a first-line therapy for the treatment of Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS) in an adult with no recent antimicrobial use. ABRS is commonly caused by bacterial infection, and amoxicillin is an effective antibiotic that targets a wide range of bacteria. It is often prescribed as the initial treatment due to its efficacy, safety, and low cost. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, clarithromycin, and levofloxacin are alternative options but may be reserved for patients who are allergic to amoxicillin or have failed initial treatment.

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9. A 74-year-old woman with well-controlled HTN who is taking HCTZ presents with a 3-day history of unilateral throbbing headache with difficulty chewing because of the pain. On physical exam, you find a tender, noncompressible temporal artery. BP is 160/88 mmHg, apical pulse is 98 bpm and respiratory rate is 22/min. The patient is visibly uncomfortable. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

The patient's presentation of a unilateral throbbing headache, difficulty chewing, and tender, noncompressible temporal artery is highly suggestive of giant cell arteritis. Giant cell arteritis is an inflammatory condition that affects medium and large arteries, particularly the temporal arteries. It commonly presents in older individuals and is associated with symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances. The elevated blood pressure and discomfort further support this diagnosis. Impending TIA, complicated migraine, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction do not explain the characteristic findings of tender temporal artery and elevated blood pressure.

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10. The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for treating ABRS in a 45-year-old person who is moderately ill with the condition is:

Explanation

The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for treating acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) in a moderately ill 45-year-old person is high-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate. This combination is effective against the most common pathogens causing ABRS, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Erythromycin is not the first-line treatment for ABRS and is typically reserved for patients with penicillin allergy. Cephalexin is not as effective against the common pathogens causing ABRS. Ciprofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic but is generally reserved for more severe cases or when other antibiotics have failed.

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11. An 88-year-old, community-dwelling man who lives alone has limited mobility because of osteoarthritis. Since his last office visit 2 months ago, he has lost 5% of his body weight and has developed angular cheilitis. You expect to find the following on exam:

Explanation

The presence of fissuring and cracking at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, is indicative of a nutritional deficiency, specifically of vitamin B2 (riboflavin). This is supported by the fact that the patient has also experienced weight loss and has developed angular cheilitis, both of which can be associated with malnutrition. The other findings mentioned, such as marked erythema of the hard and soft palates, white plaques on the buccal mucosa, and raised, painless lesions on the gingiva, are not typically associated with a deficiency in vitamin B2.

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12. Antihystamines work primarily through:

Explanation

Antihistamines work primarily by acting on the histamine-1 (H1) receptor sites. Histamine is a chemical released by the body during an allergic reaction, causing symptoms such as itching, sneezing, and watery eyes. Antihistamines block the H1 receptors, preventing histamine from binding to them and reducing the allergic response. This action helps to relieve symptoms like itching and congestion.

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13. Which of the following best describes hearing loss associated with presbycusis?

Explanation

Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that is commonly associated with aging. It is characterized by a gradual and slow progression of hearing loss. The term "progressive" indicates that the hearing loss worsens over time. It is also typically symmetric, meaning that it affects both ears equally. Additionally, presbycusis primarily affects the higher frequencies, making it difficult for individuals to hear high-pitched sounds. Therefore, the answer "Slowly progressive, usually symmetric and predominantly high frequencies" best describes the hearing loss associated with presbycusis.

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14. A 19-year-old man presents with a chief complaint of a red, irritated right eye for the past 48 hours with eyelids that were "stuck together" this morning when he awoke. Exam reveals injected palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva; reactive pupils; vision screen with the Snellen chart of 20/30 in the right eye (OD), left eye (OS) and both eyes (OU); and purulent eye discharge on the right. This presentation is most consistent with:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of redness, irritation, and purulent eye discharge, along with the presence of injected palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva, suggest an infection of the conjunctiva. Suppurative conjunctivitis, also known as bacterial conjunctivitis, is characterized by these symptoms and is commonly caused by bacterial pathogens. Viral conjunctivitis and allergic conjunctivitis typically do not present with purulent discharge. Mechanical injury would not explain the presence of purulent discharge and the other symptoms described. Therefore, suppurative conjunctivitis is the most likely explanation for the patient's presentation.

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15. Patients with strep throat can be cleared to return to work or school after ____ hours of antimicrobial therapy.

Explanation

Patients with strep throat can be cleared to return to work or school after 24 hours of antimicrobial therapy. This is because strep throat is highly contagious and can easily spread to others through respiratory droplets. Antimicrobial therapy helps to kill the bacteria causing strep throat and reduce the risk of transmission. After 24 hours of treatment, the patient's symptoms should improve, and they become less contagious, making it safe for them to return to work or school.

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16. Risk factors for POAG include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is blue eye color. Blue eye color is not considered a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). POAG is more common in individuals of African ancestry, those with diabetes mellitus type II (DM-II), and older individuals. However, there is no evidence to suggest that blue eye color increases the risk of developing POAG.

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17. Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?

Explanation

The finding of URIs persisting beyond 7-10 days or worsening after 5-7 days is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS). This is because ABRS is characterized by the persistence or worsening of upper respiratory symptoms, such as nasal congestion, facial pain, and headache, beyond the expected duration of a viral upper respiratory infection. The other findings, including mild midfacial fullness and tenderness, preauricular lymphadenopathy, and marked eyelid edema, can also be seen in ABRS but are less specific to the diagnosis.

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18. Which of the following is consistent with the visual problems associated with macular degeneration?

Explanation

Loss of central vision field is consistent with the visual problems associated with macular degeneration. Macular degeneration affects the macula, which is responsible for central vision. As the disease progresses, individuals may experience a loss of their central vision field, making it difficult to see objects directly in front of them. Peripheral vision loss, blurring of near vision, and difficulty with distant vision are not typically associated with macular degeneration, making them inconsistent with the condition.

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19. One of the most serious complications of giant cell arteritis is:

Explanation

Blindness is the correct answer because giant cell arteritis is a condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels, particularly in the head and neck. If the blood vessels supplying the optic nerve become inflamed, it can lead to a condition called anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, which can cause sudden and permanent vision loss. Therefore, blindness is a serious complication of giant cell arteritis.

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20. Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a patient with untreated POAG?

Explanation

Excessive cupping of the optic disk is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a patient with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). This is because POAG is characterized by progressive damage to the optic nerve, which leads to the excavation or cupping of the optic disk. As the disease progresses, the cupping becomes more pronounced, indicating worsening damage to the optic nerve. Arteriovenous nicking, papilledema, and flame-shaped hemorrhages are not typically associated with POAG and may be indicative of other ocular or systemic conditions.

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21. A firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node would most likely be seen in the diagnosis of:

Explanation

A firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node is a characteristic finding in oral cancer. Oral cancer can cause the enlargement of lymph nodes in the submandibular area, which may feel firm to the touch. This is in contrast to conditions like herpes simplex, acute otitis media, and bacterial pharyngitis, which typically do not cause such specific lymph node changes. Therefore, the presence of a firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node would be more indicative of oral cancer than the other options.

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22. Expected findings in AOM include:

Explanation

The expected finding in AOM (acute otitis media) is tympanic membrane immobility. This means that the eardrum is not able to move properly in response to sound waves. This is a characteristic sign of AOM and can be detected during a physical examination of the ear. The other options listed (prominent bony landmarks, itchiness and crackling in the affected ear, submental lymphadenopathy) are not typically associated with AOM.

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23. An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a "sore throat and swollen glands" for the past 3 days. Her physical exam includes a temp of 101F, exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis. This is supported by the presence of symptoms such as sore throat, swollen glands, and exudative pharyngitis, along with a fever of 101F. Additionally, the tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is a common finding in streptococcal pharyngitis. The absence of right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness suggests that the infection is localized to the throat and lymph nodes, rather than involving the liver or spleen, which would be more characteristic of infectious mononucleosis.

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24. A 25-year-old woman who has seasonal allergic rhinitis likes to spend time outdoors. She asks you when the pollen count is likely to be the lowest. You respond:

Explanation

After a rain shower, the pollen count is likely to be lower because the rain washes away the pollen from the air and surfaces. This provides temporary relief for individuals with seasonal allergies like allergic rhinitis.

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25. The most common causative bacterial pathogen in ABRS is:

Explanation

S. pneumoniae is the most common causative bacterial pathogen in Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS). This bacterium is responsible for causing a majority of sinus infections. It is a leading cause of respiratory infections and can lead to severe symptoms such as facial pain, nasal congestion, and sinus inflammation. S. pneumoniae is a gram-positive bacterium commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and can cause infections when the sinus cavities become blocked or infected. Prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment are necessary to prevent complications associated with ABRS.

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26. Which of the following represents a therapeutic option for ABRS in a patient with no recent antimicrobial care with treatment failure after 72 hours of appropriate-dose first-line antimicrobial therapy?

Explanation

High-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate is a therapeutic option for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) in a patient who has not received recent antimicrobial care and has experienced treatment failure after 72 hours of appropriate-dose first-line antimicrobial therapy. This combination medication is effective against the most common pathogens causing ABRS, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. The addition of clavulanate helps to overcome beta-lactamase production by some bacteria, enhancing the efficacy of amoxicillin. Clindamycin, clarithromycin, and ofloxacin are alternative treatment options for ABRS, but high-dose amoxicillin with clavulanate is the preferred choice in this scenario.

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27. A 22-year-old woman presents with a "bump" on her right eyelid. Exam reveals a 2-mm hard, non-tender swelling on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent with:

Explanation

The presentation of a 2-mm hard, non-tender swelling on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin is most consistent with a chalazion. A chalazion is a painless, chronic granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian gland, which can cause a firm, non-tender nodule on the eyelid. A hordeolum, on the other hand, presents as an acute, tender, erythematous swelling, usually involving the eyelash follicle. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margins, typically causing redness and crusting. Cellulitis is a more severe infection involving the soft tissues around the eye, which would present with erythema, warmth, tenderness, and systemic symptoms.

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28. You inspect the oral cavity of a 69-year-old man who has a 100-pack-year cigarette smoking history. You find a lesion suspicious for malignancy and describe it as:

Explanation

The description of an ulcerated lesion with indurated margins suggests a possible malignancy. Ulceration refers to the presence of an open sore or wound, while indurated margins indicate hardened or firm edges around the lesion. These characteristics are concerning for a cancerous growth, as they can be indicative of tissue destruction and infiltration. It is important to further evaluate and potentially biopsy this lesion to confirm the diagnosis and determine appropriate management.

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29. In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be used as:

Explanation

Leukotriene modifiers are drugs that work by inhibiting the production or activity of leukotrienes, which are inflammatory substances released during allergic reactions. By inhibiting inflammation, leukotriene modifiers can help alleviate the symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as nasal itch. Therefore, they are used as inflammatory inhibitors in the treatment of allergic rhinitis.

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30. Therapeutic interventions for the patient with Giant Cell Arteritis should include:

Explanation

The correct answer is systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months. Giant Cell Arteritis is an inflammatory disease that affects the blood vessels, particularly the arteries in the head and neck. Systemic corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for this condition, as they help reduce inflammation and prevent complications such as vision loss. The therapy usually lasts for many months to ensure adequate control of the disease. The other options, addition of an ACEI, warfarin therapy, and initiation of topiramate therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of Giant Cell Arteritis.

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31. Which of the following is a common vision problem in the person with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?

Explanation

Untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) commonly leads to peripheral vision loss. This occurs because the optic nerve, which transmits visual information from the eye to the brain, becomes damaged over time due to increased pressure in the eye. As a result, the person gradually loses their ability to see objects and movement in their side or peripheral vision, while their central vision remains relatively unaffected. This symptom is a hallmark of POAG and can significantly impact a person's daily activities and mobility if left untreated.

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32. A 22-year-old woman presents with a "pimple" on her right eyelid. Exam reveals a 2-mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent with:

Explanation

A hordeolum, also known as a stye, is a common condition characterized by a pustule or abscess on the eyelid margin. It is typically caused by an infection of the oil glands in the eyelid. The presentation of a 2-mm pustule on the lateral border of the eyelid margin aligns with the classic clinical findings of a hordeolum. Chalazion, another eyelid condition, is characterized by a painless, non-infectious, chronic granulomatous inflammation, which is not consistent with the given presentation. Blepharitis is a chronic inflammation of the eyelid margins, but it does not typically present with a pustule. Cellulitis is a more severe infection involving the deeper tissues of the eyelid, and it would present with more significant signs and symptoms than described in the question stem.

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33. Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with PCN allergies include all of the following except:

Explanation

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is not a recommended treatment option for streptococcal pharyngitis in patients with PCN allergies. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin are alternative antibiotics that can be used in such cases. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is not effective against streptococcal bacteria and is not commonly used to treat this infection.

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34. According to the Global Resources in Allergy (GLORIA) guidelines, which of the following is recommended for intervention in persistent allergic conjunctivitis?

Explanation

The Global Resources in Allergy (GLORIA) guidelines recommend the use of a topical mast cell stabilizer with a topical antihistamine for intervention in persistent allergic conjunctivitis. This combination helps to stabilize mast cells, which release histamine during an allergic reaction, and also provides relief from symptoms such as itching and redness. Topical decongestants, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and corticosteroids are not the recommended interventions for persistent allergic conjunctivitis according to the GLORIA guidelines.

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35. Prevention and prophylaxis in Meniere's disease include all of the following except:

Explanation

Restricting fluid intake is not a recommended prevention or prophylaxis method for Meniere's disease. Meniere's disease is characterized by an excess buildup of fluid in the inner ear, leading to symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Restricting fluid intake could potentially worsen the condition by causing dehydration and imbalances in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid ototoxic drugs, protect the ears from loud noise, and limit sodium intake to manage Meniere's disease, but restricting fluid intake is not necessary.

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36. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) helps control nasal secretions through:

Explanation

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) helps control nasal secretions through its anticholinergic effect. This means that it blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates the production of nasal secretions. By inhibiting the effects of acetylcholine, ipratropium bromide reduces the production of nasal secretions and helps to control them.

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37. Cromolyn's mechanism of action is a/an:

Explanation

Cromolyn's mechanism of action involves stabilizing mast cells. Mast cells play a crucial role in allergic reactions by releasing histamine and other inflammatory substances. By stabilizing mast cells, cromolyn prevents the release of these substances and helps to reduce the symptoms of allergies and asthma. It does not function as an anti-immunoglobulin E antibody, vasoconstrictor, or leukotriene modifier.

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38. A risk factor for malignant external otitis includes:

Explanation

The presence of an immunocompromised condition is a risk factor for malignant external otitis. This is because individuals with weakened immune systems are more susceptible to infections, including those affecting the ear. Malignant external otitis is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection of the external ear canal and surrounding tissues. Immunocompromised individuals, such as those with diabetes, HIV/AIDS, or undergoing chemotherapy, have a reduced ability to fight off infections, making them more vulnerable to developing this condition.

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39. Concomitant disease seen with giant cell arteritis includes:

Explanation

Giant cell arteritis is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica, a condition characterized by muscle pain and stiffness, especially in the shoulders and hips. Both conditions often occur together and share similar symptoms such as joint pain and inflammation. This association is believed to be due to the autoimmune nature of both diseases, where the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues. Therefore, polymyalgia rheumatica is a concomitant disease frequently seen in patients with giant cell arteritis.

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40. The incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually:

Explanation

The incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually 3-5 days. This means that after being exposed to the bacteria, it takes about 3-5 days for symptoms to develop. During this time, the bacteria are multiplying and establishing an infection in the body. It is important to note that the incubation period can vary depending on factors such as the individual's immune system and the specific strain of S. pyogenes.

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41. A 78-year-old woman has early bilateral senile cataracts. Which of the following situations would likely pose the greatest difficulty?

Explanation

A 78-year-old woman with early bilateral senile cataracts would likely have the greatest difficulty in reading road signs while driving. Cataracts cause clouding of the lens in the eye, leading to blurred vision and decreased visual acuity. This can make it challenging to see and read road signs, which are essential for safe driving. While reading the newspaper, distinguishing between primary colors, and following extraocular movements may also be affected to some extent, they are not as critical for driving as reading road signs.

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42. Treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following ophthalmic preparations except:

Explanation

The question is asking for the treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis, and the correct answer is Penicillin. This means that Penicillin is not a recommended ophthalmic preparation for treating suppurative conjunctivitis. The other options listed, Bacitracin-polymyxin B, Ciprofloxacin, and Erythromycin, are all commonly used ophthalmic preparations for treating this condition.

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43. Clindamycin is most effective against which of the following organisms?

Explanation

Clindamycin is most effective against S. pneumoniae because it is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that targets and inhibits the growth of bacteria. S. pneumoniae is a common bacterial pathogen that causes respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia. Clindamycin works by binding to the bacterial ribosome and inhibiting protein synthesis, ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. It is not effective against viruses like Adenovirus, as it specifically targets bacteria.

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44. A 58-year-old woman presents with a sudden left-sided headache that is most painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred and the left pupil is slightly dilated and poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected and the eyeball is firm. Vision screen with the Snellen chart is 20/30 OD and 20/90 OS. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

The patient's sudden left-sided headache, blurred vision, dilated and poorly reactive left pupil, injected conjunctiva, and firm eyeball are all consistent with the symptoms of angle closure glaucoma. Additionally, the significant difference in vision between the right and left eyes (20/30 OD and 20/90 OS) suggests that there is a problem specifically with the left eye. These findings indicate that the most likely diagnosis is angle closure glaucoma, which is characterized by a sudden increase in intraocular pressure due to the closure of the drainage angle in the eye.

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45. Treatment of otitis media with effusion usually includes:

Explanation

Symptomatic treatment is the most appropriate option for the treatment of otitis media with effusion. This approach focuses on managing the symptoms rather than targeting the underlying cause. Otitis media with effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the middle ear, causing hearing loss and discomfort. Symptomatic treatment may include pain relievers, such as analgesics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, to alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. It may also involve the use of decongestants or nasal sprays to relieve nasal congestion and improve Eustachian tube function. Additionally, warm compresses or ear drops may be recommended to alleviate symptoms and promote drainage of fluid from the middle ear.

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46. All of the following are consistent with normal age-related vision changes except:

Explanation

As people age, they may experience normal age-related vision changes such as the need for increased illumination, increasing sensitivity to glare, and washing out of colors. However, gradual loss of peripheral vision is not a normal age-related vision change. Peripheral vision loss is typically associated with conditions like glaucoma or retinitis pigmentosa, rather than the natural aging process.

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47. Which of the following is true regarding Meniere disease?

Explanation

Meniere's disease is largely a diagnosis of exclusion, meaning that other possible causes of the symptoms must be ruled out before a diagnosis of Meniere's disease can be made. This is because the symptoms of Meniere's disease, such as vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, can also be caused by other conditions. Neuroimaging is not typically used to locate the offending cochlear lesion in Meniere's disease, and associated high-frequency hearing loss is actually common in this condition. Tinnitus is a common symptom of Meniere's disease, not rarely reported.

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48. Which of the following is consistent with the visual problems associated with presbyopia?

Explanation

Presbyopia is an age-related condition that affects the ability to focus on objects up close. Blurring of near vision is consistent with the visual problems associated with presbyopia because it becomes increasingly difficult to see objects clearly at a close distance. This is due to the hardening of the lens in the eye, which makes it less flexible and less able to change shape to focus on near objects. This blurring of near vision is a common symptom of presbyopia and can be corrected with reading glasses or other vision aids.

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49. Decongestants work primarily through:

Explanation

Decongestants work primarily through vasoconstriction, which means they cause the narrowing of blood vessels. This narrowing reduces blood flow to the nasal passages and decreases swelling, helping to relieve congestion. By constricting blood vessels, decongestants can effectively reduce the inflammation and swelling associated with nasal congestion, allowing for easier breathing and relief from congestion symptoms.

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50. Treatment options for POAG include all of the following topical agents except:

Explanation

The correct answer is mast cell stabilizers because they are not used as a treatment option for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Mast cell stabilizers are typically used to treat allergic conditions such as allergic conjunctivitis, not glaucoma. The other options listed (beta-adrenergic antagonists, alpha2-agonists, and prostaglandin analogues) are commonly used topical agents for managing POAG.

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51. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for allergic rhinitis therapy in an acutely symptomatic 24-year-old machine operator?

Explanation

Loratadine is the most appropriate medication for allergic rhinitis therapy in an acutely symptomatic 24-year-old machine operator. Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that provides long-lasting relief from symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and runny nose without causing drowsiness. This makes it a suitable option for a machine operator who needs to remain alert and focused on their job. Nasal cromolyn is not as effective for acute symptoms and is more commonly used for prevention. Diphenhydramine may cause drowsiness, which is not ideal for someone operating machinery. Flunisolide nasal spray is a corticosteroid and may not be necessary for mild symptoms.

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52. A 34-year-old man with PCN allergy presents with ABRS. Three weeks ago, he was treated with doxycycline for "bronchitis." You now prescribe:

Explanation

The correct answer is Levofloxacin. Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those commonly associated with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS). It is a suitable choice for this patient because he has a penicillin allergy and was previously treated with doxycycline, which is not recommended for ABRS. Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that may be an alternative option, but levofloxacin is generally more effective against the bacteria commonly involved in ABRS. Cephalexin and amoxicillin are both penicillin antibiotics and should be avoided in patients with a penicillin allergy.

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53. Which of the following is absent in otitis media with effusion?

Explanation

Otitis media with effusion is a condition characterized by the presence of fluid in the middle ear. It is often associated with symptoms such as otalgia (ear pain) and itchiness. However, fever is not typically present in otitis media with effusion. This is because the condition is usually not caused by an infection, unlike acute otitis media which is associated with fever. Therefore, the absence of fever helps differentiate otitis media with effusion from other types of ear infections.

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54. You are seeing a 25-year-old man with S. pyogenes pharyngitis. He asks if he can get a "shot of PCN" for therapy. You consider the following when counselling about the use of IM Penicillin:

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that treatment failure rates approach 20%. This means that there is a significant chance that the treatment with IM Penicillin may not be effective in curing the strep pharyngitis. It is important to inform the patient about this possibility in order to set realistic expectations and consider alternative treatment options if necessary.

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55. Which of the following is inconsistent with the clinical presentation of ABRS?

Explanation

The clinical presentation of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) typically includes symptoms such as nasal congestion, maxillary toothache, colored nasal discharge, and an antecedent event such as acute respiratory tract infection or allergic rhinitis. However, nasal congestion that is responsive to decongestant use is inconsistent with ABRS. In ABRS, nasal congestion is usually persistent and does not improve with decongestant use. Therefore, this symptom is not consistent with the clinical presentation of ABRS.

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56. Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except:

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not a common causative organism of acute suppurative conjunctivitis. Staph aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and Strep pneumoniae are known to be causative organisms of this condition. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with other types of infections, such as urinary tract infections or respiratory infections.

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57. The likely causative organisms in AOM include:

Explanation

The likely causative organisms in Acute Otitis Media (AOM) include certain gram-positive and negative bacteria. AOM is commonly caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, which are gram-positive and negative bacteria. These organisms are frequently found in the middle ear and can lead to infection and inflammation, resulting in AOM.

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58. Which of the following medications affords the best relief of acute nasal itch?

Explanation

Oral antihistamines are the most effective medication for relieving acute nasal itch. Antihistamines work by blocking the histamine receptors in the body, reducing the allergic response that causes itching. While anticholinergic nasal sprays and corticosteroid nasal sprays can also provide relief, they may not be as effective specifically for nasal itch. Oral decongestants primarily target nasal congestion rather than itchiness. Therefore, oral antihistamines are the best choice for relieving acute nasal itch.

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59. Treatment options for uncomplicated hordeolum include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is oral antimicrobial therapy. Hordeolum, also known as a stye, is a common infection of the eyelid caused by bacteria. The mainstay of treatment for uncomplicated hordeolum includes warm compresses to the affected area to promote drainage and healing, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to eliminate the bacterial infection. Incision and drainage may be necessary in some cases if the stye does not improve with conservative measures. However, oral antimicrobial therapy is not typically recommended for uncomplicated hordeolum.

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60. A 25-year-old woman has a 3-day history of left ear pain that began after 1 week of URI symptoms. On physical exam, you find that she has AOM. She is allergic to PCN (use results in a hive-form reaction). The most appropriate antimicrobial option for her is:

Explanation

Clarithromycin is the most appropriate antimicrobial option for the 25-year-old woman with acute otitis media (AOM) who is allergic to penicillin. Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against common pathogens causing AOM, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. It is a suitable alternative for patients with penicillin allergy, as it does not cross-react with penicillins. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is not typically used as a first-line treatment for AOM. Amoxicillin and cephalexin are both penicillins, which should be avoided in patients with a known penicillin allergy.

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61. With regard to pharyngitis caused by group C streptococci, the NP considers that:

Explanation

Appropriate antimicrobial therapy helps to facilitate more rapid resolution of symptoms in pharyngitis caused by group C streptococci. This means that administering the right antimicrobial medication can help in faster relief from the symptoms of pharyngitis caused by group C streptococci. It suggests that timely treatment with the appropriate antimicrobial can help in managing and resolving the infection more efficiently.

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62. First line therapy for angular cheilitis therapy includes the use of:

Explanation

Topical nystatin is the first line therapy for angular cheilitis because it is an antifungal medication that effectively treats fungal infections, which are often the cause of angular cheilitis. It works by inhibiting the growth of fungi and preventing their spread. Other options mentioned, such as metronidazole gel, hydrocortisone cream, and oral ketoconazole, may have different uses or may not be as effective in treating angular cheilitis specifically.

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63. When advising a patient with scarlet fever, the NP considers that:

Explanation

During the recovery phase of scarlet fever, the rash often peels. This is a characteristic feature of scarlet fever and occurs as the body heals from the infection. The peeling usually starts around the fingers, toes, and groin area, and then spreads to other parts of the body. It is important for the NP to advise the patient and their caregivers about this common occurrence so that they are aware and can provide appropriate care and support during the recovery period.

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64. Allergy immunotherapy is most successful in controlling allergies caused by:

Explanation

Allergy immunotherapy is most successful in controlling allergies caused by dust mites because it involves exposing the patient to small amounts of the allergen (in this case, dust mite allergens) over a period of time, gradually increasing the dosage. This helps the immune system become less sensitive to the allergen and reduces the allergic response. Dust mites are a common cause of allergies, particularly in the form of allergic rhinitis (hay fever) and asthma, making them a suitable target for immunotherapy. On the other hand, molds, animal dander, and air pollution may also trigger allergies, but they may not be as effectively controlled through immunotherapy.

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65. You prescribe nasal corticosteroid spray for a patient with allergic rhinitis. What is the anticipated onset of symptom relief with its use?

Explanation

The anticipated onset of symptom relief with the use of nasal corticosteroid spray for allergic rhinitis is a few days to a week. This is because it takes some time for the medication to start working and for the inflammation in the nasal passages to decrease. It is not immediate with the first spray, nor does it take 1-2 days or 2 or more weeks for symptom relief to occur.

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66. According to the Allergic Rhinitis and Its Effects on Asthma (ARIA) treatment guidelines, which of the following medications affords the best relief of acute nasal congestion?

Explanation

According to the ARIA treatment guidelines, the medication that provides the best relief for acute nasal congestion is a decongestant nasal spray. This type of medication helps to reduce swelling and congestion in the nasal passages, allowing for easier breathing and relief from symptoms of congestion. Anticholinergic nasal sprays, corticosteroid nasal sprays, and oral antihistamines may also provide some relief for nasal congestion, but the decongestant nasal spray is specifically recommended as the best option for acute congestion.

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67. Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:

Explanation

Corticosteroid ophthalmic drops are not a treatment option for acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis. Corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatory medications that can be used to treat various eye conditions, but they are generally reserved for more severe cases or when other treatments have failed. Cromolyn ophthalmic drops, oral antihistamines, and ophthalmological antihistamines are commonly used to relieve the symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis by reducing inflammation and blocking the effects of histamine.

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68. A 48-year-old man presents with a new-onset right eye vision change accompanied by dull pain, tearing and photophobia. The right pupil is small, irregular and poorly reactive. Vision testing obtained by using the Snellen chart is 20/30 OS and 20/80 OD. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of new-onset vision change, dull pain, tearing, and photophobia, along with the findings of a small, irregular, and poorly reactive right pupil, are consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, leading to these symptoms and signs. The vision testing results also support this diagnosis, as there is a significant difference in visual acuity between the two eyes. Unilateral herpetic conjunctivitis typically presents with more severe symptoms and signs, such as vesicular lesions on the eyelids and conjunctiva. Open-angle glaucoma and angle-closure glaucoma typically do not cause acute vision changes or pupil abnormalities.

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69. Appropriate oral antimicrobial therapy for otitis externa with an accompanying facial cellulitis suitable for outpatient therapy includes a course of

Explanation

Fluroquinolones are a suitable oral antimicrobial therapy for otitis externa with an accompanying facial cellulitis that can be treated on an outpatient basis. These antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those commonly associated with these infections. They have good tissue penetration and are well tolerated by most patients. Macrolides, cephalosporins, and penicillins are also commonly used antibiotics, but they may not provide adequate coverage or have the same effectiveness as fluroquinolones in this particular scenario.

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70. A 45-year-old man presents with otitis externa. Likely causative pathogens include all of the following except:

Explanation

M. catarrhalis is not a likely causative pathogen for otitis externa. Otitis externa is usually caused by bacterial or fungal agents. P. aeruginosa and S. aureus are commonly associated with otitis externa, while M. catarrhalis is more commonly associated with upper respiratory tract infections such as otitis media or sinusitis. Therefore, M. catarrhalis is the correct answer.

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71. According to the ARIA treatment guidelines, which of the following medications affords the least control of rhinorrhea associated with allergic rhinitis?

Explanation

Cromolyn nasal spray provides the least control of rhinorrhea associated with allergic rhinitis according to the ARIA treatment guidelines.

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72. Which of the following is a characteristic of H. influenzae?

Explanation

H. influenzae is a gram-negative organism that can cause various infections, including respiratory tract infections. One of its characteristics is that some isolates exhibit antimicrobial resistance through the production of beta-lactamase. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillins and cephalosporins, rendering them ineffective against the bacteria. This resistance mechanism is important to consider when selecting appropriate antibiotics for treating H. influenzae infections.

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73. All of the following are common causes of PCN treatment failure in strep pharyngitis except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Infection with a beta-lactamase-producing streptococcus strain." This is because streptococcal strains do not produce beta-lactamase, which is an enzyme that can inactivate penicillin. Therefore, infection with a beta-lactamase-producing streptococcus strain would not be a common cause of PCN treatment failure in strep pharyngitis. Other factors such as failure to initiate or complete the antimicrobial course, concomitant infection or carriage with a beta-lactamase-producing organism, and inadequate PCN dosage can contribute to treatment failure.

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74. Which of the following is a characteristic of S. pneumoniae?

Explanation

S. pneumoniae is known to primarily develop antimicrobial resistance through the mechanism of altered protein-binding sites within its cell. This means that the microbe modifies the proteins on its surface, which are responsible for binding to antimicrobial drugs and preventing their effectiveness. This alteration allows the microbe to evade the effects of the drugs and continue to survive and reproduce. This mechanism is common among S. pneumoniae strains and contributes to the challenge of treating infections caused by this bacterium.

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75. A reasonable treatment option for AOM that is not improved after 3-day therapy with an appropriate dosage of amoxicillin therapy is:

Explanation

If a patient with acute otitis media (AOM) does not show improvement after a 3-day therapy with an appropriate dosage of amoxicillin, a reasonable treatment option would be cefuroxime. Cefuroxime is a second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that has a broader spectrum of activity compared to amoxicillin. It is effective against the most common pathogens causing AOM, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Therefore, cefuroxime can be considered as an alternative treatment option for AOM when initial therapy with amoxicillin fails to improve the condition.

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76. Characteristics of M. catarrhalis include:

Explanation

M. catarrhalis is characterized by a high rate of beta-lactamase production. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics, making them ineffective against bacteria. This characteristic of M. catarrhalis contributes to its antimicrobial resistance. It is important to consider this trait when selecting appropriate antibiotics for treating infections caused by M. catarrhalis. The other characteristics mentioned in the question, such as altered protein-binding sites, being found in middle ear exudate in recurrent otitis media, and being Gram-positive, are not applicable to M. catarrhalis.

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77. The incubation period for M. pneumoniae is usually:

Explanation

The incubation period for M. pneumoniae is usually 3 weeks. This refers to the time between exposure to the bacteria and the onset of symptoms. During this period, the bacteria multiply and invade the respiratory tract, leading to symptoms such as cough, fever, and sore throat. Understanding the typical incubation period is important for diagnosing and managing M. pneumoniae infections.

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In caring for a patient with angle closure glaucoma, the most...
First-line intervention for anterior epistaxis includes:
A 19-year-old woman presents with a complaint of bilaterally itchy,...
Clinical presentation of peritonsillar abscesses includes:
Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:
Physical exam findings in otitis externa include:
Oral decongestant use should be discouraged in patients with:
Which of the following is a first-line therapy for the treatment of...
A 74-year-old woman with well-controlled HTN who is taking HCTZ...
The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for treating ABRS in a...
An 88-year-old, community-dwelling man who lives alone has limited...
Antihystamines work primarily through:
Which of the following best describes hearing loss associated with...
A 19-year-old man presents with a chief complaint of a red, irritated...
Patients with strep throat can be cleared to return to work or school...
Risk factors for POAG include all of the following except:
Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis...
Which of the following is consistent with the visual problems...
One of the most serious complications of giant cell arteritis is:
Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic...
A firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node would most...
Expected findings in AOM include:
An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a "sore throat and...
A 25-year-old woman who has seasonal allergic rhinitis likes to spend...
The most common causative bacterial pathogen in ABRS is:
Which of the following represents a therapeutic option for ABRS in a...
A 22-year-old woman presents with a "bump" on her right...
You inspect the oral cavity of a 69-year-old man who has a...
In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be...
Therapeutic interventions for the patient with Giant Cell Arteritis...
Which of the following is a common vision problem in the person with...
A 22-year-old woman presents with a "pimple" on her right eyelid. Exam...
Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with PCN...
According to the Global Resources in Allergy (GLORIA) guidelines,...
Prevention and prophylaxis in Meniere's disease include all of the...
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) helps control nasal secretions through:
Cromolyn's mechanism of action is a/an:
A risk factor for malignant external otitis includes:
Concomitant disease seen with giant cell arteritis includes:
The incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually:
A 78-year-old woman has early bilateral senile cataracts. Which of the...
Treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the...
Clindamycin is most effective against which of the following...
A 58-year-old woman presents with a sudden left-sided headache that is...
Treatment of otitis media with effusion usually includes:
All of the following are consistent with normal age-related vision...
Which of the following is true regarding Meniere disease?
Which of the following is consistent with the visual problems...
Decongestants work primarily through:
Treatment options for POAG include all of the following topical agents...
Which of the following medications is most appropriate for allergic...
A 34-year-old man with PCN allergy presents with ABRS. Three weeks...
Which of the following is absent in otitis media with effusion?
You are seeing a 25-year-old man with S. pyogenes pharyngitis. He asks...
Which of the following is inconsistent with the clinical presentation...
Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include...
The likely causative organisms in AOM include:
Which of the following medications affords the best relief of acute...
Treatment options for uncomplicated hordeolum include all of the...
A 25-year-old woman has a 3-day history of left ear pain that began...
With regard to pharyngitis caused by group C streptococci, the NP...
First line therapy for angular cheilitis therapy includes the use of:
When advising a patient with scarlet fever, the NP considers that:
Allergy immunotherapy is most successful in controlling allergies...
You prescribe nasal corticosteroid spray for a patient with allergic...
According to the Allergic Rhinitis and Its Effects on Asthma (ARIA)...
Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis...
A 48-year-old man presents with a new-onset right eye vision change...
Appropriate oral antimicrobial therapy for otitis externa with an...
A 45-year-old man presents with otitis externa. Likely causative...
According to the ARIA treatment guidelines, which of the following...
Which of the following is a characteristic of H. influenzae?
All of the following are common causes of PCN treatment failure in...
Which of the following is a characteristic of S. pneumoniae?
A reasonable treatment option for AOM that is not improved after 3-day...
Characteristics of M. catarrhalis include:
The incubation period for M. pneumoniae is usually:
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