CDC 2A354C Volume 1. F-16 Attack Control Systems

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

The F-16 fighting falcon is a single engine fighter jet initially developed for the American Air Force. CDC 2a354c Volume 1. F-16 Attack Control Systems is specifically designed to test your knowledge on this fighter jet. All the best and enjoy.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The most important responsibility of the EEFCC is to integrate the entire F-16 avionics system by serving as the 

    • A.

      Backup bus controller for the serial digital buses

    • B.

      Primary bus controller for the serial digital buses

    • C.

      Backup bus controller for the parallel buses

    • D.

      Primary bus controller for the parallel digital buses

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary bus controller for the serial digital buses
    Explanation
    The EEFCC's most important responsibility is to serve as the primary bus controller for the serial digital buses. This means that it is responsible for integrating the entire F-16 avionics system by controlling the communication and data transfer between different avionics components through the serial digital buses. As the primary bus controller, the EEFCC has the main authority and control over the bus system, ensuring smooth and efficient operation of the avionics system.

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  • 2. 

    The fault gathering and reporting center of the weapons control system is the 

    • A.

      Heads-down display

    • B.

      Heads-up display

    • C.

      Stores management system

    • D.

      Enhanced expanded fire control computer (EEFCC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Enhanced expanded fire control computer (EEFCC)
    Explanation
    The fault gathering and reporting center of the weapons control system is the enhanced expanded fire control computer (EEFCC). This computer is responsible for collecting and reporting any faults or errors that occur within the system. It is designed to monitor the performance of the weapons control system and provide real-time feedback on any issues that may arise. The EEFCC plays a crucial role in maintaining the functionality and reliability of the weapons control system by identifying and addressing any faults or malfunctions.

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  • 3. 

    As directed by the EEFCC OFP, all arithmetic calculations are performed by the 

    • A.

      Core memory unit

    • B.

      Serial-digital interface

    • C.

      I/O unit

    • D.

      CPU

    Correct Answer
    D. CPU
    Explanation
    The CPU, or Central Processing Unit, is responsible for performing arithmetic calculations in a computer system. It is the brain of the computer and carries out all the instructions and calculations necessary for the system to function. The other options mentioned, such as the core memory unit, serial-digital interface, and I/O unit, are not directly involved in arithmetic calculations, making the CPU the correct answer.

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  • 4. 

    What is the core memory size of the EEFCC

    • A.

      256K

    • B.

      512K

    • C.

      256M

    • D.

      512M

    Correct Answer
    B. 512K
    Explanation
    The core memory size of the EEFCC is 512K. This means that the EEFCC has a memory capacity of 512 kilobytes.

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  • 5. 

    Where are MUX bus transformers located and what's their purpose?

    • A.

      In the EEFCC; communicates with slave terminals

    • B.

      On MUX matrix assemblies; provides impedance matching and short-circuit protection

    • C.

      In the EEFCC; provides impedance matching and short-circuit protection

    • D.

      On MUX matrix assemblies; communicates with slave terminals

    Correct Answer
    B. On MUX matrix assemblies; provides impedance matching and short-circuit protection
    Explanation
    MUX bus transformers are located on MUX matrix assemblies and their purpose is to provide impedance matching and short-circuit protection.

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  • 6. 

    When the EEFCC determines if a transmitted word is good or bad, what type of bit aids in this?

    • A.

      Identity

    • B.

      Response

    • C.

      Odd Parity

    • D.

      Even Parity

    Correct Answer
    C. Odd Parity
    Explanation
    Odd Parity is the type of bit that aids the EEFCC in determining if a transmitted word is good or bad. In odd parity, the number of 1s in a word is counted, and if the count is odd, the parity bit is set to 1 to make the total number of 1s even. This allows the receiver to detect if there has been an error during transmission, as any change in the number of 1s will result in an odd number of 1s and indicate a bad word.

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  • 7. 

    Which statement best describes the self-test of the EEFCC?

    • A.

      The EEFCC only utilizes BIT

    • B.

      It's run only when commanded by the operator

    • C.

      It's a self-running test and when complete, starts over again

    • D.

      It's performed only once at GAC power-up

    Correct Answer
    C. It's a self-running test and when complete, starts over again
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It's a self-running test and when complete, starts over again." This means that the self-test of the EEFCC is automated and continuous. Once the test is finished, it will automatically restart and run again. This ensures that the EEFCC is constantly monitoring and checking its own functionality without the need for manual intervention or operator command.

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  • 8. 

    What type of battery does the MMC contain, and what is the battery's purpose?

    • A.

      An alkaline 3.6 volt, C size batter; it provides a back-up capability in the event of failure, removal, or recharging of the aircraft battery.

    • B.

      A lithium 3.6 volt, D size battery; it provides a back-up capability in the event of failure, removal, or recharging of the aircraft battery.

    • C.

      An alkaline 3.6 volt, C size battery; provides primary power to the MMC

    • D.

      A lithium 3.6 volt, D size battery; it provides primary power to the MMC

    Correct Answer
    B. A lithium 3.6 volt, D size battery; it provides a back-up capability in the event of failure, removal, or recharging of the aircraft battery.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a lithium 3.6 volt, D size battery; it provides a back-up capability in the event of failure, removal, or recharging of the aircraft battery. This means that the MMC (presumably a component of an aircraft) is powered by a lithium battery that serves as a backup power source. In case the main aircraft battery fails, is removed, or needs to be recharged, the lithium battery in the MMC will provide power to ensure continuous operation.

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  • 9. 

    If you want standby power to all SMS stores stations that have inventory loaded in memory, which switch would you use?

    • A.

      MMC power switch

    • B.

      SMS standby power switch

    • C.

      MMC master switch

    • D.

      Stores station switch

    Correct Answer
    D. Stores station switch
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stores station switch. This switch would be used to provide standby power to all SMS stores stations that have inventory loaded in memory. The other options, such as MMC power switch, SMS standby power switch, and MMC master switch, do not specifically mention the functionality of providing standby power to the stores stations. Therefore, the stores station switch is the most appropriate choice for this scenario.

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  • 10. 

    The two internal MMC  buses that provide communication between modules are the 

    • A.

      Parallel intermodule/ serial digital test and maintenance bus

    • B.

      Parallel intermodule/ serial digital test and evaluation bus

    • C.

      Discrete digital data bus/ parallel test and maintenance bus

    • D.

      Discrete digital data bus/ parallel test and evaluation bus

    Correct Answer
    A. Parallel intermodule/ serial digital test and maintenance bus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is parallel intermodule/ serial digital test and maintenance bus. This bus provides communication between modules in a parallel and serial manner, allowing for testing and maintenance operations to be performed on the modules. It is specifically designed for carrying out diagnostic tests and maintenance tasks on the modules in a digital format.

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  • 11. 

    The EEFCC and MMC MUX bus architecture is basically the same except the 

    • A.

      MMC doesn't use the A-MUX or B-MUX

    • B.

      EEFCC doesn't use the A-MUX or B-MUX

    • C.

      MMC has two additional buses; the C-MUX and F-MUX

    • D.

      EEFCC has two additional buses; the C-MUX and F-MUX

    Correct Answer
    C. MMC has two additional buses; the C-MUX and F-MUX
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MMC has two additional buses; the C-MUX and F-MUX. This is because the given statement clearly states that the MMC has two additional buses, namely the C-MUX and F-MUX. The EEFCC, on the other hand, does not have these additional buses. Therefore, the difference between the two architectures lies in the presence of these additional buses in the MMC architecture.

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  • 12. 

    Which two scenarios will generate a MMC auto restart when the MMC fails?

    • A.

      Software failures and hardware failures

    • B.

      Software failures and slave terminal failures

    • C.

      Hardware failures and slave terminal failures

    • D.

      Hardware failures and MUX bus failures

    Correct Answer
    A. Software failures and hardware failures
    Explanation
    When the MMC (Master Control Center) fails, two scenarios that can trigger an auto restart are software failures and hardware failures. Software failures refer to any issues or malfunctions that occur within the software system of the MMC, such as crashes or errors. Hardware failures, on the other hand, involve any problems with the physical components of the MMC, such as a malfunctioning processor or memory. In both cases, the MMC is designed to automatically restart itself to attempt to resolve the issue and restore normal operation.

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  • 13. 

    How many MFL memory locations does the MMC contain?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      17

    • D.

      18

    Correct Answer
    C. 17
    Explanation
    The MMC (Memory Management Controller) contains 17 MFL (Memory Function Logic) memory locations. This means that the MMC has the capability to store and manage data in 17 different memory locations.

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  • 14. 

    The MMC BIT is

    • A.

      Interruptive, meaning the normal operation of the subsystem is maintained during the actual BIT

    • B.

      Nointerruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is maintained during the actual BIT

    • C.

      Interruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is not available until the BIT has been completed

    • D.

      Noninterruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is not available until the BIT has been completed

    Correct Answer
    C. Interruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is not available until the BIT has been completed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "interruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is not available until the BIT has been completed." This means that during the actual Built-In Test (BIT), the normal operation of the subsystem is interrupted and not available until the BIT is completed.

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  • 15. 

    Which F-16 ADIS component contains a microprocessor, firmware, interface electronics, power supply, and other electronics necessary to manage data transfer?

    • A.

      DTU

    • B.

      DTC

    • C.

      DTCP

    • D.

      DTS/DTC

    Correct Answer
    A. DTU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DTU. DTU stands for Data Transfer Unit, which is a component in the F-16 ADIS system that contains a microprocessor, firmware, interface electronics, power supply, and other electronics necessary to manage data transfer.

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  • 16. 

    Which F-16 ADIS component is a transportable, nonvolatile memory, which interfaces aircraft systems through the DTU

    • A.

      DTD

    • B.

      DTC

    • C.

      DTCP

    • D.

      DTDU

    Correct Answer
    B. DTC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DTC. The given question is asking about a component of the F-16 ADIS system that is a transportable, nonvolatile memory and interfaces with aircraft systems through the DTU. Among the options provided, DTC is the most suitable answer as it fits the description given in the question.

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  • 17. 

    Considered the heart of the UFC system, this component is a programmable computer that controls and interfaces the UFC

    • A.

      CDEEU

    • B.

      MMC

    • C.

      MFD

    • D.

      DEEU power supply

    Correct Answer
    A. CDEEU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CDEEU. The given question is asking for the component that is considered the heart of the UFC system and controls and interfaces with the UFC. Out of the options provided, CDEEU is the only one that fits this description. The other options, MMC, MFD, and DEEU power supply, do not serve as programmable computers that control and interface with the UFC.

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  • 18. 

    On what F-16 would you find a PFLD

    • A.

      F-16 A/B block 15

    • B.

      F-16 C/D block 40 only

    • C.

      F-16 C/D block 40 and up

    • D.

      F-16 C/D blocks 25 through 32

    Correct Answer
    C. F-16 C/D block 40 and up
    Explanation
    The PFLD (Proximity Fuse Laser Designator) can be found on the F-16 C/D block 40 and up. This means that the PFLD is not present on the F-16 A/B block 15 or the F-16 C/D blocks 25 through 32. The answer indicates that the PFLD is specifically available on the F-16 C/D block 40 and any subsequent blocks.

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  • 19. 

    If the PFLD fails but the UFC set is still functioning, the PFLD data can be displayed on the

    • A.

      HUD

    • B.

      DED

    • C.

      MFD

    • D.

      MFDS

    Correct Answer
    A. HUD
    Explanation
    If the PFLD (Primary Flight Display) fails but the UFC (Up-Front Control) set is still functioning, the PFLD data can be displayed on the HUD (Head-Up Display). The HUD is a transparent display that presents information directly in the pilot's line of sight, allowing them to view critical flight data without having to look down at instruments. This ensures that the pilot can still access important information even if the PFLD is not operational.

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  • 20. 

    Identify the four priority override keys which are located across the top of the ICP and IKP

    • A.

      COM 1, COM 2, INS, LIST

    • B.

      COM 1, COM 2, IFF, LIST

    • C.

      COM 3, COM 4, INS, LIST

    • D.

      COM 3, COM 4, IFF, LIST

    Correct Answer
    B. COM 1, COM 2, IFF, LIST
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COM 1, COM 2, IFF, LIST. This is because these four keys, located across the top of the ICP and IKP, have the priority override function. The COM 1 and COM 2 keys are used for communication functions, allowing the user to prioritize and override other tasks. The IFF key is used for identifying and tracking targets, and the LIST key is used for accessing and managing lists or databases. These keys are essential for quick and efficient control and operation of the system.

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  • 21. 

    All of the following are functions provided by the DCS except

    • A.

      Page title option access

    • B.

      SOI selection

    • C.

      Positioning the DED asterisks

    • D.

      Frequently accedded data pages

    Correct Answer
    B. SOI selection
    Explanation
    The DCS (Data Control System) provides various functions, including page title option access, positioning the DED asterisks, and frequently accessed data pages. However, the function of SOI (Service Oriented Interface) selection is not provided by the DCS.

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  • 22. 

    On the F-16 UFC, which page is more or less a continuation of the LIST page?

    • A.

      BNGO page

    • B.

      STPT page

    • C.

      MISC page

    • D.

      CNI page

    Correct Answer
    C. MISC page
    Explanation
    The MISC page is more or less a continuation of the LIST page on the F-16 UFC. This suggests that the MISC page contains similar or related information to the LIST page, possibly providing additional details or options that are not covered on the LIST page.

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  • 23. 

    UFC priority functions are made available through the priority function keys, only when the 

    • A.

      CNI page is displayed on the DED

    • B.

      MISC page is displayed on the MFD

    • C.

      MISC page is displayed on the DED

    • D.

      CNI page is displayed on the MFD

    Correct Answer
    A. CNI page is displayed on the DED
    Explanation
    The UFC priority functions can only be accessed when the CNI page is displayed on the DED. This means that the user must navigate to the CNI page on the DED in order to access and utilize the priority function keys. The priority functions are not available on any other page or display.

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  • 24. 

    When do the UFC provide the capability to enter numeric data through the ICP/IKP?

    • A.

      After the NUMERIC key is depressed

    • B.

      Only when entering navigation coordinates

    • C.

      Anytime a DED page is displayed

    • D.

      When the asterisks are positioned about a numeric data field

    Correct Answer
    D. When the asterisks are positioned about a numeric data field
    Explanation
    The UFC provides the capability to enter numeric data through the ICP/IKP when the asterisks are positioned about a numeric data field. This means that whenever there is a numeric data field displayed on the screen and the asterisks (*) are located around it, the user can input numeric data using the UFC. This indicates that the UFC is ready to accept and process numeric inputs at that time.

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  • 25. 

    When the CNI page is displayed, how many function values can be changed using the increment/decrement switch?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    B. Three
    Explanation
    When the CNI page is displayed, there are three function values that can be changed using the increment/decrement switch.

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  • 26. 

    Depressing the M-DEL key, depending on the situation, can display a negative sign (-) to applicable data field entries, select a mode (option) from the controlling subsystem, or display a 

    • A.

      Zero in the data field

    • B.

      One in the data field

    • C.

      Two in the data field

    • D.

      Three in the data field

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero in the data field
    Explanation
    Depressing the M-DEL key can display a zero in the data field. This means that when the M-DEL key is pressed, it will clear any existing data in the field and replace it with a zero. This could be useful in situations where the user wants to reset or clear the data in the field to start fresh.

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  • 27. 

    The UFC BIT is selected by depressing and releasing the OSS adjacent to the 

    • A.

      DEEU mnemonic on the MFD BIT2 page

    • B.

      UFC mnemonic on the MFD BIT2 page

    • C.

      UFC mnemonic on the DED BIT2 page

    • D.

      DEEU mnemonic on the DED BIT2 page

    Correct Answer
    B. UFC mnemonic on the MFD BIT2 page
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "UFC mnemonic on the MFD BIT2 page." This means that the UFC Built-In Test (BIT) is selected by depressing and releasing the UFC mnemonic on the Multi-Function Display (MFD) BIT2 page. The MFD BIT2 page is likely a menu or interface where different tests and functions can be accessed and controlled. By selecting the UFC mnemonic, the user can initiate the BIT for the UFC system.

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  • 28. 

    If the more faults indicators are present on the PFLD, these additional faults are reviewed by depressing the 

    • A.

      More faults button

    • B.

      F-ACK button

    • C.

      Clear button on the MFD

    • D.

      Additional faults button for 10 seconds to allow automatic display

    Correct Answer
    B. F-ACK button
    Explanation
    When there are more fault indicators present on the PFLD, the user can review these additional faults by depressing the F-ACK button. This button allows the user to acknowledge and review the additional faults indicated on the display. It is specifically designed for this purpose and helps in managing and addressing multiple faults efficiently.

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  • 29. 

    There is excessive moisture in the HUD PDU when the

    • A.

      PDU moisture indicator is pink

    • B.

      PDU moisture indicator is blue

    • C.

      HUD desiccator is pink

    • D.

      HUD desiccator is blue

    Correct Answer
    A. PDU moisture indicator is pink
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PDU moisture indicator is pink. When the PDU moisture indicator is pink, it indicates that there is excessive moisture in the HUD PDU. This can be a cause for concern as excessive moisture can lead to damage and malfunction of the PDU. It is important to address this issue and take necessary steps to remove the moisture and prevent further damage.

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  • 30. 

    If you want to use the HUD PDU with the largest FOV, which one of the following would you use?

    • A.

      Conventional HUD

    • B.

      Wide-angle raster HUD

    • C.

      WAC HUD

    • D.

      LANTIRN HUD

    Correct Answer
    D. LANTIRN HUD
    Explanation
    The LANTIRN HUD would be the best option for using the HUD PDU with the largest FOV. LANTIRN stands for Low Altitude Navigation and Targeting Infrared for Night, and it is a system used by military aircraft for navigation and targeting. The LANTIRN HUD is specifically designed to provide a wide field of view, allowing pilots to have a broader visual coverage of their surroundings. This makes it ideal for situations where a larger field of view is required, such as in combat or low altitude flying.

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  • 31. 

    The RSU contains the components and circuits that produce normal acceleration signals and

    • A.

      Roll, lift, and yaw angular rates

    • B.

      Roll, pitch, and lift angular rates

    • C.

      Pitch, lift, and yaw angular rates

    • D.

      Pitch, roll, and yaw angular rates

    Correct Answer
    D. Pitch, roll, and yaw angular rates
    Explanation
    The RSU (Rate Sensor Unit) contains components and circuits that generate signals for measuring the angular rates of pitch, roll, and yaw. These angular rates refer to the rotational movements of an object around its three axes. By measuring these rates, the RSU can provide information about the object's orientation and motion in three-dimensional space.

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  • 32. 

    If you depress the LIST priority override key, the UFCs will display a list of selectable,

    • A.

      Infrequently accessed MFD pages

    • B.

      Infrequently accessed DED pages

    • C.

      Frequently accessed MFD pages

    • D.

      Frequently accessed DED pages

    Correct Answer
    B. Infrequently accessed DED pages
    Explanation
    Depressing the LIST priority override key on the UFCs will cause the UFCs to display a list of infrequently accessed DED (Data Entry Display) pages. This means that the DED pages that are not frequently used or accessed will be shown on the UFCs for selection.

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  • 33. 

    If you want to apply power and adjust the brightness to the HUD, which control would you use?

    • A.

      INT control

    • B.

      CONT control

    • C.

      SYM control

    • D.

      RET DEPR control

    Correct Answer
    C. SYM control
    Explanation
    The SYM control is the appropriate control to use if you want to apply power and adjust the brightness to the HUD.

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  • 34. 

    You have selected AUTO BRT with the brightness switch. If the ambient (surrounding) light increases, the brightness of the HUD

    • A.

      Increases

    • B.

      Decreases

    • C.

      Stays the same

    • D.

      Reverts to manual operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "increases." When the AUTO BRT mode with the brightness switch is selected, the head-up display (HUD) adjusts its brightness based on the ambient light conditions. Therefore, if the surrounding light increases, the brightness of the HUD will also increase to ensure optimal visibility for the driver.

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  • 35. 

    What is the total number of HUD test pattern pages that may be selected with the TEST switch

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. This suggests that there are a total of 4 HUD test pattern pages that can be selected with the TEST switch.

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  • 36. 

    On the HUD remote control panel, you can check the PRI and STBY reticle by placing the RET DEPR switch to either

    • A.

      PRI or ALT

    • B.

      SEC or PRI

    • C.

      PRI or STBY

    • D.

      STBY or SEC

    Correct Answer
    C. PRI or STBY
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PRI or STBY. On the HUD remote control panel, the RET DEPR switch can be placed in either PRI or STBY position to check the PRI and STBY reticle. This suggests that the PRI and STBY reticle can be viewed simultaneously or independently by selecting either of these positions on the switch. Placing the switch in the PRI position may display the PRI reticle, while placing it in the STBY position may display the STBY reticle.

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  • 37. 

    The three HUD master modes are air-to-air, air-to-ground, and

    • A.

      Navigation

    • B.

      Air-to-air guns

    • C.

      Air-to-air missles

    • D.

      Electronic countermeasures

    Correct Answer
    A. Navigation
    Explanation
    The three HUD master modes are air-to-air, air-to-ground, and navigation. The HUD (Head-Up Display) is a transparent display that presents information without requiring users to look away from their usual viewpoints. In the context of aircraft, the navigation master mode on the HUD provides essential information related to the aircraft's position, heading, altitude, and other navigational data. This mode helps pilots in accurately navigating and following flight routes and waypoints, ensuring safe and efficient navigation during flight operations.

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  • 38. 

    A flashing flight-path marker indicates

    • A.

      Weapons release

    • B.

      Central air data computer failure

    • C.

      Failure of the stores management system

    • D.

      INU alignment complete

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons release
    Explanation
    A flashing flight-path marker indicates weapons release. This means that when the flight-path marker on an aircraft's display is flashing, it is indicating that the aircraft has released its weapons. This is an important visual cue for the pilot to confirm that the weapons have been successfully released from the aircraft.

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  • 39. 

    How many levels of EEGS are there?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    D. 5
    Explanation
    There are five levels of EEGS.

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  • 40. 

    The size of the air-to-air missile allowable steering error circle depends on the 

    • A.

      Range to the target and selected FOV

    • B.

      Missile type and selected FOV

    • C.

      Range to the target

    • D.

      Missile type only

    Correct Answer
    B. Missile type and selected FOV
    Explanation
    The size of the air-to-air missile allowable steering error circle depends on the missile type and selected field of view (FOV). The missile type determines the capabilities and specifications of the missile, including its accuracy and maneuverability. The selected FOV refers to the field of view that the missile's guidance system can cover. By considering both the missile type and selected FOV, the allowable steering error circle can be determined, which affects the missile's ability to hit its target accurately.

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  • 41. 

    The maximum toss anticipation cue consists of a 

    • A.

      100mr circle above the boresight cross at 0 degrees azimuth and -3 degrees elevation

    • B.

      100mr circle below the boresight cross at 0 degrees azimuth and -3 degrees elevation

    • C.

      50mr circle above the boresight cross at 0 degrees azimuth and -3 degrees elevation

    • D.

      50mr circle below the boresight cross at 0 degrees azimuth and -3 degrees elevation

    Correct Answer
    B. 100mr circle below the boresight cross at 0 degrees azimuth and -3 degrees elevation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 100mr circle below the boresight cross at 0 degrees azimuth and -3 degrees elevation. This means that the maximum toss anticipation cue is a circle with a radius of 100mr (mils of range) located below the boresight cross at a specific azimuth and elevation. This cue is used to help determine the appropriate range for a toss in a specific direction.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following conditions will prevent the HUD from displaying the roll indicator?

    • A.

      DED or PFLD data is displayed on the HUD

    • B.

      The FPM bank roll indicators are absent

    • C.

      In a dogfight, with ammunition not loaded in the gun

    • D.

      INU data is valid

    Correct Answer
    A. DED or PFLD data is displayed on the HUD
    Explanation
    If DED or PFLD data is displayed on the HUD, it will prevent the roll indicator from being displayed. The DED (Data Entry Display) and PFLD (Pilot Fault List Display) are other types of information that can be shown on the HUD, and when they are being displayed, the roll indicator will not be visible.

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  • 43. 

    Each tic on the aircraft velocity scale represents 

    • A.

      1 knot

    • B.

      5 knots

    • C.

      10 knots

    • D.

      15 knots

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 knots
    Explanation
    Each tic on the aircraft velocity scale represents a measurement of 10 knots. This means that every mark on the scale represents an increase or decrease of 10 knots in the aircraft's velocity.

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  • 44. 

    In air-to-air mode, the velocity switch in GND SPD, when the landing gear handle is lowered, the scale magnetic/ ground track scale

    • A.

      Displays ILS magnetic ground track with the triangle index mark

    • B.

      Displays magnetic heading with the heading index mark unless ILS is selected

    • C.

      Automatically displays magnetic ground track instead of magnetic heading

    • D.

      Automatically switches from ground track to magnetic heading

    Correct Answer
    D. Automatically switches from ground track to magnetic heading
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the velocity switch in GND SPD, when the landing gear handle is lowered, automatically switches from ground track to magnetic heading. This means that when the landing gear is lowered during air-to-air mode, the display will switch from showing the aircraft's ground track to showing its magnetic heading. This is a useful feature as it allows the pilot to easily see the direction in which the aircraft is heading.

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  • 45. 

    On the HUD, what scale consists of a vertical line to indicate minimum and maximum range, with a smaller vertical line to indicate the no-escape zone?

    • A.

      Air-to-air missile range scale

    • B.

      Magnetic ground track scale

    • C.

      Vertical velocity scale

    • D.

      Airspeed scale

    Correct Answer
    A. Air-to-air missile range scale
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the air-to-air missile range scale. This scale on the HUD is used to indicate the minimum and maximum range of air-to-air missiles. It consists of a vertical line that represents the range, with a smaller vertical line indicating the no-escape zone. This scale helps pilots determine the distance at which they can engage enemy aircraft with their missiles.

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  • 46. 

    The CMFD bezel assembly contains a total of 20 OSS, 

    • A.

      Two rocker switches, two ALS, and the panel illuminators

    • B.

      Four rocker switches, two ALS, and the panel illuminators

    • C.

      And two rocker switches only

    • D.

      And four rocker switches only

    Correct Answer
    B. Four rocker switches, two ALS, and the panel illuminators
    Explanation
    The CMFD bezel assembly contains four rocker switches, two ALS, and the panel illuminators. This means that there are four switches that can be rocked back and forth, two ALS (which stands for Ambient Light Sensors), and the panel illuminators that provide lighting for the assembly.

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  • 47. 

    What will inform the operator if a CMFD OSS is actuated?

    • A.

      Copilot

    • B.

      Tone in headset

    • C.

      Momentary flash on the CMFD screen

    • D.

      Tone in the headset as well as a momentary flash on the CMFD screen

    Correct Answer
    C. Momentary flash on the CMFD screen
    Explanation
    When a CMFD OSS (On-Screen Symbol) is actuated, the operator will be informed through a momentary flash on the CMFD (Central Multi-Function Display) screen. This flash serves as a visual indication to the operator that the CMFD OSS has been activated. The other options, such as the copilot or a tone in the headset, do not directly provide information about the actuation of the CMFD OSS.

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  • 48. 

    Which component provides the communication link between all the CMFD and the CPDG

    • A.

      D-MUX bus

    • B.

      SFP

    • C.

      DFP

    • D.

      UART

    Correct Answer
    D. UART
    Explanation
    The UART (Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter) provides the communication link between all the CMFD (Centralized Multi-Function Display) and the CPDG (Centralized Processor and Display Generator). UART is a hardware component that allows serial communication between devices. It converts parallel data from the CMFD and CPDG into serial data for transmission and vice versa. This enables the exchange of information and data between the two components, facilitating their communication and coordination.

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  • 49. 

    An OSS function is identified by the 

    • A.

      Mnemonic adjacent to the OSS

    • B.

      Mnemonic engraved on the OSS face

    • C.

      Number sequence adjacent to the OSS

    • D.

      Number sequence engraved on the OSS face

    Correct Answer
    A. Mnemonic adjacent to the OSS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "mnemonic adjacent to the OSS." This means that an OSS function is identified by the mnemonic (a short and memorable name) that is located next to the OSS (Open Source Software). The mnemonic helps to describe and label the specific function or feature of the OSS, making it easier for users to understand and navigate.

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  • 50. 

    While there are typically 11 CMFD display formats available to the user, a 12th display format would be possible if

    • A.

      An ECM pod is loaded onto station 5

    • B.

      A time compliance technical order would have to be accomplished

    • C.

      An ECM pod is loaded on stations 3,5, or 7

    • D.

      The active towed decoy system is installed

    Correct Answer
    D. The active towed decoy system is installed
    Explanation
    If the active towed decoy system is installed, it would allow for a 12th display format to be possible. This suggests that the active towed decoy system has some impact on the display formats available to the user. The other options mentioned, such as loading an ECM pod or completing a time compliance technical order, do not have an effect on the availability of display formats. Therefore, the correct answer is the active towed decoy system being installed.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 05, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Warthog93
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