ISTQB Sample Mock Test2

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ISTQB Sample Mock Test2 - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :- i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk ii. Project constraints such as time and budget iii. Size of Testing Team iv. Size of the Development Team

    • A.

      I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • B.

      I,,iv are true and ii is false

    • C.

      i,ii are true and iii,iv are false

    • D.

      ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    Correct Answer
    C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii are true and iii,iv are false. When deciding how much testing is enough, it is important to consider the level of risk, including both technical and business product and project risk. Additionally, project constraints such as time and budget should be taken into account. However, the size of the testing team and the size of the development team are not factors that should be considered when determining the amount of testing needed.

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  • 2. 

    Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria.

    • A.

      I,ii,iv are true and iii is false

    • B.

      i,,iv are true and ii is false

    • C.

      I,ii are true and iii,iv are false

    • D.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iv are true and iii is false
    Explanation
    The major tasks of test planning include determining the scope and risks, identifying the objectives of testing, determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, testware), and determining the exit criteria. In this case, options i, ii, and iv are true because they accurately describe the major tasks of test planning. Option iii is false because it states that reviewing the Test Basis is a major task of test planning, which is not mentioned as one of the tasks in the given information.

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  • 3. 

    Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-

    • A.

      Test Analysis and Design

    • B.

      Test Planning and control

    • C.

      Test Implementation and executioN

    • D.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Analysis and Design
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Test Analysis and Design. This phase involves evaluating the testability of the requirements and the system. During this phase, the test team analyzes the requirements and designs the test cases and test scenarios. They also evaluate the testability of the system by assessing if the requirements are clear, complete, and testable. This phase is crucial in ensuring that the testing process is well-planned and that the test cases cover all the necessary aspects of the system.

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  • 4. 

    One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.

    • A.

      CLASS

    • B.

      cLASS

    • C.

      CLass

    • D.

      CLa01ss

    Correct Answer
    D. CLa01ss
    Explanation
    The given answer, CLa01ss, is an invalid equivalence class value because it contains a numeric character (0) which is not allowed in the text box. The question states that the text box only accepts alphabets in lower or upper case, so any value that includes numbers or special characters would be considered invalid.

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  • 5. 

    In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

    • A.

      £4800; £14000; £28000

    • B.

      £5200; £5500; £28000

    • C.

      £28001; £32000; £35000

    • D.

      £5800; £28000; £32000

    Correct Answer
    D. £5800; £28000; £32000
    Explanation
    The given numbers fall into the same equivalence class because they all have the same tax rates applied to them based on the tax system described. The first £4000 of salary is tax-free for all the numbers. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%, which applies to £5800. The next £28000 is taxed at 22%, which applies to £28000. Any further amount is taxed at 40%, which applies to £32000. Therefore, all the numbers in the group have the same tax rates applied to them, making them fall into the same equivalence class.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :

    • A.

      Designed by persons who write the software under test

    • B.

      Designed by a person from a different section

    • C.

      Designed by a person from a different organization

    • D.

      Designed by another person

    Correct Answer
    C. Designed by a person from a different organization
    Explanation
    Test cases designed by a person from a different organization have the highest level of independence. This is because individuals from different organizations are not directly involved in the development process of the software under test. They have no bias or preconceived notions about the software and can provide a fresh perspective. They are not influenced by the internal workings or constraints of the organization that developed the software, allowing them to approach the testing process objectively and independently.

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  • 7. 

    We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-

    • A.

      User Acceptance Test Cases

    • B.

      Integration Level Test Cases

    • C.

      Unit Level Test Cases

    • D.

      Program specifications

    Correct Answer
    A. User Acceptance Test Cases
    Explanation
    The output of requirement analysis and requirement specification is used as input for writing User Acceptance Test Cases. User Acceptance Test Cases are designed to validate whether the system meets the user's requirements and expectations. By using the output of requirement analysis and requirement specification, the User Acceptance Test Cases can be aligned with the specific needs and goals of the user. This ensures that the system is thoroughly tested from the user's perspective and increases the likelihood of delivering a satisfactory product.

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  • 8. 

    Validation involves which of the following i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

    • A.

      Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.

    • B.

      Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

    • C.

      I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • D.

      Iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
    Explanation
    Validation helps to check that we have built the right product. It ensures that the product meets the intended requirements and satisfies the needs of the stakeholders. However, it does not directly involve developing the product or monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness. Additionally, while validation indirectly contributes to checking the quality of the built product, it is not its primary purpose. Therefore, the correct answer is that option ii is true and options i, iii, and iv are false.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

    • A.

      Component testing

    • B.

      B) Non-functional system testing

    • C.

      User acceptance testing

    • D.

      Maintenance testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance testing
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing uses Impact Analysis most because it involves testing changes or modifications made to an existing system. Impact Analysis helps in determining the potential effects of these changes on the system as a whole. It helps identify the areas that may be affected by the changes and allows testers to focus their testing efforts on those specific areas. This ensures that the changes do not introduce any unintended side effects and that the system continues to function correctly after the modifications are made.

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  • 10. 

     What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

    • A.

      A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

    • B.

      A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.

    • C.

      A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.

    • D.

      A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

    Correct Answer
    D. A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
    Explanation
    The expected result for test case A is to offer an upgrade to Gold because the customer is a Citibank card member and is holding a Silver room. The expected result for test case B is to not offer any upgrade because the customer is not a Citibank member, regardless of the type of room they are holding.

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  • 11. 

    Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

    • A.

      Re Testing

    • B.

      Confirmation Testing

    • C.

      Regression Testing

    • D.

      Negative Testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Regression Testing
    Explanation
    Regression testing is the process of retesting a software program that has already been tested, after modifications have been made. The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that the changes made to the software, either in the program being tested or in related or unrelated software components, have not introduced any new defects or caused any previously fixed defects to reappear. It helps to verify that the existing functionality of the software has not been affected by the changes.

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  • 12. 

    Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.

    • A.

      Exit Criteria

    • B.

      How many more test cases need to written.

    • C.

      Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Exit Criteria
    Explanation
    Impact analysis helps to decide the exit criteria for a particular testing phase or project. It determines when to stop testing based on certain predetermined conditions or objectives. By analyzing the impact of changes made to the system, the testing team can determine if sufficient testing has been done and if the exit criteria have been met. It helps in ensuring that the necessary test cases have been executed and the desired level of quality has been achieved before moving to the next phase or releasing the product.

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  • 13. 

    Functional system testing is:

    • A.

      Testing that the system functions with other systems

    • B.

      Testing that the components that comprise the system function together

    • C.

      Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

    • D.

      Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

    Correct Answer
    C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    Explanation
    Functional system testing is the type of testing that evaluates the end-to-end functionality of the system as a whole. This means that it tests the system's ability to perform all the required functions and processes, ensuring that the system operates as intended and meets the specified requirements. It focuses on verifying that the system functions correctly in real-world scenarios, simulating user interactions and checking if all components work together seamlessly.

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  • 14. 

    Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?

    • A.

      OFF to ON

    • B.

      ON to OFF

    • C.

      FAULT to ON

    Correct Answer
    C. FAULT to ON
    Explanation
    The state transition diagram represents the different states that a switch can be in, and the valid transitions between those states. In this case, the switch can transition from OFF to ON, ON to OFF, and FAULT to ON. However, the transition from FAULT to ON is invalid because a switch cannot transition directly from a faulty state to the ON state.

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  • 15. 

    Peer Reviews are also called as 

    • A.

      Inspection

    • B.

      Walkthrough

    • C.

      Technical Review

    • D.

      Formal Review

    Correct Answer
    C. Technical Review
    Explanation
    Peer reviews are a type of review process where colleagues or peers evaluate and provide feedback on a document, code, or any other work product. This evaluation is done to identify defects, improve quality, and ensure that the work meets the required standards. While inspections, walkthroughs, and formal reviews are also types of review processes, the term "technical review" is often used interchangeably with peer reviews to refer to the same practice. Therefore, peer reviews are also called technical reviews.

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  • 16. 

    Consider the following statements: i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

    • A.

      Ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

    • B.

      I & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

    • C.

      Ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

    • D.

      Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

    Correct Answer
    D. Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False. This means that statement ii, which states that 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage, is true. Additionally, statement iii, which states that 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage, is also true. Finally, statement iv, which states that 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage, is true. On the other hand, statement i, which states that 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage, is false. Similarly, statement v, which states that 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage, is also false.

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  • 17. 

    The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :

    • A.

      Explaining the objective

    • B.

      Fixing defects found typically done by author

    • C.

      Follow up

    • D.

      Individual Meeting preparations

    Correct Answer
    A. Explaining the objective
    Explanation
    The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes explaining the objective. During this phase, the purpose and goals of the review are communicated to all participants. This helps ensure that everyone understands what needs to be achieved and provides a clear direction for the review process. By explaining the objective upfront, it sets the stage for a focused and productive review session.

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  • 18. 

    Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

    • A.

      i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b

    • B.

      i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b

    • C.

      i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c

    • D.

      i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Correct Answer
    D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

    • A.

      Test Planning and Control

    • B.

      Test implementation and Execution

    • C.

      Requirement Analysis

    • D.

      Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    C. Requirement Analysis
    Explanation
    Requirement Analysis is not a phase of the Fundamental Test Process. The Fundamental Test Process consists of the following phases: Test Planning and Control, Test Implementation and Execution, Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting. Requirement Analysis, on the other hand, is a separate activity that is performed before the testing process starts. It involves analyzing and understanding the requirements of the software or system being tested in order to develop an effective testing strategy.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

    • A.

      State transition testing

    • B.

      LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)

    • C.

      Syntax testing

    • D.

      Boundary value analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
    Explanation
    LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) is not a black box technique because it involves analyzing the internal code structure and logic of the software system. Black box testing techniques focus on testing the functionality of the system without considering its internal implementation details. State transition testing, syntax testing, and boundary value analysis are all examples of black box techniques as they solely rely on the input-output behavior of the system without considering its internal workings.

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  • 21. 

    Success Factors for a review include : i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

    • A.

      Ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

    • B.

      Iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect

    • C.

      I , iii , iv , ii is in correct

    • D.

      ii is correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ii, iii, and iv are correct and i is incorrect. This is because the success factors for a review include welcoming and expressing defects objectively, having management support for the review process, and emphasizing learning and process improvement. However, each review does not necessarily have a predefined objective, which is why i is incorrect.

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  • 22. 

    Defects discovered by static analysis tools include : i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

    • A.

      I , ii,iii,iv is correct

    • B.

      Iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.

    • C.

      i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect

    • D.

      iv, ii is correct

    Correct Answer
    A. I , ii,iii,iv is correct
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because static analysis tools can detect various types of defects in code. These include variables that are never used, security vulnerabilities, programming standard violations, and uncalled functions and procedures. Therefore, all options i, ii, iii, and iv are correct.

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  • 23. 

     Test Conditions are derived from :-

    • A.

      Specifications

    • B.

      Test Cases

    • C.

      Test Data

    • D.

      Test Design

    Correct Answer
    A. Specifications
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Specifications" because test conditions are derived from specifications. Specifications provide detailed information about the requirements and functionality of the system or software being tested. Test conditions are then derived from these specifications to ensure that all the necessary scenarios and conditions are covered during testing. Test cases, test data, and test design are all based on the specifications to ensure that the testing process is comprehensive and aligned with the requirements.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-

    • A.

      Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.

    • B.

      Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.

    • C.

      Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.

    • D.

      Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

    Correct Answer
    C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that Equivalence partitioning, State Transition, and Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques. This means that these techniques are used to test the functionality of a system without considering its internal structure or implementation details. Black box testing focuses on the input and output of the system, ensuring that it behaves correctly according to the specified requirements. Equivalence partitioning involves dividing the input data into different classes to select representative test cases, State Transition testing focuses on testing different states and transitions between them, and Use Case Testing involves testing the system's behavior based on different user scenarios or use cases.

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  • 25. 

    Regression testing should be performed: i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says

    • A.

      I & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false

    • B.

      ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false

    • C.

      ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false

    • D.

      ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

    Correct Answer
    C. ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
    Explanation
    Regression testing should be performed after the software has changed because when changes are made to the software, there is a possibility that existing functionality might be affected or new bugs might be introduced. It is important to verify that the changes have not caused any unintended consequences or regression in the software. Regression testing should also be performed when the environment has changed to ensure that the software still functions correctly in the new environment. Performing regression testing every week or as often as possible may not be necessary or efficient, and relying solely on the project manager's discretion may not be a reliable approach.

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  • 26. 

    Benefits of Independent Testing

    • A.

      Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers

    • B.

      Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.

    • C.

      Independent Testers cannot identify defects.

    • D.

      Independent Testers can test better than developers

    Correct Answer
    B. Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because independent testers, being separate from the development team, bring a fresh perspective to the testing process. They can identify defects that developers may overlook due to their familiarity with the system. Additionally, independent testers are unbiased as they do not have any personal stake in the success or failure of the software being tested. This allows them to provide objective feedback and ensure that all aspects of the system are thoroughly tested.

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  • 27. 

    Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 then Print “Large” End if If p > 50 then Print “pLarge” End if

    • A.

      Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2

    • B.

      Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2

    • C.

      Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

    • D.

      Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

    Correct Answer
    C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
    Explanation
    In order to achieve statement coverage, all the statements in the code need to be executed at least once. In this code, there are a total of 4 statements: Read P, Read Q, Print "Large", and Print "pLarge". The given answer states that statement coverage is 1, which means only one statement is executed. This is because there is no information provided about the execution of the other statements. However, branch coverage is 2 because there are two decision points in the code: the condition "p+q > 100" and the condition "p > 50". These decision points create two possible branches in the code, and the answer correctly identifies the branch coverage as 2.

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  • 28. 

    Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if

    • A.

      Statement coverage is 4

    • B.

      Statement coverage is 1

    • C.

      Statement coverage is 3

    • D.

      Statement Coverage is 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Statement coverage is 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Statement coverage is 1" because there is only one statement that is being covered in the given code. The code starts by reading the value of Order-qty and then checks if it is greater than or equal to 20. If it is, then the code sets the value of Disc to 0.05. There are no other statements in the code, so only one statement is covered.

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  • 29. 

    The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -

    • A.

      Anomaly Report

    • B.

      Defect Report

    • C.

      Test Defect Report

    • D.

      Test Incident Report

    Correct Answer
    D. Test Incident Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Test Incident Report. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829. This report is used to document any unexpected or abnormal behavior observed during testing. It includes information such as the incident description, steps to reproduce, severity, priority, and the person responsible for resolving the issue. The Test Incident Report helps in tracking and managing the incidents encountered during testing, ensuring that they are properly reported and resolved.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader. i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how. iv. Create the Test Specifications

    • A.

      i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

    • B.

      Ii,iii,iv is true and i is false

    • C.

      i is true and ii,iii,iv are false

    • D.

      Iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
    Explanation
    A Test Lead/Leader is responsible for various tasks in a testing project. The correct answer states that i, ii, and iii are true, while iv is false. This means that a Test Lead/Leader is involved in interacting with the Test Tool Vendor to optimize the use of the test tool, writing Test Summary Reports based on gathered information, and deciding what aspects of testing should be automated and to what extent. However, creating the Test Specifications is not a task assigned to a Test Lead/Leader.

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  • 31. 

     Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Also checks for functionality.

    • A.

      i, ii are true and iii and iv are false

    • B.

      Iii is true and i,ii, iv are false

    • C.

      ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false

    • D.

      iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

    Correct Answer
    A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, ii are true and iii and iv are false. This is because white box testing involves using explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select test data, as stated in statement i. It also uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program, as stated in statement ii. However, white box testing does not specifically focus on checking for the performance of the application, as stated in statement iii. It also does not solely check for functionality, as stated in statement iv.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons.

    • A.

      i , ii , iv are true and iii is false

    • B.

      i , ii , iii are true and iv is false

    • C.

      I , iii , iv are true and ii is false

    • D.

      All of above are true

    Correct Answer
    C. I , iii , iv are true and ii is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, iii, iv are true and ii is false. Test Closure Activities include checking which planned deliverables have been delivered, finalizing and archiving testware, and analyzing lessons. Defect report analysis is not a part of Test Closure Activities.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-

    • A.

      The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.

    • B.

      The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.

    • C.

      The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.

    • D.

      Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

    Correct Answer
    D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
    Explanation
    The best definition for testing is executing software for the purpose of finding defects. This means that testing involves running the software and actively looking for any issues or bugs that may be present. The goal of testing is to identify and document these defects so that they can be fixed before the software is released to users. Testing also helps to ensure that the software functions as intended and meets the requirements and expectations set for it.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

    • A.

      Top down

    • B.

      Big-bang

    • C.

      Bottom up

    • D.

      Functional incrementation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Big-bang
    Explanation
    The Big-bang approach is not a type of incremental testing approach. In incremental testing, the system is tested in small increments or modules, gradually integrating and testing them together. However, the Big-bang approach involves testing the system as a whole, without breaking it down into smaller parts. This approach can be risky as any issues or defects in the system may be difficult to identify and fix. Therefore, Big-bang is not considered as a type of incremental testing approach.

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  • 35. 

    Drivers are also known as: i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding

    • A.

      I , ii are true and iii is false

    • B.

      I , iii are true and ii is false

    • C.

      Ii , iii are true and i is false

    • D.

      All of the above are true

    Correct Answer
    C. Ii , iii are true and i is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ii , iii are true and i is false. A driver is a software component or program that enables the interaction between the operating system or other software and a specific hardware device. It acts as a translator, allowing the operating system to communicate with the hardware device. A test harness, on the other hand, is a collection of software and test data that is used to test a program or system. It provides a controlled environment for testing and evaluating the functionality of the software. Scaffolding, however, is not another term for a driver.

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  • 36. 

    Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

    • A.

      Iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.

    • B.

      I,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect

    • C.

      Ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

    • D.

      Iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    B. I,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, ii, and iii are correct and iv is incorrect. This is because the exit criteria for a testing phase typically include thoroughness measures such as code coverage, functionality coverage, or risk coverage. It also includes estimates of defect density or reliability measures. Additionally, the exit criteria may consider residual risks such as unfixed defects or lack of test coverage in certain areas. However, verifying the test environment is not typically part of the exit criteria for a testing phase.

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  • 37. 

     Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

    • A.

      Iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

    • B.

      i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

    • C.

      I,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

    • D.

      I,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect. Monitoring the test progress involves tracking various aspects such as the percentage of test case execution, the percentage of work done in test environment preparation, and defect information such as defect density, defects found and fixed. However, the size of the testing team and skills of the engineers do not directly contribute to monitoring the test progress.

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  • 38. 

    The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team

    • A.

      I,ii,iii,iv are true

    • B.

      I,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

    • C.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.

    • D.

      I,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

    Correct Answer
    B. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. This is because the selection of a test approach should consider the risk of failure of the project, hazards to the product, and risks of product failure to humans (i). It should also take into account the skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools, and methods (ii). Additionally, the objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team should be considered (iii). However, the size of the testing team (iv) is not mentioned as a factor to consider in the selection of a test approach.

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  • 39. 

     In case of Large Systems :-

    • A.

      Only few tests should be run

    • B.

      Testing should be on the basis of Risk

    • C.

      Only Good Test Cases should be executed.

    • D.

      Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk
    Explanation
    In large systems, it is not feasible to run all possible tests due to time and resource constraints. Therefore, only a selected few tests should be executed, focusing on those areas that pose the highest risk to the system. This approach ensures that the most critical functionalities and components are thoroughly tested, reducing the chances of major failures or issues in the system. It is also important to prioritize test cases written by experienced and skilled test engineers, as they are more likely to identify and cover potential risks effectively.

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  • 40. 

    The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as

    • A.

      Configuration Control

    • B.

      Status Accounting

    • C.

      Configuration Identification

    • D.

      Configuration Identification

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration Control
    Explanation
    Configuration Control refers to the provision and management of a controlled library containing all the configuration items. It involves the process of establishing baselines and controlling changes to these items throughout their lifecycle. By implementing configuration control, organizations can ensure that all configuration items are properly identified, documented, and managed, allowing for better control and coordination of changes. This helps in maintaining the integrity and consistency of the configuration items and facilitates effective configuration management.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Hhazeena
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