Blood Pressure Exam 2

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    Perrla stands for pupils equal round, reactive to light and accomodation.

    • True
    • False
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Blood Pressure Exam 2 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The 'Blood Pressure Exam 2' quiz assesses knowledge on physical examination skills, focusing on eye exams, blood pressure measurement, and skin condition evaluation. It is designed for medical and nursing students to enhance their clinical competencies.

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  • 2. 

    Steps in taking blood pressure.

    • Measure cuff size

    • Line up cuff point over the brachial artery

    • Palpate radial pulse while pumping up cuff

    • Palpate brachial pulse

    • Move clothing away from BP site

    • Wrap cuff snugly around arm approximately 2 inches above elbow crease

    • Inflate and obliterate the pulse and remember number

    • Deflate cuff and find pulse again.

    • Using stethoscope find pulse and reinflate cuff approx 30 mg over obliterated pulse number

    • Slowly deflate cuff and rememeber number when you first hear a sound.

    • Continue to deflate cuff until the sound disappears or too faint to hear and record upper and lower number.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Measure cuff size
    A. Line up cuff point over the brachial artery
    A. Palpate radial pulse while pumping up cuff
    A. Palpate brachial pulse
    A. Move clothing away from BP site
    A. Wrap cuff snugly around arm approximately 2 inches above elbow crease
    A. Inflate and obliterate the pulse and remember number
    A. Deflate cuff and find pulse again.
    A. Using stethoscope find pulse and reinflate cuff approx 30 mg over obliterated pulse number
    A. Slowly deflate cuff and rememeber number when you first hear a sound.
    A. Continue to deflate cuff until the sound disappears or too faint to hear and record upper and lower number.
    Explanation
    The explanation provides a step-by-step guide on how to take blood pressure. It starts with measuring the cuff size and then lining up the cuff point over the brachial artery. Next, the person taking the blood pressure should palpate the radial pulse while pumping up the cuff, followed by palpating the brachial pulse. They should then move any clothing away from the blood pressure site and wrap the cuff snugly around the arm, approximately 2 inches above the elbow crease. The cuff should be inflated to obliterate the pulse, and the number should be remembered. After deflating the cuff and finding the pulse again, a stethoscope should be used to find the pulse and reinflate the cuff approximately 30 mmHg above the obliterated pulse number. The cuff should be slowly deflated, and the number should be remembered when the first sound is heard. Finally, the cuff should be deflated until the sound disappears or becomes too faint to hear, and the upper and lower numbers should be recorded.

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  • 3. 

    Convergence is the ability for the eyes to move together on both near and far objects.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Convergence refers to the ability of the eyes to turn inward and focus on objects that are close to us. This is necessary for binocular vision and depth perception. When we look at objects that are far away, our eyes are parallel. Therefore, convergence is indeed the ability for the eyes to move together on both near and far objects, making the statement true.

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  • 4. 

    Therapeutic baths require a physcian's order.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Therapeutic baths require a physician's order because they are a medical treatment that involves specific instructions and considerations for the patient's condition. A physician's order ensures that the appropriate type of therapeutic bath is prescribed and that it is administered safely and effectively. Without a physician's order, there is a risk of using the wrong type of bath or causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is necessary for a physician to assess the patient's condition and determine if a therapeutic bath is suitable and what specific instructions should be followed.

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  • 5. 

    Diabetic patients require special foot care

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Diabetic patients require special foot care because they are at a higher risk for foot complications. Diabetes can lead to poor blood circulation and nerve damage in the feet, making them more susceptible to infections and injuries. Regular foot care, including daily washing, inspection for cuts or sores, proper nail trimming, and wearing appropriate footwear, can help prevent complications such as foot ulcers and amputation. Therefore, it is important for diabetic patients to prioritize special foot care.

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  • 6. 

    What is the number one nursing intervention?

    • Assess

    • Manage

    • Plan

    • Evaluate

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess
    Explanation
    Assessing is considered the number one nursing intervention because it is the initial step in the nursing process. By assessing, nurses gather relevant information about the patient's health status, including physical, emotional, and social factors. This information helps nurses identify potential health problems, establish priorities, and develop an individualized care plan. Without a thorough assessment, nurses may not have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and may not be able to provide appropriate care. Therefore, assessing is crucial in providing effective and efficient nursing care.

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  • 7. 

    As we age the acid mantel is gone making the skin itchy.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    As we age, the acid mantle, which is a protective layer on the skin's surface, gradually diminishes. This can result in dryness and itchiness of the skin. Therefore, it is true that as we age, the acid mantle is gone, making the skin itchy.

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  • 8. 

    We assess skin turgor on elderly at the clavicle or forehead.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Skin turgor is a measure of the elasticity and hydration of the skin. It is commonly assessed in elderly individuals at the clavicle or forehead because these areas are less affected by age-related changes such as decreased elasticity and increased wrinkling. Assessing skin turgor at these locations provides a more accurate indication of hydration status in elderly individuals. Therefore, the statement that skin turgor is assessed on elderly at the clavicle or forehead is true.

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  • 9. 

    The three P's are pressure, pain and potty are assessed every 2 hours.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because it states that the three P's (pressure, pain, and potty) are assessed every 2 hours. This implies that healthcare professionals regularly monitor and evaluate these three aspects in order to ensure the well-being and comfort of the patient. By assessing pressure, pain, and potty every 2 hours, healthcare providers can identify any issues or discomfort the patient may be experiencing and take appropriate actions to address them. This regular assessment helps in maintaining the patient's health and providing timely interventions if needed.

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  • 10. 

    Blood Pressure Category Systolic mm Hg (upper #)   Diastolic mm Hg (lower #) Normal less than 120 and less than 80 Prehypertension 120 – 139 or 80 – 89 High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) Stage 1 140 – 159 or 90 – 99 High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) Stage 2 160 or higher or 100 or higher Hypertensive Crisis (Emergency care needed) Higher than 180 or Higher than 110

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given answer is true because it accurately reflects the information provided in the table. The table shows the different categories of blood pressure levels, with their corresponding systolic and diastolic values. The answer is true because it aligns with the information in the table, indicating that the statement is correct.

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  • 11. 

    Having a temperature below 100.4 is fine.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Having a temperature below 100.4 is considered fine because it falls within the normal range of body temperature. The average normal body temperature is typically around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit or 37 degrees Celsius. However, it is important to note that individual body temperatures can vary slightly, and a temperature below 100.4 is still within the normal range and not considered a fever.

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  • 12. 

    Temperature becomes a problem when it spikes.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When the temperature spikes, it means that there is a sudden and significant increase in temperature. This can be problematic because extreme temperatures can have negative effects on various aspects such as human health, infrastructure, and the environment. High temperatures can lead to heat-related illnesses, damage to buildings and roads, and can also contribute to climate change. Therefore, it is true that temperature becomes a problem when it spikes.

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  • 13. 

    • birth to 6 weeks: 30–60 breaths per minute
    • 6 months: 25–40 breaths per minute
    • 3 years: 20–30 breaths per minute
    • 6 years: 18–25 breaths per minute
    • 10 years: 15–20 breaths per minute
    • adults: 12–20 breaths per minute

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given answer is true because it accurately represents the normal range of breaths per minute for different age groups. The respiratory rate gradually decreases from birth to adulthood, with infants having the highest rate and adults having the lowest. This information is commonly used in medical settings to assess the respiratory health of individuals.

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  • 14. 

    The sclera will be either white or yellow.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The sclera, also known as the white of the eye, can vary in color from person to person. In most cases, the sclera is white, indicating a healthy eye. However, some individuals may have a yellowish tint to their sclera, which can be a sign of certain medical conditions such as jaundice or liver problems. Therefore, the statement that the sclera can be either white or yellow is true.

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  • 15. 

    Ischemia causes pressure ulcers in as little as 2 hours.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ischemia refers to a lack of blood supply to a particular area of the body. When there is inadequate blood flow, tissues can become deprived of oxygen and nutrients, leading to cell damage and death. In the case of pressure ulcers, prolonged pressure on a specific area of the body can restrict blood flow, causing ischemia. Without sufficient blood supply, the affected tissues are more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers, which can occur in as little as 2 hours. Therefore, the statement "Ischemia causes pressure ulcers in as little as 2 hours" is true.

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  • 16. 

    Turn, cough and deep breath every 2 hours (TCDP). use insentive sperometer 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because turning, coughing, and taking deep breaths every 2 hours is a common practice in medical settings to prevent complications such as pneumonia, atelectasis, and blood clots. Using an incentive spirometer is also recommended to help improve lung function and prevent respiratory complications. This routine helps to maintain lung expansion and prevent the buildup of secretions in the lungs, especially in patients who are bedridden or have limited mobility.

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  • 17. 

    A pressure ulcer retains it's stage even through the healing process.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are categorized into different stages based on the severity of tissue damage. These stages range from Stage 1 (mild) to Stage 4 (severe). Once a pressure ulcer is classified into a specific stage, it retains that stage throughout the healing process. This means that even if the ulcer starts to heal and improve, it will still be considered as the same stage until it completely resolves. Therefore, the statement "A pressure ulcer retains its stage even through the healing process" is true.

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  • 18. 

    Surgical dressing stay in place for 24-48 hrs.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Surgical dressings are designed to stay in place for a specific period of time after a surgical procedure. This allows the wound to heal properly and reduces the risk of infection. The recommended duration for surgical dressings to remain in place is usually 24-48 hours. During this time, the dressing provides protection to the wound, absorbs any discharge, and promotes healing. Therefore, the statement "Surgical dressing stay in place for 24-48 hrs" is true.

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  • 19. 

    A clean surgical incision that heals without extra intervention is Primary Intention Healing.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Primary intention healing refers to the healing process of a clean surgical incision that closes without any complications. This type of healing occurs when the wound edges are closely approximated, allowing for direct healing with minimal scarring. It is characterized by the absence of infection, minimal tissue loss, and rapid healing. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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  • 20. 

    Staples or sutures only by physician or by physician's order.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because the use of staples or sutures is a medical procedure that should only be performed by a physician or under a physician's order. These procedures require specialized knowledge and skills to ensure proper wound closure and minimize the risk of infection or complications. Therefore, it is important for only trained medical professionals to perform this task.

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  • 21. 

    Slough is dead tissue that needs to be removed.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Slough refers to dead tissue that accumulates on wounds or ulcers and hinders the healing process. It is important to remove slough to promote wound healing and prevent infection. Therefore, the statement "Slough is dead tissue that needs to be removed" is true.

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  • 22. 

    Dehiscense is when a wound splits open along the surgical suture.   

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Dehiscence is a medical term used to describe the splitting open of a wound along the surgical suture. This can occur due to various factors such as poor wound healing, infection, or excessive tension on the wound. It is a serious complication that can lead to further complications like infection, delayed healing, or the need for additional surgical interventions. Therefore, the statement "Dehiscence is when a wound splits open along the surgical suture" is true.

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  • 23. 

    A tertiary intention wound must heal from the inside out.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Tertiary intention wound healing refers to a delayed closure of a wound. This type of wound is left open for a period of time to allow for cleaning, drainage, and reducing the risk of infection. Once the wound is deemed clean and healthy, it is closed with sutures or other closure methods. Healing from the inside out means that the wound starts healing from the deeper layers and gradually progresses towards the surface. This allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications. Therefore, the statement "A tertiary intention wound must heal from the inside out" is true.

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  • 24. 

    Evisceration is when a wound dehisceses and the internal organs come out.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Evisceration refers to a condition where a wound opens up, causing the internal organs to protrude. This can occur due to trauma or surgical complications. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the process of evisceration.

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  • 25. 

    For abdominal surgeries use a pillow or other support to brace wound during turn, breath and cough.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Using a pillow or other support to brace the wound during turn, breath, and cough is a recommended practice for abdominal surgeries. This helps to provide support and stability to the wound area, reducing the risk of complications and promoting healing. It also assists in minimizing pain and discomfort during these movements, allowing the patient to perform them more effectively. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 26. 

    Get your culture before you administer antibiotics.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement suggests that it is important to understand and consider the cultural context before prescribing or using antibiotics. This could mean taking into account cultural beliefs, practices, and attitudes towards medicine and healthcare. By doing so, healthcare professionals can ensure that antibiotics are used appropriately and effectively, taking into account any cultural factors that may influence their use or effectiveness.

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  • 27. 

    Center of gravity

    • Promotes efficient renal, circulatory, GI

    • Influences self esteem and body image

    • Better balance

    • Option4

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Promotes efficient renal, circulatory, GI
    A. Influences self esteem and body image
    A. Better balance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Option 4. This option includes all the given statements about the center of gravity. The center of gravity plays a crucial role in promoting efficient renal, circulatory, and gastrointestinal functions. It also influences self-esteem and body image, as having a well-balanced center of gravity can improve posture and overall physical appearance. Additionally, maintaining a proper center of gravity leads to better balance, which is important for stability and preventing falls.

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  • 28. 

    CPM - continuous passive movement

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    CPM stands for continuous passive movement, which is a therapeutic technique used in physical therapy. It involves the continuous and repetitive motion of a joint or limb to improve range of motion, prevent stiffness, and promote healing. Therefore, the statement "CPM - continuous passive movement" being true is accurate as it correctly identifies the acronym and its meaning.

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  • 29. 

    Balance is a low center of gravity and a wide base of support.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because balance is indeed achieved through a low center of gravity, which means that the body's weight is distributed closer to the ground, making it easier to maintain stability. Additionally, a wide base of support provides a larger surface area for the body to balance on, further enhancing stability. Together, a low center of gravity and a wide base of support help to maintain balance and prevent falls or loss of stability.

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  • 30. 

    Brochial breath sounds are heard over the trachea high pitched loud, inspiration is longer than expiration.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bronchial breath sounds are indeed heard over the trachea, as they originate from the large airways. These sounds are characterized by a high pitch and loudness. Additionally, during auscultation, it is observed that the duration of inspiration is longer than expiration when bronchial breath sounds are present. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 31. 

    Brochovesicular breath sounds heard over mainstem bronchus.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Brochovesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds that can be heard over the mainstem bronchus. These sounds are a combination of bronchial and vesicular breath sounds and are typically heard in the upper anterior chest. Therefore, the statement "Brochovesicular breath sounds heard over mainstem bronchus" is true.

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  • 32. 

    Adeventicous breath sounds are both continuous (crackles) and discontinuous (wheezes and rhonchi).

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal sounds heard during breathing, such as crackles, wheezes, and rhonchi. Crackles are continuous, high-pitched sounds caused by fluid in the airways, while wheezes and rhonchi are discontinuous, musical sounds caused by narrowed airways. Therefore, adventitious breath sounds can be both continuous and discontinuous.

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  • 33. 

    Order of assessment is inspect, palpate,percuss and auscultate.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The order of assessment is inspect, palpate, percuss, and auscultate. This means that when conducting a physical examination, the healthcare professional first visually examines the patient, then uses their hands to feel for any abnormalities, followed by tapping on the body to assess the underlying structures, and finally listening to the sounds produced by the body using a stethoscope. This systematic approach ensures that no important findings are missed and helps in making an accurate diagnosis.

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  • 34. 

    Normal ratio of anterior to posterior width to lateral is 1:2 .

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The normal ratio of anterior to posterior width to lateral is 1:2. This means that the anterior width is half the size of the posterior width, while the lateral width is twice the size of the anterior width. This ratio is commonly observed in various anatomical structures, such as bones and organs. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 35. 

    Describe cough by regularity, duration, sound, productive vs. nonproductive and color or sputum

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement "True" is the correct answer because cough can be described by its regularity, duration, sound, and whether it is productive or nonproductive. Additionally, the color of sputum can also be used to describe cough.

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  • 36. 

    Vesicular sounds heard over most of the lung fields, low pitched soft & breezy.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. Vesicular sounds are normal breath sounds that are heard over most of the lung fields. They are low pitched, soft, and breezy in nature. These sounds are produced as air flows through the smaller airways and alveoli in the lungs. Vesicular sounds are typically heard during quiet breathing and are considered to be normal findings.

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  • 37. 

    The Joint Commission is responsible for setting patient safety standards.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Joint Commission is an independent, non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. One of its main responsibilities is to establish and enforce patient safety standards. These standards are designed to ensure that healthcare organizations provide high-quality care and maintain a safe environment for patients. Therefore, the statement that the Joint Commission is responsible for setting patient safety standards is true.

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  • 38. 

    The  purpose of the  National Patient Safety Goals to improve patient safety

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The purpose of the National Patient Safety Goals is to improve patient safety. This means that the goals are designed and implemented with the intention of enhancing the safety and well-being of patients in healthcare settings. The goals may include measures such as reducing medication errors, preventing healthcare-associated infections, improving communication among healthcare providers, and ensuring that patients are actively involved in their own care. By setting these goals and promoting their implementation, the aim is to minimize risks and errors, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes and a safer healthcare environment.

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  • 39. 

    Physical restrains are used as a last resort and only when all other methods have been exhausted.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Physical restraints should only be used as a last resort, when all other methods have been tried and proven ineffective. This is because physical restraints can be potentially harmful and restrictive to an individual's freedom and dignity. Therefore, it is important to exhaust all other alternatives and interventions before resorting to physical restraints.

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  • 40. 

    The patient's family must be involved in deciding whether or not to use restraints.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    It is important to involve the patient's family in the decision-making process regarding the use of restraints because they may have valuable insights into the patient's preferences, values, and medical history. Including the family in this decision promotes a collaborative approach to care and ensures that the patient's best interests are considered. It also helps to establish trust and open communication between the healthcare team and the patient's family, which can lead to better outcomes and patient satisfaction.

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  • 41. 

    The order for restraint must include the type of restraint, justification, duration and criteria for removal,

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An order for restraint must include the type of restraint, justification, duration, and criteria for removal. This ensures that the use of restraint is necessary, justified, and limited to the appropriate duration. It also provides clear guidelines for when the restraint can be removed. Without these details, there is a risk of misuse or unnecessary use of restraint, potentially leading to harm or violation of rights. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 42. 

    If a patient falls, first assess then assist them to their feet letting them perform as much as they can.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that when a patient falls, the first step is to assess their condition and then assist them in getting back on their feet. It emphasizes the importance of letting the patient perform as much as they can, possibly to promote independence and avoid unnecessary intervention. This approach aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and encourages patient involvement in their own recovery process. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 43. 

    3 parts to the nursing diagnosis - Problem, Etiology, Symptoms.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because a nursing diagnosis consists of three parts: the problem, the etiology, and the symptoms. The problem refers to the health issue or condition that the patient is experiencing, the etiology identifies the underlying cause or contributing factors to the problem, and the symptoms describe the signs and symptoms that the patient is exhibiting. These three components help nurses in identifying and addressing the patient's healthcare needs effectively.

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  • 44. 

    What are some benefits of sleep?

    • Improves mood

    • Alertness

    • Allows body to repair

    • Restorative value

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Improves mood
    A. Alertness
    A. Allows body to repair
    A. Restorative value
    Explanation
    Sleep provides numerous benefits for our physical and mental well-being. It improves mood by regulating emotions and reducing irritability and stress. It enhances alertness, allowing us to be more focused, attentive, and productive during the day. Sleep also plays a crucial role in repairing and rejuvenating our body, promoting healing, and boosting the immune system. It has restorative value, helping us recover from physical and mental exertion, improving memory, and consolidating learning. Overall, getting sufficient and quality sleep is essential for our overall health and well-being.

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  • 45. 

    A desynchonization leads to disruption in sleep pattern, increase fatigue, decreased coping and performance abilities.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A desynchronization refers to a disturbance in the regular sleep pattern, which can cause various negative effects. It can lead to disrupted sleep, resulting in increased fatigue and a decrease in coping and performance abilities. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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  • 46. 

    Tissue of the soft pallet closing off the airway and brain sends a signal to body to breath and it causes snoring.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The soft palate is a tissue in the back of the roof of the mouth that can close off the airway during sleep, causing snoring. When this happens, the brain sends a signal to the body to breathe, resulting in the sound of snoring. This explanation supports the statement that the given answer, "True," is correct.

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  • 47. 

    CPAP forces air in lung keeping the soft pallet in place.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    CPAP stands for Continuous Positive Airway Pressure, which is a treatment commonly used for individuals with sleep apnea. It involves using a machine that delivers a constant flow of air pressure through a mask, helping to keep the airway open during sleep. This air pressure helps to prevent the collapse of the soft palate and other tissues in the throat, allowing for uninterrupted breathing. Therefore, the statement that CPAP forces air in the lung and keeps the soft palate in place is true.

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  • 48. 

    Parasomnia is behavior interferring with sleep, e.g. sleepwalking, nightmares, teeth grinding during REM sleep.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. Parasomnia refers to a group of sleep disorders that involve abnormal behaviors, movements, emotions, perceptions, and dreams that occur during sleep. These behaviors can interfere with the quality of sleep and can include sleepwalking, nightmares, teeth grinding (bruxism), and other disruptive actions during REM sleep. Therefore, the statement accurately describes the nature of parasomnia and its impact on sleep.

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  • 49. 

    Peticki is small pinpoint capillary bruising.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Peticki is a term used to describe small pinpoint capillary bruising. This means that the answer "True" is correct because it accurately reflects the statement.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 14, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Coachalan32309

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