Blood Pressure Exam 2

1. Tissue of the soft pallet closing off the airway and brain sends a signal to body to breath and it causes snoring.

True

False

The soft palate is a tissue in the back of the roof of the mouth that can close off the airway during sleep, causing snoring. When this happens, the brain sends a signal to the body to breathe, resulting in the sound of snoring. This explanation supports the statement that the given answer, "True," is correct.

Explanation

The soft palate is a tissue in the back of the roof of the mouth that can close off the airway during sleep, causing snoring. When this happens, the brain sends a signal to the body to breathe, resulting in the sound of snoring. This explanation supports the statement that the given answer, "True," is correct.

2. Order of assessment is inspect, palpate,percuss and auscultate.

True

False

The order of assessment is inspect, palpate, percuss, and auscultate. This means that when conducting a physical examination, the healthcare professional first visually examines the patient, then uses their hands to feel for any abnormalities, followed by tapping on the body to assess the underlying structures, and finally listening to the sounds produced by the body using a stethoscope. This systematic approach ensures that no important findings are missed and helps in making an accurate diagnosis.

Explanation

The order of assessment is inspect, palpate, percuss, and auscultate. This means that when conducting a physical examination, the healthcare professional first visually examines the patient, then uses their hands to feel for any abnormalities, followed by tapping on the body to assess the underlying structures, and finally listening to the sounds produced by the body using a stethoscope. This systematic approach ensures that no important findings are missed and helps in making an accurate diagnosis.

3. For abdominal surgeries use a pillow or other support to brace wound during turn, breath and cough.

True

False

Using a pillow or other support to brace the wound during turn, breath, and cough is a recommended practice for abdominal surgeries. This helps to provide support and stability to the wound area, reducing the risk of complications and promoting healing. It also assists in minimizing pain and discomfort during these movements, allowing the patient to perform them more effectively. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

Using a pillow or other support to brace the wound during turn, breath, and cough is a recommended practice for abdominal surgeries. This helps to provide support and stability to the wound area, reducing the risk of complications and promoting healing. It also assists in minimizing pain and discomfort during these movements, allowing the patient to perform them more effectively. Therefore, the statement is true.

4. 3 parts to the nursing diagnosis - Problem, Etiology, Symptoms.

True

False

The statement is true because a nursing diagnosis consists of three parts: the problem, the etiology, and the symptoms. The problem refers to the health issue or condition that the patient is experiencing, the etiology identifies the underlying cause or contributing factors to the problem, and the symptoms describe the signs and symptoms that the patient is exhibiting. These three components help nurses in identifying and addressing the patient's healthcare needs effectively.

Explanation

The statement is true because a nursing diagnosis consists of three parts: the problem, the etiology, and the symptoms. The problem refers to the health issue or condition that the patient is experiencing, the etiology identifies the underlying cause or contributing factors to the problem, and the symptoms describe the signs and symptoms that the patient is exhibiting. These three components help nurses in identifying and addressing the patient's healthcare needs effectively.

5. The Joint Commission is responsible for setting patient safety standards.

True

False

The Joint Commission is an independent, non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. One of its main responsibilities is to establish and enforce patient safety standards. These standards are designed to ensure that healthcare organizations provide high-quality care and maintain a safe environment for patients. Therefore, the statement that the Joint Commission is responsible for setting patient safety standards is true.

Explanation

The Joint Commission is an independent, non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. One of its main responsibilities is to establish and enforce patient safety standards. These standards are designed to ensure that healthcare organizations provide high-quality care and maintain a safe environment for patients. Therefore, the statement that the Joint Commission is responsible for setting patient safety standards is true.

6. Balance is a low center of gravity and a wide base of support.

True

False

The statement is true because balance is indeed achieved through a low center of gravity, which means that the body's weight is distributed closer to the ground, making it easier to maintain stability. Additionally, a wide base of support provides a larger surface area for the body to balance on, further enhancing stability. Together, a low center of gravity and a wide base of support help to maintain balance and prevent falls or loss of stability.

Explanation

The statement is true because balance is indeed achieved through a low center of gravity, which means that the body's weight is distributed closer to the ground, making it easier to maintain stability. Additionally, a wide base of support provides a larger surface area for the body to balance on, further enhancing stability. Together, a low center of gravity and a wide base of support help to maintain balance and prevent falls or loss of stability.

7. Unurysis occurs during REM sleep.

True

False

During REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, the brain is highly active and dreaming occurs. Unurysis, also known as sleep paralysis, is a phenomenon that happens during REM sleep when the body is temporarily unable to move or speak. This is a protective mechanism that prevents us from acting out our dreams and potentially causing harm to ourselves. Therefore, the statement that unurysis occurs during REM sleep is true.

Explanation

During REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, the brain is highly active and dreaming occurs. Unurysis, also known as sleep paralysis, is a phenomenon that happens during REM sleep when the body is temporarily unable to move or speak. This is a protective mechanism that prevents us from acting out our dreams and potentially causing harm to ourselves. Therefore, the statement that unurysis occurs during REM sleep is true.

8. CPAP forces air in lung keeping the soft pallet in place.

True

False

CPAP stands for Continuous Positive Airway Pressure, which is a treatment commonly used for individuals with sleep apnea. It involves using a machine that delivers a constant flow of air pressure through a mask, helping to keep the airway open during sleep. This air pressure helps to prevent the collapse of the soft palate and other tissues in the throat, allowing for uninterrupted breathing. Therefore, the statement that CPAP forces air in the lung and keeps the soft palate in place is true.

Explanation

CPAP stands for Continuous Positive Airway Pressure, which is a treatment commonly used for individuals with sleep apnea. It involves using a machine that delivers a constant flow of air pressure through a mask, helping to keep the airway open during sleep. This air pressure helps to prevent the collapse of the soft palate and other tissues in the throat, allowing for uninterrupted breathing. Therefore, the statement that CPAP forces air in the lung and keeps the soft palate in place is true.

9. Ischemia causes pressure ulcers in as little as 2 hours.

True

False

Ischemia refers to a lack of blood supply to a particular area of the body. When there is inadequate blood flow, tissues can become deprived of oxygen and nutrients, leading to cell damage and death. In the case of pressure ulcers, prolonged pressure on a specific area of the body can restrict blood flow, causing ischemia. Without sufficient blood supply, the affected tissues are more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers, which can occur in as little as 2 hours. Therefore, the statement "Ischemia causes pressure ulcers in as little as 2 hours" is true.

Explanation

Ischemia refers to a lack of blood supply to a particular area of the body. When there is inadequate blood flow, tissues can become deprived of oxygen and nutrients, leading to cell damage and death. In the case of pressure ulcers, prolonged pressure on a specific area of the body can restrict blood flow, causing ischemia. Without sufficient blood supply, the affected tissues are more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers, which can occur in as little as 2 hours. Therefore, the statement "Ischemia causes pressure ulcers in as little as 2 hours" is true.

10. An oral dose is higher than IV dose due to "first pass effect".

True

False

The statement is true because the first pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug that occurs in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. When a drug is given orally, it first passes through the liver where it may undergo significant metabolism before entering the bloodstream. This can result in a lower bioavailability of the drug compared to when it is given intravenously, where it bypasses the liver and enters directly into the bloodstream. Therefore, to achieve the same therapeutic effect, an oral dose needs to be higher than an IV dose.

Explanation

The statement is true because the first pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug that occurs in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. When a drug is given orally, it first passes through the liver where it may undergo significant metabolism before entering the bloodstream. This can result in a lower bioavailability of the drug compared to when it is given intravenously, where it bypasses the liver and enters directly into the bloodstream. Therefore, to achieve the same therapeutic effect, an oral dose needs to be higher than an IV dose.

11. Turn, cough and deep breath every 2 hours (TCDP). use insentive sperometer

True

False

The statement is true because turning, coughing, and taking deep breaths every 2 hours is a common practice in medical settings to prevent complications such as pneumonia, atelectasis, and blood clots. Using an incentive spirometer is also recommended to help improve lung function and prevent respiratory complications. This routine helps to maintain lung expansion and prevent the buildup of secretions in the lungs, especially in patients who are bedridden or have limited mobility.

Explanation

The statement is true because turning, coughing, and taking deep breaths every 2 hours is a common practice in medical settings to prevent complications such as pneumonia, atelectasis, and blood clots. Using an incentive spirometer is also recommended to help improve lung function and prevent respiratory complications. This routine helps to maintain lung expansion and prevent the buildup of secretions in the lungs, especially in patients who are bedridden or have limited mobility.

12. Steps in taking blood pressure.

Measure cuff size

Line up cuff point over the brachial artery

Palpate radial pulse while pumping up cuff

Palpate brachial pulse

Move clothing away from BP site

Wrap cuff snugly around arm approximately 2 inches above elbow crease

Inflate and obliterate the pulse and remember number

Deflate cuff and find pulse again.

Using stethoscope find pulse and reinflate cuff approx 30 mg over obliterated pulse number

Slowly deflate cuff and rememeber number when you first hear a sound.

Continue to deflate cuff until the sound disappears or too faint to hear and record upper and lower number.

The explanation provides a step-by-step guide on how to take blood pressure. It starts with measuring the cuff size and then lining up the cuff point over the brachial artery. Next, the person taking the blood pressure should palpate the radial pulse while pumping up the cuff, followed by palpating the brachial pulse. They should then move any clothing away from the blood pressure site and wrap the cuff snugly around the arm, approximately 2 inches above the elbow crease. The cuff should be inflated to obliterate the pulse, and the number should be remembered. After deflating the cuff and finding the pulse again, a stethoscope should be used to find the pulse and reinflate the cuff approximately 30 mmHg above the obliterated pulse number. The cuff should be slowly deflated, and the number should be remembered when the first sound is heard. Finally, the cuff should be deflated until the sound disappears or becomes too faint to hear, and the upper and lower numbers should be recorded.

Explanation

The explanation provides a step-by-step guide on how to take blood pressure. It starts with measuring the cuff size and then lining up the cuff point over the brachial artery. Next, the person taking the blood pressure should palpate the radial pulse while pumping up the cuff, followed by palpating the brachial pulse. They should then move any clothing away from the blood pressure site and wrap the cuff snugly around the arm, approximately 2 inches above the elbow crease. The cuff should be inflated to obliterate the pulse, and the number should be remembered. After deflating the cuff and finding the pulse again, a stethoscope should be used to find the pulse and reinflate the cuff approximately 30 mmHg above the obliterated pulse number. The cuff should be slowly deflated, and the number should be remembered when the first sound is heard. Finally, the cuff should be deflated until the sound disappears or becomes too faint to hear, and the upper and lower numbers should be recorded.

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13. Therapeutic baths require a physcian's order.

True

False

Therapeutic baths require a physician's order because they are a medical treatment that involves specific instructions and considerations for the patient's condition. A physician's order ensures that the appropriate type of therapeutic bath is prescribed and that it is administered safely and effectively. Without a physician's order, there is a risk of using the wrong type of bath or causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is necessary for a physician to assess the patient's condition and determine if a therapeutic bath is suitable and what specific instructions should be followed.

Explanation

Therapeutic baths require a physician's order because they are a medical treatment that involves specific instructions and considerations for the patient's condition. A physician's order ensures that the appropriate type of therapeutic bath is prescribed and that it is administered safely and effectively. Without a physician's order, there is a risk of using the wrong type of bath or causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is necessary for a physician to assess the patient's condition and determine if a therapeutic bath is suitable and what specific instructions should be followed.

14. A nurse's role is to collect the medication and check that the medication is the one prescribed for the patient and that the medication is safe to administer.

True

False

The nurse's role includes collecting medication and ensuring that it is the correct medication prescribed for the patient. Additionally, the nurse also checks the safety of the medication before administering it to the patient. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the responsibilities of a nurse regarding medication administration.

Explanation

The nurse's role includes collecting medication and ensuring that it is the correct medication prescribed for the patient. Additionally, the nurse also checks the safety of the medication before administering it to the patient. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the responsibilities of a nurse regarding medication administration.

15. Parasomnia is behavior interferring with sleep, e.g. sleepwalking, nightmares, teeth grinding during REM sleep.

True

False

The given statement is true. Parasomnia refers to a group of sleep disorders that involve abnormal behaviors, movements, emotions, perceptions, and dreams that occur during sleep. These behaviors can interfere with the quality of sleep and can include sleepwalking, nightmares, teeth grinding (bruxism), and other disruptive actions during REM sleep. Therefore, the statement accurately describes the nature of parasomnia and its impact on sleep.

Explanation

The given statement is true. Parasomnia refers to a group of sleep disorders that involve abnormal behaviors, movements, emotions, perceptions, and dreams that occur during sleep. These behaviors can interfere with the quality of sleep and can include sleepwalking, nightmares, teeth grinding (bruxism), and other disruptive actions during REM sleep. Therefore, the statement accurately describes the nature of parasomnia and its impact on sleep.

16. The purpose of the National Patient Safety Goals to improve patient safety

True

False

The purpose of the National Patient Safety Goals is to improve patient safety. This means that the goals are designed and implemented with the intention of enhancing the safety and well-being of patients in healthcare settings. The goals may include measures such as reducing medication errors, preventing healthcare-associated infections, improving communication among healthcare providers, and ensuring that patients are actively involved in their own care. By setting these goals and promoting their implementation, the aim is to minimize risks and errors, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes and a safer healthcare environment.

Explanation

The purpose of the National Patient Safety Goals is to improve patient safety. This means that the goals are designed and implemented with the intention of enhancing the safety and well-being of patients in healthcare settings. The goals may include measures such as reducing medication errors, preventing healthcare-associated infections, improving communication among healthcare providers, and ensuring that patients are actively involved in their own care. By setting these goals and promoting their implementation, the aim is to minimize risks and errors, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes and a safer healthcare environment.

17. As we age the acid mantel is gone making the skin itchy.

True

False

As we age, the acid mantle, which is a protective layer on the skin's surface, gradually diminishes. This can result in dryness and itchiness of the skin. Therefore, it is true that as we age, the acid mantle is gone, making the skin itchy.

Explanation

As we age, the acid mantle, which is a protective layer on the skin's surface, gradually diminishes. This can result in dryness and itchiness of the skin. Therefore, it is true that as we age, the acid mantle is gone, making the skin itchy.

18. Normal ratio of anterior to posterior width to lateral is 1:2 .

True

False

The normal ratio of anterior to posterior width to lateral is 1:2. This means that the anterior width is half the size of the posterior width, while the lateral width is twice the size of the anterior width. This ratio is commonly observed in various anatomical structures, such as bones and organs. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

Explanation

The normal ratio of anterior to posterior width to lateral is 1:2. This means that the anterior width is half the size of the posterior width, while the lateral width is twice the size of the anterior width. This ratio is commonly observed in various anatomical structures, such as bones and organs. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

19. What is the number one nursing intervention?

Assess

Manage

Plan

Evaluate

Assessing is considered the number one nursing intervention because it is the initial step in the nursing process. By assessing, nurses gather relevant information about the patient's health status, including physical, emotional, and social factors. This information helps nurses identify potential health problems, establish priorities, and develop an individualized care plan. Without a thorough assessment, nurses may not have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and may not be able to provide appropriate care. Therefore, assessing is crucial in providing effective and efficient nursing care.

Explanation

Assessing is considered the number one nursing intervention because it is the initial step in the nursing process. By assessing, nurses gather relevant information about the patient's health status, including physical, emotional, and social factors. This information helps nurses identify potential health problems, establish priorities, and develop an individualized care plan. Without a thorough assessment, nurses may not have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and may not be able to provide appropriate care. Therefore, assessing is crucial in providing effective and efficient nursing care.

20. Describe cough by regularity, duration, sound, productive vs. nonproductive and color or sputum

True

False

The statement "True" is the correct answer because cough can be described by its regularity, duration, sound, and whether it is productive or nonproductive. Additionally, the color of sputum can also be used to describe cough.

Explanation

The statement "True" is the correct answer because cough can be described by its regularity, duration, sound, and whether it is productive or nonproductive. Additionally, the color of sputum can also be used to describe cough.

21.

Blood Pressure Category	Systolic mm Hg (upper #)		Diastolic mm Hg (lower #)
Normal	less than 120	and	less than 80
Prehypertension	120 – 139	or	80 – 89
High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) Stage 1	140 – 159	or	90 – 99
High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) Stage 2	160 or higher	or	100 or higher
Hypertensive Crisis (Emergency care needed)	Higher than 180	or	Higher than 110

True

False

The given answer is true because it accurately reflects the information provided in the table. The table shows the different categories of blood pressure levels, with their corresponding systolic and diastolic values. The answer is true because it aligns with the information in the table, indicating that the statement is correct.

Explanation

The given answer is true because it accurately reflects the information provided in the table. The table shows the different categories of blood pressure levels, with their corresponding systolic and diastolic values. The answer is true because it aligns with the information in the table, indicating that the statement is correct.

22. Having a temperature below 100.4 is fine.

True

False

Having a temperature below 100.4 is considered fine because it falls within the normal range of body temperature. The average normal body temperature is typically around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit or 37 degrees Celsius. However, it is important to note that individual body temperatures can vary slightly, and a temperature below 100.4 is still within the normal range and not considered a fever.

Explanation

Having a temperature below 100.4 is considered fine because it falls within the normal range of body temperature. The average normal body temperature is typically around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit or 37 degrees Celsius. However, it is important to note that individual body temperatures can vary slightly, and a temperature below 100.4 is still within the normal range and not considered a fever.

23. Convergence is the ability for the eyes to move together on both near and far objects.

True

False

Convergence refers to the ability of the eyes to turn inward and focus on objects that are close to us. This is necessary for binocular vision and depth perception. When we look at objects that are far away, our eyes are parallel. Therefore, convergence is indeed the ability for the eyes to move together on both near and far objects, making the statement true.

Explanation

Convergence refers to the ability of the eyes to turn inward and focus on objects that are close to us. This is necessary for binocular vision and depth perception. When we look at objects that are far away, our eyes are parallel. Therefore, convergence is indeed the ability for the eyes to move together on both near and far objects, making the statement true.

24. Temperature becomes a problem when it spikes.

True

False

When the temperature spikes, it means that there is a sudden and significant increase in temperature. This can be problematic because extreme temperatures can have negative effects on various aspects such as human health, infrastructure, and the environment. High temperatures can lead to heat-related illnesses, damage to buildings and roads, and can also contribute to climate change. Therefore, it is true that temperature becomes a problem when it spikes.

Explanation

When the temperature spikes, it means that there is a sudden and significant increase in temperature. This can be problematic because extreme temperatures can have negative effects on various aspects such as human health, infrastructure, and the environment. High temperatures can lead to heat-related illnesses, damage to buildings and roads, and can also contribute to climate change. Therefore, it is true that temperature becomes a problem when it spikes.

25. A clean surgical incision that heals without extra intervention is Primary Intention Healing.

True

False

Primary intention healing refers to the healing process of a clean surgical incision that closes without any complications. This type of healing occurs when the wound edges are closely approximated, allowing for direct healing with minimal scarring. It is characterized by the absence of infection, minimal tissue loss, and rapid healing. Therefore, the given statement is true.

Explanation

Primary intention healing refers to the healing process of a clean surgical incision that closes without any complications. This type of healing occurs when the wound edges are closely approximated, allowing for direct healing with minimal scarring. It is characterized by the absence of infection, minimal tissue loss, and rapid healing. Therefore, the given statement is true.

26. Center of gravity

Promotes efficient renal, circulatory, GI

Influences self esteem and body image

Better balance

Option4

The correct answer is Option 4. This option includes all the given statements about the center of gravity. The center of gravity plays a crucial role in promoting efficient renal, circulatory, and gastrointestinal functions. It also influences self-esteem and body image, as having a well-balanced center of gravity can improve posture and overall physical appearance. Additionally, maintaining a proper center of gravity leads to better balance, which is important for stability and preventing falls.

Explanation

The correct answer is Option 4. This option includes all the given statements about the center of gravity. The center of gravity plays a crucial role in promoting efficient renal, circulatory, and gastrointestinal functions. It also influences self-esteem and body image, as having a well-balanced center of gravity can improve posture and overall physical appearance. Additionally, maintaining a proper center of gravity leads to better balance, which is important for stability and preventing falls.

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27. We assess skin turgor on elderly at the clavicle or forehead.

True

False

Skin turgor is a measure of the elasticity and hydration of the skin. It is commonly assessed in elderly individuals at the clavicle or forehead because these areas are less affected by age-related changes such as decreased elasticity and increased wrinkling. Assessing skin turgor at these locations provides a more accurate indication of hydration status in elderly individuals. Therefore, the statement that skin turgor is assessed on elderly at the clavicle or forehead is true.

Explanation

Skin turgor is a measure of the elasticity and hydration of the skin. It is commonly assessed in elderly individuals at the clavicle or forehead because these areas are less affected by age-related changes such as decreased elasticity and increased wrinkling. Assessing skin turgor at these locations provides a more accurate indication of hydration status in elderly individuals. Therefore, the statement that skin turgor is assessed on elderly at the clavicle or forehead is true.

28. Surgical dressing stay in place for 24-48 hrs.

True

False

Surgical dressings are designed to stay in place for a specific period of time after a surgical procedure. This allows the wound to heal properly and reduces the risk of infection. The recommended duration for surgical dressings to remain in place is usually 24-48 hours. During this time, the dressing provides protection to the wound, absorbs any discharge, and promotes healing. Therefore, the statement "Surgical dressing stay in place for 24-48 hrs" is true.

Explanation

Surgical dressings are designed to stay in place for a specific period of time after a surgical procedure. This allows the wound to heal properly and reduces the risk of infection. The recommended duration for surgical dressings to remain in place is usually 24-48 hours. During this time, the dressing provides protection to the wound, absorbs any discharge, and promotes healing. Therefore, the statement "Surgical dressing stay in place for 24-48 hrs" is true.

29. Diabetic patients require special foot care

True

False

Diabetic patients require special foot care because they are at a higher risk for foot complications. Diabetes can lead to poor blood circulation and nerve damage in the feet, making them more susceptible to infections and injuries. Regular foot care, including daily washing, inspection for cuts or sores, proper nail trimming, and wearing appropriate footwear, can help prevent complications such as foot ulcers and amputation. Therefore, it is important for diabetic patients to prioritize special foot care.

Explanation

Diabetic patients require special foot care because they are at a higher risk for foot complications. Diabetes can lead to poor blood circulation and nerve damage in the feet, making them more susceptible to infections and injuries. Regular foot care, including daily washing, inspection for cuts or sores, proper nail trimming, and wearing appropriate footwear, can help prevent complications such as foot ulcers and amputation. Therefore, it is important for diabetic patients to prioritize special foot care.

30. The three P's are pressure, pain and potty are assessed every 2 hours.

True

False

The statement is true because it states that the three P's (pressure, pain, and potty) are assessed every 2 hours. This implies that healthcare professionals regularly monitor and evaluate these three aspects in order to ensure the well-being and comfort of the patient. By assessing pressure, pain, and potty every 2 hours, healthcare providers can identify any issues or discomfort the patient may be experiencing and take appropriate actions to address them. This regular assessment helps in maintaining the patient's health and providing timely interventions if needed.

Explanation

The statement is true because it states that the three P's (pressure, pain, and potty) are assessed every 2 hours. This implies that healthcare professionals regularly monitor and evaluate these three aspects in order to ensure the well-being and comfort of the patient. By assessing pressure, pain, and potty every 2 hours, healthcare providers can identify any issues or discomfort the patient may be experiencing and take appropriate actions to address them. This regular assessment helps in maintaining the patient's health and providing timely interventions if needed.

31. Physical restrains are used as a last resort and only when all other methods have been exhausted.

True

False

Physical restraints should only be used as a last resort, when all other methods have been tried and proven ineffective. This is because physical restraints can be potentially harmful and restrictive to an individual's freedom and dignity. Therefore, it is important to exhaust all other alternatives and interventions before resorting to physical restraints.

Explanation

Physical restraints should only be used as a last resort, when all other methods have been tried and proven ineffective. This is because physical restraints can be potentially harmful and restrictive to an individual's freedom and dignity. Therefore, it is important to exhaust all other alternatives and interventions before resorting to physical restraints.

32. Pruritus relates to itchy skin associated to dry skin or other disorders.

True

False

Pruritus refers to the sensation of itching on the skin, which can be caused by dry skin or other medical conditions. Therefore, the statement that pruritus is related to itchy skin associated with dry skin or other disorders is true.

Explanation

Pruritus refers to the sensation of itching on the skin, which can be caused by dry skin or other medical conditions. Therefore, the statement that pruritus is related to itchy skin associated with dry skin or other disorders is true.

33. The patient's family must be involved in deciding whether or not to use restraints.

True

False

It is important to involve the patient's family in the decision-making process regarding the use of restraints because they may have valuable insights into the patient's preferences, values, and medical history. Including the family in this decision promotes a collaborative approach to care and ensures that the patient's best interests are considered. It also helps to establish trust and open communication between the healthcare team and the patient's family, which can lead to better outcomes and patient satisfaction.

Explanation

It is important to involve the patient's family in the decision-making process regarding the use of restraints because they may have valuable insights into the patient's preferences, values, and medical history. Including the family in this decision promotes a collaborative approach to care and ensures that the patient's best interests are considered. It also helps to establish trust and open communication between the healthcare team and the patient's family, which can lead to better outcomes and patient satisfaction.

34. The sclera will be either white or yellow.

True

False

The sclera, also known as the white of the eye, can vary in color from person to person. In most cases, the sclera is white, indicating a healthy eye. However, some individuals may have a yellowish tint to their sclera, which can be a sign of certain medical conditions such as jaundice or liver problems. Therefore, the statement that the sclera can be either white or yellow is true.

Explanation

The sclera, also known as the white of the eye, can vary in color from person to person. In most cases, the sclera is white, indicating a healthy eye. However, some individuals may have a yellowish tint to their sclera, which can be a sign of certain medical conditions such as jaundice or liver problems. Therefore, the statement that the sclera can be either white or yellow is true.

35. Vesicular sounds heard over most of the lung fields, low pitched soft & breezy.

True

False

The given statement is true. Vesicular sounds are normal breath sounds that are heard over most of the lung fields. They are low pitched, soft, and breezy in nature. These sounds are produced as air flows through the smaller airways and alveoli in the lungs. Vesicular sounds are typically heard during quiet breathing and are considered to be normal findings.

Explanation

The given statement is true. Vesicular sounds are normal breath sounds that are heard over most of the lung fields. They are low pitched, soft, and breezy in nature. These sounds are produced as air flows through the smaller airways and alveoli in the lungs. Vesicular sounds are typically heard during quiet breathing and are considered to be normal findings.

36. What are some benefits of sleep?

Improves mood

Alertness

Allows body to repair

Restorative value

Sleep provides numerous benefits for our physical and mental well-being. It improves mood by regulating emotions and reducing irritability and stress. It enhances alertness, allowing us to be more focused, attentive, and productive during the day. Sleep also plays a crucial role in repairing and rejuvenating our body, promoting healing, and boosting the immune system. It has restorative value, helping us recover from physical and mental exertion, improving memory, and consolidating learning. Overall, getting sufficient and quality sleep is essential for our overall health and well-being.

Explanation

Sleep provides numerous benefits for our physical and mental well-being. It improves mood by regulating emotions and reducing irritability and stress. It enhances alertness, allowing us to be more focused, attentive, and productive during the day. Sleep also plays a crucial role in repairing and rejuvenating our body, promoting healing, and boosting the immune system. It has restorative value, helping us recover from physical and mental exertion, improving memory, and consolidating learning. Overall, getting sufficient and quality sleep is essential for our overall health and well-being.

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37. Every px must have physician's name, a date and time, what the med is, dosage, how often, signed, and use.

True

False

The statement is true because it states that every px (prescription) must have specific information such as the physician's name, a date and time, the medication being prescribed, the dosage, how often it should be taken, and it should be signed and used. This information is crucial for ensuring that prescriptions are properly documented and administered to patients.

Explanation

The statement is true because it states that every px (prescription) must have specific information such as the physician's name, a date and time, the medication being prescribed, the dosage, how often it should be taken, and it should be signed and used. This information is crucial for ensuring that prescriptions are properly documented and administered to patients.

38. The order for restraint must include the type of restraint, justification, duration and criteria for removal,

True

False

An order for restraint must include the type of restraint, justification, duration, and criteria for removal. This ensures that the use of restraint is necessary, justified, and limited to the appropriate duration. It also provides clear guidelines for when the restraint can be removed. Without these details, there is a risk of misuse or unnecessary use of restraint, potentially leading to harm or violation of rights. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

An order for restraint must include the type of restraint, justification, duration, and criteria for removal. This ensures that the use of restraint is necessary, justified, and limited to the appropriate duration. It also provides clear guidelines for when the restraint can be removed. Without these details, there is a risk of misuse or unnecessary use of restraint, potentially leading to harm or violation of rights. Therefore, the statement is true.

39. Staples or sutures only by physician or by physician's order.

True

False

This statement is true because the use of staples or sutures is a medical procedure that should only be performed by a physician or under a physician's order. These procedures require specialized knowledge and skills to ensure proper wound closure and minimize the risk of infection or complications. Therefore, it is important for only trained medical professionals to perform this task.

Explanation

This statement is true because the use of staples or sutures is a medical procedure that should only be performed by a physician or under a physician's order. These procedures require specialized knowledge and skills to ensure proper wound closure and minimize the risk of infection or complications. Therefore, it is important for only trained medical professionals to perform this task.

40. A desynchonization leads to disruption in sleep pattern, increase fatigue, decreased coping and performance abilities.

True

False

A desynchronization refers to a disturbance in the regular sleep pattern, which can cause various negative effects. It can lead to disrupted sleep, resulting in increased fatigue and a decrease in coping and performance abilities. Therefore, the given statement is true.

Explanation

A desynchronization refers to a disturbance in the regular sleep pattern, which can cause various negative effects. It can lead to disrupted sleep, resulting in increased fatigue and a decrease in coping and performance abilities. Therefore, the given statement is true.

41. Nurse can take a telephone order (TORD telephone order read back) but must have the same information. Doctor signs order next time during rounds.

True

False

This statement is true because nurses are allowed to take telephone orders from doctors, but they must ensure that they have the same information as the doctor. This is important for patient safety and to avoid any miscommunication or errors. The doctor will then sign the order during their rounds to confirm and validate the order.

Explanation

This statement is true because nurses are allowed to take telephone orders from doctors, but they must ensure that they have the same information as the doctor. This is important for patient safety and to avoid any miscommunication or errors. The doctor will then sign the order during their rounds to confirm and validate the order.

42. If a patient falls, first assess then assist them to their feet letting them perform as much as they can.

True

False

The statement suggests that when a patient falls, the first step is to assess their condition and then assist them in getting back on their feet. It emphasizes the importance of letting the patient perform as much as they can, possibly to promote independence and avoid unnecessary intervention. This approach aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and encourages patient involvement in their own recovery process. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

The statement suggests that when a patient falls, the first step is to assess their condition and then assist them in getting back on their feet. It emphasizes the importance of letting the patient perform as much as they can, possibly to promote independence and avoid unnecessary intervention. This approach aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and encourages patient involvement in their own recovery process. Therefore, the statement is true.

43. Slough is dead tissue that needs to be removed.

True

False

Slough refers to dead tissue that accumulates on wounds or ulcers and hinders the healing process. It is important to remove slough to promote wound healing and prevent infection. Therefore, the statement "Slough is dead tissue that needs to be removed" is true.

Explanation

Slough refers to dead tissue that accumulates on wounds or ulcers and hinders the healing process. It is important to remove slough to promote wound healing and prevent infection. Therefore, the statement "Slough is dead tissue that needs to be removed" is true.

44. A pressure ulcer retains it's stage even through the healing process.

True

False

Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are categorized into different stages based on the severity of tissue damage. These stages range from Stage 1 (mild) to Stage 4 (severe). Once a pressure ulcer is classified into a specific stage, it retains that stage throughout the healing process. This means that even if the ulcer starts to heal and improve, it will still be considered as the same stage until it completely resolves. Therefore, the statement "A pressure ulcer retains its stage even through the healing process" is true.

Explanation

Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are categorized into different stages based on the severity of tissue damage. These stages range from Stage 1 (mild) to Stage 4 (severe). Once a pressure ulcer is classified into a specific stage, it retains that stage throughout the healing process. This means that even if the ulcer starts to heal and improve, it will still be considered as the same stage until it completely resolves. Therefore, the statement "A pressure ulcer retains its stage even through the healing process" is true.

45. Dehiscense is when a wound splits open along the surgical suture.

True

False

Dehiscence is a medical term used to describe the splitting open of a wound along the surgical suture. This can occur due to various factors such as poor wound healing, infection, or excessive tension on the wound. It is a serious complication that can lead to further complications like infection, delayed healing, or the need for additional surgical interventions. Therefore, the statement "Dehiscence is when a wound splits open along the surgical suture" is true.

Explanation

Dehiscence is a medical term used to describe the splitting open of a wound along the surgical suture. This can occur due to various factors such as poor wound healing, infection, or excessive tension on the wound. It is a serious complication that can lead to further complications like infection, delayed healing, or the need for additional surgical interventions. Therefore, the statement "Dehiscence is when a wound splits open along the surgical suture" is true.

46. A tertiary intention wound must heal from the inside out.

True

False

Tertiary intention wound healing refers to a delayed closure of a wound. This type of wound is left open for a period of time to allow for cleaning, drainage, and reducing the risk of infection. Once the wound is deemed clean and healthy, it is closed with sutures or other closure methods. Healing from the inside out means that the wound starts healing from the deeper layers and gradually progresses towards the surface. This allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications. Therefore, the statement "A tertiary intention wound must heal from the inside out" is true.

Explanation

Tertiary intention wound healing refers to a delayed closure of a wound. This type of wound is left open for a period of time to allow for cleaning, drainage, and reducing the risk of infection. Once the wound is deemed clean and healthy, it is closed with sutures or other closure methods. Healing from the inside out means that the wound starts healing from the deeper layers and gradually progresses towards the surface. This allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications. Therefore, the statement "A tertiary intention wound must heal from the inside out" is true.

47. Medications used to treat, diagnosis, treat, cure, relief or prevention of disease.

True

False

This statement is true because medications are specifically designed and prescribed to diagnose, treat, cure, relieve, or prevent diseases. These medications can include a wide range of drugs, such as antibiotics, antivirals, painkillers, antihistamines, and many more, that are developed to target specific diseases or symptoms. The use of medications is an essential part of modern healthcare and plays a crucial role in improving and maintaining people's health.

Explanation

This statement is true because medications are specifically designed and prescribed to diagnose, treat, cure, relieve, or prevent diseases. These medications can include a wide range of drugs, such as antibiotics, antivirals, painkillers, antihistamines, and many more, that are developed to target specific diseases or symptoms. The use of medications is an essential part of modern healthcare and plays a crucial role in improving and maintaining people's health.

48. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement throughout the body. What the body does to the medication after it has been administered.

True

False

Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are processed and distributed within the body. It involves understanding how the body metabolizes and eliminates drugs after they have been administered. Therefore, the statement that pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement throughout the body and what the body does to the medication after it has been administered is true.

Explanation

Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are processed and distributed within the body. It involves understanding how the body metabolizes and eliminates drugs after they have been administered. Therefore, the statement that pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement throughout the body and what the body does to the medication after it has been administered is true.

49.

birth to 6 weeks: 30–60 breaths per minute
6 months: 25–40 breaths per minute
3 years: 20–30 breaths per minute
6 years: 18–25 breaths per minute
10 years: 15–20 breaths per minute
adults: 12–20 breaths per minute

True

False

The given answer is true because it accurately represents the normal range of breaths per minute for different age groups. The respiratory rate gradually decreases from birth to adulthood, with infants having the highest rate and adults having the lowest. This information is commonly used in medical settings to assess the respiratory health of individuals.

Explanation

The given answer is true because it accurately represents the normal range of breaths per minute for different age groups. The respiratory rate gradually decreases from birth to adulthood, with infants having the highest rate and adults having the lowest. This information is commonly used in medical settings to assess the respiratory health of individuals.

50. Evisceration is when a wound dehisceses and the internal organs come out.

True

False

Evisceration refers to a condition where a wound opens up, causing the internal organs to protrude. This can occur due to trauma or surgical complications. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the process of evisceration.

Explanation

Evisceration refers to a condition where a wound opens up, causing the internal organs to protrude. This can occur due to trauma or surgical complications. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the process of evisceration.

51. Get your culture before you administer antibiotics.

True

False

This statement suggests that it is important to understand and consider the cultural context before prescribing or using antibiotics. This could mean taking into account cultural beliefs, practices, and attitudes towards medicine and healthcare. By doing so, healthcare professionals can ensure that antibiotics are used appropriately and effectively, taking into account any cultural factors that may influence their use or effectiveness.

Explanation

This statement suggests that it is important to understand and consider the cultural context before prescribing or using antibiotics. This could mean taking into account cultural beliefs, practices, and attitudes towards medicine and healthcare. By doing so, healthcare professionals can ensure that antibiotics are used appropriately and effectively, taking into account any cultural factors that may influence their use or effectiveness.

52. CPM - continuous passive movement

True

False

CPM stands for continuous passive movement, which is a therapeutic technique used in physical therapy. It involves the continuous and repetitive motion of a joint or limb to improve range of motion, prevent stiffness, and promote healing. Therefore, the statement "CPM - continuous passive movement" being true is accurate as it correctly identifies the acronym and its meaning.

Explanation

CPM stands for continuous passive movement, which is a therapeutic technique used in physical therapy. It involves the continuous and repetitive motion of a joint or limb to improve range of motion, prevent stiffness, and promote healing. Therefore, the statement "CPM - continuous passive movement" being true is accurate as it correctly identifies the acronym and its meaning.

53. Peticki is small pinpoint capillary bruising.

True

False

Peticki is a term used to describe small pinpoint capillary bruising. This means that the answer "True" is correct because it accurately reflects the statement.

Explanation

Peticki is a term used to describe small pinpoint capillary bruising. This means that the answer "True" is correct because it accurately reflects the statement.

54. Brochial breath sounds are heard over the trachea high pitched loud, inspiration is longer than expiration.

True

False

Bronchial breath sounds are indeed heard over the trachea, as they originate from the large airways. These sounds are characterized by a high pitch and loudness. Additionally, during auscultation, it is observed that the duration of inspiration is longer than expiration when bronchial breath sounds are present. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

Bronchial breath sounds are indeed heard over the trachea, as they originate from the large airways. These sounds are characterized by a high pitch and loudness. Additionally, during auscultation, it is observed that the duration of inspiration is longer than expiration when bronchial breath sounds are present. Therefore, the statement is true.

55. Parenteral is drug administered other than orally or rectally (infusion, injection or implantation.

True

False

Parenteral refers to the administration of drugs through routes other than the oral or rectal route, such as through infusion, injection, or implantation. This means that the drug is directly delivered into the body, bypassing the digestive system. Therefore, the given statement is true.

Explanation

Parenteral refers to the administration of drugs through routes other than the oral or rectal route, such as through infusion, injection, or implantation. This means that the drug is directly delivered into the body, bypassing the digestive system. Therefore, the given statement is true.

56. Brochovesicular breath sounds heard over mainstem bronchus.

True

False

Brochovesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds that can be heard over the mainstem bronchus. These sounds are a combination of bronchial and vesicular breath sounds and are typically heard in the upper anterior chest. Therefore, the statement "Brochovesicular breath sounds heard over mainstem bronchus" is true.

Explanation

Brochovesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds that can be heard over the mainstem bronchus. These sounds are a combination of bronchial and vesicular breath sounds and are typically heard in the upper anterior chest. Therefore, the statement "Brochovesicular breath sounds heard over mainstem bronchus" is true.

57. Adeventicous breath sounds are both continuous (crackles) and discontinuous (wheezes and rhonchi).

True

False

The statement is true because adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal sounds heard during breathing, such as crackles, wheezes, and rhonchi. Crackles are continuous, high-pitched sounds caused by fluid in the airways, while wheezes and rhonchi are discontinuous, musical sounds caused by narrowed airways. Therefore, adventitious breath sounds can be both continuous and discontinuous.

Explanation

The statement is true because adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal sounds heard during breathing, such as crackles, wheezes, and rhonchi. Crackles are continuous, high-pitched sounds caused by fluid in the airways, while wheezes and rhonchi are discontinuous, musical sounds caused by narrowed airways. Therefore, adventitious breath sounds can be both continuous and discontinuous.

58. Med Admin routes abbreviations.

PO

NPO

SC or SQ

IM

ID

PR

Submit

59. Perrla stands for pupils equal round, reactive to light and accomodation.

True

False

Accomodation tests connvergence.

Explanation

Accomodation tests connvergence.

60. General considerations for respiratory assessment

Patient properly undressed and gowned

Visualize underlying anatomy

Option3

Option4

The correct answer is "Patient properly undressed and gowned." This is an important consideration for respiratory assessment as it allows healthcare professionals to visualize the underlying anatomy of the patient's respiratory system. By removing clothing and ensuring the patient is properly gowned, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the chest, lungs, and other respiratory structures for any abnormalities or signs of respiratory distress. This step is crucial in obtaining a comprehensive respiratory assessment and providing appropriate care for the patient.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient properly undressed and gowned." This is an important consideration for respiratory assessment as it allows healthcare professionals to visualize the underlying anatomy of the patient's respiratory system. By removing clothing and ensuring the patient is properly gowned, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the chest, lungs, and other respiratory structures for any abnormalities or signs of respiratory distress. This step is crucial in obtaining a comprehensive respiratory assessment and providing appropriate care for the patient.

61. The first-pass effect (also known as first-pass metabolism or presystemic metabolism) is a phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation. It is the fraction of lost drug during the process of absorption which is generally related to the liver and gut wall. Notable drugs that experience a significant first-pass effect are imipramine, morphine, propranolol, buprenorphine, diazepam, midazolam, demerol, cimetidine, and lidocaine.

True

False

The first-pass effect is a well-known phenomenon in drug metabolism where a significant portion of a drug is metabolized and eliminated by the liver before it can reach the systemic circulation. This means that the concentration of the drug is greatly reduced before it can have its intended effect in the body. This effect is particularly notable in drugs such as imipramine, morphine, propranolol, buprenorphine, diazepam, midazolam, demerol, cimetidine, and lidocaine. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects the information provided about the first-pass effect.

Explanation

The first-pass effect is a well-known phenomenon in drug metabolism where a significant portion of a drug is metabolized and eliminated by the liver before it can reach the systemic circulation. This means that the concentration of the drug is greatly reduced before it can have its intended effect in the body. This effect is particularly notable in drugs such as imipramine, morphine, propranolol, buprenorphine, diazepam, midazolam, demerol, cimetidine, and lidocaine. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects the information provided about the first-pass effect.

62. Patients goals should be

Specific

Measuabble

Achievable

Realistic

Timeframe

The correct answer is specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and timeframe. These criteria are important for setting patient goals in healthcare. Specific goals provide clarity and focus, measurable goals allow for tracking progress, achievable goals ensure they are within reach, realistic goals consider the patient's abilities and resources, and timeframe sets a deadline for completion. By incorporating these elements, healthcare professionals can effectively guide patients towards successful outcomes.

Explanation

The correct answer is specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and timeframe. These criteria are important for setting patient goals in healthcare. Specific goals provide clarity and focus, measurable goals allow for tracking progress, achievable goals ensure they are within reach, realistic goals consider the patient's abilities and resources, and timeframe sets a deadline for completion. By incorporating these elements, healthcare professionals can effectively guide patients towards successful outcomes.

Submit

63. Abnormal hari dandruff, scabes, lice, ticks,

Option1

Option2

Option3

Option4

The given options are not visible, so it is not possible to provide an explanation without knowing the options.

Explanation

The given options are not visible, so it is not possible to provide an explanation without knowing the options.

64. You can leave your patient unattended any time.

True

False

Only if they are completely safe.

Explanation

Only if they are completely safe.

65. Resting heart rate

Age or fitness level	Beats per minute (bpm)
Babies to age 1:	100-160
Children ages 1 to 10:	70-120
Children ages 11 to 17:	60-100
Adults:	60-100
Well-conditioned athletes:	40-60

True

False

The given answer is true because the resting heart rate can vary depending on factors such as age and fitness level. For babies up to age 1, a normal resting heart rate is between 100-160 beats per minute (bpm). For children ages 1 to 10, it is between 70-120 bpm. For children ages 11 to 17 and adults, a normal resting heart rate is between 60-100 bpm. Well-conditioned athletes may have a lower resting heart rate of 40-60 bpm due to their high level of fitness.

Explanation

The given answer is true because the resting heart rate can vary depending on factors such as age and fitness level. For babies up to age 1, a normal resting heart rate is between 100-160 beats per minute (bpm). For children ages 1 to 10, it is between 70-120 bpm. For children ages 11 to 17 and adults, a normal resting heart rate is between 60-100 bpm. Well-conditioned athletes may have a lower resting heart rate of 40-60 bpm due to their high level of fitness.

66. We are we likely yo get pressure ulcers (bony prominences).

Sacrum

Occipitel

Scapula

Elbows

Heels

Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are more likely to occur on bony prominences due to the increased pressure and friction in those areas. Bony prominences, such as the sacrum, occiput, scapula, elbows, and heels, are areas where the bones are close to the skin's surface, making them more susceptible to pressure injuries. These areas are also commonly subjected to prolonged pressure when a person remains in one position for an extended period, leading to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. Therefore, it is important to regularly reposition individuals and provide adequate cushioning to prevent pressure ulcers from developing.

Explanation

Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are more likely to occur on bony prominences due to the increased pressure and friction in those areas. Bony prominences, such as the sacrum, occiput, scapula, elbows, and heels, are areas where the bones are close to the skin's surface, making them more susceptible to pressure injuries. These areas are also commonly subjected to prolonged pressure when a person remains in one position for an extended period, leading to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. Therefore, it is important to regularly reposition individuals and provide adequate cushioning to prevent pressure ulcers from developing.

Submit

67. Discharge planning starts on admission

True

False

Discharge planning refers to the process of planning and coordinating the transition of a patient from a healthcare facility to their home or another care setting. Starting discharge planning on admission allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's needs, develop a comprehensive plan, and ensure a smooth and timely discharge. By initiating the process early, healthcare providers can address any potential barriers or challenges that may arise and ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and support after leaving the facility.

Explanation

Discharge planning refers to the process of planning and coordinating the transition of a patient from a healthcare facility to their home or another care setting. Starting discharge planning on admission allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's needs, develop a comprehensive plan, and ensure a smooth and timely discharge. By initiating the process early, healthcare providers can address any potential barriers or challenges that may arise and ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and support after leaving the facility.

68. Pressure ulcers only heal by secondary intention.

True

False

Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are wounds that develop when pressure restricts blood flow to certain areas of the body. These wounds can be difficult to heal and often require a specific healing process called secondary intention. Secondary intention healing involves allowing the wound to heal naturally from the bottom up, without surgical intervention or closure. This process is necessary for pressure ulcers because they typically involve deep tissue damage and require the growth of new tissue from the wound bed. Therefore, the statement that pressure ulcers only heal by secondary intention is true.

Explanation

Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are wounds that develop when pressure restricts blood flow to certain areas of the body. These wounds can be difficult to heal and often require a specific healing process called secondary intention. Secondary intention healing involves allowing the wound to heal naturally from the bottom up, without surgical intervention or closure. This process is necessary for pressure ulcers because they typically involve deep tissue damage and require the growth of new tissue from the wound bed. Therefore, the statement that pressure ulcers only heal by secondary intention is true.

69. How often must physician or practioner reassess the need for restraints?

Weekly

Every Hour

Every 24 hours

When the mood strikes

Physicians or practitioners must reassess the need for restraints every 24 hours. This is important to ensure that the use of restraints is still necessary and appropriate for the patient's condition. Regular reassessment helps to prevent unnecessary or prolonged use of restraints, which can have negative physical and psychological effects on the patient. It also allows for adjustments in the treatment plan based on the patient's progress or changes in their condition.

Explanation

Physicians or practitioners must reassess the need for restraints every 24 hours. This is important to ensure that the use of restraints is still necessary and appropriate for the patient's condition. Regular reassessment helps to prevent unnecessary or prolonged use of restraints, which can have negative physical and psychological effects on the patient. It also allows for adjustments in the treatment plan based on the patient's progress or changes in their condition.

70. Tertiaty intention healing is delayed primary intention healing.

True

False

Tertiary intention healing refers to a wound healing process that involves delayed closure of a wound. This means that the wound is initially left open and is later closed through surgical intervention. On the other hand, primary intention healing involves the immediate closure of a wound through sutures or other means. Therefore, it can be concluded that tertiary intention healing is indeed a form of delayed primary intention healing, making the statement true.

Explanation

Tertiary intention healing refers to a wound healing process that involves delayed closure of a wound. This means that the wound is initially left open and is later closed through surgical intervention. On the other hand, primary intention healing involves the immediate closure of a wound through sutures or other means. Therefore, it can be concluded that tertiary intention healing is indeed a form of delayed primary intention healing, making the statement true.

71. Nutrition and hydration, bathing strips skin of oil restrict bathing, malnutrition causes the loss of subcutaneous tissue.

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

The given statement suggests that bathing strips the skin of oil, which can restrict bathing. It also states that malnutrition causes the loss of subcutaneous tissue. Based on this information, Option 1, which likely discusses the importance of nutrition and hydration for maintaining healthy skin, is the correct answer.

Explanation

The given statement suggests that bathing strips the skin of oil, which can restrict bathing. It also states that malnutrition causes the loss of subcutaneous tissue. Based on this information, Option 1, which likely discusses the importance of nutrition and hydration for maintaining healthy skin, is the correct answer.

72. What does PMI stand for

Point for maximum impulse.

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

73. Inspect respiration

Rate

Rhythm

Depth

Effort of breathing

Obvious abnormal sounds

Retractions and accessory muscle use

Nasal flaring

This answer suggests that when inspecting respiration, one should assess the rate, rhythm, depth, effort of breathing, presence of obvious abnormal sounds, presence of retractions and accessory muscle use, and the occurrence of nasal flaring. These are all important factors to consider when evaluating a person's breathing and can provide valuable information about their respiratory health.

Explanation

This answer suggests that when inspecting respiration, one should assess the rate, rhythm, depth, effort of breathing, presence of obvious abnormal sounds, presence of retractions and accessory muscle use, and the occurrence of nasal flaring. These are all important factors to consider when evaluating a person's breathing and can provide valuable information about their respiratory health.

Submit

74.

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

75. Pharmacist's role in medication administration is to fill the perscription and deliver to the unit.

True

False

The statement is true because one of the roles of a pharmacist in medication administration is to fill prescriptions and deliver them to the unit. Pharmacists are responsible for accurately dispensing medications and ensuring that they are safely and appropriately administered to patients. They work closely with healthcare providers to review prescriptions, check for drug interactions or allergies, and provide guidance on proper medication use. By filling prescriptions and delivering them to the unit, pharmacists play a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive the correct medications in a timely manner.

Explanation

The statement is true because one of the roles of a pharmacist in medication administration is to fill prescriptions and deliver them to the unit. Pharmacists are responsible for accurately dispensing medications and ensuring that they are safely and appropriately administered to patients. They work closely with healthcare providers to review prescriptions, check for drug interactions or allergies, and provide guidance on proper medication use. By filling prescriptions and delivering them to the unit, pharmacists play a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive the correct medications in a timely manner.

76. What are abnormal findings of the skin?

Abrasion (bruises, sores)

Excessive dryness

Ammonia dermatitis

Acne

Erythema Iexcessive redness)

Hairiness

The given answer lists various abnormal findings of the skin including abrasion (bruises, sores), excessive dryness, ammonia dermatitis, acne, erythema (excessive redness), and hairiness. These are all conditions or symptoms that deviate from the normal appearance or condition of the skin. Abrasions and sores indicate damage to the skin, excessive dryness suggests a lack of moisture, ammonia dermatitis refers to skin irritation caused by exposure to ammonia, acne is a common skin condition characterized by pimples, erythema is an abnormal redness of the skin, and hairiness refers to an excessive growth of hair on the skin.

Explanation

The given answer lists various abnormal findings of the skin including abrasion (bruises, sores), excessive dryness, ammonia dermatitis, acne, erythema (excessive redness), and hairiness. These are all conditions or symptoms that deviate from the normal appearance or condition of the skin. Abrasions and sores indicate damage to the skin, excessive dryness suggests a lack of moisture, ammonia dermatitis refers to skin irritation caused by exposure to ammonia, acne is a common skin condition characterized by pimples, erythema is an abnormal redness of the skin, and hairiness refers to an excessive growth of hair on the skin.

Submit

77. What is detailed in therapeutic bath?

Type of bath

Temp of water

Body surface to be bathed

Option 4

The question is asking about what is detailed in a therapeutic bath. The correct answer includes three components: the type of bath, the temperature of the water, and the body surface to be bathed. These details are important in determining the specific therapeutic benefits and effects of the bath.

Explanation

The question is asking about what is detailed in a therapeutic bath. The correct answer includes three components: the type of bath, the temperature of the water, and the body surface to be bathed. These details are important in determining the specific therapeutic benefits and effects of the bath.

Submit

78. Three layers of skin, epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue.

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

The given answer is Option 1 because it correctly lists the three layers of the skin - epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, responsible for protecting the body from external factors. The dermis is the middle layer, containing blood vessels, nerves, and hair follicles. The subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis, is the innermost layer that provides insulation and stores fat.

Explanation

The given answer is Option 1 because it correctly lists the three layers of the skin - epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, responsible for protecting the body from external factors. The dermis is the middle layer, containing blood vessels, nerves, and hair follicles. The subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis, is the innermost layer that provides insulation and stores fat.

79. Capillary refill should be

Less than 3 seconds

Between 3 and 4 seconds

Greater than 4 seconds

Option 4

Capillary refill refers to the time it takes for the color to return to the skin after it has been pressed down and released. This is an important indicator of peripheral circulation and tissue perfusion. A capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds indicates good peripheral circulation and normal tissue perfusion. If the refill time is between 3 and 4 seconds, it may suggest compromised circulation or decreased tissue perfusion. A capillary refill time greater than 4 seconds is indicative of poor peripheral circulation and inadequate tissue perfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is less than 3 seconds.

Explanation

Capillary refill refers to the time it takes for the color to return to the skin after it has been pressed down and released. This is an important indicator of peripheral circulation and tissue perfusion. A capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds indicates good peripheral circulation and normal tissue perfusion. If the refill time is between 3 and 4 seconds, it may suggest compromised circulation or decreased tissue perfusion. A capillary refill time greater than 4 seconds is indicative of poor peripheral circulation and inadequate tissue perfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is less than 3 seconds.

80. What factors contribute to delayed healing

The factors listed, including poor perfusion and oxygenation, poor nutrition, diabetes, corticosteroids, and aging, can all contribute to delayed healing. Poor perfusion and oxygenation can limit the delivery of essential nutrients and oxygen to the site of injury, hindering the healing process. Poor nutrition can result in a lack of necessary building blocks for tissue repair. Diabetes can impair the body's ability to fight infection and delay wound healing. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system and impair the inflammatory response, which are crucial for healing. Aging can lead to a decline in the body's regenerative abilities, making healing slower.

Explanation

The factors listed, including poor perfusion and oxygenation, poor nutrition, diabetes, corticosteroids, and aging, can all contribute to delayed healing. Poor perfusion and oxygenation can limit the delivery of essential nutrients and oxygen to the site of injury, hindering the healing process. Poor nutrition can result in a lack of necessary building blocks for tissue repair. Diabetes can impair the body's ability to fight infection and delay wound healing. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system and impair the inflammatory response, which are crucial for healing. Aging can lead to a decline in the body's regenerative abilities, making healing slower.

Submit

81. More fucking abbreviations

C with a line over it

AC

BBG

QAC

QHS

PP

Q

Submit

82. Long term consequences of sleep apnea.

Hypertension

Cardiac Arrythmias

Right side congestive heart failure

Cerebral vascular accident

Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing or shallow breaths during sleep. The long-term consequences of sleep apnea can include hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, right side congestive heart failure, and cerebral vascular accidents. Sleep apnea can lead to high blood pressure (hypertension) due to the repeated episodes of interrupted breathing, which can strain the cardiovascular system. It can also cause irregular heart rhythms (cardiac arrhythmias) and weaken the right side of the heart, leading to congestive heart failure. Additionally, sleep apnea can increase the risk of stroke or cerebral vascular accidents due to the decreased oxygen levels and disrupted blood flow to the brain during sleep.

Explanation

Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing or shallow breaths during sleep. The long-term consequences of sleep apnea can include hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, right side congestive heart failure, and cerebral vascular accidents. Sleep apnea can lead to high blood pressure (hypertension) due to the repeated episodes of interrupted breathing, which can strain the cardiovascular system. It can also cause irregular heart rhythms (cardiac arrhythmias) and weaken the right side of the heart, leading to congestive heart failure. Additionally, sleep apnea can increase the risk of stroke or cerebral vascular accidents due to the decreased oxygen levels and disrupted blood flow to the brain during sleep.

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83. Name the nine pulse sites.

The nine pulse sites are the locations on the body where a pulse can be felt. These include the temporal pulse (located on the side of the forehead), carotid pulse (located on the side of the neck), brachial pulse (located on the inner side of the upper arm), radial pulse (located on the wrist), apical pulse (located at the apex of the heart), femoral pulse (located in the groin), popliteal pulse (located behind the knee), posterior tibial pulse (located on the inner side of the ankle), and dorsalis pedis pulse (located on the top of the foot).

Explanation

The nine pulse sites are the locations on the body where a pulse can be felt. These include the temporal pulse (located on the side of the forehead), carotid pulse (located on the side of the neck), brachial pulse (located on the inner side of the upper arm), radial pulse (located on the wrist), apical pulse (located at the apex of the heart), femoral pulse (located in the groin), popliteal pulse (located behind the knee), posterior tibial pulse (located on the inner side of the ankle), and dorsalis pedis pulse (located on the top of the foot).

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84. Short term consequences of sleep apnea.

Cognitive impairment

Personality changes

Impotence

Option4

Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by interrupted breathing during sleep. The short-term consequences of sleep apnea include cognitive impairment, personality changes, and impotence. Cognitive impairment refers to difficulties with memory, concentration, and overall cognitive function. Personality changes may manifest as mood swings, irritability, and changes in behavior. Impotence refers to the inability to achieve or maintain an erection. These consequences occur due to the disrupted sleep patterns and decreased oxygen levels associated with sleep apnea.

Explanation

Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by interrupted breathing during sleep. The short-term consequences of sleep apnea include cognitive impairment, personality changes, and impotence. Cognitive impairment refers to difficulties with memory, concentration, and overall cognitive function. Personality changes may manifest as mood swings, irritability, and changes in behavior. Impotence refers to the inability to achieve or maintain an erection. These consequences occur due to the disrupted sleep patterns and decreased oxygen levels associated with sleep apnea.

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85. Types of baths include

Complete bed

Self-help

Partial

Bag

Tub

Sponge

Shower

Sprinkler

The given answer lists different types of baths, including complete bed, self-help, partial, bag, tub, sponge, shower, and sprinkler. These are various methods or tools used for bathing. A complete bed bath involves washing the entire body of a person who is unable to bathe themselves. Self-help bath refers to a person bathing themselves with minimal assistance. A partial bath involves cleaning specific parts of the body. Bag baths are pre-moistened disposable washcloths used for bathing. Tub baths are taken in a bathtub, sponge baths involve using a sponge or washcloth to clean the body, and showers use running water to cleanse. The sprinkler bath may refer to a method of bathing using a sprinkler system.

Explanation

The given answer lists different types of baths, including complete bed, self-help, partial, bag, tub, sponge, shower, and sprinkler. These are various methods or tools used for bathing. A complete bed bath involves washing the entire body of a person who is unable to bathe themselves. Self-help bath refers to a person bathing themselves with minimal assistance. A partial bath involves cleaning specific parts of the body. Bag baths are pre-moistened disposable washcloths used for bathing. Tub baths are taken in a bathtub, sponge baths involve using a sponge or washcloth to clean the body, and showers use running water to cleanse. The sprinkler bath may refer to a method of bathing using a sprinkler system.

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86. What is an independent nursing intervention for stage 1 pressure ulcers

The independent nursing intervention for stage 1 pressure ulcers is to use a duoderm padded dressing and change it every 7 days or when soiled. This intervention helps to protect the pressure ulcer from further damage and promotes healing by providing a barrier between the ulcer and external factors. The duoderm dressing also helps to maintain a moist environment, which is beneficial for wound healing. Regular changing of the dressing ensures that the wound remains clean and free from infection.

Explanation

The independent nursing intervention for stage 1 pressure ulcers is to use a duoderm padded dressing and change it every 7 days or when soiled. This intervention helps to protect the pressure ulcer from further damage and promotes healing by providing a barrier between the ulcer and external factors. The duoderm dressing also helps to maintain a moist environment, which is beneficial for wound healing. Regular changing of the dressing ensures that the wound remains clean and free from infection.

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87. A consenual reflex means that actions are independent

True

False

What happens on one side should happen on the other side equally reactive.

Explanation

What happens on one side should happen on the other side equally reactive.

88. Match cranial nerves

Olfactory - 1

Optic - 2

Occularmotor - 3

Trochlear -4

Trigeminal - 5

Abducens - 6

Facial - 7

Vestibulocochlear -8

Glossopharyngeal - 9

Vagus - 10

Spinal Accessory - 11

Hypoglossal - 12

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89. What are the types of surgical fluid drains or exudates from the wound?

The types of surgical fluid drains or exudates from the wound include purelant (stinky), sanguinous (bloody fluid), serous (clear), serrosanguinous (both clear and bloody), and puroserrosanguanous (pus and blood). These different types of fluids can indicate the stage of wound healing and provide important information for healthcare professionals to monitor and treat the wound appropriately.

Explanation

The types of surgical fluid drains or exudates from the wound include purelant (stinky), sanguinous (bloody fluid), serous (clear), serrosanguinous (both clear and bloody), and puroserrosanguanous (pus and blood). These different types of fluids can indicate the stage of wound healing and provide important information for healthcare professionals to monitor and treat the wound appropriately.

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90. How does the nurse test wether the incision will tolerate staple/suture removal?

The nurse tests whether the incision will tolerate staple/suture removal by starting with removing or clipping every other staple/suture. After this, the nurse assesses the incision to see if it is tolerating the removal well. If the incision is tolerating the removal, the nurse proceeds to remove the rest of the staples/sutures.

Explanation

The nurse tests whether the incision will tolerate staple/suture removal by starting with removing or clipping every other staple/suture. After this, the nurse assesses the incision to see if it is tolerating the removal well. If the incision is tolerating the removal, the nurse proceeds to remove the rest of the staples/sutures.

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91. Nurses can change the first surgical dressing.

True

False

Nurses cannot change the first surgical dressing.

Explanation

Nurses cannot change the first surgical dressing.

92. How often are restraints evaluated?

Every 2 hours

Every 12 hours

Every 24 hours

Every hour

Restraints are evaluated every hour to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual in restraints. Regular evaluation helps to monitor the individual's physical and mental state, assess any potential risks or discomfort caused by the restraints, and make necessary adjustments or provide care accordingly. This frequent evaluation allows for prompt intervention and prevents any adverse effects that may arise from prolonged restraint use.

Explanation

Restraints are evaluated every hour to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual in restraints. Regular evaluation helps to monitor the individual's physical and mental state, assess any potential risks or discomfort caused by the restraints, and make necessary adjustments or provide care accordingly. This frequent evaluation allows for prompt intervention and prevents any adverse effects that may arise from prolonged restraint use.

93. What is an unstagable pressure ulcer?

An unstagable pressure ulcer refers to an ulcer that cannot be classified into any specific stage due to the presence of a scab or escar. The scab covers the base of the ulcer, making it difficult to determine the extent of tissue damage underneath. This type of ulcer requires further assessment and monitoring to determine the stage and appropriate treatment plan.

Explanation

An unstagable pressure ulcer refers to an ulcer that cannot be classified into any specific stage due to the presence of a scab or escar. The scab covers the base of the ulcer, making it difficult to determine the extent of tissue damage underneath. This type of ulcer requires further assessment and monitoring to determine the stage and appropriate treatment plan.

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94. What are the six cardinal views while testing gaze

(1) straight nasal: medial rectus and the third cranial nerve; (2) up nasal: inferior oblique and the third cranial nerve; (3) down nasal: superior oblique and the fourth cranial nerve; (4) straight temporal: lateral rectus and the sixth cranial nerve; (5) up temporal: superior rectus and the third cranial nerve; and (6) down temporal: inferior rectus and the third cranial nerve. Also called extraocular movement

Explanation

(1) straight nasal: medial rectus and the third cranial nerve; (2) up nasal: inferior oblique and the third cranial nerve; (3) down nasal: superior oblique and the fourth cranial nerve; (4) straight temporal: lateral rectus and the sixth cranial nerve; (5) up temporal: superior rectus and the third cranial nerve; and (6) down temporal: inferior rectus and the third cranial nerve. Also called extraocular movement

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95. What are the four stages of pressure ulcers

The four stages of pressure ulcers are categorized based on the severity of the skin damage. Stage 1 refers to a non-blanchable reddened area, indicating the initial signs of skin damage. Stage 2 involves partial thickness skin loss, which may include blistering. In Stage 3, there is full thickness skin loss, with damage or necrosis extending to the underlying fascia. Finally, Stage 4 represents the most severe stage, with skin loss and necrosis, along with damage to muscle, bone, and supporting structures such as tendons and ligaments.

Explanation

The four stages of pressure ulcers are categorized based on the severity of the skin damage. Stage 1 refers to a non-blanchable reddened area, indicating the initial signs of skin damage. Stage 2 involves partial thickness skin loss, which may include blistering. In Stage 3, there is full thickness skin loss, with damage or necrosis extending to the underlying fascia. Finally, Stage 4 represents the most severe stage, with skin loss and necrosis, along with damage to muscle, bone, and supporting structures such as tendons and ligaments.

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96. What is secondary intention healing?

Secondary intention healing refers to the natural healing process of a wound where it heals from the inside out. This type of healing is usually seen in open or gapping wounds that cannot be closed by sutures or other means. In secondary intention healing, the wound gradually fills in with new tissue, starting from the bottom and progressing towards the surface. This process involves the formation of granulation tissue, contraction of the wound edges, and re-epithelialization. It may take a longer time compared to primary intention healing, where the wound edges are closed directly, but it is an effective method for healing large or contaminated wounds.

Explanation

Secondary intention healing refers to the natural healing process of a wound where it heals from the inside out. This type of healing is usually seen in open or gapping wounds that cannot be closed by sutures or other means. In secondary intention healing, the wound gradually fills in with new tissue, starting from the bottom and progressing towards the surface. This process involves the formation of granulation tissue, contraction of the wound edges, and re-epithelialization. It may take a longer time compared to primary intention healing, where the wound edges are closed directly, but it is an effective method for healing large or contaminated wounds.

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97. Treating a stage 3 pressure ulcer.

This answer lists the steps involved in treating a stage 3 pressure ulcer. It includes measuring the area at the widest point and any undermining or tunneling, cleaning out the wound bed of slough, following the physician's order, using a moist packing, keeping the outer part dry, and documenting the date and initials. These steps are important for proper wound care and to promote healing.

Explanation

This answer lists the steps involved in treating a stage 3 pressure ulcer. It includes measuring the area at the widest point and any undermining or tunneling, cleaning out the wound bed of slough, following the physician's order, using a moist packing, keeping the outer part dry, and documenting the date and initials. These steps are important for proper wound care and to promote healing.

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98. Body mechanics consists of

Body mechanics refers to the efficient use of the body during various activities to prevent injury and promote proper functioning. Alignment refers to the correct positioning of body parts in relation to each other, ensuring that the spine is straight and the joints are properly aligned. Balance involves maintaining stability and equilibrium while performing tasks, which requires coordination of muscles and body movements. Coordinated movement refers to the synchronized and controlled use of muscles and joints to perform tasks efficiently. Therefore, the correct answer includes alignment, balance, and coordinated movement as essential components of body mechanics.

Explanation

Body mechanics refers to the efficient use of the body during various activities to prevent injury and promote proper functioning. Alignment refers to the correct positioning of body parts in relation to each other, ensuring that the spine is straight and the joints are properly aligned. Balance involves maintaining stability and equilibrium while performing tasks, which requires coordination of muscles and body movements. Coordinated movement refers to the synchronized and controlled use of muscles and joints to perform tasks efficiently. Therefore, the correct answer includes alignment, balance, and coordinated movement as essential components of body mechanics.

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99. What does the skin do?

Regulate temp

Regulate fluids

Primary defense against pathogens

Makes me look good

The skin performs multiple functions, including regulating body temperature, regulating fluids, and acting as the primary defense against pathogens. It helps maintain the body's internal temperature by sweating when it's hot and constricting blood vessels when it's cold. The skin also prevents excessive fluid loss and helps maintain the body's fluid balance. Additionally, it acts as a physical barrier, protecting the body from harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.

Explanation

The skin performs multiple functions, including regulating body temperature, regulating fluids, and acting as the primary defense against pathogens. It helps maintain the body's internal temperature by sweating when it's hot and constricting blood vessels when it's cold. The skin also prevents excessive fluid loss and helps maintain the body's fluid balance. Additionally, it acts as a physical barrier, protecting the body from harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.

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100. What does adipose tissue do?

Provides cushion over bony prominences

Makes me look fat

Keeps me warm

Used to make candles

Adipose tissue serves multiple functions in the body. It acts as a cushion over bony prominences, providing protection and support. Additionally, it helps to regulate body temperature by insulating and keeping the body warm. While it is true that adipose tissue can contribute to a person's appearance of being fat, this is not its primary function. The statement about using adipose tissue to make candles is incorrect and unrelated to its actual purpose.

Explanation

Adipose tissue serves multiple functions in the body. It acts as a cushion over bony prominences, providing protection and support. Additionally, it helps to regulate body temperature by insulating and keeping the body warm. While it is true that adipose tissue can contribute to a person's appearance of being fat, this is not its primary function. The statement about using adipose tissue to make candles is incorrect and unrelated to its actual purpose.

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101. Where are the lymph nodes?

The lymph nodes are located in various regions of the body, including the occipital, parotid, submental, submandibular, and supraclavicular areas. These lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system, which plays a crucial role in the body's immune response. They help filter and trap foreign substances, such as bacteria or viruses, and produce immune cells to fight infections. The occipital lymph nodes are found at the back of the head, the parotid lymph nodes are located near the ears, the submental lymph nodes are under the chin, the submandibular lymph nodes are beneath the lower jaw, and the supraclavicular lymph nodes are above the collarbone.

Explanation

The lymph nodes are located in various regions of the body, including the occipital, parotid, submental, submandibular, and supraclavicular areas. These lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system, which plays a crucial role in the body's immune response. They help filter and trap foreign substances, such as bacteria or viruses, and produce immune cells to fight infections. The occipital lymph nodes are found at the back of the head, the parotid lymph nodes are located near the ears, the submental lymph nodes are under the chin, the submandibular lymph nodes are beneath the lower jaw, and the supraclavicular lymph nodes are above the collarbone.

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102. Medication administration time abbreviations.

QD

QHS

BID

TID

QID

ROD

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103. What is an order for C&S?

An order for C&S refers to a medical test called culture and sensitivity. This test is used to identify the presence of bacteria or fungi in a patient's body and determine the most effective antibiotic or antifungal medication to treat the infection. The culture part involves growing the microorganisms in a lab, while the sensitivity part involves exposing the cultured organisms to different antibiotics to see which ones are most effective in inhibiting their growth. This information helps doctors prescribe the most appropriate medication for the patient's infection.

Explanation

An order for C&S refers to a medical test called culture and sensitivity. This test is used to identify the presence of bacteria or fungi in a patient's body and determine the most effective antibiotic or antifungal medication to treat the infection. The culture part involves growing the microorganisms in a lab, while the sensitivity part involves exposing the cultured organisms to different antibiotics to see which ones are most effective in inhibiting their growth. This information helps doctors prescribe the most appropriate medication for the patient's infection.

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104. What are the assessment tools used to screen skin breakdown

The Braden scale and Norton scale are both assessment tools used to screen for skin breakdown. The Braden scale is a widely used tool that assesses a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers based on factors such as sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear. The Norton scale, on the other hand, is another commonly used tool that assesses a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers based on factors such as physical condition, mental condition, activity, mobility, and incontinence. Both scales help healthcare professionals identify patients who are at risk for skin breakdown and implement appropriate preventive measures.

Explanation

The Braden scale and Norton scale are both assessment tools used to screen for skin breakdown. The Braden scale is a widely used tool that assesses a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers based on factors such as sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear. The Norton scale, on the other hand, is another commonly used tool that assesses a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers based on factors such as physical condition, mental condition, activity, mobility, and incontinence. Both scales help healthcare professionals identify patients who are at risk for skin breakdown and implement appropriate preventive measures.

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