Networking 005 Part 2

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1. Joe, a technician, is configuring a wireless access point. Which of the following channels should he use if the LEAST interference potential is desired?

Explanation

The channels 1, 6, and 11 are the best options for minimizing interference because they are non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band. By using these channels, Joe can ensure that the wireless access point operates on different frequencies and avoids interference from neighboring access points or other devices. This helps to optimize the wireless network performance and stability.

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About This Quiz
Networking 005 Part 2 - Quiz

Networking 005 comes in 3 parts and this one forms the 2nd part of it. It tests your understanding, comprehension and knowledge of both the hardware and software involved in networking. Use it to your advantage.

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2. Which of the following tools allows Kurt, an administrator, to test connectivity between two computers?

Explanation

Ping is a tool that allows administrators to test connectivity between two computers. It sends a small packet of data from one computer to another and measures the time it takes for the packet to be sent and received. By analyzing the results, administrators can determine if there is a connection issue between the two computers, such as high latency or packet loss. This tool is commonly used for troubleshooting network connectivity problems and verifying if a computer is reachable on a network.

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3. Kurt, a user, is able to connect to a distant wireless network then loses connection. This is an ongoing problem for Kurt and the only wireless network around. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this problem?

Explanation

The most likely cause of Kurt's ongoing problem with connecting to the distant wireless network is the signal strength. If the signal strength is weak or intermittent, Kurt may be able to initially connect but then lose connection. This could be due to obstacles between Kurt and the wireless access point, such as walls or distance, causing a weak signal.

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4. Which of the following networking protocols would Kurt, a technician, use to standardize correct time on network devices?

Explanation

Kurt, as a technician, would use NTP (Network Time Protocol) to standardize correct time on network devices. NTP is a protocol used to synchronize the clocks of network devices, ensuring accurate timekeeping across the network. It allows devices to obtain time information from a reliable time source, such as an atomic clock or a time server, and adjust their clocks accordingly. This ensures that all devices on the network have the same time, which is crucial for various network operations and services. RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol), FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) are not specifically designed for time synchronization purposes.

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5. Karen, a network administrator, has discovered attempts to penetrate the network and access the customer database. Which of the following methods could she use to provide a false customer database to the attacker?

Explanation

Karen, the network administrator, can use a honeypot method to provide a false customer database to the attacker. A honeypot is a decoy system or network that is designed to attract and trap potential attackers. By creating a fake customer database within the honeypot, Karen can deceive the attacker into thinking they have successfully accessed the real database while monitoring their activities and gathering information about their techniques and intentions. This allows Karen to gain valuable insights into the attacker's methods and enhance the network's security measures.

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6. Joe, a network technician, is installing multiple 802.11 g WAPs with the same SSID. Which of the following channel combinations would allow all three WAPs to operate without interfering with each other?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1, 6, 11. This is because these channel combinations are non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band. By using these channels, the WAPs can operate without interfering with each other, as they are on different frequencies.

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7. Which of the following describes the purpose of DHCP?

Explanation

The purpose of DHCP is to dynamically assign IP addresses to devices on a network. DHCP eliminates the need for manual IP configuration, allowing devices to automatically obtain an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration parameters. This simplifies network management and ensures efficient use of IP addresses by allowing them to be reused when devices are no longer connected to the network. DHCP also provides flexibility by allowing IP address leases to be renewed or released, enabling devices to easily join or leave the network without manual intervention.

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8. Joe, a customer, is looking to implement wireless security. Which of the following provides the WEAKEST encryption?

Explanation

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) provides the weakest encryption among the given options. WEP is an older and less secure encryption protocol for wireless networks. It uses a static encryption key and has several vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers, making it relatively easy to crack the encryption and gain unauthorized access to the network. SSH (Secure Shell), TLS (Transport Layer Security), and EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) are all stronger encryption protocols compared to WEP.

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9. Which of the following layers of the OSI model is above the Session layer?

Explanation

The Presentation layer in the OSI model is responsible for the formatting and encryption of data to be transmitted across the network. It ensures that the data is in a compatible format for the receiving device. The Session layer, which is below the Presentation layer, establishes, maintains, and terminates communication sessions between applications. Therefore, the Presentation layer is above the Session layer in the OSI model.

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10. Which of the following identifies the WLAN Joe, a user, is connected to?

Explanation

The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is a unique name that identifies a wireless network. It is used by devices to connect to a specific WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network). In this case, Joe, the user, is connected to a WLAN, and the SSID is what identifies that specific network. The other options, such as Frequency, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy), and Channel, are not used to identify the WLAN, but rather represent different aspects of wireless networks.

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11. Joe, a user, accidentally unplugs a cable from the patch panel and plugs it into the switch stack. Now, all users are unable to access any network resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

Explanation

When Joe accidentally unplugs a cable from the patch panel and plugs it into the switch stack, it creates a loop in the network. This means that the network traffic is continuously circulating in the loop, causing a broadcast storm. As a result, all users are unable to access any network resources. This is the most likely cause of the network issue. EMI, mismatched MTUs, and a faulty module may cause network problems, but they are less likely to cause a complete network outage for all users.

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12. Which of the following technologies has different upload and download speeds?

Explanation

ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line) is the correct answer because it has different upload and download speeds. ADSL is designed to provide faster download speeds than upload speeds, making it suitable for activities such as browsing the internet, streaming videos, and downloading files. This asymmetry in speeds allows for efficient utilization of the available bandwidth, as most users typically require faster download speeds for consuming content rather than uploading large files. In contrast, technologies like OC12, OC3, and SDSL offer symmetrical upload and download speeds.

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13. Which of the following is an authentication, authorization, and accounting method that provides administrative access to network devices?

Explanation

TACACS+ is an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) method that provides administrative access to network devices. TACACS+ stands for Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus and it is a protocol that separates the authentication, authorization, and accounting processes. It allows network administrators to centrally manage and control access to network devices, ensuring that only authorized users can access and make changes to the devices. TACACS+ provides a high level of security and flexibility, making it a commonly used method for managing network device access.

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14. Karen, an administrator, finds a phone line but does not know where the line goes or if it is active. Which of the following can be used to test if it is active?

Explanation

A butt set is a device used to test telephone lines. It can be connected to the phone line in question to determine if it is active. By using a butt set, Karen can listen for a dial tone or make test calls to verify if the line is active or not.

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15. Joe, a network technician, has configured a server with the following IP settings: IP Address: 192.168.1.40/27 Default Gateway: 192.168.1.64 DNS: 192.168.1.33 The server cannot access the Internet. Which of the following settings needs to be changed?

Explanation

The default gateway needs to be changed. The current default gateway address (192.168.1.64) is not within the same subnet as the server's IP address (192.168.1.40/27). The default gateway should be within the same subnet as the server's IP address in order for the server to access the Internet.

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16. Joe, a company executive, has noticed that a wireless network signal from the company's WAP can be seen in the company's parking lot. Joe is very worried that this is a potential security threat. Which of the following can be done to eliminate this threat?

Explanation

Decreasing the signal strength of the wireless network can help eliminate the potential security threat of the signal being visible in the company's parking lot. By reducing the signal strength, the range of the network will be limited, making it harder for unauthorized individuals to access the network from outside the company's premises. This can help enhance the overall security of the network and protect sensitive information from being compromised.

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17. Which of the following layers of the OSI model would a NIC operate on?

Explanation

A NIC (Network Interface Card) operates on the Physical layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bit streams over a physical medium, such as cables or wireless signals. The NIC handles tasks like encoding and decoding data into electrical or optical signals, as well as handling physical connections and network hardware.

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18. Which of the following ports would Kurt, a technician, need to open on a firewall to allow SSH on the default port?

Explanation

Kurt would need to open port 22 on the firewall to allow SSH on the default port. SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used for secure remote access to a computer or server. By opening port 22, Kurt would enable incoming SSH connections on the firewall, allowing users to securely access the system using SSH.

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19. Which of the following defines the purpose of a DHCP scope?

Explanation

The purpose of a DHCP scope is to allocate a preset range of IP addresses available for assignment. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network. A DHCP scope defines the range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to devices. By defining a scope, the DHCP server knows which IP addresses are available for assignment and can assign them to devices as needed. This allows for efficient and automatic IP address allocation on a network.

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20. Which of the following tools would Sandy, a technician, BEST use to trace a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together?

Explanation

A toner probe is the best tool for tracing a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together. A toner probe is used to identify and trace wires by sending a tone through one end of the wire and using the probe to detect the tone at the other end. This allows the technician to accurately locate and trace the specific wire they are looking for, even if it is twisted together with other wires of the same color.

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21. Which of the following allows for multiple operating systems to be run simultaneously on a single server?

Explanation

Virtual machines allow for multiple operating systems to be run simultaneously on a single server. A virtual machine is a software emulation of a physical computer, allowing for the creation and operation of multiple virtual machines on a single physical server. Each virtual machine can run its own operating system, independent of the others, allowing for greater flexibility and efficiency in resource allocation. This enables organizations to consolidate their server infrastructure, reduce hardware costs, and easily manage and scale their IT environments.

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22. Which of the following is a purpose of a VLAN?

Explanation

A VLAN, or Virtual Local Area Network, is a network segmentation technique that allows for the creation of multiple virtual networks within a single physical network. One of the main purposes of VLANs is to segment broadcast traffic. By dividing a network into smaller VLANs, broadcast traffic is contained within each VLAN, reducing the overall amount of broadcast traffic on the network and improving network performance and efficiency. This segmentation helps to isolate and control network traffic, enhancing security and network management capabilities.

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23. Joe, a customer, has reported that the wireless signal from a WAP can only be found in one specific corner of a conference room. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

Explanation

The most likely cause for the wireless signal from a WAP only being found in one specific corner of a conference room is an incorrect antenna type. Different antenna types have different coverage patterns and ranges. If the WAP is equipped with an antenna that has a narrow coverage pattern or limited range, it would explain why the signal is only strong in one corner of the room.

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24. Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of a packet sniffer?

Explanation

A packet sniffer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows network administrators to monitor and analyze the data packets flowing through a network. By capturing and examining these packets, network administrators can gain insights into network performance, troubleshoot issues, detect anomalies, and identify potential security threats. Therefore, the main purpose of a packet sniffer is to analyze network traffic.

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25. Which of the following terms correctly defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network?

Explanation

Convergence is the correct term that defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network. Convergence refers to the process in which routers exchange information and update their routing tables to reach a consistent view of the network topology. This ensures that all routers have the same information about the network and can make accurate routing decisions.

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26. Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?

Explanation

Dynamic DNS is used when the host IP address is assigned by DHCP. DHCP assigns IP addresses dynamically, which means they can change over time. Dynamic DNS allows the host to update its IP address with a DNS server so that it can still be reached using a domain name, even if its IP address changes. This is particularly useful for devices that are constantly connecting and disconnecting from the network or for devices that have a dynamic IP address assigned by their internet service provider.

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27. Which of the following technologies is used on cellular networks?

Explanation

CDMA stands for Code Division Multiple Access, which is a technology used on cellular networks. It allows multiple users to share the same frequency band simultaneously by assigning unique codes to each user. This enables efficient use of the available bandwidth and increases the capacity of the network. CDMA is widely used in 2G, 3G, and 4G cellular networks for voice and data communication.

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28. Kurt, a user, is having difficulty connecting a laptop to the company's wireless network. The technician determines Kurt's wireless NIC has failed and replaces it. Which of the following network troubleshooting methodology steps should the technician do NEXT?

Explanation

After replacing Kurt's wireless NIC, the technician should verify the full system functionality. This step is important to ensure that the replacement of the wireless NIC has resolved the issue and that Kurt is now able to connect to the company's wireless network without any difficulty. By verifying the full system functionality, the technician can confirm that the problem has been resolved and that Kurt's laptop is now functioning properly.

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29. Which of the following media types will block EMI?

Explanation

STP stands for Shielded Twisted Pair, which is a type of media cable that has a metallic shield around each individual pair of wires. This shielding helps to block electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. Therefore, STP is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to block EMI and ensure better signal quality and reliability in data transmission. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) does not have this shielding, making it more susceptible to EMI. Serial and Non-plenum are not media types and do not provide any EMI blocking capabilities.

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30. Sandy, a technician, is troubleshooting a cable problem. She has checked both ends and suspects an issue 50 yards (46 meters) from the location. Which of the following network tools will confirm this analysis?

Explanation

A Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is a network tool used to locate cable faults. It sends a signal down the cable and measures the time it takes for the signal to bounce back. By analyzing the time it takes for the signal to return, Sandy can determine the distance to the cable issue. Therefore, a TDR will confirm her analysis that the issue is 50 yards (46 meters) from the location.

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31. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?

Explanation

The broadcast address for a network is the address that is used to send a message to all devices on the network. In this case, the network is defined as 192.168.0.0/24, which means it has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The last octet of the network address is all zeros (192.168.0.0), and the last octet of the broadcast address should be all ones. Therefore, the correct broadcast address is 192.168.0.255.

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32. Which of the following network performance methods would Sandy, a technician, use with SIP phones?

Explanation

Sandy, as a technician, would use Quality of Service (QoS) with SIP phones. QoS is a network performance method that prioritizes and manages network traffic to ensure that critical applications, such as voice and video calls, receive the necessary bandwidth and are not affected by other non-priority traffic. By implementing QoS, Sandy can optimize the performance and reliability of SIP phones, ensuring high-quality voice communication.

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33. Which of the following BEST describes the point at which an ISP's responsibility for an Internet connection ends?

Explanation

The term "Demarc" is short for "demarcation point," which is the point where the responsibility of an ISP (Internet Service Provider) for an internet connection ends. It refers to the physical location where the ISP's network ends and the customer's network begins. At this point, the ISP is no longer responsible for the connection and any issues beyond the demarcation point are the customer's responsibility.

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34. Which of the following DNS records would allow for a website to have more than one FQDN?

Explanation

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record allows a website to have more than one Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN). It is used to create an alias for a domain name, pointing it to another domain name. This means that multiple FQDNs can be associated with the same website, allowing users to access the website using different domain names. For example, if a website has the FQDN "www.example.com", a CNAME record can be created to associate "blog.example.com" with "www.example.com", allowing users to access the website using either domain.

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35. Which of the following commands can Sandy, a technician, use on a server to display the default router setting?

Explanation

Sandy, the technician, can use the "route" command on a server to display the default router setting. This command allows her to view and manage the routing table, which contains information about how data packets should be forwarded from one network to another. By using the "route" command, Sandy can check the default gateway or router that the server is using to send and receive network traffic.

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36. Kurt, a network technician, has configured a new firewall on the network. Users are reporting errors when attempting to access several websites. Kurt attempts to access several popular websites with no errors, however, he does receive an error when attempting to access a bank website. Which of the following rules would BEST allow access to the bank website?

Explanation

The correct answer is to allow TCP port 443. This is because TCP port 443 is the standard port used for secure web browsing using HTTPS. The bank website likely uses HTTPS to encrypt the communication between the user's browser and the server, ensuring secure transmission of sensitive information such as login credentials and financial data. By allowing TCP port 443, the firewall will allow the necessary traffic for accessing the bank website securely.

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37. Karen, an administrator, is attempting to connect a laptop to a server via RJ-45 ports on both a device and a CAT5 patch cable. All of the IP settings have been verified to be correct, yet there is a connectivity problem. Which of the following would MOST likely fix the IP connectivity problem?

Explanation

Swapping wires 1, 2 and 3, 6 on one end of the connecting cable would most likely fix the IP connectivity problem. This is because RJ-45 ports use these wires for transmitting and receiving data, and if they are not properly connected, it can cause connectivity issues. By swapping these wires, the connection between the laptop and the server will be established correctly, allowing for proper IP connectivity.

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38. Sandy, an administrator, is responsible for one Linux and two Windows servers. She would like to review all server logs centrally. Which of the following services could Sandy use in this scenario?

Explanation

Sandy, as an administrator responsible for multiple servers, can use the Syslog service to review all server logs centrally. Syslog is a standard protocol used for sending and receiving log messages in a network. It allows logs from different systems to be collected and stored in a central location, making it easier for administrators like Sandy to monitor and analyze server activity. By using Syslog, Sandy can efficiently manage and review logs from both the Linux and Windows servers she oversees.

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39. Which of the following would Sandy, a technician, find in a network map?

Explanation

Sandy, as a technician, would find MDF/IDFs in a network map. MDF stands for Main Distribution Frame, which is a centralized point where all the network cables from different locations are terminated. IDF stands for Intermediate Distribution Frame, which is a smaller distribution point that connects the end devices to the MDF. In a network map, MDF/IDFs are typically depicted to show the physical layout of the network and the connections between different locations.

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40. When examining a suspected faulty copper network cable. Karen, the administrator, notices that some of the pairs are untwisted too much. This is MOST likely causing which of the following?

Explanation

When the pairs in a copper network cable are untwisted too much, it can cause cross-talk. Cross-talk refers to the interference between adjacent pairs of wires in the cable. When the pairs are untwisted, the electromagnetic signals from one pair can bleed into the adjacent pairs, leading to signal degradation and potential data transmission errors. Therefore, the excessive untwisting of pairs in a copper network cable is most likely causing cross-talk.

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41. Which of the following is the loopback address for IPv6?

Explanation

The loopback address for IPv6 is represented as ::1. This address is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It is equivalent to the IPv4 loopback address 127.0.0.1. The "::" notation represents a sequence of zeros in an IPv6 address, and the "1" represents the loopback interface. Therefore, "::1" is the correct loopback address for IPv6.

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42. Karen, a network engineer, needs to troubleshoot a remote router within the WAN. Which of the following user authentications would be the BEST to implement?

Explanation

TACACS+ would be the best user authentication to implement for troubleshooting a remote router within the WAN. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services for network devices. It allows for granular control over user access and privileges, making it ideal for troubleshooting and managing network devices remotely. MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol), Kerberos, and PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) are also authentication methods, but they may not offer the same level of control and flexibility as TACACS+ in this specific scenario.

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43. Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links?

Explanation

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a technique used by telecommunications carriers to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links. It allows for the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) and enables the routing of traffic based on labels, improving network performance and efficiency. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is used to segregate traffic within a local area network, while VPN is a secure connection over a public network. PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) is a traditional telephone network.

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44. Joe, a customer, wants to have wireless network access only in the conference room. He has placed a WAP in the room, but notices that offices across the hall also receive a wireless signal. Which of the following could be done together to solve this problem? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To solve the problem of the wireless signal reaching offices across the hall, two actions can be taken. First, turning down the signal gain will reduce the strength of the signal, limiting its range and preventing it from reaching the offices. Second, replacing the WAP's antennas with directional antennas will allow the signal to be focused in a specific direction, specifically towards the conference room, minimizing signal leakage to other areas. Increasing the encryption method, changing the wireless channel, and disabling the SSID are unrelated to the issue of signal leakage and therefore not applicable in this scenario.

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45. Which of the following devices will allow Sandy, a user, to see a cached copy of websites?

Explanation

A proxy server allows users to access cached copies of websites. When a user requests a website, the proxy server retrieves the content from the original server and stores it in its cache. If another user requests the same website, the proxy server can deliver the cached copy instead of retrieving it again from the original server. This improves performance and reduces bandwidth usage. Therefore, a proxy server is the correct device that allows Sandy to see a cached copy of websites.

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46. Which of the following protocols does a router use to communicate packets to other routers?

Explanation

A router uses the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) to communicate packets to other routers. RIP is a dynamic routing protocol that uses distance-vector algorithms to determine the best path for packets to reach their destination. It exchanges routing information with neighboring routers, allowing them to update their routing tables and make informed decisions about packet forwarding. RIP is commonly used in small to medium-sized networks and is known for its simplicity and ease of configuration.

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47. Which of the following capabilities of a firewall allows Kurt, an administrator, to block traffic based on keywords determined by the company?

Explanation

A content filter is a capability of a firewall that allows an administrator to block traffic based on keywords determined by the company. It examines the content of the network traffic and compares it against a set of predefined keywords or patterns. If any match is found, the firewall can block or restrict the traffic. This helps in enforcing the company's security policies and preventing the transmission of sensitive or unauthorized information.

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48. Joe, a technician, is asked to install a new wireless router, and make sure access to the new wireless network is secured. Which of the following should be considered for security?

Explanation

Disabling the SSID (Service Set Identifier) on a wireless router can enhance security by making the network less visible to potential unauthorized users. When the SSID is disabled, the network name is not broadcasted, making it harder for attackers to detect and target the network. This can help prevent unauthorized access and protect the network from potential security threats.

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49. After a brownout, Kurt, a user, can connect to the internal network, but not the Internet. Which of the following is the company's DSL router experiencing that is causing this issue?

Explanation

After a brownout, which is a temporary drop in voltage, Kurt is able to connect to the internal network but not the Internet. This indicates that the company's DSL router is experiencing a power failure. A power failure would cause the router to lose connectivity to the Internet while still allowing connections to the internal network.

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50. A company is expanding and has found that logging into each device to collect error information is consuming too much time. They have asked Sandy, a network administrator, to set up a server that will capture errors from each device automatically. Which of the following technologies would BEST fit this requirement?

Explanation

Syslog is the best fit for this requirement because it is a standard protocol used for collecting and forwarding log messages in an IP network. It allows devices to send error information to a central syslog server automatically, eliminating the need for manual log collection. This technology is commonly used by network administrators to centralize and manage log data efficiently, saving time and resources. RADIUS is used for authentication and authorization, IPSec is used for secure communication, and a network sniffer is used for capturing and analyzing network traffic, but none of these technologies specifically address the requirement of automatically capturing error information from devices.

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51. On which of the following layers does a hub function?

Explanation

A hub functions at the physical layer. The physical layer is responsible for transmitting raw bits over a communication channel, without any regard for the meaning or structure of the data. A hub is a simple networking device that connects multiple devices together in a local area network (LAN), allowing them to communicate with each other. It operates by receiving data from one device and broadcasting it to all other devices connected to the hub. Since a hub operates at the physical layer, it does not examine or manipulate the data in any way.

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52. A wireless LAN discovery tool that sends a null probe request to seek out wireless LANs, is a component of which of the following?

Explanation

War driving is the correct answer because it involves using a wireless LAN discovery tool to seek out wireless LANs. This process often includes sending null probe requests to detect nearby networks. War driving is typically done with the intention of mapping out the locations of wireless networks for various purposes, such as identifying potential security vulnerabilities or for research purposes.

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53. Which of the following tools would Sandy, an administrator, use to determine if there is a problem with a telephone line?

Explanation

A butt set is a tool used by administrators to test and troubleshoot telephone lines. It allows them to check for problems such as line noise, connection issues, or faulty wiring. By connecting the butt set to the telephone line, Sandy can listen for dial tone, make test calls, and check for any abnormalities in the line. This tool helps in identifying and diagnosing problems with telephone lines.

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54. Which of the following security devices is used in providing packet and MAC address filtering services for the network?

Explanation

A network-based firewall is a security device that is used to provide packet and MAC address filtering services for a network. It examines incoming and outgoing network traffic and applies rules to allow or block specific packets based on their source and destination addresses, protocols, and ports. By filtering packets and MAC addresses, a network-based firewall helps to protect the network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, and other security threats. It acts as a barrier between the internal network and external networks, ensuring that only legitimate and authorized traffic is allowed to pass through.

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55. Blocking a known malicious web address by using the ACL on the firewall is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Blocking a known malicious web address by using the ACL on the firewall is an example of IP filtering. IP filtering involves controlling access to a network by filtering traffic based on IP addresses. In this case, the firewall is configured to block any traffic coming from or going to a specific IP address that is known to be malicious. This helps to protect the network from potential threats and prevent unauthorized access from that particular IP address.

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56. Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods, and preventing real attacks on the production network?

Explanation

A honeypot is a single computer that is intentionally set up to attract hackers and gather information about their techniques and methods. It is designed to divert their attention from the actual production network, preventing real attacks and minimizing the risk to the organization's valuable assets. The honeypot acts as a decoy, allowing security professionals to monitor and study the hackers' activities, gather intelligence, and enhance the overall security of the network.

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57. Which of the following connectors would Karen, a technician, use only for RG-6 cables?

Explanation

Karen, as a technician, would use the F-connector only for RG-6 cables. The F-connector is commonly used for coaxial cables, including RG-6 cables, which are used for cable television and satellite installations. The MTRJ, RJ-45, and RS-232 connectors are used for different types of cables and are not specifically designed for RG-6 cables.

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58. Kurt and Sandy, users, are reporting that they no longer have network access. A computer icon shows that network connection is unplugged. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?

Explanation

The most likely reason for Kurt and Sandy losing network access and the computer icon showing an unplugged network connection is a switch power failure. Switches are responsible for connecting devices within a network, and if the switch loses power, it will result in a loss of connectivity for all devices connected to it. This would explain why both Kurt and Sandy are experiencing the same issue.

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59. Sandy, an administrator, is experiencing availability issues on a Linux server. She decides to check the server for an IP address conflict on the server. Which of the following commands should Sandy use?

Explanation

Sandy should use the "Ifconfig" command to check for an IP address conflict on the Linux server. Ifconfig is a command-line tool used to configure network interfaces on Unix-like operating systems. By using this command, Sandy can view the current IP address configuration of the server and check for any conflicts that may be causing the availability issues.

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60. After a switch upgrade, several users report no connection to the Internet, while other users report no problems. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?

Explanation

The most likely problem in this scenario is VLAN port assignments. After a switch upgrade, some users are reporting no connection to the Internet while others have no problems. This suggests that the switch may not have been properly configured to assign the correct VLAN ports to the affected users. VLANs are used to segregate network traffic, and if the port assignments are incorrect, it could prevent those users from accessing the Internet.

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61. Which of the following uses copper wiring?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1000BaseT. This is because 1000BaseT is a type of Ethernet technology that uses copper wiring to transmit data at a speed of 1 gigabit per second. Copper wiring is commonly used in networking to provide reliable and fast data transmission over short to medium distances. On the other hand, 10GBaseER and 10GBaseLW are both types of Ethernet technologies that use fiber optic cables for data transmission, while 100BaseFX also uses fiber optic cables but at a lower speed of 100 megabits per second.

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62. Which of the following commands can Sandy, a network technician, use to check whether the DNS server for a given domain is reachable?

Explanation

Sandy, the network technician, can use the "dig" command to check whether the DNS server for a given domain is reachable. The "dig" command is a network administration tool that can be used to perform DNS queries and retrieve information about various DNS records. By using the "dig" command with the appropriate parameters and specifying the domain, Sandy can verify if the DNS server is reachable and obtain information about the domain's DNS records.

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63. After Kurt, a technician, has established a plan of action to resolve the problem, which of the following steps should he perform NEXT?

Explanation

After establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem, the next step for Kurt, the technician, would be to implement the solution or escalate the issue as necessary. This means that he should start executing the plan he has developed to fix the problem or escalate it to a higher level if the solution requires more expertise or resources. This step comes after planning and before verifying the full system functionality, as it focuses on taking action to address the problem.

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64. Which of the following defines access for a network?

Explanation

ACL stands for Access Control List, which is a set of rules or guidelines that determines what network traffic is allowed or denied on a network device. It is used to control access to network resources and protect the network from unauthorized access. ACLs can be configured on routers, switches, and firewalls to filter traffic based on various criteria such as source/destination IP addresses, protocols, ports, and other factors. By defining access through ACLs, network administrators can ensure that only authorized users and devices have access to the network and its resources.

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65. Sandy, an administrator, wants to limit the wireless guest network traffic to 100Kbps so that utilization issues do not occur on the company's T1 Internet access network. Which of the following optimizations should Sandy implement?

Explanation

Sandy should implement traffic shaping in order to limit the wireless guest network traffic to 100Kbps. Traffic shaping is a technique used to control the flow of network traffic by prioritizing certain types of traffic over others. By implementing traffic shaping, Sandy can ensure that the guest network traffic does not exceed the desired limit of 100Kbps, preventing any utilization issues on the company's T1 Internet access network. This will help in maintaining a stable and efficient network connection for all users.

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66. Karen, a user, reports that the web browser is indicating the site certificate is not trusted. Which of the following attacks may be in progress?

Explanation

If Karen is receiving a message that the website certificate is not trusted, it suggests that there may be a man-in-the-middle attack in progress. In this type of attack, an attacker intercepts the communication between the user and the website, allowing them to eavesdrop on the conversation or even alter the data being exchanged. By presenting an untrusted certificate, the attacker aims to deceive the user into thinking that they are communicating securely with the intended website when in reality, they are communicating with the attacker.

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67. Which of the following solutions will detect and disable a rogue access point?

Explanation

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access to a network. It actively monitors network traffic, identifies suspicious activity, and takes immediate action to block or disable any rogue access points. By continuously analyzing network packets and comparing them against predefined security policies, an IPS can effectively identify and neutralize any potential threats posed by rogue access points. This makes IPS the most suitable solution among the given options for detecting and disabling rogue access points.

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68. A company only wants preapproved laptops to be able to connect to a wireless access point. Which of the following should be configured?

Explanation

MAC filtering should be configured in order to only allow preapproved laptops to connect to the wireless access point. MAC filtering is a security measure that only allows devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to the network. By configuring MAC filtering, the company can create a list of approved MAC addresses for the laptops that are allowed to connect to the wireless access point, ensuring that only preapproved laptops can access the network.

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69. Sandy, a network consultant, is asked to set up a wireless network in a home. The home user wants the wireless network to be available in every corner of the house. Which of the following additional information will Sandy need to determine the equipment for the installation? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To determine the equipment needed for setting up a wireless network that covers every corner of the house, Sandy will need to know the length of the house and the building material of the house. The length of the house will help determine the range and coverage needed for the wireless network. The building material of the house can affect the signal strength and penetration, so knowing this information will help Sandy choose the appropriate equipment to ensure optimal coverage throughout the house.

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70. Joe, a network administrator, has been requested to install wireless access throughout the entire building, while utilizing a single SSID. Which of the following options will meet this requirement?

Explanation

Setting the SSID on each wireless access point (WAP) and setting contiguous WAPs to different channels will meet the requirement of installing wireless access throughout the entire building while utilizing a single SSID. This means that all the WAPs will broadcast the same SSID, allowing devices to seamlessly connect to the wireless network as they move throughout the building. By setting contiguous WAPs to different channels, it helps to prevent interference and ensure optimal performance by reducing overlapping signals.

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71. Karen, a technician, is connecting a new desktop computer to a switch. She was only able to locate one cable in the office for the installation. The wires at each end are color coded as follows: End A: orange-white, orange, green-white, blue, blue-white, green, brown-white, brown End B: green-white, green, orange-white, blue, blue-white, orange, brow-white, brown Which of the following should Karen do to complete the installation?

Explanation

The given cable has the same color coding on both ends, which means it is a straight-through cable. In order to connect a computer to a switch, a straight-through cable is required. Therefore, Karen should purchase a straight-through cable to complete the installation.

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72. Karen, a user, took a laptop on vacation and made changes to the configuration in order to use the device at the hotel. She can reach the Internet, but cannot access any internal network resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?

Explanation

Karen is able to reach the internet, which suggests that her network connection is functioning properly. However, she is unable to access any internal network resources. This indicates that the issue lies with the DNS (Domain Name System) configuration. DNS is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing devices to connect to specific resources on a network. If Karen's laptop has an incorrect DNS configuration, it will not be able to properly resolve the internal network resources, resulting in the issue she is experiencing.

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73. Sandy, a network technician, needs to push changes out to network devices and also monitor the devices based on each device's MIB. Which of the following should she use?

Explanation

Sandy, as a network technician, should use SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) to push changes out to network devices and monitor them based on each device's MIB (Management Information Base). SNMP is a protocol that allows for the management and monitoring of network devices. It provides a standardized way to collect and organize information about network devices, making it the appropriate choice for Sandy's requirements. Traffic analysis, syslog, and asset management are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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74. Joe, a customer, has a wireless network and has reported that the network traffic from the wireless access points seems compared to the limited number of wireless devices used. Joe believes that other non-employees are using the wireless network to access the Internet. Which of the following could be used to limit the access to the wireless network? (Select TWO).

Explanation

WPA encryption can be used to limit access to the wireless network by requiring a password for authentication, preventing unauthorized users from connecting. MAC filtering can also be used to limit access by allowing only specific devices with registered MAC addresses to connect to the network. By enabling both WPA encryption and MAC filtering, Joe can ensure that only authorized devices can access his wireless network.

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75. An organization currently has CAT5e cabling throughout its office. Karen, the network technician, is troubleshooting a new CAT6 run that supports network traffic, but does not meet specification when tested with a TDR. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

Explanation

The most likely cause for the CAT6 run not meeting specification when tested with a TDR is incorrect termination. This means that the connectors or terminations on the CAT6 cable are not properly installed or connected. This can result in signal loss, interference, or other issues that prevent the cable from performing as expected.

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76. Which of the following OSI layers is included in the TCP/IP model's Application layer?

Explanation

In the TCP/IP model, the Application layer includes protocols and services that directly interact with the end-user applications. The Session layer, which manages and maintains communication sessions between applications, is a part of the Application layer in the TCP/IP model. Therefore, the correct answer is Session.

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77. Teachers and students at a school currently share the same bandwidth. The Internet performance for the teachers in the classroom is becoming extremely slow. Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the issued?

Explanation

Traffic shaping is the best method to mitigate the issue of slow internet performance for teachers in the classroom. Traffic shaping allows for the prioritization and control of network traffic, ensuring that critical traffic, such as educational resources for teachers, is given higher priority over non-essential traffic. This helps to optimize bandwidth usage and improve overall internet performance for teachers.

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78. Sandy, a network technician, would like to keep the IP address of the Human Resource department" s server in the same group of 100 DHCP IP addresses that are assigned to the Human Resource department's employee workstations. Which of the following would BEST allow this and have the ability for the server to keep the same IP address?

Explanation

A DHCP reservation allows the network technician to reserve a specific IP address for the server in the DHCP pool. This means that the server will always be assigned the same IP address, ensuring consistency and allowing it to remain in the same group of 100 DHCP IP addresses assigned to the Human Resource department's employee workstations. This is the best solution as it provides the desired outcome without the need for implementing static IPs for the entire department or limiting the DHCP scope. Connecting the server to a router in the network closet on the same floor is not relevant to the requirement.

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79. Joe, a network technician, is concerned about the environmental effects of power consumption and heat from network resources. Limited space is also a concern. Which of the following technologies should be implemented?

Explanation

Virtual servers should be implemented to address Joe's concerns about power consumption, heat, and limited space. Virtual servers allow multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server, reducing the number of physical servers needed and therefore reducing power consumption and heat generation. Additionally, virtual servers can be consolidated onto a smaller physical footprint, helping to address the limited space concern.

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80. Which of the following protocols would Sandy, a technician, use to disable switch ports automatically to prevent switching loops?

Explanation

Sandy, the technician, would use STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) to automatically disable switch ports in order to prevent switching loops. STP is a network protocol that prevents loops in Ethernet networks by selectively blocking certain ports to create a loop-free topology. By disabling switch ports, STP ensures that there are no redundant connections that can cause loops and disrupt network communication.

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81. Which of the following OSI layers performs error detection using a Frame Check Sequence?

Explanation

The Data link layer performs error detection using a Frame Check Sequence. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes and ensures that data is transmitted without errors. The Frame Check Sequence is a field added to the data frame that allows the receiving node to detect and correct any errors that may have occurred during transmission.

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82. Kurt, a network technician, has been notified that several PCs are infected and are sending spam emails. He wants to add a rule to the firewall to prevent the sending of emails from the internal network. Which of the following rules will prevent this?

Explanation

Denying TCP port 25 outbound will prevent the sending of emails from the internal network. TCP port 25 is used for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is the protocol responsible for sending emails. By denying outbound traffic on this port, the network technician can block any attempts to send emails from the infected PCs, effectively preventing the spam emails from being sent.

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83. Which of the following connectors push and twist-on?

Explanation

ST connectors are designed to push and twist-on. This means that when connecting the ST connector, it needs to be pushed into the socket and then twisted to secure it in place. The push and twist-on mechanism ensures a secure and reliable connection between the connector and the socket, minimizing the risk of accidental disconnection. The other connectors mentioned, LC, SC, and RJ-45, do not have a push and twist-on mechanism.

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84. Which of the following is used by RADIUS to encrypt messages between the server and the client?

Explanation

RADIUS uses a shared secret to encrypt messages between the server and the client. This shared secret is a pre-shared key that is known by both the server and the client. It is used to authenticate and secure the communication between the two parties. The shared secret is not publicly known and provides a level of security to prevent unauthorized access to the RADIUS messages.

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85. Which TCP/IP model layer does the OSI model layer named 'session' respond to?

Explanation

The OSI model layer named 'session' corresponds to the TCP/IP model layer called 'Application'. The session layer in the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications. The TCP/IP model combines the session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model into a single Application layer. Therefore, the 'session' layer in the OSI model aligns with the TCP/IP model's 'Application' layer.

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86. Which of the following has a maximum transfer rate of 54Mbps and operates at the 5GHz frequency?

Explanation

802.11a has a maximum transfer rate of 54Mbps and operates at the 5GHz frequency.

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87. The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information can be found within which layer of the OSI model?

Explanation

Layer 4 of the OSI model is the transport layer. This layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and ensures reliable and efficient data transfer. The protocols that use a three-way handshake, such as TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), operate at this layer. The three-way handshake is a method used to establish a connection between two hosts before data transmission can begin. By exchanging a series of SYN (synchronize) and ACK (acknowledge) packets, the hosts can establish a reliable and synchronized connection. Therefore, the correct answer is Layer 4.

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88. Joe, a customer, has requested a solution to allow all internally and externally bound traffic to be monitored. Which of the following would allow a packet sniffer to do this?

Explanation

A managed switch with port mirroring allows a packet sniffer to monitor all internally and externally bound traffic. Port mirroring is a feature that allows the switch to copy the traffic from one or more ports and send it to another port where the packet sniffer is connected. This allows the packet sniffer to capture and analyze all network traffic passing through the switch, regardless of its source or destination.

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89. Which of the following should Joe, a technician, implement to provide high bandwidth to a VoIP application?

Explanation

Load balancing should be implemented by Joe to provide high bandwidth to a VoIP application. Load balancing distributes network traffic evenly across multiple servers or network links, ensuring that no single server or link becomes overwhelmed with traffic. This helps to optimize the use of available bandwidth and improve the performance and reliability of the VoIP application.

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90. Which of the following is used to verify configuration updates on a firewall?  

Explanation

Signature identification is used to verify configuration updates on a firewall. This involves comparing the signatures or patterns of known malicious activity against the incoming or outgoing traffic to detect and prevent potential threats. By using signature identification, the firewall can ensure that the configuration updates are effective in identifying and blocking any unauthorized or malicious traffic.

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91. A firewall that examines all the incoming traffic and decides if the traffic is going to be allowed though or dumped is a example of which of the following?

Explanation

Stateful inspection is the correct answer because it refers to a firewall that examines all incoming traffic and makes decisions based on the state of the connection. It keeps track of the state of each connection and allows or denies traffic based on predetermined rules. This type of firewall is considered more secure as it can detect and prevent certain types of attacks that traditional packet filtering firewalls may not catch.

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92. Which of the following network appliances can BEST be described as allowing multiple servers to share requests for a website through the same public IP address?

Explanation

A load balancer is a network appliance that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers. It helps to distribute the workload evenly among the servers, ensuring that no single server is overwhelmed with requests. In the context of the given question, a load balancer allows multiple servers to share requests for a website through the same public IP address, effectively balancing the traffic and improving the website's performance and availability.

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93. Which of the following is a Class A private IP address?

Explanation

The Class A private IP address range is 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. Therefore, the IP address 10.1.1.45 falls within this range and is a Class A private IP address.

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94. Which of the following can be used to view the list of ports on which a server is listening?

Explanation

Net statistics is not the correct answer for this question. The correct answer is netstat. Netstat is a command-line tool used to display active network connections, listening ports, and other network statistics. It can be used to view the list of ports on which a server is listening. Dig, nslookup, and net statistics are not specifically designed for this purpose.

Submit
95. Kurt, the network technician, is troubleshooting a network issue by implementing a new security device. After installing and configuring the device, which of the following steps should he take NEXT?

Explanation

After installing and configuring the new security device, Kurt should escalate the issue to upper management. This is because troubleshooting a network issue may require higher-level expertise or resources that Kurt does not have access to. By escalating the issue, Kurt can ensure that it is brought to the attention of those who can provide the necessary support and resources to resolve the problem effectively.

Submit
96. Which of the following would Joe, a technician, MOST likely use to remotely verify port configuration of a switch?

Explanation

A technician like Joe would most likely use the traceroute command to remotely verify the port configuration of a switch. The traceroute command is used to trace the route that packets take from one network to another, allowing the technician to identify the path and any potential issues along the way. By using the traceroute command, Joe can determine if the switch's ports are properly configured and if there are any connectivity problems within the network.

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97. Which of the following wireless network standards allows for the HIGHEST speeds?

Explanation

802.11b is not the correct answer because it has the lowest maximum speed among the given options. The correct answer is 802.11n, which allows for the highest speeds. 802.11n is an advanced wireless network standard that supports multiple antennas, wider channels, and higher data rates, resulting in faster and more reliable connections compared to the other options.

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98. Sandy, a technician, needs to customize various cable lengths and verify that the cables are working correctly. Which of the following tools would be needed to accomplish this? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A punch down tool is used to terminate and connect wires to a punch down block or patch panel. In this scenario, Sandy needs to customize cable lengths, which may involve cutting and terminating cables. Therefore, a punch down tool would be necessary to properly terminate the cables. The other tools listed, such as a cable certifier, multimeter, crimper, and loopback plug, are not directly related to customizing cable lengths and verifying cable functionality.

Submit
99. Which of the following is an invalid MAC address?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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100. Which of the following protocols uses port 3389?

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that allows secure remote access to a computer or server. It is commonly used for secure command-line login, remote command execution, and secure file transfer. SSH uses port 22 by default, not port 3389. Port 3389 is used by RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), which is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft for remote desktop connections. Therefore, the correct answer is RDP, not SSH.

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Joe, a technician, is configuring a wireless access point. Which of...
Which of the following tools allows Kurt, an administrator, to test...
Kurt, a user, is able to connect to a distant wireless network then...
Which of the following networking protocols would Kurt, a technician,...
Karen, a network administrator, has discovered attempts to penetrate...
Joe, a network technician, is installing multiple 802.11 g WAPs with...
Which of the following describes the purpose of DHCP?
Joe, a customer, is looking to implement wireless security. Which of...
Which of the following layers of the OSI model is above the Session...
Which of the following identifies the WLAN Joe, a user, is connected...
Joe, a user, accidentally unplugs a cable from the patch panel and...
Which of the following technologies has different upload and download...
Which of the following is an authentication, authorization, and...
Karen, an administrator, finds a phone line but does not know where...
Joe, a network technician, has configured a server with the following...
Joe, a company executive, has noticed that a wireless network signal...
Which of the following layers of the OSI model would a NIC operate on?
Which of the following ports would Kurt, a technician, need to open on...
Which of the following defines the purpose of a DHCP scope?
Which of the following tools would Sandy, a technician, BEST use to...
Which of the following allows for multiple operating systems to be run...
Which of the following is a purpose of a VLAN?
Joe, a customer, has reported that the wireless signal from a WAP can...
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of a packet sniffer?
Which of the following terms correctly defines the event in which...
Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?
Which of the following technologies is used on cellular networks?
Kurt, a user, is having difficulty connecting a laptop to the...
Which of the following media types will block EMI?
Sandy, a technician, is troubleshooting a cable problem. She has...
Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined...
Which of the following network performance methods would Sandy, a...
Which of the following BEST describes the point at which an ISP's...
Which of the following DNS records would allow for a website to have...
Which of the following commands can Sandy, a technician, use on a...
Kurt, a network technician, has configured a new firewall on the...
Karen, an administrator, is attempting to connect a laptop to a server...
Sandy, an administrator, is responsible for one Linux and two Windows...
Which of the following would Sandy, a technician, find in a network...
When examining a suspected faulty copper network cable. Karen, the...
Which of the following is the loopback address for IPv6?
Karen, a network engineer, needs to troubleshoot a remote router...
Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to...
Joe, a customer, wants to have wireless network access only in the...
Which of the following devices will allow Sandy, a user, to see a...
Which of the following protocols does a router use to communicate...
Which of the following capabilities of a firewall allows Kurt, an...
Joe, a technician, is asked to install a new wireless router, and make...
After a brownout, Kurt, a user, can connect to the internal network,...
A company is expanding and has found that logging into each device to...
On which of the following layers does a hub function?
A wireless LAN discovery tool that sends a null probe request to seek...
Which of the following tools would Sandy, an administrator, use to...
Which of the following security devices is used in providing packet...
Blocking a known malicious web address by using the ACL on the...
Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup...
Which of the following connectors would Karen, a technician, use only...
Kurt and Sandy, users, are reporting that they no longer have network...
Sandy, an administrator, is experiencing availability issues on a...
After a switch upgrade, several users report no connection to the...
Which of the following uses copper wiring?
Which of the following commands can Sandy, a network technician, use...
After Kurt, a technician, has established a plan of action to resolve...
Which of the following defines access for a network?
Sandy, an administrator, wants to limit the wireless guest network...
Karen, a user, reports that the web browser is indicating the site...
Which of the following solutions will detect and disable a rogue...
A company only wants preapproved laptops to be able to connect to a...
Sandy, a network consultant, is asked to set up a wireless network in...
Joe, a network administrator, has been requested to install wireless...
Karen, a technician, is connecting a new desktop computer to a switch....
Karen, a user, took a laptop on vacation and made changes to the...
Sandy, a network technician, needs to push changes out to network...
Joe, a customer, has a wireless network and has reported that the...
An organization currently has CAT5e cabling throughout its office....
Which of the following OSI layers is included in the TCP/IP...
Teachers and students at a school currently share the same bandwidth....
Sandy, a network technician, would like to keep the IP address of the...
Joe, a network technician, is concerned about the environmental...
Which of the following protocols would Sandy, a technician, use to...
Which of the following OSI layers performs error detection using a...
Kurt, a network technician, has been notified that several PCs are...
Which of the following connectors push and twist-on?
Which of the following is used by RADIUS to encrypt messages between...
Which TCP/IP model layer does the OSI model layer named...
Which of the following has a maximum transfer rate of 54Mbps and...
The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information...
Joe, a customer, has requested a solution to allow all internally and...
Which of the following should Joe, a technician, implement to provide...
Which of the following is used to verify configuration updates on a...
A firewall that examines all the incoming traffic and decides if the...
Which of the following network appliances can BEST be described as...
Which of the following is a Class A private IP address?
Which of the following can be used to view the list of ports on which...
Kurt, the network technician, is troubleshooting a network issue by...
Which of the following would Joe, a technician, MOST likely use to...
Which of the following wireless network standards allows for the...
Sandy, a technician, needs to customize various cable lengths and...
Which of the following is an invalid MAC address?
Which of the following protocols uses port 3389?
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