1.
Joe, a customer, has reported that the wireless signal from a WAP can only be found in one
specific corner of a conference room. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
Correct Answer
B. Incorrect antenna type
Explanation
The most likely cause for the wireless signal from a WAP only being found in one specific corner of a conference room is an incorrect antenna type. Different antenna types have different coverage patterns and ranges. If the WAP is equipped with an antenna that has a narrow coverage pattern or limited range, it would explain why the signal is only strong in one corner of the room.
2.
Joe, a user, accidentally unplugs a cable from the patch panel and plugs it into the switch stack.
Now, all users are unable to access any network resources. Which of the following is the MOST
likely cause?
Correct Answer
C. Looping
Explanation
When Joe accidentally unplugs a cable from the patch panel and plugs it into the switch stack, it creates a loop in the network. This means that the network traffic is continuously circulating in the loop, causing a broadcast storm. As a result, all users are unable to access any network resources. This is the most likely cause of the network issue. EMI, mismatched MTUs, and a faulty module may cause network problems, but they are less likely to cause a complete network outage for all users.
3.
Kurt and Sandy, users, are reporting that they no longer have network access. A computer icon
shows that network connection is unplugged. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for
this?
Correct Answer
D. Switch power failure
Explanation
The most likely reason for Kurt and Sandy losing network access and the computer icon showing an unplugged network connection is a switch power failure. Switches are responsible for connecting devices within a network, and if the switch loses power, it will result in a loss of connectivity for all devices connected to it. This would explain why both Kurt and Sandy are experiencing the same issue.
4.
Which of the following technologies is used on cellular networks?
Correct Answer
B. CDMA
Explanation
CDMA stands for Code Division Multiple Access, which is a technology used on cellular networks. It allows multiple users to share the same frequency band simultaneously by assigning unique codes to each user. This enables efficient use of the available bandwidth and increases the capacity of the network. CDMA is widely used in 2G, 3G, and 4G cellular networks for voice and data communication.
5.
Which of the following networking protocols would Kurt, a technician, use to standardize correct
time on network devices?
Correct Answer
A. NTP
Explanation
Kurt, as a technician, would use NTP (Network Time Protocol) to standardize correct time on network devices. NTP is a protocol used to synchronize the clocks of network devices, ensuring accurate timekeeping across the network. It allows devices to obtain time information from a reliable time source, such as an atomic clock or a time server, and adjust their clocks accordingly. This ensures that all devices on the network have the same time, which is crucial for various network operations and services. RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol), FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) are not specifically designed for time synchronization purposes.
6.
Karen, a network engineer, needs to troubleshoot a remote router within the WAN. Which of the
following user authentications would be the BEST to implement?
Correct Answer
C. TACACS+
Explanation
TACACS+ would be the best user authentication to implement for troubleshooting a remote router within the WAN. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services for network devices. It allows for granular control over user access and privileges, making it ideal for troubleshooting and managing network devices remotely. MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol), Kerberos, and PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) are also authentication methods, but they may not offer the same level of control and flexibility as TACACS+ in this specific scenario.
7.
Which of the following has a maximum transfer rate of 54Mbps and operates at the 5GHz
frequency?
Correct Answer
A. 802.11a
Explanation
802.11a has a maximum transfer rate of 54Mbps and operates at the 5GHz frequency.
8.
Which of the following terms correctly defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree
on the state of the network?
Correct Answer
A. Convergence
Explanation
Convergence is the correct term that defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network. Convergence refers to the process in which routers exchange information and update their routing tables to reach a consistent view of the network topology. This ensures that all routers have the same information about the network and can make accurate routing decisions.
9.
Which of the following would Sandy, a technician, find in a network map?
Correct Answer
B. MDF/IDFs
Explanation
Sandy, as a technician, would find MDF/IDFs in a network map. MDF stands for Main Distribution Frame, which is a centralized point where all the network cables from different locations are terminated. IDF stands for Intermediate Distribution Frame, which is a smaller distribution point that connects the end devices to the MDF. In a network map, MDF/IDFs are typically depicted to show the physical layout of the network and the connections between different locations.
10.
Joe, a network technician, has configured a server with the following IP settings:
IP Address: 192.168.1.40/27
Default Gateway: 192.168.1.64
DNS: 192.168.1.33
The server cannot access the Internet. Which of the following settings needs to be changed?
Correct Answer
A. Default gateway
Explanation
The default gateway needs to be changed. The current default gateway address (192.168.1.64) is not within the same subnet as the server's IP address (192.168.1.40/27). The default gateway should be within the same subnet as the server's IP address in order for the server to access the Internet.
11.
Sandy, a technician, is troubleshooting a cable problem. She has checked both ends and suspects
an issue 50 yards (46 meters) from the location. Which of the following network tools will confirm this analysis?
Correct Answer
A. TDR
Explanation
A Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is a network tool used to locate cable faults. It sends a signal down the cable and measures the time it takes for the signal to bounce back. By analyzing the time it takes for the signal to return, Sandy can determine the distance to the cable issue. Therefore, a TDR will confirm her analysis that the issue is 50 yards (46 meters) from the location.
12.
Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?
Correct Answer
A. 192.168.0.255
Explanation
The broadcast address for a network is the address that is used to send a message to all devices on the network. In this case, the network is defined as 192.168.0.0/24, which means it has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The last octet of the network address is all zeros (192.168.0.0), and the last octet of the broadcast address should be all ones. Therefore, the correct broadcast address is 192.168.0.255.
13.
Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into
revealing their methods, and preventing real attacks on the production network?
Correct Answer
B. Honeypot
Explanation
A honeypot is a single computer that is intentionally set up to attract hackers and gather information about their techniques and methods. It is designed to divert their attention from the actual production network, preventing real attacks and minimizing the risk to the organization's valuable assets. The honeypot acts as a decoy, allowing security professionals to monitor and study the hackers' activities, gather intelligence, and enhance the overall security of the network.
14.
Which of the following network performance methods would Sandy, a technician, use with SIP phones?
Correct Answer
C. Qos
Explanation
Sandy, as a technician, would use Quality of Service (QoS) with SIP phones. QoS is a network performance method that prioritizes and manages network traffic to ensure that critical applications, such as voice and video calls, receive the necessary bandwidth and are not affected by other non-priority traffic. By implementing QoS, Sandy can optimize the performance and reliability of SIP phones, ensuring high-quality voice communication.
15.
Which of the following BEST describes the point at which an ISP's responsibility for an Internet
connection ends?
Correct Answer
D. Demarc
Explanation
The term "Demarc" is short for "demarcation point," which is the point where the responsibility of an ISP (Internet Service Provider) for an internet connection ends. It refers to the physical location where the ISP's network ends and the customer's network begins. At this point, the ISP is no longer responsible for the connection and any issues beyond the demarcation point are the customer's responsibility.
16.
After a switch upgrade, several users report no connection to the Internet, while other users report
no problems. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
Correct Answer
D. VLAN port assignments
Explanation
The most likely problem in this scenario is VLAN port assignments. After a switch upgrade, some users are reporting no connection to the Internet while others have no problems. This suggests that the switch may not have been properly configured to assign the correct VLAN ports to the affected users. VLANs are used to segregate network traffic, and if the port assignments are incorrect, it could prevent those users from accessing the Internet.
17.
When examining a suspected faulty copper network cable. Karen, the administrator, notices that
some of the pairs are untwisted too much. This is MOST likely causing which of the following?
Correct Answer
D. Cross-talk
Explanation
When the pairs in a copper network cable are untwisted too much, it can cause cross-talk. Cross-talk refers to the interference between adjacent pairs of wires in the cable. When the pairs are untwisted, the electromagnetic signals from one pair can bleed into the adjacent pairs, leading to signal degradation and potential data transmission errors. Therefore, the excessive untwisting of pairs in a copper network cable is most likely causing cross-talk.
18.
Joe, a network technician, is installing multiple 802.11 g WAPs with the same SSID. Which of the
following channel combinations would allow all three WAPs to operate without interfering with
each other?
Correct Answer
A. 1, 6, 11
Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 6, 11. This is because these channel combinations are non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band. By using these channels, the WAPs can operate without interfering with each other, as they are on different frequencies.
19.
Which of the following capabilities of a firewall allows Kurt, an administrator, to block traffic based
on keywords determined by the company?
Correct Answer
D. Content filter
Explanation
A content filter is a capability of a firewall that allows an administrator to block traffic based on keywords determined by the company. It examines the content of the network traffic and compares it against a set of predefined keywords or patterns. If any match is found, the firewall can block or restrict the traffic. This helps in enforcing the company's security policies and preventing the transmission of sensitive or unauthorized information.
20.
Which of the following ports would Kurt, a technician, need to open on a firewall to allow SSH on
the default port?
Correct Answer
C. 22
Explanation
Kurt would need to open port 22 on the firewall to allow SSH on the default port. SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used for secure remote access to a computer or server. By opening port 22, Kurt would enable incoming SSH connections on the firewall, allowing users to securely access the system using SSH.
21.
Which of the following technologies has different upload and download speeds?
Correct Answer
D. ADSL
Explanation
ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line) is the correct answer because it has different upload and download speeds. ADSL is designed to provide faster download speeds than upload speeds, making it suitable for activities such as browsing the internet, streaming videos, and downloading files. This asymmetry in speeds allows for efficient utilization of the available bandwidth, as most users typically require faster download speeds for consuming content rather than uploading large files. In contrast, technologies like OC12, OC3, and SDSL offer symmetrical upload and download speeds.
22.
Kurt, the network technician, is troubleshooting a network issue by implementing a new security
device. After installing and configuring the device, which of the following steps should he take
NEXT?
Correct Answer
D. Escalate the issue to upper management.
Explanation
After installing and configuring the new security device, Kurt should escalate the issue to upper management. This is because troubleshooting a network issue may require higher-level expertise or resources that Kurt does not have access to. By escalating the issue, Kurt can ensure that it is brought to the attention of those who can provide the necessary support and resources to resolve the problem effectively.
23.
Karen, an administrator, is attempting to connect a laptop to a server via RJ-45 ports on both a
device and a CAT5 patch cable. All of the IP settings have been verified to be correct, yet there is
a connectivity problem. Which of the following would MOST likely fix the IP connectivity problem?
Correct Answer
A. Wires 1, 2 and 3, 6 need to be swapped on one end of the connecting cable.
Explanation
Swapping wires 1, 2 and 3, 6 on one end of the connecting cable would most likely fix the IP connectivity problem. This is because RJ-45 ports use these wires for transmitting and receiving data, and if they are not properly connected, it can cause connectivity issues. By swapping these wires, the connection between the laptop and the server will be established correctly, allowing for proper IP connectivity.
24.
Which of the following is a Class A private IP address?
Correct Answer
A. 4.2.2.2
Explanation
The Class A private IP address range is 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. Therefore, the IP address 10.1.1.45 falls within this range and is a Class A private IP address.
25.
Which of the following defines the purpose of a DHCP scope?
Correct Answer
D. To allocate a preset range of IP addresses available for assignment
Explanation
The purpose of a DHCP scope is to allocate a preset range of IP addresses available for assignment. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network. A DHCP scope defines the range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to devices. By defining a scope, the DHCP server knows which IP addresses are available for assignment and can assign them to devices as needed. This allows for efficient and automatic IP address allocation on a network.
26.
Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over
long fiber links?
Correct Answer
B. MPLS
Explanation
MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a technique used by telecommunications carriers to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links. It allows for the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) and enables the routing of traffic based on labels, improving network performance and efficiency. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is used to segregate traffic within a local area network, while VPN is a secure connection over a public network. PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) is a traditional telephone network.
27.
Sandy, an administrator, wants to limit the wireless guest network traffic to 100Kbps so that
utilization issues do not occur on the company’s T1 Internet access network. Which of the
following optimizations should Sandy implement?
Correct Answer
C. Traffic shaping
Explanation
Sandy should implement traffic shaping in order to limit the wireless guest network traffic to 100Kbps. Traffic shaping is a technique used to control the flow of network traffic by prioritizing certain types of traffic over others. By implementing traffic shaping, Sandy can ensure that the guest network traffic does not exceed the desired limit of 100Kbps, preventing any utilization issues on the company's T1 Internet access network. This will help in maintaining a stable and efficient network connection for all users.
28.
Which of the following tools would Sandy, a technician, BEST use to trace a wire through an area
where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together?
Correct Answer
B. Toner probe
Explanation
A toner probe is the best tool for tracing a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together. A toner probe is used to identify and trace wires by sending a tone through one end of the wire and using the probe to detect the tone at the other end. This allows the technician to accurately locate and trace the specific wire they are looking for, even if it is twisted together with other wires of the same color.
29.
A company only wants preapproved laptops to be able to connect to a wireless access point.
Which of the following should be configured?
Correct Answer
D. MAC filtering
Explanation
MAC filtering should be configured in order to only allow preapproved laptops to connect to the wireless access point. MAC filtering is a security measure that only allows devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to the network. By configuring MAC filtering, the company can create a list of approved MAC addresses for the laptops that are allowed to connect to the wireless access point, ensuring that only preapproved laptops can access the network.
30.
A wireless LAN discovery tool that sends a null probe request to seek out wireless LANs, is a
component of which of the following?
Correct Answer
A. War driving
Explanation
War driving is the correct answer because it involves using a wireless LAN discovery tool to seek out wireless LANs. This process often includes sending null probe requests to detect nearby networks. War driving is typically done with the intention of mapping out the locations of wireless networks for various purposes, such as identifying potential security vulnerabilities or for research purposes.
31.
Joe, a company executive, has noticed that a wireless network signal from the company's WAP
can be seen in the company's parking lot. Joe is very worried that this is a potential security threat.
Which of the following can be done to eliminate this threat?
Correct Answer
B. Decrease signal strength
Explanation
Decreasing the signal strength of the wireless network can help eliminate the potential security threat of the signal being visible in the company's parking lot. By reducing the signal strength, the range of the network will be limited, making it harder for unauthorized individuals to access the network from outside the company's premises. This can help enhance the overall security of the network and protect sensitive information from being compromised.
32.
Karen, a user, took a laptop on vacation and made changes to the configuration in order to use the
device at the hotel. She can reach the Internet, but cannot access any internal network resources.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
Correct Answer
A. Incorrect DNS
Explanation
Karen is able to reach the internet, which suggests that her network connection is functioning properly. However, she is unable to access any internal network resources. This indicates that the issue lies with the DNS (Domain Name System) configuration. DNS is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing devices to connect to specific resources on a network. If Karen's laptop has an incorrect DNS configuration, it will not be able to properly resolve the internal network resources, resulting in the issue she is experiencing.
33.
Karen, a technician, is connecting a new desktop computer to a switch. She was only able to
locate one cable in the office for the installation. The wires at each end are color coded as follows:
End A: orange-white, orange, green-white, blue, blue-white, green, brown-white, brown
End B: green-white, green, orange-white, blue, blue-white, orange, brow-white, brown
Which of the following should Karen do to complete the installation?
Correct Answer
D. Purchase a straight-through cable
Explanation
The given cable has the same color coding on both ends, which means it is a straight-through cable. In order to connect a computer to a switch, a straight-through cable is required. Therefore, Karen should purchase a straight-through cable to complete the installation.
34.
Which of the following identifies the WLAN Joe, a user, is connected to?
Correct Answer
A. SSID
Explanation
The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is a unique name that identifies a wireless network. It is used by devices to connect to a specific WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network). In this case, Joe, the user, is connected to a WLAN, and the SSID is what identifies that specific network. The other options, such as Frequency, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy), and Channel, are not used to identify the WLAN, but rather represent different aspects of wireless networks.
35.
Which of the following describes the purpose of DHCP?
Correct Answer
D. Dynamic assignment of IP addresses.
Explanation
The purpose of DHCP is to dynamically assign IP addresses to devices on a network. DHCP eliminates the need for manual IP configuration, allowing devices to automatically obtain an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration parameters. This simplifies network management and ensures efficient use of IP addresses by allowing them to be reused when devices are no longer connected to the network. DHCP also provides flexibility by allowing IP address leases to be renewed or released, enabling devices to easily join or leave the network without manual intervention.
36.
Joe, a technician, is configuring a wireless access point. Which of the following channels should
he use if the LEAST interference potential is desired?
Correct Answer
A. 1, 6, 11
Explanation
The channels 1, 6, and 11 are the best options for minimizing interference because they are non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band. By using these channels, Joe can ensure that the wireless access point operates on different frequencies and avoids interference from neighboring access points or other devices. This helps to optimize the wireless network performance and stability.
37.
Sandy, an administrator, is responsible for one Linux and two Windows servers. She would like to
review all server logs centrally. Which of the following services could Sandy use in this scenario?
Correct Answer
D. Syslog
Explanation
Sandy, as an administrator responsible for multiple servers, can use the Syslog service to review all server logs centrally. Syslog is a standard protocol used for sending and receiving log messages in a network. It allows logs from different systems to be collected and stored in a central location, making it easier for administrators like Sandy to monitor and analyze server activity. By using Syslog, Sandy can efficiently manage and review logs from both the Linux and Windows servers she oversees.
38.
Which of the following connectors push and twist-on?
Correct Answer
C. ST
Explanation
ST connectors are designed to push and twist-on. This means that when connecting the ST connector, it needs to be pushed into the socket and then twisted to secure it in place. The push and twist-on mechanism ensures a secure and reliable connection between the connector and the socket, minimizing the risk of accidental disconnection. The other connectors mentioned, LC, SC, and RJ-45, do not have a push and twist-on mechanism.
39.
Which of the following network appliances can BEST be described as allowing multiple servers to
share requests for a website through the same public IP address?
Correct Answer
C. Load balancer
Explanation
A load balancer is a network appliance that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers. It helps to distribute the workload evenly among the servers, ensuring that no single server is overwhelmed with requests. In the context of the given question, a load balancer allows multiple servers to share requests for a website through the same public IP address, effectively balancing the traffic and improving the website's performance and availability.
40.
Joe, a customer, has a wireless network and has reported that the network traffic from the wireless
access points seems compared to the limited number of wireless devices used. Joe believes that
other non-employees are using the wireless network to access the Internet. Which of the following
could be used to limit the access to the wireless network? (Select TWO).
Correct Answer(s)
A. WPA encryption
C. MAC filtering
Explanation
WPA encryption can be used to limit access to the wireless network by requiring a password for authentication, preventing unauthorized users from connecting. MAC filtering can also be used to limit access by allowing only specific devices with registered MAC addresses to connect to the network. By enabling both WPA encryption and MAC filtering, Joe can ensure that only authorized devices can access his wireless network.
41.
Which of the following security devices is used in providing packet and MAC address filtering
services for the network?
Correct Answer
B. Network-based firewall
Explanation
A network-based firewall is a security device that is used to provide packet and MAC address filtering services for a network. It examines incoming and outgoing network traffic and applies rules to allow or block specific packets based on their source and destination addresses, protocols, and ports. By filtering packets and MAC addresses, a network-based firewall helps to protect the network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, and other security threats. It acts as a barrier between the internal network and external networks, ensuring that only legitimate and authorized traffic is allowed to pass through.
42.
Which of the following media types will block EMI?
Correct Answer
C. STP
Explanation
STP stands for Shielded Twisted Pair, which is a type of media cable that has a metallic shield around each individual pair of wires. This shielding helps to block electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. Therefore, STP is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to block EMI and ensure better signal quality and reliability in data transmission. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) does not have this shielding, making it more susceptible to EMI. Serial and Non-plenum are not media types and do not provide any EMI blocking capabilities.
43.
Joe, a customer, wants to have wireless network access only in the conference room. He has
placed a WAP in the room, but notices that offices across the hall also receive a wireless signal.
Which of the following could be done together to solve this problem? (Select TWO).
Correct Answer(s)
A. Turn down the signal gain
D. Replace the WAP’s antennas with directional antennas
Explanation
To solve the problem of the wireless signal reaching offices across the hall, two actions can be taken. First, turning down the signal gain will reduce the strength of the signal, limiting its range and preventing it from reaching the offices. Second, replacing the WAP's antennas with directional antennas will allow the signal to be focused in a specific direction, specifically towards the conference room, minimizing signal leakage to other areas. Increasing the encryption method, changing the wireless channel, and disabling the SSID are unrelated to the issue of signal leakage and therefore not applicable in this scenario.
44.
Kurt, a user, is having difficulty connecting a laptop to the company's wireless network. The
technician determines Kurt’s wireless NIC has failed and replaces it. Which of the following
network troubleshooting methodology steps should the technician do NEXT?
Correct Answer
B. Verify full system functionality
Explanation
After replacing Kurt's wireless NIC, the technician should verify the full system functionality. This step is important to ensure that the replacement of the wireless NIC has resolved the issue and that Kurt is now able to connect to the company's wireless network without any difficulty. By verifying the full system functionality, the technician can confirm that the problem has been resolved and that Kurt's laptop is now functioning properly.
45.
Which of the following devices will allow Sandy, a user, to see a cached copy of websites?
Correct Answer
C. Proxy server
Explanation
A proxy server allows users to access cached copies of websites. When a user requests a website, the proxy server retrieves the content from the original server and stores it in its cache. If another user requests the same website, the proxy server can deliver the cached copy instead of retrieving it again from the original server. This improves performance and reduces bandwidth usage. Therefore, a proxy server is the correct device that allows Sandy to see a cached copy of websites.
46.
An organization currently has CAT5e cabling throughout its office. Karen, the network technician,
is troubleshooting a new CAT6 run that supports network traffic, but does not meet specification when tested with a TDR. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
Correct Answer
C. Incorrect termination
Explanation
The most likely cause for the CAT6 run not meeting specification when tested with a TDR is incorrect termination. This means that the connectors or terminations on the CAT6 cable are not properly installed or connected. This can result in signal loss, interference, or other issues that prevent the cable from performing as expected.
47.
Which of the following is a purpose of a VLAN?
Correct Answer
B. Segments broadcast traffic
Explanation
A VLAN, or Virtual Local Area Network, is a network segmentation technique that allows for the creation of multiple virtual networks within a single physical network. One of the main purposes of VLANs is to segment broadcast traffic. By dividing a network into smaller VLANs, broadcast traffic is contained within each VLAN, reducing the overall amount of broadcast traffic on the network and improving network performance and efficiency. This segmentation helps to isolate and control network traffic, enhancing security and network management capabilities.
48.
Which of the following is an authentication, authorization, and accounting method that provides
administrative access to network devices?
Correct Answer
B. TACACS+
Explanation
TACACS+ is an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) method that provides administrative access to network devices. TACACS+ stands for Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus and it is a protocol that separates the authentication, authorization, and accounting processes. It allows network administrators to centrally manage and control access to network devices, ensuring that only authorized users can access and make changes to the devices. TACACS+ provides a high level of security and flexibility, making it a commonly used method for managing network device access.
49.
Which of the following is used to verify configuration updates on a firewall?
Correct Answer
A. Signature identification
Explanation
Signature identification is used to verify configuration updates on a firewall. This involves comparing the signatures or patterns of known malicious activity against the incoming or outgoing traffic to detect and prevent potential threats. By using signature identification, the firewall can ensure that the configuration updates are effective in identifying and blocking any unauthorized or malicious traffic.
50.
Which of the following layers of the OSI model would a NIC operate on?
Correct Answer
A. pHysical
Explanation
A NIC (Network Interface Card) operates on the Physical layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bit streams over a physical medium, such as cables or wireless signals. The NIC handles tasks like encoding and decoding data into electrical or optical signals, as well as handling physical connections and network hardware.