Network+ (N10-004) Quiz I

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Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 1,970
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 140

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Network Plus Quizzes & Trivia

401-450


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    QUESTION NO: 401 Ensuring that data is transmitted securely over an IP network is the main purpose of:

    • A.

      FTP.

    • B.

      TLS

    • C.

      Telnet.

    • D.

      SIP.

    Correct Answer
    B. TLS
    Explanation
    TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that ensures secure communication over an IP network. It provides encryption and authentication mechanisms to protect data transmitted between devices. By using TLS, data is encrypted and decrypted at the endpoints, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted information. This makes TLS the main purpose for securely transmitting data over an IP network.

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  • 2. 

    QUESTION NO: 402 Which of the following ipconfig switches will display when the lease was obtained?

    • A.

      /displaydns

    • B.

      /release

    • C.

      /all

    • D.

      /renew

    Correct Answer
    C. /all
    Explanation
    The correct answer is /all. The /all switch in ipconfig displays all the configuration information for all network connections, including the lease obtained time.

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  • 3. 

    QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following is a topology used in networks for its scalability?

    • A.

      Star

    • B.

      Ring

    • C.

      Bus

    • D.

      Mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology is commonly used in networks for its scalability. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, allowing for easy expansion by simply adding more devices to the network. This topology also provides a high level of fault tolerance, as the failure of one device does not affect the rest of the network. Additionally, the star topology allows for efficient data transmission, as each device has its own dedicated connection to the central hub.

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  • 4. 

    QUESTION NO: 404 Which of the following logs would let the network administrator know that there are performance and network issues within the LAN?

    • A.

      Application logs

    • B.

      Proxy logs

    • C.

      Configuration logs

    • D.

      System logs

    Correct Answer
    D. System logs
    Explanation
    System logs would let the network administrator know about performance and network issues within the LAN. System logs record information about the operating system, network hardware, and software on the network. They provide details about errors, warnings, and other events that can help identify performance and network issues. Application logs, proxy logs, and configuration logs may provide information about specific applications, proxy servers, or network configurations, but they may not provide a comprehensive view of overall performance and network issues within the LAN.

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  • 5. 

    QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following is a benefit of using dynamic routing as opposed to static routing?

    • A.

      More secure

    • B.

      Scales to large networks

    • C.

      Improves network speed

    • D.

      Less network overhead

    Correct Answer
    B. Scales to large networks
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing is a benefit over static routing because it can scale to large networks. In static routing, routes are manually configured and do not adapt to changes in the network. This can become cumbersome and inefficient in large networks where there are frequent changes in network topology. Dynamic routing protocols, on the other hand, automatically update and adapt to changes in the network, making them more suitable for large networks. They can dynamically learn and exchange routing information, making it easier to scale and manage the network effectively.

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  • 6. 

    QUESTION NO: 406 Which of the following tools would be used to verify the wiring installation for the network?

    • A.

      Multimeter

    • B.

      Cable tester

    • C.

      Voltage event recorder

    • D.

      Protocol analyzer

    Correct Answer
    B. Cable tester
    Explanation
    A cable tester is used to verify the wiring installation for a network. It helps to identify any faults or issues in the network cables, such as continuity problems, shorts, or open circuits. By using a cable tester, technicians can ensure that the wiring is properly installed and functioning correctly, which is essential for a reliable network connection. A multimeter is used to measure voltage, resistance, and current, but it is not specifically designed for testing network cables. A voltage event recorder and protocol analyzer are also not used for verifying wiring installation.

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  • 7. 

    QUESTION NO: 407 A network administrator needs to ensure that users are authenticated before they are given access to the network. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?

    • A.

      802.1s

    • B.

      802.1d

    • C.

      802. lx

    • D.

      802.1w

    Correct Answer
    C. 802. lx
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.1x. 802.1x is a protocol that provides port-based authentication for network access. It ensures that users are authenticated before they are granted access to the network. This protocol is commonly used in wired and wireless networks to enforce security measures and prevent unauthorized access.

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  • 8. 

    QUESTION NO: 408 Which of the following is the MOST secure wireless encryption?

    • A.

      ESSID

    • B.

      WPA

    • C.

      WPA2

    • D.

      WEP

    Correct Answer
    C. WPA2
    Explanation
    WPA2 is the most secure wireless encryption because it uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm, which is considered to be highly secure. It provides stronger encryption and better security features compared to WPA and WEP. ESSID is not an encryption method, but rather the name of a wireless network.

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  • 9. 

    QUESTION NO: 409 A network technician is installing a small wireless network. A requirement is that individual users must authenticate using usemames and passwords. Which of the following technologies would support users authenticating with encrypted usenames and passwords?

    • A.

      WPA TLS

    • B.

      64-bit WEP

    • C.

      128-bit WEP

    • D.

      WPA PEAP

    Correct Answer
    D. WPA PEAP
    Explanation
    WPA PEAP (Wi-Fi Protected Access Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) would support users authenticating with encrypted usernames and passwords. PEAP is an authentication protocol that provides an additional layer of security by encrypting the authentication process between the user and the authentication server. This ensures that usernames and passwords are transmitted securely over the wireless network, protecting them from potential eavesdropping or unauthorized access.

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  • 10. 

    QUESTION NO: 410 A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through which of the following types of cable?

    • A.

      Fiber optic

    • B.

      CAT6

    • C.

      25 pair

    • D.

      100 pair

    Correct Answer
    C. 25 pair
    Explanation
    A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through a 25 pair cable. This type of cable is commonly used in telecommunication systems to connect phone lines and other communication devices. It consists of 25 pairs of wires, allowing for multiple connections to be made on a single cable. This makes it a suitable choice for connecting the 66 block, which is a type of punch-down block used for organizing and terminating telephone and data connections.

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  • 11. 

    QUESTION NO: 411 A network administrator wants to ensure that connections between two servers are split according to usage. Which of the following devices can be used to BEST accomplish this?

    • A.

      Content switch

    • B.

      Load balancer

    • C.

      Proxy server

    • D.

      Bandwidth shaper

    Correct Answer
    B. Load balancer
    Explanation
    A load balancer is the best device to accomplish splitting connections between two servers according to usage. Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that the workload is evenly distributed and preventing any single server from being overwhelmed. This helps to optimize performance, improve availability, and prevent server downtime. By intelligently distributing traffic, load balancers can ensure that connections are split based on usage, allowing for efficient resource utilization and improved overall network performance.

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  • 12. 

    QUESTION NO: 412 Which of the following protocols should be used to securely copy a file? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      SFTP

    • B.

      SCP

    • C.

      TFTP

    • D.

      FTP

    • E.

      SNMP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SFTP
    B. SCP
    Explanation
    SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) and SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) should be used to securely copy a file. Both protocols provide secure file transfer over a network, ensuring that the file is transmitted and received securely without any unauthorized access or tampering. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) do not provide the same level of security as SFTP and SCP, making them less suitable for securely copying files. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management, not file transfer.

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  • 13. 

    QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following will have problems functioning if a firewall has been set up to block all UDP traffic?

    • A.

      A server database application

    • B.

      A VoIP device

    • C.

      The Internet

    • D.

      A network printer

    Correct Answer
    B. A VoIP device
    Explanation
    A VoIP device will have problems functioning if a firewall has been set up to block all UDP traffic because UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is commonly used for voice and video communication in VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) systems. Blocking UDP traffic would prevent the VoIP device from sending and receiving voice data, resulting in the inability to make or receive calls.

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  • 14. 

    QUESTION NO: 414 A technician is dispatched to a house where the user reports intermittent problems with their wireless network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of drop-offs?

    • A.

      Cellular phones

    • B.

      Poor cable connection

    • C.

      Cordless phones

    • D.

      Lighting

    Correct Answer
    C. Cordless phones
    Explanation
    Cordless phones are the most likely cause of drop-offs in a wireless network. Cordless phones operate on the same frequency range as Wi-Fi networks, which can cause interference and result in intermittent problems. When a cordless phone is used near a Wi-Fi router, it can disrupt the wireless signal and cause drop-offs in the network connection. Therefore, the presence of cordless phones in the vicinity is the most probable explanation for the reported intermittent issues with the wireless network.

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  • 15. 

    QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following is resistant to crosstalk?

    • A.

      1 OOBase-FX

    • B.

      10GBase-CX

    • C.

      STP

    • D.

      1000Base-T

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 OOBase-FX
    Explanation
    OOBase-FX is resistant to crosstalk because it uses fiber optic cables for data transmission. Fiber optic cables are immune to electromagnetic interference and do not experience crosstalk, which is the interference caused by signals from adjacent cables. This makes OOBase-FX a reliable choice for environments where crosstalk is a concern. 10GBase-CX, STP, and 1000Base-T, on the other hand, use copper cables which are more susceptible to crosstalk.

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  • 16. 

    QUESTION NO: 416 The difference between lOBase-T and 100Base-T is:

    • A.

      100Base-T frames hold more data.

    • B.

      Shorter timing between Ethernet frames.

    • C.

      100Base-T requires STP cabling.

    • D.

      Smaller headers on Ethernet frames.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shorter timing between Ethernet frames.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shorter timing between Ethernet frames." This means that in 100Base-T, the time interval between sending Ethernet frames is shorter compared to lOBase-T. This allows for faster data transmission and improved network performance. The other options mentioned in the question are not relevant to the difference between lOBase-T and 100Base-T.

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  • 17. 

    QUESTION NO: 417 Which of the following tools could an administrator use to determine if a machine was using the correct DNS server? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Ipconfig

    • B.

      Nbtstat

    • C.

      Netstat

    • D.

      Ifconfig

    • E.

      Tracert

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ipconfig
    D. Ifconfig
    Explanation
    An administrator could use the "ipconfig" command on a Windows machine or the "ifconfig" command on a Linux machine to determine if a machine is using the correct DNS server. These commands provide information about the network configuration of the machine, including the DNS server IP address that is being used. By comparing the displayed DNS server IP address with the expected correct DNS server IP address, the administrator can determine if the machine is using the correct DNS server.

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  • 18. 

    QUESTION NO: 418 Which of the following would occur at the application layer of the OSI model?

    • A.

      UDP

    • B.

      FTP

    • C.

      TCP

    • D.

      SPX

    Correct Answer
    B. FTP
    Explanation
    FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that operates at the application layer of the OSI model. It is used for transferring files between a client and a server on a network. FTP provides a set of commands that allow users to upload, download, and manage files on a remote server. It uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data. FTP is commonly used for website maintenance, software updates, and file sharing.

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  • 19. 

    QUESTION NO: 419 Given the following routing table entries, which of the following will the next-hop address be for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203? Network Address Subnet Mask Next Hop Address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.0.5.5 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 66.40.90.121 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 72.40.91.1 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.127 40.40.0.254

    • A.

      40.40.0.254

    • B.

      66.40.90.121

    • C.

      77.0.5.5

    • D.

      72.40.91.1

    Correct Answer
    D. 72.40.91.1
    Explanation
    The next-hop address for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203 would be 72.40.91.1. This is because the given routing table entries show that the destination address falls within the subnet 192.168.1.0/24, and the corresponding next-hop address for this subnet is 72.40.91.1.

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  • 20. 

    QUESTION NO: 420 SMTP resides at which of the following layers of the OSI model?

    • A.

      Transport

    • B.

      Application

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Presentation

    Correct Answer
    B. Application
    Explanation
    SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for sending email messages. It operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. The Application layer is responsible for providing network services to user applications, and SMTP is specifically designed for email communication, making it the correct answer. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and does not directly involve SMTP. The Network and Presentation layers also do not directly relate to SMTP.

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  • 21. 

    QUESTION NO: 421 A host is unable to communicate across a network. From the information below, which of the following is the cause of the issue?Host Name ...............- Test20 Primary Dns Suffix ........... - abc.com Node Type ...............Unknown IP Routing Enabled .................- No WINS Proxy Enabled .................- No DNS Suffix Search List .............- abc.com Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description ........ Physical Address ...... - Broadcom NetXtreme Gigabit Ethernet • 00-00-00-15-Al-DO Dhcp Enabled ........... - No IP Address ................. : 10.0.37.144 Subnet Mask ....... - 255.255.254.0 Default Gateway - 10.0.38.1 DNS Servers ............ .: 10.0.36.5

    • A.

      Subnet mask is incorrect.

    • B.

      IP address is incorrect.

    • C.

      Gateway IP is incorrect.

    • D.

      DNS server address is incorrect.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gateway IP is incorrect.
    Explanation
    The given information shows that the host's IP address is 10.0.37.144 and the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. Since the subnet mask is correct and the IP address is within the same subnet, the issue is not related to the subnet mask or IP address. However, the default gateway IP address is incorrect. The host is unable to communicate across the network because the default gateway is not set correctly.

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  • 22. 

    QUESTION NO: 422 Which of the following is the maximum cable length in a 1000Base-T network?

    • A.

      1,024 meters (3360 feet)

    • B.

      1000 meters (3280 feet)

    • C.

      128 meters (420 feet)

    • D.

      100 meters (328 feet)

    Correct Answer
    D. 100 meters (328 feet)
    Explanation
    In a 1000Base-T network, the maximum cable length is 100 meters (328 feet). This is because 1000Base-T is a type of Ethernet network that uses twisted pair cables, and the maximum length for this type of cable is 100 meters. Beyond this distance, the signal strength and quality may degrade, leading to data transmission issues.

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  • 23. 

    QUESTION NO: 423 After a power outage several switches lose their current configurations, but the core router is still working properly. The switches affected are not able to connect to the network. After further investigation the network administrator is able to identify the affected areas, establish the cause, and escalated the problem. Which of the following would be the NEXT step that the network administrator should do?

    • A.

      Immediately implement a solution.

    • B.

      Meet with the emergency response team to determine the next step.

    • C.

      Create an action plan and solution.

    • D.

      Copy the core routers current configuration to all the affected switches.

    Correct Answer
    C. Create an action plan and solution.
    Explanation
    After identifying the affected areas and establishing the cause of the problem, the network administrator should create an action plan and solution. This step is necessary to address the power outage issue and restore connectivity for the switches. It involves developing a plan of action to rectify the problem and implementing a solution that will enable the affected switches to connect to the network again. This could include reconfiguring the switches, restoring their previous configurations, or implementing any necessary changes to prevent similar issues in the future.

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  • 24. 

    QUESTION NO: 424 100Base-TF uses which of the following types of cabled medium?

    • A.

      Ethernet implementation overThinNet

    • B.

      Ethernet implementation over coaxial

    • C.

      Ethernet implementation overThickNet

    • D.

      Ethernet implementation over fiber

    Correct Answer
    D. Ethernet implementation over fiber
    Explanation
    100Base-TF uses Ethernet implementation over fiber as its cabled medium. This means that it utilizes fiber optic cables to transmit data at a speed of 100 Mbps. Fiber optic cables offer high bandwidth, low latency, and are immune to electromagnetic interference, making them suitable for long-distance and high-speed data transmission.

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  • 25. 

    QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following protocols are used for email traffic? (Select THREE).

    • A.

      SNMP

    • B.

      NTP

    • C.

      POP3

    • D.

      TFTP

    • E.

      IMAP4

    • F.

      SSH

    • G.

      SMTP

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. POP3
    E. IMAP4
    G. SMTP
    Explanation
    POP3, IMAP4, and SMTP are the protocols used for email traffic. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used to receive emails from a mail server to a client device. IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4) is used to access and manage emails on a mail server from multiple devices. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to send emails from a client device to a mail server for delivery to the recipient's mailbox. Therefore, these three protocols are essential for the functioning of email communication.

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  • 26. 

    QUESTION NO: 426 Which of the following is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another?

    • A.

      A layer three switch

    • B.

      A layer two switch

    • C.

      A server with NICs on both VLANs

    • D.

      A layer one switch

    Correct Answer
    A. A layer three switch
    Explanation
    A layer three switch is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another because it operates at the network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model and can perform routing functions. Layer two switches operate at the data link layer and can only forward traffic within the same VLAN. A server with NICs on both VLANs can also pass traffic between VLANs, but it is not the most efficient solution. A layer one switch is not capable of routing or forwarding traffic between VLANs.

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  • 27. 

    QUESTION NO: 427 A user is having connectivity issues at multiple locations when using the RJ-45 port on the laptop. A technician wants to know if the CAT5e cable is the source of the problem. Which of the following should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?

    • A.

      Toner probe

    • B.

      Cable stripper

    • C.

      Protocol analyzer

    • D.

      Cable tester

    Correct Answer
    D. Cable tester
    Explanation
    A cable tester is the most appropriate tool to troubleshoot connectivity issues with a CAT5e cable. It can verify the continuity of the cable and identify any faults or breaks in the wiring. By using a cable tester, the technician can determine if the cable is the source of the problem and take appropriate action to resolve the issue.

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  • 28. 

    QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following address ranges should a network administrator deny in the ACL to prevent multicast packets from crossing the WAN interface?

    • A.

      224.0.0.0-239.255.255.255

    • B.

      127.0.0.0-127.255.255.255

    • C.

      192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255

    • D.

      10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    A. 224.0.0.0-239.255.255.255
    Explanation
    The address range 224.0.0.0-239.255.255.255 should be denied in the ACL to prevent multicast packets from crossing the WAN interface. Multicast addresses are used for one-to-many communication, where a single packet is sent to multiple recipients. By denying this range, the network administrator ensures that multicast traffic is not allowed to cross the WAN interface, limiting it to the local network only. The other address ranges mentioned (127.0.0.0-127.255.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255, and 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255) are not relevant to preventing multicast traffic.

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  • 29. 

    QUESTION NO: 429 After installing a new switch and connecting redundant uplinks to other switches, a LAN experiences a broadcast storm causing severe throughput problems. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the broadcast storm?

    • A.

      VLAN assignments on the new switch conflicted with existing VLAN assignments elsewhere on the network.

    • B.

      Spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN.

    • C.

      Incorrect trunk encapsulation was applied

    • D.

      Port aggregation was incorrectly configured.

    Correct Answer
    B. Spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the broadcast storm is that the spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN. The spanning-tree protocol is used to prevent loops in a network by blocking redundant paths. Without the spanning-tree protocol, multiple paths can be active simultaneously, causing a broadcast storm. This can lead to severe throughput problems as the network becomes flooded with broadcast traffic.

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  • 30. 

    QUESTION NO: 430 Which of the following routing protocols has a limitation of 15 hops?

    • A.

      OSPF

    • B.

      RIP

    • C.

      IGRP

    • D.

      BGP

    Correct Answer
    B. RIP
    Explanation
    RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is the correct answer because it has a limitation of 15 hops. RIP uses hop count as the metric to determine the best path for routing. A hop refers to each network device that a packet must pass through to reach its destination. Therefore, RIP is not suitable for large networks with more than 15 hops as it may result in routing loops and inefficient routing decisions. OSPF, IGRP, and BGP do not have this limitation.

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  • 31. 

    QUESTION NO: 431 Which of the following is the default port for HTTPS?

    • A.

      143

    • B.

      443

    • C.

      80

    • D.

      8080

    Correct Answer
    B. 443
    Explanation
    The default port for HTTPS is 443. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the secure version of HTTP, which is used to transmit data securely over the internet. By default, HTTPS uses port 443 for communication between the server and the client. This port is specifically designated for secure web communication and is widely used for secure online transactions, sensitive data transfers, and secure browsing.

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  • 32. 

    QUESTION NO: 432 An administrator is going to be performing maintenance on a network router and wants to temporarily re-route traffic through another office. Which of the following would allow the administrator to accomplish this?

    • A.

      Configure a static route.

    • B.

      Configure EGP.

    • C.

      Implement NAT on the server.

    • D.

      Implement steady state convergence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure a static route.
    Explanation
    Configuring a static route allows the administrator to manually specify the path that network traffic should take. By configuring a static route, the administrator can redirect traffic through another office temporarily during maintenance on a network router. This ensures that the traffic is routed correctly and reaches its intended destination. EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol) is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems, not for temporarily re-routing traffic. Implementing NAT (Network Address Translation) on the server is used for translating IP addresses between different networks, not for re-routing traffic. Implementing steady state convergence is a term that does not relate to re-routing traffic.

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  • 33. 

    QUESTION NO: 433 A technician pings 127.0.0.1 and gets the following result: Unable to contact IP driver, en-or code 2.Which of the following would resolve this?

    • A.

      Flush the DNS Cache.

    • B.

      Install NetBEUI.

    • C.

      Release the IP Address.

    • D.

      Install the TCP/IP protocol.

    Correct Answer
    D. Install the TCP/IP protocol.
    Explanation
    The ping result "Unable to contact IP driver, error code 2" indicates that the computer is missing the TCP/IP protocol, which is necessary for communication over the internet. To resolve this issue, the technician should install the TCP/IP protocol. This will enable the computer to establish an IP connection and successfully ping the specified IP address (127.0.0.1). Flushing the DNS cache, installing NetBEUI, or releasing the IP address would not address the underlying problem of the missing TCP/IP protocol.

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  • 34. 

    QUESTION NO: 434 A corporate office network has 40 computers all in the same private IP subnet. The corporate office has purchased an Internet connection from their local ISP. They were assigned one static public IP address, and all 40 computers will require access to the Internet. How can this be accomplished?

    • A.

      DHCP will assign addresses capable of accessing the Internet.

    • B.

      The use of static NAT will allow access to the Internet.

    • C.

      PAT will allow access to the Internet.

    • D.

      Supernetting will allow access to the Internet.

    Correct Answer
    C. PAT will allow access to the Internet.
    Explanation
    PAT (Port Address Translation) will allow access to the Internet for all 40 computers in the corporate office network. PAT is a type of Network Address Translation (NAT) that allows multiple private IP addresses to be translated to a single public IP address, using different port numbers to distinguish between the different connections. This allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address, enabling them to access the Internet. Therefore, by implementing PAT, all 40 computers in the corporate office network can access the Internet using the single static public IP address assigned by the ISP.

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  • 35. 

    QUESTION NO: 435 A user is experiencing slow connections. Which of the following commands would be used to determine the delay time between the hops?

    • A.

      Tracert

    • B.

      Nbtstat

    • C.

      Nslookup

    • D.

      Ping

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracert
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "tracert" because the tracert command is used to trace the route that packets take from the source to the destination. It shows the delay time (also known as latency) between each hop along the route, allowing the user to identify any potential bottlenecks or slow connections. This can help in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and determining the cause of slow connections.

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  • 36. 

    QUESTION NO: 436 A technician is troubleshooting a network data transmission issue. Which of the following commands would the technician be able to use to identify the location of the packet loss?

    • A.

      Ipconfig

    • B.

      Traceroute

    • C.

      Ping

    • D.

      Arp

    Correct Answer
    B. Traceroute
    Explanation
    The technician would be able to use the "traceroute" command to identify the location of the packet loss. Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that helps identify the path taken by packets from the source to the destination. It shows the IP addresses of the routers or switches that the packets pass through, allowing the technician to identify any potential points of failure or packet loss along the route. This command is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and locate the source of problems.

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  • 37. 

    QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following punch down blocks is BEST suited for high-speed data transmission?

    • A.

      66 block

    • B.

      Cross-connect block

    • C.

      110 block

    • D.

      25 pair cable block

    Correct Answer
    C. 110 block
    Explanation
    The 110 block is the best suited for high-speed data transmission because it provides a reliable and efficient connection. It uses a spring-loaded mechanism to ensure proper contact with the wires, reducing the risk of signal interference and maintaining a consistent and stable connection. Additionally, the 110 block is designed to handle higher frequencies and data rates, making it ideal for high-speed data transmission. The other options, such as the 66 block, cross-connect block, and 25 pair cable block, may not provide the same level of performance and reliability for high-speed data transmission.

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  • 38. 

    QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following protocols is used by several different operating systems to authenticate resources such as computers, users and printers?

    • A.

      LDAP

    • B.

      SMTP

    • C.

      TCP

    • D.

      UDP

    Correct Answer
    A. LDAP
    Explanation
    LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a protocol used by various operating systems to authenticate resources such as computers, users, and printers. LDAP is commonly used in network directories, such as Active Directory, to manage and access information about network resources. It allows for centralized authentication and authorization, making it easier to manage user access to resources across different operating systems. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for email communication, TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) are transport layer protocols used for data transmission.

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  • 39. 

    QUESTION NO: 439 Which of the following will prevent unauthorized access to the server room?

    • A.

      Biometric lock

    • B.

      PICT card

    • C.

      Cable lock

    • D.

      RSA token

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometric lock
    Explanation
    A biometric lock will prevent unauthorized access to the server room because it uses unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints or iris scans, to grant access. This ensures that only authorized individuals with registered biometric data can enter the server room, making it highly secure and difficult for unauthorized personnel to gain entry.

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  • 40. 

    QUESTION NO: 440 QoS is used to accomplish which of the following objectives?

    • A.

      Block traffic from certain websites

    • B.

      Block traffic from certain users.

    • C.

      Provide priority of one or more types of traffic over others.

    • D.

      Make use of the current bandwidth so it is a constant preset ideal by caching traffic.

    Correct Answer
    C. Provide priority of one or more types of traffic over others.
    Explanation
    QoS, or Quality of Service, is a network management technique that is used to prioritize certain types of traffic over others. This allows for the efficient allocation of network resources and ensures that critical or high-priority traffic, such as voice or video data, receives preferential treatment and is not affected by congestion or delays caused by lower-priority traffic. QoS does not involve blocking traffic from certain websites or users, nor does it involve caching traffic to make use of the current bandwidth. Its primary objective is to provide priority to specific types of traffic.

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  • 41. 

    QUESTION NO: 441 Which of the following network components operates on Layer 2 of the OSI model?

    • A.

      Gateway

    • B.

      Router

    • C.

      Switch

    • D.

      Hub

    Correct Answer
    C. Switch
    Explanation
    A switch operates on Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2, also known as the Data Link Layer, is responsible for transferring data between adjacent network nodes. A switch is a networking device that receives data packets and forwards them to their intended destination based on the MAC address. It creates a network by connecting multiple devices together and allows them to communicate with each other. Unlike routers or gateways, switches do not make decisions based on IP addresses, making them a Layer 2 device.

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  • 42. 

    QUESTION NO: 442 Which of the following authentication methods uses public and private keys to secure communication and ensure the senders identity?

    • A.

      CHAP

    • B.

      EAP

    • C.

      PKI

    • D.

      Kerberos

    Correct Answer
    C. PKI
    Explanation
    PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is an authentication method that uses public and private keys to secure communication and ensure the sender's identity. In PKI, each user has a pair of keys - a public key that is shared with others and a private key that is kept confidential. When a sender wants to communicate securely, they use their private key to encrypt the message, and the recipient uses the sender's public key to decrypt it. This ensures that only the intended recipient can read the message and verifies the sender's identity.

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  • 43. 

    QUESTION NO: 443 In a Class A subnet, a Host ID may occupy a maximum of:

    • A.

      32bits.

    • B.

      31bits.

    • C.

      24bits.

    • D.

      16bits.

    Correct Answer
    C. 24bits.
    Explanation
    In a Class A subnet, the IP address is divided into three parts: the network ID, the subnet ID, and the host ID. The network ID is represented by the first 8 bits, leaving 24 bits for the host ID. This means that the host ID can occupy a maximum of 24 bits in a Class A subnet.

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  • 44. 

    QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?

    • A.

      Hub

    • B.

      WAP

    • C.

      Router

    • D.

      Switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Hub
    Explanation
    A hub allows the most network traffic collisions because it operates in a shared environment where all devices connected to it share the same bandwidth. When multiple devices try to transmit data simultaneously, collisions occur, resulting in slower network performance. Unlike switches or routers, hubs do not have the ability to direct traffic to specific devices, leading to a higher likelihood of collisions.

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  • 45. 

    QUESTION NO: 445 Which of the following is the maximum range of 10GBase-SR?

    • A.

      1000 feet (305 meters)

    • B.

      6 miles (1593 kilometers)

    • C.

      990 feet (302 meters)

    • D.

      328 feet (100 meters)

    Correct Answer
    C. 990 feet (302 meters)
    Explanation
    The maximum range of 10GBase-SR is 990 feet (302 meters). This means that the 10GBase-SR Ethernet standard can transmit data up to a distance of 990 feet or 302 meters.

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  • 46. 

    QUESTION NO: 446 Which of the following BEST explains the purpose of a DMZ?

    • A.

      To separate a security zone for an IPS.

    • B.

      To separate a security zone for a VPN.

    • C.

      To create a security zone that allows private traffic but is isolated from the public network.

    • D.

      To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private network.

    Correct Answer
    D. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private network.
    Explanation
    A DMZ, or Demilitarized Zone, is a network segment that acts as a buffer zone between the public internet and a private network. It is designed to provide a secure area where public-facing servers and services can be placed, allowing public traffic to access them while isolating them from the private network. This helps protect the internal network from potential attacks or compromises that may originate from the public network.

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  • 47. 

    QUESTION NO: 447 Which of the following network protocols allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices?

    • A.

      SMTP

    • B.

      SNMP

    • C.

      IGMP

    • D.

      TLS

    Correct Answer
    B. SNMP
    Explanation
    SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a network protocol that allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices. SNMP enables network administrators to monitor and manage network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers, by collecting and organizing information about these devices. It allows for the generation of automated alerts and reports based on the collected data, providing valuable insights into the health and performance of the network. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is primarily used for sending and receiving emails, while IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is used for managing multicast group memberships. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol used for secure communication over a network.

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  • 48. 

    QUESTION NO: 448 Which of the following security mitigation techniques is the MOST effective against zero-day attacks?

    • A.

      MAC filtering

    • B.

      User awareness training

    • C.

      Update antivirus definitions

    • D.

      Effective security policies

    Correct Answer
    B. User awareness training
    Explanation
    User awareness training is the most effective security mitigation technique against zero-day attacks. Zero-day attacks exploit vulnerabilities that are unknown to the software vendor, making them difficult to detect and defend against using traditional security measures. User awareness training educates users about the risks and best practices for online security, helping them to recognize and avoid suspicious emails, links, and downloads. By empowering users to make informed decisions and be cautious of potential threats, user awareness training can significantly reduce the likelihood of falling victim to zero-day attacks.

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  • 49. 

    QUESTION NO: 449 A power outage occurred over the weekend and on Monday morning the helpdesk was receiving calls about network issues from only one section of the LAN. A network administrator has implemented the solution and identified all the results. After all the network issues were resolved, what would be the NEXT step for that network administrator?

    • A.

      Identify potential effects of the solution.

    • B.

      Document the entire process.

    • C.

      Let all users within the LAN know what the problem was.

    • D.

      Determine if anything has changed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Document the entire process.
    Explanation
    After resolving all the network issues, the next step for the network administrator would be to document the entire process. This is important for future reference and troubleshooting purposes. By documenting the process, the network administrator can create a record of the steps taken to resolve the issues, which can be helpful in case similar problems occur in the future. Additionally, documenting the process can also aid in knowledge sharing and training of other IT staff members.

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  • 50. 

    QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following network devices is required to translate a synchronous serial connection to time division multiplexed connection?

    • A.

      A proxy server

    • B.

      A CSU/DSU

    • C.

      A content switch

    • D.

      A router

    Correct Answer
    B. A CSU/DSU
    Explanation
    A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is required to translate a synchronous serial connection to a time division multiplexed connection. A CSU/DSU is a network device that connects a router to a digital circuit, such as a T1 or T3 line. It provides the necessary conversion between the synchronous serial signal used by the router and the time division multiplexed signal used by the digital circuit. This allows for the transmission of data over the digital circuit in a format that is compatible with the router.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 28, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rich70
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