Network + Practice Test 5

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Ensuring that data is transmitted securely over an IP network is the main purpose of:

    • FTP
    • TLS
    • Telnet
    • SIP
Please wait...
About This Quiz


Network + Practice Test 5 is a quiz with short questions with multiple-choice answers to choose from. If you think you have what it takes and are well versed with the networking knowledge, take it up.

Network + Practice Test 5 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following ipconfig switches will display when the lease was obtained?

    • /displaydns

    • /release

    • /all

    • /renew

    Correct Answer
    A. /all
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "/all" because the "/all" switch in the ipconfig command displays detailed information about all network connections, including the lease information. This includes the date and time when the lease was obtained, allowing the user to see when their network connection was established.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is a topology used in networks for its scalability?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Bus

    • Mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology is used in networks for its scalability because it allows for easy addition or removal of devices without affecting the rest of the network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This makes it easier to expand the network by simply adding more devices to the hub. Additionally, if one device fails, it does not affect the rest of the network, as each device has its own dedicated connection to the central hub.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following logs would let the network administrator know that there are performance and network issues within the LAN?

    • Application logs

    • Proxy logs

    • Configuration logs

    • System logs

    Correct Answer
    A. System logs
    Explanation
    System logs would provide information about the overall performance and network issues within the LAN. These logs record events and activities related to the operating system, hardware, and network components. By analyzing system logs, the network administrator can identify any errors, warnings, or anomalies that may be affecting the performance of the LAN. This can include issues such as network connectivity problems, resource utilization, or system crashes. Therefore, system logs are a valuable source of information for diagnosing and troubleshooting performance and network issues within the LAN.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is a benefit of using dynamic routing as opposed to static routing?

    • More secure

    • Scales to large networks

    • Improves network speed

    • Less network overhead

    Correct Answer
    A. Scales to large networks
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing is a benefit over static routing because it can scale to large networks. Static routing requires manually configuring each router with the specific routes, which becomes impractical and time-consuming in large networks. Dynamic routing protocols, on the other hand, automatically exchange routing information between routers, allowing them to dynamically update and adapt to changes in the network topology. This scalability enables dynamic routing to efficiently handle large networks without the need for manual configuration updates.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following tools would be used to verify the wiring installation for the network?

    • Multimeter

    • Cable tester

    • Voltage event recorder

    • Protocol analyzer

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable tester
    Explanation
    A cable tester is used to verify the wiring installation for a network. It is a tool designed to test the integrity of network cables, ensuring that they are properly connected and functioning correctly. It can detect faults such as open circuits, short circuits, and incorrect wiring configurations. By using a cable tester, network technicians can quickly identify and troubleshoot any issues with the wiring installation, ensuring reliable network connectivity.

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  • 7. 

    A network administrator needs to ensure that users are authenticated before they are given access to the network. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?

    • 802.1s

    • 802.1d

    • 802.1x

    • 802.1w

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.1x
    Explanation
    802.1x is the best option to ensure user authentication before granting network access. This protocol provides port-based network access control, allowing users to authenticate themselves before being allowed onto the network. It supports various authentication methods such as EAP, RADIUS, and LDAP, providing flexibility for different network environments. 802.1s, 802.1d, and 802.1w are not specifically designed for user authentication, making them less suitable for this requirement.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the MOST secure wireless encryption?

    • ESSID

    • WPA

    • WPA2

    • WEP

    Correct Answer
    A. WPA2
    Explanation
    WPA2 is the most secure wireless encryption among the options given. WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is the successor to WPA and provides stronger security measures. It uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm, which is considered highly secure and difficult to crack. WPA2 also supports stronger authentication methods, such as the use of digital certificates, making it more resistant to unauthorized access and attacks compared to other encryption methods like WEP or WPA.

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  • 9. 

    A network technician is installing a small wireless network. A requirement is that individual users must authenticate using usernames and passwords. Which of the following technologies would support users authenticating with encrypted usernames and passwords?

    • WPA TLS

    • 64-bit WEP

    • 128-bit WEP

    • WPA PEAP

    Correct Answer
    A. WPA PEAP
    Explanation
    WPA PEAP would support users authenticating with encrypted usernames and passwords. PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) is an authentication protocol that provides secure authentication for wireless networks. It encrypts the usernames and passwords during the authentication process, ensuring that they are protected from unauthorized access. This makes it a suitable choice for the network technician to meet the requirement of secure authentication for individual users.

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  • 10. 

    A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through which of the following types of cable?

    • Fiber optic

    • CAT6

    • 25 pair

    • 100 pair

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 pair
    Explanation
    A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through a 25 pair cable. This type of cable is commonly used for telephone systems and consists of 25 pairs of wires, allowing for multiple phone lines to be connected.

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  • 11. 

    A network administrator wants to ensure that connections between two servers are split according to usage. Which of the following devices can be used to BEST accomplish this?

    • Content switch

    • Load balancer

    • Proxy server

    • Bandwidth shaper

    Correct Answer
    A. Load balancer
    Explanation
    A load balancer is the best device to accomplish splitting connections between two servers according to usage. Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that each server receives an equal share of the workload. This helps to optimize performance, improve availability, and prevent any single server from becoming overwhelmed with traffic. By evenly distributing the connections, a load balancer can effectively balance the load and ensure efficient utilization of server resources.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following protocols should be used to securely copy a file? (Select TWO).

    • SFTP

    • SCP

    • TFTP

    • FTP

    • SNMP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SFTP
    A. SCP
    Explanation
    SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) and SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) should be used to securely copy a file. Both protocols provide secure and encrypted file transfer over a network. SFTP is an extension of the SSH protocol and uses SSH for authentication and encryption. SCP is also based on SSH and allows secure copying of files between hosts on a network. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) do not provide encryption and are not secure for file transfers. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network monitoring and management, not for file transfer.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following will have problems functioning if a firewall has been set up to block all UDP traffic?

    • A server database application

    • A VoIP device

    • The Internet

    • A network printer

    Correct Answer
    A. A VoIP device
    Explanation
    A VoIP device relies heavily on UDP (User Datagram Protocol) for transmitting real-time audio and video data. UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not require handshaking or error-checking, making it ideal for time-sensitive applications like VoIP. If a firewall blocks all UDP traffic, the VoIP device will not be able to establish and maintain connections, resulting in problems with its functioning. Therefore, a VoIP device will have problems functioning if a firewall blocks all UDP traffic.

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  • 14. 

    A technician is dispatched to a house where the user reports intermittent problems with their wireless network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of dropoffs?

    • Cellular phones

    • Poor cable connection

    • Cordless phones

    • Lighting

    Correct Answer
    A. Cordless phones
    Explanation
    Cordless phones are the most likely cause of dropoffs in the wireless network. Cordless phones operate on the same frequency range as Wi-Fi networks, which can cause interference and disrupt the wireless signal. This interference can lead to intermittent problems and dropoffs in the network connection.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is resistant to crosstalk?

    • 100Base-FX

    • 10GBase-CX

    • STP

    • 1000Base-T

    Correct Answer
    A. 100Base-FX
    Explanation
    100Base-FX is resistant to crosstalk because it uses fiber optic cables for data transmission. Fiber optic cables are not susceptible to electromagnetic interference, which helps to prevent crosstalk. In contrast, 10GBase-CX, STP, and 1000Base-T use copper cables, which are more prone to crosstalk.

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  • 16. 

    The difference between 10Base-T and 100Base-T is:

    • 100Base-T frames hold more data

    • Shorter timing between Ethernet frames

    • 100Base-T requires STP cabling

    • Smaller headers on Ethernet frames

    Correct Answer
    A. Shorter timing between Ethernet frames
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shorter timing between Ethernet frames". This means that in 100Base-T, the time interval between the transmission of Ethernet frames is shorter compared to 10Base-T. This allows for faster data transfer and improves the overall performance of the network.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following tools could an administrator use to determine if a machine was using the correct DNS server? (Select TWO).

    • Ipconfig

    • Nbtstat

    • Netstat

    • Ifconfig

    • Tracert

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ipconfig
    A. Ifconfig
    Explanation
    An administrator can use the ipconfig tool on Windows or the ifconfig tool on Linux to determine if a machine is using the correct DNS server. These tools display the network configuration information, including the DNS server IP addresses that the machine is currently using. By comparing the displayed DNS server IP addresses with the expected or correct DNS server IP addresses, the administrator can verify if the machine is using the correct DNS server.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following would occur at the application layer of the OSI model?

    • UDP

    • FTP

    • TCP

    • SPX

    Correct Answer
    A. FTP
    Explanation
    FTP (File Transfer Protocol) would occur at the application layer of the OSI model. The application layer is responsible for providing network services to the user and FTP is a protocol that allows for the transfer of files between systems over a network. It provides a way for users to access and manipulate files on a remote computer. Therefore, FTP is the correct answer as it operates at the application layer of the OSI model.

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  • 19. 

    Given the following routing table entries, which of the following will the next-hop address be for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203?Network Address Subnet Mask Next Hop Address0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.0.5.5 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 66.40.90.121 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 72.40.91.1 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.127 40.40.0.254

    • 40.40.0.254

    • 66.40.90.121

    • 77.0.5.5

    • 72.40.91.1

    Correct Answer
    A. 72.40.91.1
    Explanation
    The next-hop address for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203 will be 72.40.91.1. This is because the routing table entry with the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 matches the destination address 192.168.1.203, and the corresponding next-hop address for this entry is 72.40.91.1.

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  • 20. 

    SMTP resides at which of the following layers of the OSI model?

    • Transport

    • Application

    • Network

    • Presentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Application
    Explanation
    SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for sending email messages over a network. It operates at the application layer of the OSI model. The application layer is responsible for providing network services to the user and enables communication between applications. SMTP is specifically designed for the application layer as it handles the transfer of email messages between mail servers and clients.

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  • 21. 

    A host is unable to communicate across a network. From the information below, which of the following is the cause of the issue?Host Name . . . . .. . . . . . . : Test20 Primary Dns Suffix . . . . . .. : abc.com Node Type . . . . .. . . . . . . : Unknown IP Routing Enabled. . . . . . . . : No WINS Proxy Enabled. . . . . . . . : No DNS Suffix Search List. . . . . . : abc.com Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connectionspecific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . .. . . . . . : Broadcom NetXtreme Gigabit Ethernet Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00000015A1D0 Dhcp Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : No IP Address. . . . . . . . . . . .: 10.0.37.144 Subnet Mask . . .. . . . . . . . : 255.255.254.0 Default Gateway . . .. . . . . . : 10.0.38.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . .. : 10.0.36.5

    • Subnet mask is incorrect

    • IP address is incorrect

    • Gateway IP is incorrect.

    • DNS server address is incorrect

    Correct Answer
    A. Gateway IP is incorrect.
    Explanation
    The given information shows that the host has an IP address of 10.0.37.144 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is listed as 10.0.38.1. Since the subnet mask and IP address are correct, the issue is most likely with the gateway IP. The gateway IP should be on the same network as the host's IP address, but in this case, it is on a different network. This means that the host cannot communicate with devices outside of its network, causing the issue.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is the maximum cable length in a 1000Base-T network?

    • 1,024 meters (3360 feet)

    • 1000 meters (3280 feet)

    • 128 meters (420 feet)

    • 100 meters (328 feet)

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 meters (328 feet)
    Explanation
    The maximum cable length in a 1000Base-T network is 100 meters (328 feet). This is because 1000Base-T is a type of Ethernet technology that uses twisted pair cables, and the maximum length for these cables is 100 meters. Going beyond this length can result in signal degradation and loss of network performance.

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  • 23. 

    After a power outage several switches lose their current configurations, but the core router is still working properly. The switches affected are not able to connect to the network. After further investigation the network administrator is able to identify the affected areas, establish the cause, and escalated the problem. Which of the following would be the NEXT step that the network administrator should do?

    • Immediately implement a solution.

    • Meet with the emergency response team to determine the next step

    • Create an action plan and solution

    • Copy the core routers current configuration to all the affected switches

    Correct Answer
    A. Create an action plan and solution
    Explanation
    After identifying the affected areas and establishing the cause of the problem, the network administrator should create an action plan and solution. This step is crucial in order to address the issue systematically and effectively. It allows the administrator to outline the necessary steps to resolve the problem and ensure that all necessary resources and actions are coordinated. Meeting with the emergency response team and implementing a solution immediately may be premature without first creating a comprehensive plan. Copying the core router's configuration to the affected switches may not address the root cause of the problem.

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  • 24. 

    100Base-TF uses which of the following types of cabled medium ?

    • Ethernet implementation overThinNet

    • Ethernet implementation over coaxial

    • Ethernet implementation overThickNet

    • Ethernet implementation over fiber

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethernet implementation over fiber
    Explanation
    100Base-TF uses Ethernet implementation over fiber as its cabled medium. This means that it uses fiber optic cables to transmit data. Fiber optic cables are made of glass or plastic fibers that can transmit data at high speeds over long distances. They are known for their high bandwidth, low latency, and resistance to electromagnetic interference. This makes them suitable for high-performance networking applications.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following protocols are used for email traffic? (Select THREE).

    • POP3

    • TFTP

    • IMAP4

    • SSH

    • SMTP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. POP3
    A. IMAP4
    A. SMTP
    Explanation
    POP3, IMAP4, and SMTP are all protocols used for email traffic. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is a protocol used to retrieve emails from a mail server. IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4) is a protocol used to access and manage emails on a mail server. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used to send emails from a client to a mail server for delivery to the recipient's email server. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) and SSH (Secure Shell) are not specifically used for email traffic.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another?

    • A layer three switch

    • A layer two switch

    • A server with NICs on both VLANs

    • A layer one switch

    Correct Answer
    A. A layer three switch
    Explanation
    A layer three switch is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another because it operates at the network layer and can route traffic between different networks or VLANs. A layer two switch operates at the data link layer and can only switch traffic within the same VLAN. A server with NICs on both VLANs can also pass traffic between VLANs, but it is not the most efficient solution. A layer one switch operates at the physical layer and does not have the capability to route or switch traffic between VLANs.

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  • 27. 

    A user is having connectivity issues at multiple locations when using the RJ-45 port on the laptop. A technician wants to know if the CAT5e cable is the source of the problem. Which of the following should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?

    • Toner probe

    • Cable stripper

    • Protocol analyzer

    • Cable tester

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable tester
    Explanation
    To troubleshoot the connectivity issues with the RJ-45 port, the technician should use a cable tester. A cable tester is a tool used to check the integrity and functionality of network cables. By connecting the CAT5e cable to the tester, the technician can verify if the cable is the source of the problem. The tester will check for continuity, proper wiring, and potential faults in the cable, helping to identify if the cable is causing the connectivity issues at multiple locations.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following address ranges should a network administrator deny in the ACL to prevent multicast packets from crossing the WAN interface?

    • 224.0.0.0239.255.255.255

    • 127.0.0.0127.255.255.255

    • 192.168.0.0192.168.255.255

    • 10.0.0.010.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    A. 224.0.0.0239.255.255.255
    Explanation
    The address range 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 is reserved for multicast addresses. Multicast packets are used to send data to multiple hosts simultaneously, and they are typically used within a local network. In order to prevent multicast packets from crossing the WAN interface, the network administrator should deny this address range in the ACL.

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  • 29. 

    After installing a new switch and connecting redundant uplinks to other switches, a LAN experiences a broadcast storm causing severe throughput problems. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the broadcast storm?

    • VLAN assignments on the new switch conflicted with existing VLAN assignments elsewhere on the network.

    • Spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN.

    • Incorrect trunk encapsulation was applied

    • Port aggregation was incorrectly configured

    Correct Answer
    A. Spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the broadcast storm is that the spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN. Spanning-tree protocol is used to prevent loops in a network by blocking redundant paths. Without the spanning-tree protocol, the redundant uplinks created a loop, causing the broadcast storm and severe throughput problems.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following routing protocols has a limitation of 15 hops?

    • OSPF

    • RIP

    • IGRP

    • BGP

    Correct Answer
    A. RIP
    Explanation
    RIP (Routing Information Protocol) has a limitation of 15 hops. This means that RIP can only support a maximum network diameter of 15 hops, beyond which it will not be able to effectively route packets. RIP uses hop count as the metric to determine the best path for routing, and a hop count of 16 or higher is considered unreachable. Therefore, RIP is not suitable for large networks with a diameter greater than 15 hops.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the default port for HTTPS?

    • 143

    • 443

    • 80

    • 8080

    Correct Answer
    A. 443
    Explanation
    The default port for HTTPS is 443. HTTPS is the secure version of HTTP, and it uses a different port (443) to ensure encrypted communication between the client and the server. This port is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as online banking or shopping, as it provides a secure connection and protects sensitive information from being intercepted or tampered with.

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  • 32. 

    An administrator is going to be performing maintenance on a network router and wants to temporarily reroute traffic through another office. Which of the following would allow the administrator to accomplish this?

    • Configure a static route.

    • Configure EGP

    • Implement NAT on the server

    • Implement steady state convergence

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure a static route.
    Explanation
    A static route allows the administrator to manually configure the path that network traffic should take. By configuring a static route, the administrator can specify that traffic should be rerouted through another office temporarily during maintenance on a network router. This allows for flexibility and control over the network traffic flow without relying on dynamic routing protocols.

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  • 33. 

    A technician pings 127.0.0.1 and gets the following result: Unable to contact IP driver, error code 2.Which of the following would resolve this?

    • Flush the DNS Cache

    • Install NetBEUI

    • Release the IP Address

    • Install the TCP/IP protocol

    Correct Answer
    A. Install the TCP/IP protocol
    Explanation
    Installing the TCP/IP protocol would resolve the issue because the error message suggests that the IP driver is not functioning properly. The TCP/IP protocol is responsible for communication over the internet and is essential for the IP driver to work correctly. By installing the TCP/IP protocol, the technician can ensure that the necessary components for IP communication are in place, resolving the error code 2.

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  • 34. 

    A corporate office network has 40 computers all in the same private IP subnet. The corporate office has purchased an Internet connection from their local ISP. They were assigned one static public IP address, and all 40 computers will require access to the Internet. How can this be accomplished?

    • DHCP will assign addresses capable of accessing the Internet

    • The use of static NAT will allow access to the Internet

    • PAT will allow access to the Internet

    • Supernetting will allow access to the Internet

    Correct Answer
    A. PAT will allow access to the Internet
    Explanation
    PAT (Port Address Translation) is a method of translating private IP addresses to a single public IP address. It allows multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address, enabling them to access the Internet. In this scenario, since the corporate office has only one static public IP address, PAT would be the appropriate solution to provide Internet access to all 40 computers on the network.

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  • 35. 

    A user is experiencing slow connections. Which of the following commands would be used to determine the delay time between the hops?

    • Tracert

    • Nbtstat

    • Nslookup

    • Ping

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracert
    Explanation
    Tracert is the correct command to determine the delay time between the hops. Tracert stands for "trace route" and it is used to trace the route that packets take from the source to the destination. It shows the IP addresses of the routers or hops that the packets pass through and also provides information about the time it takes for each hop. By analyzing the delay time between hops, the user can identify any network congestion or latency issues that may be causing the slow connections.

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  • 36. 

    A technician is troubleshooting a network data transmission issue. Which of the following commands would the technician be able to use to identify the location of the packet loss?

    • Ipconfig

    • Traceroute

    • Ping

    • Arp

    Correct Answer
    A. Traceroute
    Explanation
    The technician would be able to use the "traceroute" command to identify the location of the packet loss. Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that shows the path taken by packets from the source to the destination. It displays the IP addresses of the routers along the path and the round-trip time for each hop. By analyzing the traceroute results, the technician can determine where the packet loss is occurring and troubleshoot the network issue accordingly.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following punch down blocks is BEST suited for high-speed data transmission?

    • 66 block

    • Cross-connect block

    • 110 block

    • 25 pair cable block

    Correct Answer
    A. 110 block
    Explanation
    The 110 block is the best suited for high-speed data transmission. This type of punch down block is specifically designed for use with Category 5 or higher Ethernet cables, which are commonly used for high-speed data transmission. The 110 block provides better performance and reliability compared to other punch down blocks, making it the ideal choice for transmitting data at high speeds.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following protocols is used by several different operating systems to authenticate resources such as computers, users and printers?

    • LDAP

    • SMTP

    • TCP

    • UDP

    Correct Answer
    A. LDAP
    Explanation
    LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is the correct answer. It is a protocol used by various operating systems to authenticate and access directory services, such as user accounts, computers, printers, and other resources. LDAP provides a standardized way to communicate with directory servers, allowing users to authenticate and access resources across different platforms and systems. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email, TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is responsible for establishing a reliable connection between devices, and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol used for faster transmission of data.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following will prevent unauthorized access to the server room?

    • Biometric lock

    • PKI card

    • Cable lock

    • RSA token

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometric lock
    Explanation
    A biometric lock is a security measure that uses unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints or iris scans, to grant access to a server room. This prevents unauthorized individuals from gaining entry, as the lock can only be opened by those with registered biometric data. Unlike PKI cards, cable locks, or RSA tokens, which can be lost, stolen, or replicated, a biometric lock provides a higher level of security as it relies on an individual's unique biological traits.

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  • 40. 

    QoS is used to accomplish which of the following objectives?

    • Block traffic from certain websites

    • Block traffic from certain users

    • Provide priority of one or more types of traffic over others

    • Make use of the current bandwidth so it is a constant preset ideal by caching traffic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide priority of one or more types of traffic over others
    Explanation
    QoS, or Quality of Service, is used to provide priority of one or more types of traffic over others. It allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of traffic, such as voice or video, over others to ensure that they receive sufficient bandwidth and low latency. This helps to optimize network performance and ensure a consistent user experience for critical applications. Blocking traffic from certain websites or users is not a primary objective of QoS, and the concept of caching traffic to make use of the current bandwidth is not directly related to QoS.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following network components operates on Layer 2 of the OSI model?

    • Gateway

    • Router

    • Switch

    • Hub

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch
    Explanation
    A switch operates on Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2 is the Data Link layer, which is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network devices on the same local area network (LAN). A switch is a networking device that connects multiple devices on a LAN and forwards data packets between them. It uses MAC addresses to determine the destination of each packet and delivers them only to the intended device, enhancing network performance and security. Unlike routers, which operate on Layer 3 (Network layer), switches do not perform routing functions and are limited to the local network.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following authentication methods uses public and private keys to secure communication and ensure the senders identity?

    • CHAP

    • EAP

    • PKI

    • Kerberos

    Correct Answer
    A. PKI
    Explanation
    PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) is an authentication method that uses public and private keys to secure communication and ensure the sender's identity. In PKI, a user is assigned a unique pair of keys - a public key and a private key. The public key is shared with others, while the private key is kept secret. When a user wants to authenticate themselves, they use their private key to encrypt a message, and the recipient uses the corresponding public key to decrypt it. This process verifies the sender's identity and ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the communication.

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  • 43. 

    In a Class A subnet, a Host ID may occupy a maximum of:

    • 32bits

    • 31bits.

    • 24bits.

    • 16bits.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24bits.
    Explanation
    In a Class A subnet, the network ID is represented by the first 8 bits, leaving 24 bits for the host ID. This means that a maximum of 24 bits can be used to identify individual hosts within the network.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?

    • Hub

    • WAP

    • Router

    • Switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Hub
    Explanation
    A hub allows the most network traffic collisions because it operates in a shared environment, where all devices connected to it share the same bandwidth. When multiple devices try to transmit data at the same time, collisions can occur, resulting in data packet loss and network congestion. Unlike switches or routers, hubs do not have the ability to manage network traffic or create separate collision domains, making them more prone to collisions.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is the maximum range of 10GBase-SR ?

    • 1000 feet (305 meters)

    • 6 miles (1593 kilometers)

    • 990 feet (302 meters)

    • 328 feet (100 meters)

    Correct Answer
    A. 990 feet (302 meters)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 990 feet (302 meters). This is the maximum range for 10GBase-SR, which is a type of Ethernet networking technology that uses multimode fiber optic cables. It is designed for short-range connections and can transmit data up to a maximum distance of 990 feet or 302 meters.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following BEST explains the purpose of a DMZ?

    • To separate a security zone for an IPS.

    • To separate a security zone for a VPN

    • To create a security zone that allows private traffic but is isolated from the public network.

    • To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private network.

    Correct Answer
    A. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private network.
    Explanation
    A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is a network segment that is isolated from the internal private network and is designed to allow public traffic. It acts as a buffer zone between the public internet and the private network, providing an additional layer of security. By placing servers or services that need to be accessible to the public in the DMZ, it helps protect the internal network from potential threats and attacks. This setup ensures that any malicious activity originating from the public network is contained within the DMZ and does not have direct access to the private network.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following network protocols allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices?

    • SMTP

    • SNMP

    • IGMP

    • TLS

    Correct Answer
    A. SNMP
    Explanation
    SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices. It is a widely used protocol for network management and monitoring. SNMP enables network administrators to collect information from network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers, and receive automated alerts and reports based on predefined thresholds or events. This allows for proactive monitoring and troubleshooting of network issues, ensuring the smooth operation of the network. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email, IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is used for managing multicast group memberships, and TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol for secure communication over a network.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following security mitigation techniques is the MOST effective against zero-day attacks?

    • MAC filtering

    • User awareness training

    • Update antivirus definitions

    • Effective security policies

    Correct Answer
    A. User awareness training
    Explanation
    User awareness training is the most effective security mitigation technique against zero-day attacks because it focuses on educating and training users about potential security risks and how to identify and respond to them. By increasing user awareness and knowledge about common attack techniques, social engineering tactics, and safe computing practices, organizations can significantly reduce the likelihood of falling victim to zero-day attacks. This approach empowers users to be proactive in identifying and reporting suspicious activities, thereby strengthening the overall security posture of the organization.

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  • 49. 

    A power outage occurred over the weekend and on Monday morning the helpdesk was receiving calls about network issues from only one section of the LAN. A network administrator has implemented the solution and identified all the results. After all the network issues were resolved, what would be the NEXT step for that network administrator?

    • Identify potential effects of the solution

    • Document the entire process

    • Let all users within the LAN know what the problem was

    • Determine if anything has changed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Document the entire process
    Explanation
    The next step for the network administrator would be to document the entire process. This is important for future reference and troubleshooting purposes. By documenting the steps taken to resolve the network issues, the administrator can create a record of the solution implemented and the results achieved. This documentation can be helpful in case similar issues arise in the future or if other network administrators need to understand the process followed. It also serves as a reference for the administrator to review and ensure that all necessary steps were taken and no important details were missed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 11, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 11, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 26, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Afiavison

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