CompTIA Network+ Certification! Hardest Trivia Quiz

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1. Clients begin having network problems and ask the technician to expand the pool of available IP addresses. On which of the following servers should this be done?  

Explanation

Expanding the pool of available IP addresses is a task related to DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server. DHCP is responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. By expanding the pool of available IP addresses on the DHCP server, more devices can be connected to the network without running out of IP addresses.

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About This Quiz
CompTIA Network+ Certification! Hardest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Challenge your knowledge with the 'CompTIA Network+ Certification! Hardest Trivia Quiz. ' This quiz tests your understanding of network protocols, security, and troubleshooting, focusing on essential skills for... see morenetwork engineers. Ideal for those preparing for the CompTIA Network+ certification. see less

2. Which of the following commands will remove cached DNS entries?

Explanation

The command "ipconfig /flushdns" is used to remove cached DNS entries. This command clears the DNS resolver cache on a Windows computer, forcing it to query DNS servers for new DNS information when needed.

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3. Which of the following features of a switch allows WAPs to be installed in locations where no power sources are available?

Explanation

PoE stands for Power over Ethernet, which is a feature of a switch that allows devices like wireless access points (WAPs) to be powered through the Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for a separate power source. This is particularly useful in locations where power sources are not readily available, as it simplifies the installation process and reduces the need for additional wiring. By using PoE, WAPs can be easily deployed in remote or hard-to-reach areas without the need for complex power arrangements.

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4. A user is getting very weak signals while trying to connect to wireless. Which of the following should the user do to help with signal strength?  

Explanation

Moving the wireless router to a better location where line of sight is obtained will help improve the signal strength. This means finding a position for the router where there are no obstacles blocking the wireless signals, such as walls or furniture. By doing so, the user can ensure that the wireless signals can travel freely and reach the device with stronger and more reliable signals.

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5. Which of the following encryption methods is the MOST secure?

Explanation

WPA2 is the most secure encryption method among the options given. WEP is the least secure as it has several vulnerabilities that make it easy to crack. WPA provides better security than WEP but is still susceptible to certain attacks. WPA2, on the other hand, is the most advanced encryption protocol and offers stronger security measures, making it harder for hackers to gain unauthorized access to a wireless network. WEP-TKIP is a combination of WEP and TKIP encryption, which is also less secure compared to WPA2.

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6. Which of the following has similar functionalities as a wireless repeater?

Explanation

A wireless access point has similar functionalities as a wireless repeater. Both devices are used to extend the range and coverage of a wireless network. A wireless access point connects to a wired network and broadcasts a wireless signal, allowing devices to connect to the network wirelessly. Similarly, a wireless repeater also extends the range of a wireless network by receiving and amplifying the existing signal and then rebroadcasting it. Both devices help to improve the coverage and reach of a wireless network.

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7. After upgrading the network switch to a gigabit, one users connection no longer works. Which of the following would an administrator use to verify the network cable will work at a gigabit speed?    

Explanation

A certifier is a tool used to verify the performance and quality of network cables. It can test the cable for various parameters such as signal strength, attenuation, and crosstalk. In this scenario, the administrator can use a certifier to test the network cable and ensure that it is capable of supporting gigabit speeds. By running the cable through the certifier, the administrator can identify any potential issues or faults in the cable that may be causing the user's connection to fail.

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8. A network technician is installing multiple 802.11g WAPs with the same SSID. Which of the following channel combinations would allow all three WAPs to operate without interfering with each other?  

Explanation

The 802.11g standard uses 14 different channels, but only channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping. This means that these channels can be used simultaneously without causing interference between the WAPs. Therefore, using channels 1, 6, and 11 for the three WAPs will allow them to operate without interfering with each other.

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9. Which of the following are commonly used FTP ports?

Explanation

Ports 20 and 21 are commonly used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol). Port 20 is used for data transfer, while port 21 is used for control and command functions. FTP is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. By using these well-known ports, FTP clients and servers can establish a connection and exchange data effectively.

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10. Which of the following identifies the WLAN a user is connected to?  

Explanation

The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is a unique name that identifies a wireless network. It is used to differentiate between different WLANs that may be available in the vicinity. When a user connects to a wireless network, their device displays the SSID to indicate the network they are connected to. Therefore, the SSID is the correct answer for identifying the WLAN a user is connected to.

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11. Which of the following encryption types is an administrator MOST likely to enable on a public WAP in order to provide better security?  

Explanation

An administrator is most likely to enable WPA2 encryption on a public WAP in order to provide better security. WPA2 is the most secure encryption type among the options given, as it uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm to encrypt data. WPA2 also provides stronger authentication methods, making it harder for unauthorized users to gain access to the network. WEP encryption is outdated and easily cracked, while IPSec is a VPN protocol and not typically used for securing wireless networks.

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12. Which of the following would be used to identify the hot zone in a server room?

Explanation

A temperature monitor would be used to identify the hot zone in a server room. This device is designed to measure and monitor the temperature in a specific area, such as a server room. By placing temperature monitors strategically throughout the room, it can help identify areas that are experiencing higher temperatures than others, indicating potential hot zones. This information is crucial for maintaining the optimal operating conditions for servers and other equipment in the server room to prevent overheating and potential damage.

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13. Which of the following should occur when closing a network project?  

Explanation

When closing a network project, updating the documentation is necessary. This includes documenting any changes or updates made during the project, as well as recording any lessons learned or best practices discovered. Updating the documentation ensures that the network project is properly documented and can be easily referenced in the future if needed. It also helps to maintain accurate records and provide valuable information for future network projects or troubleshooting purposes.

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14. Access point placement is determined during which phase of the wireless network project?  

Explanation

During the site survey phase of a wireless network project, the placement of access points is determined. This involves conducting a thorough analysis of the site to identify the optimal locations for installing access points. Factors such as the layout of the area, signal strength requirements, and potential sources of interference are taken into consideration to ensure effective coverage and connectivity throughout the network.

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15. Which of the following is the default port for SMTP? A. 21 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25

Explanation

The correct answer is D. 25. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for sending email messages between servers. The default port for SMTP is 25.

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16. Which of the following tools would be BEST used to trace a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together?

Explanation

A toner probe is the best tool to trace a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together. A toner probe is designed to send a tone through a wire, which can then be detected using a probe. By connecting the toner to the wire in question, the user can then use the probe to follow the tone and trace the wire through the twisted bundle. This tool is specifically designed for wire tracing and is therefore the most suitable option for this scenario.

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17. Which of the following mitigation techniques would be used in order to defend against social engineering?

Explanation

Revising security and network policies is the correct answer because social engineering attacks involve manipulating individuals into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. By revising security and network policies, organizations can establish guidelines and procedures to educate employees about social engineering tactics, raise awareness, and implement measures to prevent and detect such attacks. This includes implementing strong authentication protocols, training employees to recognize and report suspicious activities, and establishing strict access controls to protect sensitive information.

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18. Which of the following should an administrator use to identify where all the MDFs are located within the network?  

Explanation

An administrator should use a physical network diagram to identify where all the MDFs (Main Distribution Frames) are located within the network. A physical network diagram provides a visual representation of the network infrastructure, including the physical locations of devices, connections, and network components. By referring to the physical network diagram, the administrator can easily locate and identify the MDFs within the network.

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19. A technician installed a wireless network, and it worked as expected during testing. However during the conference, the network was intermittent at best. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring?  

Explanation

The given answer suggests that the access point (AP) has reached its maximum capacity, leading to the intermittent network during the conference. This means that the AP is unable to handle the number of devices or the amount of network traffic during the conference, causing disruptions in the network connection.

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20. An administrator would like to display active TCP connections on a computer. Which of the following commands would BEST accomplish this?  

Explanation

The command "netstat" is used to display active TCP connections on a computer. It provides information about network connections, listening ports, and network statistics. By using the "netstat" command, the administrator can easily view the active TCP connections on the computer.

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21. Which of the following is the BEST reason why satellite connectivity for VoIP applications should not be used?  

Explanation

Satellite connectivity for VoIP applications should not be used because of latency sensitivity. Latency refers to the delay in the transmission of data, and for VoIP applications, even a slight delay can result in poor call quality and communication issues. Satellite connections have inherently high latency due to the long distance the signals have to travel between the satellite and the ground station. This can lead to significant delays in voice transmission, making real-time communication difficult. Therefore, due to the latency sensitivity of VoIP applications, satellite connectivity is not suitable.

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22. A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?  

Explanation

To separate networks on a switch, the technician should configure VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network). VLAN allows the switch to create multiple virtual networks, each with its own broadcast domain, by logically dividing the physical switch into different VLANs. This enables the isolation of traffic between different VLANs, improving network security and performance. Trunking, spanning tree, and traffic filtering are not specifically designed for separating networks on a switch.

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23. A traceroute command primarily provides information in the context of number and:

Explanation

A traceroute command is used to track the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It displays the IP addresses of the intermediate hops that the packets pass through. This information helps in identifying the network route and any potential bottlenecks or delays. The command does not provide information about the IP address of the packets themselves, the location of MAC addresses, or the location of ports.

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24. Which of the following protocols does a router use to communicate packets to other routers?  

Explanation

A router uses the RIP (Routing Information Protocol) to communicate packets to other routers. RIP is a dynamic routing protocol that allows routers to exchange information about the network topology and determine the best path for forwarding packets. RIP uses a distance-vector algorithm to calculate the metric (hop count) to reach a destination network. By sharing this information with other routers, RIP enables the routers to update their routing tables and make informed decisions about the most efficient routes for packet forwarding.

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25. Which of the following packet addresses represents a single NIC

Explanation

A unicast address represents a single NIC (Network Interface Card). It is a unique address assigned to a device on a network, allowing communication between a single sender and a single receiver. Unicast addresses are used for point-to-point communication and are the most common type of packet address in networking. Broadcast addresses are used to send a packet to all devices on a network, multicast addresses are used to send a packet to a group of devices, and broadcast domains refer to a network segment where all devices can receive each other's broadcast messages.

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26. Which of the following attacks is a social engineering attack?

Explanation

Vishing is a social engineering attack. It involves the use of voice communication, typically through phone calls, to deceive individuals and gather sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted entity, such as a bank representative, and manipulates the victim into providing personal details, passwords, or financial information. This attack relies on exploiting human trust and persuasion rather than technical vulnerabilities.

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27. A technician is setting up a temporary wired network for a conference being hosted at the company headquarters. The purpose of the network is to share files between guests laptops, with no Internet access. Which of the following devices would BEST accomplish this scenario at a low cost?  

Explanation

A switch would be the best device to accomplish this scenario at a low cost. A switch is used to connect multiple devices together on a local area network (LAN) and allows for the sharing of files between connected devices. It does not require an internet connection, making it suitable for a temporary wired network without internet access. A bridge, repeater, and modem are not necessary in this scenario as they serve different purposes.

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28. A user browsing the Internet sees a page displaying the following information: Company policy prohibits access to the following website. Which of the following is MOST likely in place at the users company?  

Explanation

The most likely scenario in place at the user's company is a content filter. A content filter is a software or hardware solution that is used to restrict or control the types of content that can be accessed on the internet. In this case, the company policy prohibits access to certain websites, indicating that there is a content filter in place to enforce this policy.

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29. Which of the following allows for multiple operating systems to be run simultaneously on a single server? A. Dual boot B. Multiple hard drives C. PXE boot D. Virtual machines

Explanation

Virtual machines allow for multiple operating systems to be run simultaneously on a single server. This is achieved by using virtualization technology that allows the creation of virtual instances of computers within a physical server. Each virtual machine can run its own operating system, independent of the others, allowing for efficient utilization of hardware resources and the ability to run different operating systems on the same server. Dual boot, multiple hard drives, and PXE boot do not provide the same level of flexibility and efficiency as virtual machines.

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30. Which of the following BEST describes how packets are delivered to the destination node?  

Explanation

The routing table is a data structure used by routers to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. It contains information about the network topology and the available routes. When a packet arrives at a router, the routing table is consulted to determine the next hop for the packet. This process continues until the packet reaches its destination node. Therefore, the routing table plays a crucial role in ensuring that packets are delivered to the correct destination node.

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31. Which of the following authentication protocols is typically employed in Cisco networks?  

Explanation

TACACS+ is typically employed in Cisco networks as an authentication protocol. TACACS+ provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting services, making it more robust and secure compared to other protocols. It allows for centralized control and management of user access to network resources, making it an ideal choice for Cisco networks. NTLMv2, Kerberos, and MS CHAP are also authentication protocols, but they are not specifically associated with Cisco networks.

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32. A technician is having intermittent connectivity problems with a hotel's wireless network. Using the laptop's wireless utility, the technician sees three access points all using channel 11. Which of the following describes the reason for the connectivity problems?

Explanation

The reason for the connectivity problems is interference. When multiple access points are using the same channel, it can cause interference and result in intermittent connectivity issues. Interference occurs when the wireless signals from different devices overlap and disrupt each other's transmission. In this case, having three access points all using channel 11 can cause interference and lead to connectivity problems for the technician.

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33. Which of the following devices is unable to differentiate the appropriate destination of intended traffic on a network?  

Explanation

A hub is unable to differentiate the appropriate destination of intended traffic on a network. Unlike a switch or a bridge, which can analyze the destination address of each packet and forward it only to the intended recipient, a hub simply broadcasts all incoming traffic to all connected devices. This means that all devices connected to a hub will receive all traffic, regardless of whether it is intended for them or not. Therefore, a hub is not able to differentiate and direct traffic to the appropriate destination.

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34. Which of the following utilities would a technician use to determine the location of lost packets on a routed network?

Explanation

A technician would use the utility "tracert" to determine the location of lost packets on a routed network. Tracert stands for "trace route" and it is a command-line tool that traces the route that packets take from the source to the destination. By sending a series of packets with increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, tracert can identify the routers or network devices that the packets pass through. This can help identify where the packets are being lost or experiencing delays, allowing the technician to troubleshoot and resolve the issue.

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35. While troubleshooting DHCP configurations, a technician notices that the address pool is full of active leases although the workstations may not even be on the network. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?  

Explanation

Shortening the lease time on the DHCP server would be the best solution in this scenario. By reducing the lease time, the DHCP server will reclaim inactive IP addresses more quickly, allowing them to be reused by other devices. This will help free up the address pool and prevent it from becoming full with active leases, even when the workstations are not on the network.

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36. Which of the following tools will allow an administrator to troubleshoot connectivity problems between two networks?  

Explanation

Tracert is a tool that allows an administrator to troubleshoot connectivity problems between two networks. It traces the route that packets take from the source network to the destination network, showing the IP addresses of each hop along the way. This can help identify where the connectivity issue is occurring and assist in troubleshooting and resolving the problem.

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37. An administrator is at a clients site to figure out an intermittent network problem. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the troubleshooting methodology that should be performed?  

Explanation

The first step in troubleshooting methodology should be to gather information. This is important because without gathering information about the problem, it would be difficult to identify the root cause and come up with an effective solution. By gathering information, the administrator can gather details about the intermittent network problem, such as when it occurs, which areas of the network are affected, and any other relevant information that can help in diagnosing and resolving the issue. Once enough information is gathered, the administrator can then proceed with creating an action plan and solution, implementing and testing the solution, and identifying potential effects.

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38. A technician changes a VLAN name from VLAN10 to VLAN20 in a switch. Which of the following should be updated?  

Explanation

When a technician changes a VLAN name from VLAN10 to VLAN20 in a switch, the logical network diagram should be updated. The logical network diagram represents the logical structure and configuration of the network, including VLANs. By updating the logical network diagram, it ensures that the documentation accurately reflects the changes made to the VLAN name, allowing for better understanding and management of the network.

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39. If network devices are all plugged into an Ethernet switch, the physical network topology is a:  

Explanation

If all network devices are plugged into an Ethernet switch, the physical network topology is a star. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, forming a star-like structure. This allows for easy management and troubleshooting, as any device can be easily disconnected or added to the network without affecting the other devices. Additionally, the failure of one device does not impact the rest of the network.

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40. Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?  

Explanation

An example of two-factor authentication is when a user is required to provide two different types of credentials to access a system or account. In this case, a username, password, and key fob number are required. The username and password serve as the first factor, while the key fob number serves as the second factor. This additional layer of security helps to verify the identity of the user and protect against unauthorized access.

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41. A home user reports an issue with the wireless network connection on a laptop. It seems to occur only when the phone rings. Which of the following should be changed to resolve the issue?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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42. Which of the following uses eight groups of characters for addressing?  

Explanation

IPv6 uses eight groups of characters for addressing. Each group is separated by a colon (:), and each group consists of four hexadecimal digits. This allows for a much larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses four groups of characters. The increased address space in IPv6 is necessary to accommodate the growing number of devices connected to the internet.

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43. Which of the following WAN technologies uses labels to make forwarding decisions?  

Explanation

MPLS (Multi-Protocol Label Switching) is a WAN technology that uses labels to make forwarding decisions. Labels are attached to packets and used to determine the path that the packets should take through the network. This allows for efficient and fast forwarding of data, as the labels can be quickly processed by network devices. MPLS is commonly used in large networks to prioritize traffic and provide quality of service. Frame-relay, ISDN, and ATM are other WAN technologies, but they do not use labels for forwarding decisions.

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44. After a technician has established a plan of action to resolve the problem, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT?

Explanation

After a technician has established a plan of action to resolve the problem, the next step should be to implement the solution or escalate as necessary. This means that the technician should start working on resolving the problem based on the plan they have created. If the plan involves implementing a solution directly, the technician should proceed with that. However, if the plan requires further assistance or escalation to higher-level support, the technician should follow the necessary steps to ensure the problem gets resolved effectively.

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45. In which of the following wireless standards is MIMO used?  

Explanation

MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) is a wireless technology that uses multiple antennas to improve the performance and speed of wireless communication. It is used in the 802.11n wireless standard to increase the data throughput and range of Wi-Fi networks. Therefore, the correct answer is 802.11n.

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46. Which of the following protocols can be found at the transport layer?  

Explanation

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) can be found at the transport layer. UDP is a connectionless protocol that provides a simple way to send datagrams over an IP network. It is often used for applications that require low latency and are not sensitive to packet loss, such as streaming media or online gaming. Unlike TCP, UDP does not provide reliable delivery or error checking, making it faster but less reliable. HTTP, FTP, and DNS are application layer protocols that rely on TCP for reliable delivery and error checking.

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47. Which of the following cable types has immunity from EMI?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables have immunity from electromagnetic interference (EMI) due to their unique design. Unlike other cable types, fiber optic cables transmit data using light signals rather than electrical signals. This means that they are not affected by EMI, which is caused by electromagnetic radiation interfering with electrical signals. Therefore, fiber optic cables are an ideal choice in environments where EMI is a concern, such as in industrial settings or areas with high levels of electrical interference.

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48. When testing CAT5e cables that were recently terminated, the testing device reports near end crosstalk. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem?  

Explanation

Near end crosstalk (NEXT) is a common issue in networking cables where signals from one pair of wires interfere with signals on another pair. This interference can occur if the pairs are not twisted tightly enough, which helps to minimize crosstalk. Therefore, the most likely cause of the reported near end crosstalk is that the technician did not leave enough twists on the pairs when terminating the CAT5e cables.

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49. Which of the following is the address length of an IPv6 address?  

Explanation

An IPv6 address has an address length of 128 bits. This means that it consists of 8 groups of 4 hexadecimal digits separated by colons. Each hexadecimal digit represents 4 bits, resulting in a total of 128 bits. This longer address length in IPv6 allows for a much larger number of unique addresses compared to IPv4, which has an address length of 32 bits.

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50. A client is having problems getting a wireless signal to the entire warehouse; right now the AP is located at the far northern end of the building. The AP frequency is strong enough to cover the entire building. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the AP is not covering the entire area?

Explanation

The most likely reason the AP is not covering the entire area is incorrect placement. Since the AP is located at the far northern end of the building, its signal may not be able to reach the entire warehouse. Moving the AP to a more central location would likely improve coverage throughout the building.

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51. An administrator is creating a patch cable. Which of the following devices should the administrator use to terminate the ends?

Explanation

A data crimper is the correct device to use to terminate the ends of a patch cable. A data crimper is a tool used to attach connectors, such as RJ-45 connectors, to the ends of network cables. It allows the administrator to securely attach the connectors, ensuring a proper and reliable connection.

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52. Which of the following is an encrypted client/server authentication?  

Explanation

IPSec is an encrypted client/server authentication protocol that provides secure communication over IP networks. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data transmitted between the client and server. IPSec uses encryption algorithms to encrypt the data and authentication protocols to verify the identities of the communicating parties. It is commonly used in Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) to establish secure connections between remote clients and servers.

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53. A technician needs to increase the bandwidth between two switches which currently have a 1GBps connection. Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve this? A. Switch the connection to 1GBps multimode fiber. B. Create a 2GBps connection with link aggregation. C. Configure port mirroring between the switches. D. Install a redundant wireless bridge between the switches.

Explanation

Creating a 2GBps connection with link aggregation is the best way to increase the bandwidth between the two switches. Link aggregation combines multiple physical connections into a single logical connection, allowing for increased bandwidth. By creating a 2GBps connection, the technician can effectively double the bandwidth compared to the current 1GBps connection. This solution is more efficient and cost-effective compared to switching to 1GBps multimode fiber or installing a redundant wireless bridge. Configuring port mirroring is not relevant to increasing bandwidth between switches.

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54. A 66 block is MOST commonly used in which of the following networks?

Explanation

A 66 block is most commonly used in voice networks. This type of block is a punch-down block that allows for the termination of multiple telephone lines. It provides a convenient and organized way to connect and manage telephone connections within a network. While it can also be used in other types of networks, such as data networks, it is primarily associated with voice networks due to its specific design and purpose.

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55. Which of the following is an IPv6 address for localhost?

Explanation

The IPv6 address for localhost is represented by "::1". This address is specifically reserved for the loopback interface, which allows a device to communicate with itself. It is commonly used for testing network applications on a local machine without the need for an actual network connection. The other options provided are not valid IPv6 addresses for localhost.

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56. The 10GBaseT specification is an example of a:  

Explanation

The 10GBaseT specification refers to the physical layer protocol used for Ethernet connections. It specifically defines the physical characteristics and requirements for transmitting data at a rate of 10 gigabits per second over twisted-pair copper cables. This protocol is responsible for encoding and decoding the data into electrical signals and ensuring reliable transmission between network devices.

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57. A network technician has configured a server with the following IP settings:IP Address: 192.168.1.40/27Default Gateway: 192.168.1.64DNS: 192.168.1.33The server cannot access the Internet. Which of the following settings needs to be changed? A. Default gateway B. IP address C. VLAN D. DNS

Explanation

The server cannot access the Internet because the default gateway is incorrect. The default gateway is the IP address of the router or gateway device that connects the server to other networks, including the Internet. In this case, the configured default gateway of 192.168.1.64 is not within the same network range as the server's IP address of 192.168.1.40/27. To resolve the issue, the default gateway should be changed to an IP address within the same network range, such as 192.168.1.33.

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58. A user has network connectivity per the link lights on the NIC, but cannot access any network resources or the Internet. Which of the following commands should the technician run FIRST? A. arp B. ipconfig C. tracert D. route

Explanation

The technician should run the "ipconfig" command first. This command will display the IP configuration of the network interface card (NIC) and provide information about the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. By checking the IP configuration, the technician can determine if the NIC has obtained a valid IP address and if it is properly configured to access the network resources or the Internet. If there are any issues with the IP configuration, the technician can troubleshoot and resolve them accordingly.

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59. A customer shares a building with several other tenants. The customer reports that an unencrypted wireless network has been getting slower while their Internet traffic has steadily been increasing. Which of the following should be configured to resolve this problem?    

Explanation

To resolve the issue of a slowing unencrypted wireless network, configuring WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) should be implemented. WPA is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks. By enabling WPA, the customer's network will be protected from unauthorized access and potential bandwidth theft, which could be causing the decrease in speed. This will ensure that only authorized users can connect to the network and will help optimize the network's performance.

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60. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use when terminating a network jack?

Explanation

A punch down tool is the best tool to use when terminating a network jack. This tool is specifically designed for this purpose and allows for efficient and secure termination of network cables. It helps to ensure that the wires are properly seated and connected to the appropriate terminals, ensuring a reliable and stable network connection. The punch down tool also helps to minimize the risk of damaging the cables or causing connectivity issues.

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61. Which of the following terms correctly defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network?

Explanation

Convergence is the correct term that defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network. Convergence refers to the process by which routers exchange information and update their routing tables to reach a consistent state. When multiple routers agree on the network's state, it means that they have converged and are all aware of the same network topology and routing information. This ensures efficient and reliable routing in the network.

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62. Which of the following connector types is used to connect a serial cable?  

Explanation

The DB-9 connector type is used to connect a serial cable. It is a 9-pin connector that is commonly used for serial communication between devices such as computers and peripherals. This connector type is often found on older devices and is used to transmit data serially, one bit at a time. The other connector types listed (RJ-11, BNC, and LC) are used for different purposes and are not typically used for serial communication.

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63. Which of the following would be used to quickly check for availability of the HTTP service on the server?

Explanation

Port scanners would be used to quickly check for the availability of the HTTP service on the server. Port scanners are tools that scan a range of ports on a server to determine which ports are open and listening for connections. By scanning for the specific port used by the HTTP service (port 80), a port scanner can quickly check if the HTTP service is available on the server.

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64. Which of the following devices will forward broadcast traffic by default?  

Explanation

A hub is a network device that operates at the physical layer of the OSI model and forwards all incoming traffic to all connected devices. It does not filter or analyze the traffic, so it will forward broadcast traffic by default. Switches, firewalls, and bridges, on the other hand, operate at higher layers of the OSI model and typically have built-in mechanisms to filter or block broadcast traffic.

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65. A company is adding more users and has leased more office space five floors below their current office. The company should install which of the following in the additional space?  

Explanation

In order to accommodate the additional users and office space, the company should install an IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame). An IDF is a centralized location for network equipment and connections that serves a specific area or floor within a building. It allows for efficient distribution of network signals and facilitates connectivity for the new users on the additional floors.

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66. Which of the following services does UDP connections provide to application layer protocols?  

Explanation

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless transport protocol that operates at the transport layer of the OSI model. It provides a simple and lightweight method for applications to send datagrams (packets) over an IP network. Unlike TCP, UDP does not provide error recovery or guarantee delivery of packets. It is commonly used for applications that prioritize speed and efficiency over reliability, such as real-time streaming or gaming. Therefore, the correct answer is "Transport means without error recovery."

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67. Which of the following would be a primary concern to the physical security in a wireless network installation?  

Explanation

The primary concern for physical security in a wireless network installation would be the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP). The location of the WAP is crucial in ensuring that the wireless network is secure and accessible only to authorized users. Proper placement of the WAP can help prevent unauthorized access, signal interference, and ensure optimal coverage and performance of the wireless network.

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68. A port scanner identifies that port 143 is open on the firewall and port 25 is closed. Which of the following protocols is being used by the company?  

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the port scanner identifies that port 143 is open and port 25 is closed on the firewall. Among the given protocols, IMAP4 is the most likely protocol being used by the company. This is because IMAP4 commonly uses port 143 for communication, whereas SMTP (port 25), POP3, and SNMP are not associated with these specific ports.

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69. Which of the following connector types would MOST likely be used in combination with a GBIC?

Explanation

A GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) is a transceiver module used to connect networking devices, such as switches and routers, to fiber optic cables. The SC (Subscriber Connector) connector type is commonly used with GBIC modules. The SC connector has a push-pull mechanism, making it easy to insert and remove. It provides a reliable and secure connection for high-speed data transmission over fiber optic cables. Therefore, the SC connector is the most likely connector type to be used in combination with a GBIC.

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70. Which of the following standards is implemented in 802.1af?

Explanation

802.1af implements the Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard. This standard allows for the transmission of electrical power along with data over Ethernet cables. It enables devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and cameras to receive power directly from the Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for separate power cables and adapters. This simplifies installation and reduces costs, making it a popular choice in network deployments.

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71. A small office has asked to have their Ethernet NIC enabled PCs networked together by a consultant. The office users want file sharing capability with no access to the Internet. Which of the following items will the consultant need? (Select TWO).  

Explanation

The consultant will need CAT5e patch cabling and a switch to network the PCs together. CAT5e patch cabling is required to physically connect the PCs to the switch, allowing for data transmission between them. The switch is needed to create a local area network (LAN) and facilitate communication between the connected PCs.

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72. An administrator would like to monitor the network to evaluate which employees are using an excessive amount of bandwidth on peer to peer sharing services. Which of the following monitoring techniques would BEST be used?  

Explanation

Packet sniffing would be the best monitoring technique to evaluate which employees are using an excessive amount of bandwidth on peer to peer sharing services. Packet sniffing allows the administrator to capture and analyze network traffic, including the packets sent and received by each employee's device. By examining the packet data, the administrator can identify the specific protocols and applications being used, including peer to peer sharing services, and determine the amount of bandwidth being consumed by each employee.

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73. An administrator suspects the computer they are working on has lost its default gateway and its specific route to the HR department. Which of the following commands should be run to verify the route setting?

Explanation

The correct answer is "route print". The "route print" command is used to display the routing table on a computer. By running this command, the administrator can verify the route settings and check if the default gateway and the specific route to the HR department are configured correctly. This command will provide information about the network destinations, gateways, netmask, interface, and metric values.

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74. A user reports that the web browser is indicating the site certificate is not trusted. Which of the following attacks may be in progress?  

Explanation

If a user reports that the web browser is indicating the site certificate is not trusted, it suggests that a man-in-the-middle attack may be in progress. In a man-in-the-middle attack, an attacker intercepts the communication between the user and the website, allowing them to eavesdrop, modify, or inject malicious content into the communication. This can lead to the browser indicating that the site certificate is not trusted, as the attacker may be presenting a fake or forged certificate to the user.

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75. Which of the following uses 802.1q?  

Explanation

VLAN stands for Virtual Local Area Network, which is a technology that allows the creation of multiple virtual networks within a single physical network infrastructure. VLANs use the 802.1q standard to add a tag to Ethernet frames, indicating which VLAN the frame belongs to. This allows for the segmentation and isolation of network traffic, improving network performance and security. Therefore, VLANs use 802.1q.

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76. Which of the following components have home runs from different locations to the telecommunications closet?

Explanation

A patch panel is a device that allows multiple network cables to be connected and organized in a central location, typically in a telecommunications closet. It serves as a hub for connecting different components of a network, such as computers, switches, and routers. Since the patch panel is responsible for connecting various devices from different locations to the telecommunications closet, it is the component that may have home runs from different locations.

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77. After a switch upgrade, several users report no connection to the Internet, while other users report no problems. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?

Explanation

The most likely problem in this scenario is VLAN port assignments. A switch upgrade could have potentially caused misconfigurations or errors in assigning the correct VLAN ports to the affected users. This would result in some users losing their connection to the internet while others remain unaffected.

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78. Which of the following devices is a technician MOST likely to be connecting to if they are using a rollover cable?  

Explanation

A technician is most likely to be connecting to a router if they are using a rollover cable. A rollover cable is a type of cable used for connecting a computer to a router's console port. This cable is used for configuration and management purposes, allowing the technician to access the router's command-line interface (CLI) and make changes to its settings. The other options, such as a hub, UPS, or unmanaged switch, do not typically require a rollover cable for connection or configuration.

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79. Which of the following network protocols is required to allow two computers to communicate within the same network segment?  

Explanation

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a network protocol that allows two computers to communicate within the same network segment by resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. When a computer wants to send data to another computer on the same network, it needs to know the MAC address of the destination computer. ARP helps in finding the MAC address by broadcasting an ARP request to all computers on the network, and the computer with the matching IP address responds with its MAC address. This allows the two computers to establish communication within the same network segment.

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80. A user has reported a problem with a network device. The network technician has theorized that the device is faulty and has tested to confirm the theory. Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology should the technician do NEXT?  

Explanation

After confirming the theory that the network device is faulty, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology should be to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This involves determining the specific steps and resources needed to fix the issue, such as replacing the device or performing repairs. By creating a plan, the technician can ensure that the problem is addressed effectively and efficiently.

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81. An administrator is setting up a secure wireless network. The administrator decides to support 802.11n and 802.11g with a WPA2 pre-shared key. Users are given the SSID with the pre-shared key, but the administrator has disabled the SSID broadcast and MAC filtering. Some users have reported connection issues. Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the users connection issues?  

Explanation

Enabling the SSID broadcast would most likely resolve the users' connection issues. When the SSID broadcast is disabled, users need to manually enter the network name (SSID) to connect to the wireless network. This can lead to connection issues, especially if users are not aware of the correct SSID or if they make a mistake when entering it. By enabling the SSID broadcast, the network name will be visible to all devices, making it easier for users to connect without errors.

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82. A user reports that some normally accessible external sites are not responding, but most other sites are responding normally. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

Explanation

A faulty routing rule is the most likely cause for the issue described. A routing rule is responsible for directing network traffic to its intended destination. If there is a mistake or error in the routing rule, it can result in certain external sites becoming inaccessible while most other sites continue to function normally. This could be due to the routing rule incorrectly directing traffic away from the affected sites or not routing it properly.

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83. Which of the following technologies relies on up-to-date signatures to protect the network and block malicious network-based attacks?  

Explanation

IPS stands for Intrusion Prevention System. It is a technology that relies on up-to-date signatures to protect the network and block malicious network-based attacks. An IPS monitors network traffic and analyzes it for any suspicious or malicious activity. It uses signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known attacks, to detect and prevent such attacks from occurring. By keeping these signatures up-to-date, an IPS can effectively protect the network from a wide range of threats and vulnerabilities.

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84. Which of the following WAN technologies uses a maximum line rate of 2.048Mbps?  

Explanation

E1 is the correct answer because it is a WAN technology that uses a maximum line rate of 2.048Mbps. T3, ISDN PRI, and ISDN BRI are other WAN technologies, but they do not have a maximum line rate of 2.048Mbps.

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85. Which of the following protocols operates securely at the transport layer? A. TCP B. SNMP C. TLS D. TCP/IP

Explanation

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the correct answer because it is a protocol that operates securely at the transport layer. TLS provides secure communication over a network by encrypting the data transmitted between two endpoints, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. It is commonly used to secure web traffic, email, and other applications that require secure communication. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a reliable transport protocol, but it does not provide security features like encryption. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is an application layer protocol used for network management, and TCP/IP is a suite of protocols that includes TCP and IP, but it does not operate securely at the transport layer.

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86. A network engineer needs to troubleshoot a remote router within the WAN. Which of the following user authentications would be the BEST to implement?

Explanation

TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) would be the best user authentication to implement for troubleshooting a remote router within the WAN. TACACS+ provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services, allowing the network engineer to have granular control over user access and privileges. It also offers more security features compared to other options such as MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol), Kerberos, and PKI (Public Key Infrastructure). TACACS+ ensures that only authorized users can access the router and helps in tracking and auditing user activities.

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87. Which of the following configuration management documents will allow an administrator to troubleshoot a connectivity problem with a CAT5e cable?  

Explanation

A wiring schematic is a configuration management document that provides a detailed diagram of the physical connections and layout of a network. It shows the specific wiring and connections of devices, including the CAT5e cable. By referring to the wiring schematic, an administrator can easily identify and troubleshoot any connectivity problems with the CAT5e cable, such as loose connections or incorrect wiring. The other documents listed, such as logical and physical network diagrams, may provide a high-level overview of the network but would not provide the specific details needed to troubleshoot a connectivity problem with a CAT5e cable.

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88. Which of the following network cables is comprised of the below pin-out?1 C 82 C 73 C 64 C 

Explanation

The given pin-out sequence does not match any of the standard pin-out configurations for network cables such as 568A, crossover, or straight-through. However, it matches the pin-out sequence for a rollover cable, which is commonly used to connect a computer to a router or switch for configuration purposes. A rollover cable is wired in a way that the transmit and receive pins on one end are reversed on the other end, allowing for direct communication between the devices.

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89. A technician needs to customize various cable lengths and verify that the cables are working correctly. Which of the following tools would be needed to accomplish this?

Explanation

A cable certifier is needed to verify that the cables are working correctly. This tool can test the performance and quality of the cables, ensuring that they meet the required standards. A punch down tool is also needed to customize cable lengths. This tool is used to terminate and secure the wires onto a punch down block or keystone jack. By using both the cable certifier and punch down tool, the technician can customize cable lengths and ensure that the cables are functioning properly.

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90. Which of the following mitigation techniques would be BEST used against cross-site scripting?  

Explanation

Content filtering is the best mitigation technique against cross-site scripting. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of attack where an attacker injects malicious code into a website, which is then executed by the users' browsers. Content filtering can help prevent XSS attacks by scanning and filtering the content of web pages, detecting and blocking any malicious code or scripts. This technique helps to ensure that only safe and trusted content is displayed to users, reducing the risk of XSS vulnerabilities being exploited.

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91. Which of the following cable types are acceptable to use in an environment where EMI/RFI are present? (Select TWO). A. MMF B. UDP C. CAT5e D. STP E. ST

Explanation

In an environment where EMI/RFI are present, it is important to use cable types that can help minimize the interference. MMF (Multimode Fiber) is a type of cable that uses light signals instead of electrical signals to transmit data, making it immune to EMI/RFI. STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) is a type of cable that has a shielding layer to protect against EMI/RFI. Therefore, using MMF and STP cables would be acceptable in an environment where EMI/RFI are present.

Submit
92. Which of the following is BEST used to proactively identify if a web server has crashed?  

Explanation

A port scanner is the best tool to proactively identify if a web server has crashed. A port scanner is a software application that scans a server's ports to check for any open or closed ports. If a web server has crashed, it will typically close all of its ports, indicating that it is not functioning properly. By using a port scanner, one can quickly identify if a web server has crashed and take appropriate action to resolve the issue.

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93. A technician has deployed multiple temperature monitoring devices with IP addresses in the 10.137.24.0/25 network. Such devices must receive an ICMP keep-alive packet from the server every five minutes. Which of the following destination IP addresses must the technician configure on the server to send keep-alive packets to all the devices?  

Explanation

The technician must configure the destination IP address on the server as 10.137.24.127 in order to send keep-alive packets to all the devices. This is because the given IP address range is 10.137.24.0/25, which means it includes IP addresses from 10.137.24.0 to 10.137.24.127. Therefore, by setting the destination IP address as 10.137.24.127, the server will be able to send keep-alive packets to all the devices within this range.

Submit
94. A network administrator is tasked to deploy wireless in a new building. The building will be used by a company that manufactures 5GHz cordless phones. Additionally, the wireless system must support a minimum speed of 54Mbps. Which of the following should be deployed to meet the requirements and avoid interference?  

Explanation

To avoid interference from the 5GHz cordless phones and meet the minimum speed requirement of 54Mbps, the network administrator should deploy the 802.11a standard. 802.11a operates in the 5GHz frequency band, which will not interfere with the cordless phones. Additionally, 802.11a has a maximum data rate of 54Mbps, meeting the minimum speed requirement. 802.11b operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band and may cause interference with the cordless phones. 802.11g operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band and has a maximum data rate of 54Mbps, but it may still cause interference with the cordless phones. 802.11n operates in both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands, so it may still cause interference with the cordless phones.

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95. Which of the following protocols operates at the transport layer of the OSI model and provides connection-oriented communication?

Explanation

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) operates at the transport layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model and provides connection-oriented communication, ensuring reliable data transmission between devices. It establishes a connection before transmitting data and verifies that data is delivered correctly. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) also operates at the transport layer but is connectionless and does not guarantee delivery. IP operates at the network layer, and ICMP is used for diagnostic and error-reporting purposes.

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96. Which of the following allows the LARGEST distance to be covered in a single segment?  

Explanation

10GBaseER allows the largest distance to be covered in a single segment. The "ER" in 10GBaseER stands for "Extended Reach," indicating that it is designed for long-distance transmission. It can cover distances up to 40 kilometers, making it ideal for applications that require communication over long distances. In comparison, 10GBaseLR, 10GBaseT, and 10GBaseSR have shorter reach capabilities.

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97. An administrator determines that an attack is taking place on the email server from a group of users on the same ISP. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate an attack on the network?  

Explanation

Packet filtering is the best way to mitigate an attack on the network in this scenario. Packet filtering involves examining the data packets that are being transmitted over the network and allowing or blocking them based on a set of predefined rules. By implementing packet filtering, the administrator can analyze and filter out the malicious traffic coming from the group of users on the same ISP, effectively mitigating the attack and protecting the email server and network from further damage.

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98. A customer has reported that when using a cable to connect an older laptop to a 100Mbps switch that the link light does not illuminate. When testing the same cable with a newer 1Gbps switch, it works fine. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?  

Explanation

The MOST likely cause of the problem is that the cable is pinned as a crossover. A crossover cable is used to connect two devices of the same type, such as two computers, directly to each other without the need for a switch. In this case, the older laptop is being connected to a switch, so a straight-through cable is required. The fact that the cable works fine with the newer 1Gbps switch suggests that the cable is functioning properly, but it is not compatible with the older switch.

Submit
99. Which of the following is intended to be used over existing SONET equipment?  

Explanation

10GBaseEW is intended to be used over existing SONET equipment. This is because 10GBaseEW is a type of Ethernet standard that is specifically designed for long-reach applications over existing SONET infrastructure. It allows for the transmission of data at a rate of 10 gigabits per second over extended distances, making it suitable for use with SONET equipment.

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100. Which of the following technologies would adhere to the AAA model while facilitating ease of login changes for multiple routers and switches?

Explanation

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) adheres to the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) model while facilitating ease of login changes for multiple routers and switches. SNMP allows network administrators to remotely monitor and manage network devices, including routers and switches. It provides authentication mechanisms to verify the identity of users, authorization to control access to network resources, and accounting to track user activities. By using SNMP, administrators can easily log in and make login changes on multiple routers and switches efficiently.

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Clients begin having network problems and ask the technician to expand...
Which of the following commands will remove cached DNS entries?
Which of the following features of a switch allows WAPs to be...
A user is getting very weak signals while trying to connect to...
Which of the following encryption methods is the MOST secure?
Which of the following has similar functionalities as a wireless...
After upgrading the network switch to a gigabit, one users connection...
A network technician is installing multiple 802.11g WAPs with the same...
Which of the following are commonly used FTP ports?
Which of the following identifies the WLAN a user is connected to?...
Which of the following encryption types is an administrator MOST...
Which of the following would be used to identify the hot zone in a...
Which of the following should occur when closing a network project?...
Access point placement is determined during which phase of the...
Which of the following is the default port for SMTP?...
Which of the following tools would be BEST used to trace a wire...
Which of the following mitigation techniques would be used in order to...
Which of the following should an administrator use to identify where...
A technician installed a wireless network, and it worked as expected...
An administrator would like to display active TCP connections on a...
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A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the...
A traceroute command primarily provides information in the context of...
Which of the following protocols does a router use to communicate...
Which of the following packet addresses represents a single NIC
Which of the following attacks is a social engineering attack?
A technician is setting up a temporary wired network for a conference...
A user browsing the Internet sees a page displaying the following...
Which of the following allows for multiple operating systems to be run...
Which of the following BEST describes how packets are delivered to the...
Which of the following authentication protocols is typically employed...
A technician is having intermittent connectivity problems with a...
Which of the following devices is unable to differentiate the...
Which of the following utilities would a technician use to determine...
While troubleshooting DHCP configurations, a technician notices that...
Which of the following tools will allow an administrator to...
An administrator is at a clients site to figure out an intermittent...
A technician changes a VLAN name from VLAN10 to VLAN20 in a switch....
If network devices are all plugged into an Ethernet switch, the...
Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?...
A home user reports an issue with the wireless network connection on a...
Which of the following uses eight groups of characters for addressing?...
Which of the following WAN technologies uses labels to make forwarding...
After a technician has established a plan of action to resolve the...
In which of the following wireless standards is MIMO used?  
Which of the following protocols can be found at the transport layer?...
Which of the following cable types has immunity from EMI?
When testing CAT5e cables that were recently terminated, the testing...
Which of the following is the address length of an IPv6 address?...
A client is having problems getting a wireless signal to the entire...
An administrator is creating a patch cable. Which of the following...
Which of the following is an encrypted client/server authentication?...
A technician needs to increase the bandwidth between two switches...
A 66 block is MOST commonly used in which of the following networks?
Which of the following is an IPv6 address for localhost?
The 10GBaseT specification is an example of a:  
A network technician has configured a server with the following IP...
A user has network connectivity per the link lights on the NIC, but...
A customer shares a building with several other tenants. The customer...
Which of the following is the BEST tool to use when terminating a...
Which of the following terms correctly defines the event in which...
Which of the following connector types is used to connect a serial...
Which of the following would be used to quickly check for availability...
Which of the following devices will forward broadcast traffic by...
A company is adding more users and has leased more office space five...
Which of the following services does UDP connections provide to...
Which of the following would be a primary concern to the physical...
A port scanner identifies that port 143 is open on the firewall and...
Which of the following connector types would MOST likely be used in...
Which of the following standards is implemented in 802.1af?
A small office has asked to have their Ethernet NIC enabled PCs...
An administrator would like to monitor the network to evaluate which...
An administrator suspects the computer they are working on has lost...
A user reports that the web browser is indicating the site certificate...
Which of the following uses 802.1q?  
Which of the following components have home runs from different...
After a switch upgrade, several users report no connection to the...
Which of the following devices is a technician MOST likely to be...
Which of the following network protocols is required to allow two...
A user has reported a problem with a network device. The network...
An administrator is setting up a secure wireless network. The...
A user reports that some normally accessible external sites are not...
Which of the following technologies relies on up-to-date signatures to...
Which of the following WAN technologies uses a maximum line rate of...
Which of the following protocols operates securely at the transport...
A network engineer needs to troubleshoot a remote router within the...
Which of the following configuration management documents will allow...
Which of the following network cables is comprised of the below...
A technician needs to customize various cable lengths and verify that...
Which of the following mitigation techniques would be BEST used...
Which of the following cable types are acceptable to use in an...
Which of the following is BEST used to proactively identify if a web...
A technician has deployed multiple temperature monitoring devices with...
A network administrator is tasked to deploy wireless in a new...
Which of the following protocols operates at the transport layer of...
Which of the following allows the LARGEST distance to be covered in a...
An administrator determines that an attack is taking place on the...
A customer has reported that when using a cable to connect an older...
Which of the following is intended to be used over existing SONET...
Which of the following technologies would adhere to the AAA model...
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