CompTIA Network+ Certification! Hardest Trivia Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 7 | Total Attempts: 999
Questions: 100 | Attempts: 311

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CompTIA Network+ Certification! Hardest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Where would a technician MOST likely place the company MX and A records?

    • A.

      Proxy server

    • B.

      Load balancer

    • C.

      DNS server

    • D.

      Firewall

    Correct Answer
    A. Proxy server
    Explanation
    A technician would most likely place the company MX and A records on a DNS server. MX (Mail Exchange) records are used to route email messages to the correct mail servers, while A records are used to map domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. Both of these records are essential for proper email and website functionality, and DNS servers are responsible for managing these records and resolving domain names to their associated IP addresses.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following technologies would adhere to the AAA model while facilitating ease of login changes for multiple routers and switches?

    • A.

      DOCSIS

    • B.

      HDLC

    • C.

      SNMP

    • D.

      TACACS+

    Correct Answer
    C. SNMP
    Explanation
    SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) adheres to the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) model while facilitating ease of login changes for multiple routers and switches. SNMP allows network administrators to remotely monitor and manage network devices, including routers and switches. It provides authentication mechanisms to verify the identity of users, authorization to control access to network resources, and accounting to track user activities. By using SNMP, administrators can easily log in and make login changes on multiple routers and switches efficiently.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following network cables is comprised of the below pin-out?1 C 82 C 73 C 64 C 

    • A.

      Rollover

    • B.

      568A

    • C.

      Crossover

    • D.

      Straight-through

    Correct Answer
    A. Rollover
    Explanation
    The given pin-out sequence does not match any of the standard pin-out configurations for network cables such as 568A, crossover, or straight-through. However, it matches the pin-out sequence for a rollover cable, which is commonly used to connect a computer to a router or switch for configuration purposes. A rollover cable is wired in a way that the transmit and receive pins on one end are reversed on the other end, allowing for direct communication between the devices.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following packet addresses represents a single NIC

    • A.

      Broadcast address

    • B.

      Unicast address

    • C.

      Multicast address

    • D.

      Broadcast domain

    Correct Answer
    B. Unicast address
    Explanation
    A unicast address represents a single NIC (Network Interface Card). It is a unique address assigned to a device on a network, allowing communication between a single sender and a single receiver. Unicast addresses are used for point-to-point communication and are the most common type of packet address in networking. Broadcast addresses are used to send a packet to all devices on a network, multicast addresses are used to send a packet to a group of devices, and broadcast domains refer to a network segment where all devices can receive each other's broadcast messages.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following cable types has immunity from EMI?

    • A.

      UTP

    • B.

      Plenum

    • C.

      STP

    • D.

      Fiber

    Correct Answer
    D. Fiber
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables have immunity from electromagnetic interference (EMI) due to their unique design. Unlike other cable types, fiber optic cables transmit data using light signals rather than electrical signals. This means that they are not affected by EMI, which is caused by electromagnetic radiation interfering with electrical signals. Therefore, fiber optic cables are an ideal choice in environments where EMI is a concern, such as in industrial settings or areas with high levels of electrical interference.

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  • 6. 

    A network engineer needs to troubleshoot a remote router within the WAN. Which of the following user authentications would be the BEST to implement?

    • A.

      MS-CHAP

    • B.

      Kerberos

    • C.

      TACACS+

    • D.

      PKI

    Correct Answer
    C. TACACS+
    Explanation
    TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) would be the best user authentication to implement for troubleshooting a remote router within the WAN. TACACS+ provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services, allowing the network engineer to have granular control over user access and privileges. It also offers more security features compared to other options such as MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol), Kerberos, and PKI (Public Key Infrastructure). TACACS+ ensures that only authorized users can access the router and helps in tracking and auditing user activities.

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  • 7. 

    A client is having problems getting a wireless signal to the entire warehouse; right now the AP is located at the far northern end of the building. The AP frequency is strong enough to cover the entire building. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the AP is not covering the entire area?

    • A.

      Standard mismatch

    • B.

      Incorrect channel

    • C.

      Incorrect placement

    • D.

      Encryption type

    Correct Answer
    C. Incorrect placement
    Explanation
    The most likely reason the AP is not covering the entire area is incorrect placement. Since the AP is located at the far northern end of the building, its signal may not be able to reach the entire warehouse. Moving the AP to a more central location would likely improve coverage throughout the building.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following encryption methods is the MOST secure?

    • A.

      WEP

    • B.

      WPA

    • C.

      WPA2

    • D.

      WEP-TKIP

    Correct Answer
    C. WPA2
    Explanation
    WPA2 is the most secure encryption method among the options given. WEP is the least secure as it has several vulnerabilities that make it easy to crack. WPA provides better security than WEP but is still susceptible to certain attacks. WPA2, on the other hand, is the most advanced encryption protocol and offers stronger security measures, making it harder for hackers to gain unauthorized access to a wireless network. WEP-TKIP is a combination of WEP and TKIP encryption, which is also less secure compared to WPA2.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following would be used to quickly check for availability of the HTTP service on the server?

    • A.

      Reserved ports

    • B.

      Protocol analyzer

    • C.

      Packet sniffers

    • D.

      Port scanners

    Correct Answer
    D. Port scanners
    Explanation
    Port scanners would be used to quickly check for the availability of the HTTP service on the server. Port scanners are tools that scan a range of ports on a server to determine which ports are open and listening for connections. By scanning for the specific port used by the HTTP service (port 80), a port scanner can quickly check if the HTTP service is available on the server.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following would be used to identify the hot zone in a server room?

    • A.

      OTDR

    • B.

      Temperature monitor

    • C.

      Cable stripper

    • D.

      Voltage event monitor

    Correct Answer
    B. Temperature monitor
    Explanation
    A temperature monitor would be used to identify the hot zone in a server room. This device is designed to measure and monitor the temperature in a specific area, such as a server room. By placing temperature monitors strategically throughout the room, it can help identify areas that are experiencing higher temperatures than others, indicating potential hot zones. This information is crucial for maintaining the optimal operating conditions for servers and other equipment in the server room to prevent overheating and potential damage.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is the BEST tool to use when terminating a network jack?

    • A.

      Snips

    • B.

      Cable stripper

    • C.

      Toner probe

    • D.

      Punch down

    Correct Answer
    D. Punch down
    Explanation
    A punch down tool is the best tool to use when terminating a network jack. This tool is specifically designed for this purpose and allows for efficient and secure termination of network cables. It helps to ensure that the wires are properly seated and connected to the appropriate terminals, ensuring a reliable and stable network connection. The punch down tool also helps to minimize the risk of damaging the cables or causing connectivity issues.

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  • 12. 

    A technician needs to increase the bandwidth between two switches which currently have a 1GBps connection. Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve this? A. Switch the connection to 1GBps multimode fiber. B. Create a 2GBps connection with link aggregation. C. Configure port mirroring between the switches. D. Install a redundant wireless bridge between the switches.

    • A.

      Switch the connection to 1GBps multimode fiber.

    • B.

      Create a 2GBps connection with link aggregation

    • C.

      Configure port mirroring between the switches.

    • D.

      Install a redundant wireless bridge between the switches.

    Correct Answer
    B. Create a 2GBps connection with link aggregation
    Explanation
    Creating a 2GBps connection with link aggregation is the best way to increase the bandwidth between the two switches. Link aggregation combines multiple physical connections into a single logical connection, allowing for increased bandwidth. By creating a 2GBps connection, the technician can effectively double the bandwidth compared to the current 1GBps connection. This solution is more efficient and cost-effective compared to switching to 1GBps multimode fiber or installing a redundant wireless bridge. Configuring port mirroring is not relevant to increasing bandwidth between switches.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following mitigation techniques would be used in order to defend against social engineering?

    • A.

      Updating antivirus definitions

    • B.

      Implementing patch management solutions

    • C.

      Enabling audit logs on all workstations

    • D.

      Revising security and network policies

    Correct Answer
    D. Revising security and network policies
    Explanation
    Revising security and network policies is the correct answer because social engineering attacks involve manipulating individuals into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. By revising security and network policies, organizations can establish guidelines and procedures to educate employees about social engineering tactics, raise awareness, and implement measures to prevent and detect such attacks. This includes implementing strong authentication protocols, training employees to recognize and report suspicious activities, and establishing strict access controls to protect sensitive information.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following are commonly used FTP ports?

    • A.

      20,21

    • B.

      22,23

    • C.

      24,25

    Correct Answer
    A. 20,21
    Explanation
    Ports 20 and 21 are commonly used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol). Port 20 is used for data transfer, while port 21 is used for control and command functions. FTP is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. By using these well-known ports, FTP clients and servers can establish a connection and exchange data effectively.

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  • 15. 

    A 66 block is MOST commonly used in which of the following networks?

    • A.

      Voice

    • B.

      Cloud

    • C.

      SONET

    • D.

      Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Voice
    Explanation
    A 66 block is most commonly used in voice networks. This type of block is a punch-down block that allows for the termination of multiple telephone lines. It provides a convenient and organized way to connect and manage telephone connections within a network. While it can also be used in other types of networks, such as data networks, it is primarily associated with voice networks due to its specific design and purpose.

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  • 16. 

    A technician is having intermittent connectivity problems with a hotel's wireless network. Using the laptop's wireless utility, the technician sees three access points all using channel 11. Which of the following describes the reason for the connectivity problems?

    • A.

      Beacon rate

    • B.

      Attenuation

    • C.

      Interference

    • D.

      Crosstalk

    Correct Answer
    C. Interference
    Explanation
    The reason for the connectivity problems is interference. When multiple access points are using the same channel, it can cause interference and result in intermittent connectivity issues. Interference occurs when the wireless signals from different devices overlap and disrupt each other's transmission. In this case, having three access points all using channel 11 can cause interference and lead to connectivity problems for the technician.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following components have home runs from different locations to the telecommunications closet?

    • A.

      Smart jack

    • B.

      Patch panel

    • C.

      Demarc

    • D.

      Demarc extension

    Correct Answer
    B. Patch panel
    Explanation
    A patch panel is a device that allows multiple network cables to be connected and organized in a central location, typically in a telecommunications closet. It serves as a hub for connecting different components of a network, such as computers, switches, and routers. Since the patch panel is responsible for connecting various devices from different locations to the telecommunications closet, it is the component that may have home runs from different locations.

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  • 18. 

    A traceroute command primarily provides information in the context of number and:

    • A.

      IP address of packets

    • B.

      Location of MAC addresses

    • C.

      Location of ports

    • D.

      IP address of hops

    Correct Answer
    D. IP address of hops
    Explanation
    A traceroute command is used to track the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It displays the IP addresses of the intermediate hops that the packets pass through. This information helps in identifying the network route and any potential bottlenecks or delays. The command does not provide information about the IP address of the packets themselves, the location of MAC addresses, or the location of ports.

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  • 19. 

    A user reports that some normally accessible external sites are not responding, but most other sites are responding normally. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

    • A.

      VLAN tag mismatch

    • B.

      Port filtering

    • C.

      Smurf attack

    • D.

      Faulty routing rule

    Correct Answer
    D. Faulty routing rule
    Explanation
    A faulty routing rule is the most likely cause for the issue described. A routing rule is responsible for directing network traffic to its intended destination. If there is a mistake or error in the routing rule, it can result in certain external sites becoming inaccessible while most other sites continue to function normally. This could be due to the routing rule incorrectly directing traffic away from the affected sites or not routing it properly.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is an IPv6 address for localhost?

    • A.

      ::1

    • B.

      127::

    • C.

      FF::0

    • D.

      FFFF:127.0.0.1

    Correct Answer
    A. ::1
    Explanation
    The IPv6 address for localhost is represented by "::1". This address is specifically reserved for the loopback interface, which allows a device to communicate with itself. It is commonly used for testing network applications on a local machine without the need for an actual network connection. The other options provided are not valid IPv6 addresses for localhost.

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  • 21. 

    After a technician has established a plan of action to resolve the problem, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT?

    • A.

      Establish a theory of probable cause.

    • B.

      Implement preventative measures.

    • C.

      Verify full system functionality.

    • D.

      Implement the solution of escalate as necessary.

    Correct Answer
    D. Implement the solution of escalate as necessary.
    Explanation
    After a technician has established a plan of action to resolve the problem, the next step should be to implement the solution or escalate as necessary. This means that the technician should start working on resolving the problem based on the plan they have created. If the plan involves implementing a solution directly, the technician should proceed with that. However, if the plan requires further assistance or escalation to higher-level support, the technician should follow the necessary steps to ensure the problem gets resolved effectively.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following standards is implemented in 802.1af?

    • A.

      WiMAX

    • B.

      Power over Ethernet

    • C.

      Fast Ethernet

    • D.

      5Ghz Wireless

    Correct Answer
    B. Power over Ethernet
    Explanation
    802.1af implements the Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard. This standard allows for the transmission of electrical power along with data over Ethernet cables. It enables devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and cameras to receive power directly from the Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for separate power cables and adapters. This simplifies installation and reduces costs, making it a popular choice in network deployments.

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  • 23. 

    An administrator is creating a patch cable. Which of the following devices should the administrator use to terminate the ends?

    • A.

      Cable tester

    • B.

      Certifier

    • C.

      Cable stripper

    • D.

      Data crimper

    Correct Answer
    D. Data crimper
    Explanation
    A data crimper is the correct device to use to terminate the ends of a patch cable. A data crimper is a tool used to attach connectors, such as RJ-45 connectors, to the ends of network cables. It allows the administrator to securely attach the connectors, ensuring a proper and reliable connection.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following tools would be BEST used to trace a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together?

    • A.

      Cable tester

    • B.

      Toner probe

    • C.

      Cable crimper

    • D.

      Punch down tool

    Correct Answer
    B. Toner probe
    Explanation
    A toner probe is the best tool to trace a wire through an area where multiple wires of the same color are twisted together. A toner probe is designed to send a tone through a wire, which can then be detected using a probe. By connecting the toner to the wire in question, the user can then use the probe to follow the tone and trace the wire through the twisted bundle. This tool is specifically designed for wire tracing and is therefore the most suitable option for this scenario.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following commands will remove cached DNS entries?

    • A.

      route del -net 127.0.0.1

    • B.

      Route add -net 0.0.0.0

    • C.

      Ipconfig /flushdns

    • D.

      Nslookup 127.0.0.1

    Correct Answer
    C. Ipconfig /flushdns
    Explanation
    The command "ipconfig /flushdns" is used to remove cached DNS entries. This command clears the DNS resolver cache on a Windows computer, forcing it to query DNS servers for new DNS information when needed.

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  • 26. 

    A technician needs to customize various cable lengths and verify that the cables are working correctly. Which of the following tools would be needed to accomplish this?

    • A.

      Multimeter, Loopback plug

    • B.

      Cable certifier, Punch down tool

    • C.

      Punch down tool, Crimper

    • D.

      Punch down tool, Cable certifier

    Correct Answer
    B. Cable certifier, Punch down tool
    Explanation
    A cable certifier is needed to verify that the cables are working correctly. This tool can test the performance and quality of the cables, ensuring that they meet the required standards. A punch down tool is also needed to customize cable lengths. This tool is used to terminate and secure the wires onto a punch down block or keystone jack. By using both the cable certifier and punch down tool, the technician can customize cable lengths and ensure that the cables are functioning properly.

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  • 27. 

    An administrator suspects the computer they are working on has lost its default gateway and its specific route to the HR department. Which of the following commands should be run to verify the route setting?

    • A.

      Route add default gateway 192.168.1.1

    • B.

      Route -nr

    • C.

      Ipconfig /all

    • D.

      Route print

    Correct Answer
    D. Route print
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "route print". The "route print" command is used to display the routing table on a computer. By running this command, the administrator can verify the route settings and check if the default gateway and the specific route to the HR department are configured correctly. This command will provide information about the network destinations, gateways, netmask, interface, and metric values.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following allows for multiple operating systems to be run simultaneously on a single server? A. Dual boot B. Multiple hard drives C. PXE boot D. Virtual machines

    • A.

      Dual boot

    • B.

      Multiple hard drives

    • C.

      PXE boot

    • D.

      Virtual machines

    Correct Answer
    D. Virtual machines
    Explanation
    Virtual machines allow for multiple operating systems to be run simultaneously on a single server. This is achieved by using virtualization technology that allows the creation of virtual instances of computers within a physical server. Each virtual machine can run its own operating system, independent of the others, allowing for efficient utilization of hardware resources and the ability to run different operating systems on the same server. Dual boot, multiple hard drives, and PXE boot do not provide the same level of flexibility and efficiency as virtual machines.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following connector types would MOST likely be used in combination with a GBIC?

    • A.

      RS-232

    • B.

      SC

    • C.

      RJ-11

    • D.

      BNC

    Correct Answer
    B. SC
    Explanation
    A GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) is a transceiver module used to connect networking devices, such as switches and routers, to fiber optic cables. The SC (Subscriber Connector) connector type is commonly used with GBIC modules. The SC connector has a push-pull mechanism, making it easy to insert and remove. It provides a reliable and secure connection for high-speed data transmission over fiber optic cables. Therefore, the SC connector is the most likely connector type to be used in combination with a GBIC.

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  • 30. 

    A home user reports an issue with the wireless network connection on a laptop. It seems to occur only when the phone rings. Which of the following should be changed to resolve the issue?

    • A.

      Change the channel of the WAP.

    • B.

      Change the wireless security that is being used.

    • C.

      Rename the SSID.

    • D.

      Relocate the antenna to another area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Change the channel of the WAP.
  • 31. 

    Which of the following technologies relies on up-to-date signatures to protect the network and block malicious network-based attacks?  

    • A.

      HIDS

    • B.

      IDS

    • C.

      IPS

    • D.

      Firewall

    Correct Answer
    C. IPS
    Explanation
    IPS stands for Intrusion Prevention System. It is a technology that relies on up-to-date signatures to protect the network and block malicious network-based attacks. An IPS monitors network traffic and analyzes it for any suspicious or malicious activity. It uses signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known attacks, to detect and prevent such attacks from occurring. By keeping these signatures up-to-date, an IPS can effectively protect the network from a wide range of threats and vulnerabilities.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following features of a switch allows WAPs to be installed in locations where no power sources are available?

    • A.

      Aggregation

    • B.

      Port forwarding

    • C.

      PoE

    • D.

      VLAN

    Correct Answer
    C. PoE
    Explanation
    PoE stands for Power over Ethernet, which is a feature of a switch that allows devices like wireless access points (WAPs) to be powered through the Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for a separate power source. This is particularly useful in locations where power sources are not readily available, as it simplifies the installation process and reduces the need for additional wiring. By using PoE, WAPs can be easily deployed in remote or hard-to-reach areas without the need for complex power arrangements.

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  • 33. 

    A small office has asked to have their Ethernet NIC enabled PCs networked together by a consultant. The office users want file sharing capability with no access to the Internet. Which of the following items will the consultant need? (Select TWO).  

    • A.

      Network bridge, CAT5e patch cabling

    • B.

      Switch,Firewall

    • C.

      RG-59 patch cabling,Firewall

    • D.

      CAT5e patch cabling, Switch

    Correct Answer
    D. CAT5e patch cabling, Switch
    Explanation
    The consultant will need CAT5e patch cabling and a switch to network the PCs together. CAT5e patch cabling is required to physically connect the PCs to the switch, allowing for data transmission between them. The switch is needed to create a local area network (LAN) and facilitate communication between the connected PCs.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is an encrypted client/server authentication?  

    • A.

      IPSec

    • B.

      VNC

    • C.

      IP filtering

    • D.

      MAC filtering

    Correct Answer
    A. IPSec
    Explanation
    IPSec is an encrypted client/server authentication protocol that provides secure communication over IP networks. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data transmitted between the client and server. IPSec uses encryption algorithms to encrypt the data and authentication protocols to verify the identities of the communicating parties. It is commonly used in Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) to establish secure connections between remote clients and servers.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following has similar functionalities as a wireless repeater?

    • A.

      Basic switch

    • B.

      Wireless access point

    • C.

      Basic firewall

    • D.

      DHCP server

    Correct Answer
    B. Wireless access point
    Explanation
    A wireless access point has similar functionalities as a wireless repeater. Both devices are used to extend the range and coverage of a wireless network. A wireless access point connects to a wired network and broadcasts a wireless signal, allowing devices to connect to the network wirelessly. Similarly, a wireless repeater also extends the range of a wireless network by receiving and amplifying the existing signal and then rebroadcasting it. Both devices help to improve the coverage and reach of a wireless network.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following terms correctly defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network?

    • A.

      Convergence

    • B.

      Spanning tree

    • C.

      Port mirroring

    • D.

      Link state

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergence
    Explanation
    Convergence is the correct term that defines the event in which multiple dynamic routers agree on the state of the network. Convergence refers to the process by which routers exchange information and update their routing tables to reach a consistent state. When multiple routers agree on the network's state, it means that they have converged and are all aware of the same network topology and routing information. This ensures efficient and reliable routing in the network.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following should an administrator use to identify where all the MDFs are located within the network?  

    • A.

      Wiring schematics

    • B.

      Security and network policies

    • C.

      Physical network diagram

    • D.

      Baseline configurations

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical network diagram
    Explanation
    An administrator should use a physical network diagram to identify where all the MDFs (Main Distribution Frames) are located within the network. A physical network diagram provides a visual representation of the network infrastructure, including the physical locations of devices, connections, and network components. By referring to the physical network diagram, the administrator can easily locate and identify the MDFs within the network.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following attacks is a social engineering attack?

    • A.

      Man-in-the-middl

    • B.

      Rootkits

    • C.

      Vishing

    • D.

      DDoS

    Correct Answer
    C. Vishing
    Explanation
    Vishing is a social engineering attack. It involves the use of voice communication, typically through phone calls, to deceive individuals and gather sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted entity, such as a bank representative, and manipulates the victim into providing personal details, passwords, or financial information. This attack relies on exploiting human trust and persuasion rather than technical vulnerabilities.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following BEST describes how packets are delivered to the destination node?  

    • A.

      Routing table

    • B.

      Metrics

    • C.

      Convergence

    • D.

      Neighbor status

    Correct Answer
    A. Routing table
    Explanation
    The routing table is a data structure used by routers to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. It contains information about the network topology and the available routes. When a packet arrives at a router, the routing table is consulted to determine the next hop for the packet. This process continues until the packet reaches its destination node. Therefore, the routing table plays a crucial role in ensuring that packets are delivered to the correct destination node.

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  • 40. 

    When testing CAT5e cables that were recently terminated, the testing device reports near end crosstalk. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem?  

    • A.

      The cable jacket is plenum rated.

    • B.

      The cable is shielded.

    • C.

      The technician used RJ-11 connectors on the wire.

    • D.

      The technician did not leave enough twists on the pairs.

    Correct Answer
    D. The technician did not leave enough twists on the pairs.
    Explanation
    Near end crosstalk (NEXT) is a common issue in networking cables where signals from one pair of wires interfere with signals on another pair. This interference can occur if the pairs are not twisted tightly enough, which helps to minimize crosstalk. Therefore, the most likely cause of the reported near end crosstalk is that the technician did not leave enough twists on the pairs when terminating the CAT5e cables.

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  • 41. 

    A technician installed a wireless network, and it worked as expected during testing. However during the conference, the network was intermittent at best. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring?  

    • A.

      Interference from the satellite dish is causing a broadcast storm.

    • B.

      PoE requirements are much greater with multiple users.

    • C.

      The AP has reached capacity.

    • D.

      The network switches have overheated due to capacity.

    Correct Answer
    C. The AP has reached capacity.
    Explanation
    The given answer suggests that the access point (AP) has reached its maximum capacity, leading to the intermittent network during the conference. This means that the AP is unable to handle the number of devices or the amount of network traffic during the conference, causing disruptions in the network connection.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following devices will forward broadcast traffic by default?  

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Firewall

    • C.

      Bridge

    • D.

      Hub

    Correct Answer
    D. Hub
    Explanation
    A hub is a network device that operates at the physical layer of the OSI model and forwards all incoming traffic to all connected devices. It does not filter or analyze the traffic, so it will forward broadcast traffic by default. Switches, firewalls, and bridges, on the other hand, operate at higher layers of the OSI model and typically have built-in mechanisms to filter or block broadcast traffic.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following WAN technologies uses a maximum line rate of 2.048Mbps?  

    • A.

      T3

    • B.

      E1

    • C.

      ISDN PRI

    • D.

      ISDN BRI

    Correct Answer
    B. E1
    Explanation
    E1 is the correct answer because it is a WAN technology that uses a maximum line rate of 2.048Mbps. T3, ISDN PRI, and ISDN BRI are other WAN technologies, but they do not have a maximum line rate of 2.048Mbps.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following network protocols is required to allow two computers to communicate within the same network segment?  

    • A.

      SSH

    • B.

      POP3

    • C.

      ARP

    • D.

      DNS

    Correct Answer
    C. ARP
    Explanation
    ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a network protocol that allows two computers to communicate within the same network segment by resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. When a computer wants to send data to another computer on the same network, it needs to know the MAC address of the destination computer. ARP helps in finding the MAC address by broadcasting an ARP request to all computers on the network, and the computer with the matching IP address responds with its MAC address. This allows the two computers to establish communication within the same network segment.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following devices is unable to differentiate the appropriate destination of intended traffic on a network?  

    • A.

      Bridge

    • B.

      Unmanaged switch

    • C.

      Hub

    • D.

      Managed switch

    Correct Answer
    C. Hub
    Explanation
    A hub is unable to differentiate the appropriate destination of intended traffic on a network. Unlike a switch or a bridge, which can analyze the destination address of each packet and forward it only to the intended recipient, a hub simply broadcasts all incoming traffic to all connected devices. This means that all devices connected to a hub will receive all traffic, regardless of whether it is intended for them or not. Therefore, a hub is not able to differentiate and direct traffic to the appropriate destination.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following should occur when closing a network project?  

    • A.

      Update documentation

    • B.

      Validate the design

    • C.

      Configure the new network devices

    • D.

      Develop a project plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Update documentation
    Explanation
    When closing a network project, updating the documentation is necessary. This includes documenting any changes or updates made during the project, as well as recording any lessons learned or best practices discovered. Updating the documentation ensures that the network project is properly documented and can be easily referenced in the future if needed. It also helps to maintain accurate records and provide valuable information for future network projects or troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following utilities would a technician use to determine the location of lost packets on a routed network?

    • A.

      Ping

    • B.

      Nslookup

    • C.

      Route

    • D.

      Tracert

    Correct Answer
    D. Tracert
    Explanation
    A technician would use the utility "tracert" to determine the location of lost packets on a routed network. Tracert stands for "trace route" and it is a command-line tool that traces the route that packets take from the source to the destination. By sending a series of packets with increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, tracert can identify the routers or network devices that the packets pass through. This can help identify where the packets are being lost or experiencing delays, allowing the technician to troubleshoot and resolve the issue.

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  • 48. 

    A user has reported a problem with a network device. The network technician has theorized that the device is faulty and has tested to confirm the theory. Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology should the technician do NEXT?  

    • A.

      Establish a theory of probable cause.

    • B.

      Implement preventative measures.

    • C.

      Mplement the solution.

    • D.

      Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    Explanation
    After confirming the theory that the network device is faulty, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology should be to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This involves determining the specific steps and resources needed to fix the issue, such as replacing the device or performing repairs. By creating a plan, the technician can ensure that the problem is addressed effectively and efficiently.

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  • 49. 

    A technician is setting up a temporary wired network for a conference being hosted at the company headquarters. The purpose of the network is to share files between guests laptops, with no Internet access. Which of the following devices would BEST accomplish this scenario at a low cost?  

    • A.

      Bridge

    • B.

      Repeater

    • C.

      Modem

    • D.

      Switch

    Correct Answer
    D. Switch
    Explanation
    A switch would be the best device to accomplish this scenario at a low cost. A switch is used to connect multiple devices together on a local area network (LAN) and allows for the sharing of files between connected devices. It does not require an internet connection, making it suitable for a temporary wired network without internet access. A bridge, repeater, and modem are not necessary in this scenario as they serve different purposes.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following devices is a technician MOST likely to be connecting to if they are using a rollover cable?  

    • A.

      Hub

    • B.

      Router

    • C.

      UPS

    • D.

      Unmanaged switch

    Correct Answer
    B. Router
    Explanation
    A technician is most likely to be connecting to a router if they are using a rollover cable. A rollover cable is a type of cable used for connecting a computer to a router's console port. This cable is used for configuration and management purposes, allowing the technician to access the router's command-line interface (CLI) and make changes to its settings. The other options, such as a hub, UPS, or unmanaged switch, do not typically require a rollover cable for connection or configuration.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 14, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Tmede212
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