Nasscom Sample Test - 2 (Aptitude)

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The interval of time after which the bells will ring together again can be found by finding the least common multiple (LCM) of the intervals of time at which the bells ring. The LCM of 10, 12, 15, and 20 is 60. Therefore, the bells will ring together again after 60 minutes, which is equivalent to 1 hour. Since they rang together at 8 a.m., they will ring together again at 9 a.m.

The man can complete the job in 25 days, so in 1 day he can complete 1/25th of the job. He worked for 15 days, so he completed 15/25th of the job. This means that there is still 10/25th of the job left. B completes the remaining 10/25th of the job in 10 days. Therefore, B can complete 1/25th of the job in 1 day, so both A and B together can complete 2/25th of the job in 1 day. To complete the remaining 10/25th of the job, it will take 5 days. Therefore, the total time taken by both A and B to complete the job is 15 + 5 = 20 days. Hence, the answer is 12 ½ days.

Let the numbers be 3x and 4x. The difference between their squares is (4x)^2 - (3x)^2 = 28. Simplifying this equation, we get 7x^2 = 28. Dividing both sides by 7, we get x^2 = 4. Taking the square root of both sides, we get x = 2. Therefore, the numbers are 6 and 8. The sum of their squares is 6^2 + 8^2 = 36 + 64 = 100. However, none of the given options match this result. Therefore, the correct answer is none.

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 140% and the denominator is increased by 150%, the resultant fraction cannot be 4/15. This is because increasing the numerator and denominator will make the fraction larger, not smaller. Therefore, the original fraction cannot be determined from the given information.

If the candidate got 30% marks and failed by 30 marks, then the passing marks must be 100 - 30 = 70%. Since the passing marks are 60% of the total marks, we can set up the equation 70% = 60% of the total marks. Solving this equation, we find that the total marks are 100. Therefore, the maximum marks will be 100.

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The student initially traveled at a speed of 12 mph and reached the school half-an-hour late. By increasing his speed by 3 mph, he was able to reach the school on time the next day. This means that the increase in speed allowed him to make up for the half-an-hour delay. Therefore, the time taken to travel the distance between his house and school is the same in both cases. Since the speed increased by 3 mph, the distance must have remained the same. Hence, the distance between his house and school is 30 miles.

If 10 men can reap a field in 4 days, it means that the work done by 10 men in 4 days is equal to the work required to reap the field. Therefore, the number of man-days required to reap the field is 10 men x 4 days = 40 man-days.
To find out how many days it would take for 8 men to reap the same field, we divide the total number of man-days required (40) by the number of men (8).
So, 40 man-days / 8 men = 5 days. Therefore, 8 men will reap the same field in 5 days.

The correct answer is c) Rs.14,000. We can solve this problem using the formula for compound interest: A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt), where A is the final amount, P is the principal amount, r is the interest rate, n is the number of times interest is compounded per year, and t is the number of years. Given that the difference between the simple interest and compound interest after two years is Rs.35, we can set up the equation: P * (1 + 0.05)² - P - 35 = 0. Solving this equation, we find that P is equal to Rs.14,000.

In one year, the total population increased by 9%. Let's assume the number of males in the town is M and the number of females is F. We can set up the equation: M + F = 8,000.

Since the male population increased by 10%, the new number of males is 1.1M.
Similarly, the new number of females is 1.08F (increased by 8%).

The total population after the increase is 1.1M + 1.08F.
According to the information given, this total population increased by 9%.

So, we can set up the equation:
1.09(8,000) = 1.1M + 1.08F.

Simplifying this equation, we get:
8,720 = 1.1M + 1.08F.

Since M + F = 8,000, we can substitute F = 8,000 - M into the equation:
8,720 = 1.1M + 1.08(8,000 - M).

Solving this equation, we find M = 4,000. Therefore, the number of males in the town is 4,000.

If the price of sugar is reduced by 20%, it means the housewife can buy 6 kgs more for the same amount of money. So, the extra 6 kgs of sugar cost Rs.240. Therefore, the price per kg of sugar is Rs.240/6 = Rs.40. However, this is the reduced price. To find the original price, we need to increase it by 20%. So, the original price per kg of sugar is Rs.40 + 20% of Rs.40 = Rs.40 + Rs.8 = Rs.48. Therefore, the correct answer is a) Rs.10, as it is the closest option to the original price of Rs.48.

If a certain number of men can finish a work in 60 days, then the rate at which they work is 1/60 of the work per day. Let's say there were initially x men. If there were 10 men less, then the number of men would be x - 10. In this case, the rate at which they work would be 1/(60 + 20) = 1/80 of the work per day. We can set up the equation (1/60)x = (1/80)(x - 10) and solve for x. Simplifying the equation gives 4x = 3x - 30, which means x = 30. Therefore, there were initially 30 men. Since the question asks for the number of men initially, the correct answer is d) 40.

If the article is sold at Rs.4,000 for a loss of 20%, it means that the selling price is 80% of the cost price.
Let the cost price be x.
So, 80% of x is equal to Rs.4,000.
Therefore, x = Rs.4,000/0.8 = Rs.5,000.
If the article is sold at 20% more, the selling price would be 120% of the cost price.
So, the new selling price would be 120% of Rs.5,000, which is Rs.6,000.
The profit or loss percentage can be calculated using the formula: (Selling Price - Cost Price)/Cost Price * 100.
In this case, the profit or loss percentage is (Rs.6,000 - Rs.5,000)/Rs.5,000 * 100 = 20%.
Since the profit or loss percentage is positive, it indicates a profit.
Therefore, the correct answer is c) 4% loss.

When the man is travelling at 3/4th of his usual speed, he gets late by 10 minutes. This means that the time it takes for him to travel the usual distance at 3/4th of his speed is 10 minutes longer than the time it takes for him to travel the same distance at his usual speed. Therefore, if he travels at his usual speed, he will take 10 minutes less than the time it took him to travel at 3/4th of his speed. Since the time taken at 3/4th of his speed is 30 minutes, the man will take 30 - 10 = 20 minutes when he travels at his usual speed. Therefore, the correct answer is d) 30 min.

The weights of the three pieces are in the ratio 3:4:5, which means that the weights can be represented as 3x, 4x, and 5x. The value of the diamond is proportionate to the square of its weight, so the value of the original diamond can be represented as (3x)^2 + (4x)^2 + (5x)^2 = 9x^2 + 16x^2 + 25x^2 = 50x^2. The value of the original diamond is given as Rs.72,000, so 50x^2 = 72,000. Solving for x, we get x = 60. The value of the broken diamond is (3x)^2 + (4x)^2 + (5x)^2 = 9x^2 + 16x^2 + 25x^2 = 50x^2 = 50(60^2) = Rs.1,80,000. The loss in value due to the breakage is Rs.1,80,000 - Rs.72,000 = Rs.1,08,000. Therefore, the correct answer is d) Rs.47,000.