3e951 Vol 3 Edit Code 8 Air Force Incident Management System
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(410) What colors are used for the background and writing on chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) marking signs to indicate biological contamination?
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Blue background; red writing.
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Red background; blue writing.
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Yellow background; red writing.
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Red background; white writing.
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About This Quiz
The Air Force being a very disciplined group is guided and led by codes, which every member has to adhere to. 3e951 Vol 3 Air Force Incident Management System assesses your knowledge on code 8. All the best.
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- 2.
(412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated?
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Immediate.
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Operational.
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Thorough.
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Clearance.
Correct Answer
A. Immediate.Explanation
The level of decontamination conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated is called immediate decontamination. This type of decontamination aims to remove or neutralize the contaminant as quickly as possible to prevent further exposure or spread of contamination. It typically involves actions such as removing contaminated clothing, rinsing off the contaminant, and applying decontamination solutions or treatments. Immediate decontamination is crucial in minimizing the potential health risks associated with contamination.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(423) When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and must be replaced, its center color changes from white to
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Black.
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Green.
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Dark blue.
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Dark green.
Correct Answer
A. Dark blue.Explanation
When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and needs to be replaced, its center color changes from white to dark blue.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(418) During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the
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Clean person.
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Dirty person.
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Element leader.
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Recorder.
Correct Answer
A. Clean person.Explanation
During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the clean person. This term is used to describe the individual responsible for maintaining cleanliness and preventing contamination during the sampling process. They ensure that proper hygiene practices are followed, such as wearing appropriate protective clothing and using sterile equipment. The clean person plays a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the collected samples.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(420) Which sample collection technique is the basic and preferred sample collection method?
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Composite.
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Discrete.
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Surface.
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Grab.
Correct Answer
A. Grab.Explanation
The grab sample collection technique is considered the basic and preferred method because it involves quickly collecting a sample from a specific location without mixing or diluting it with other samples. This technique is commonly used in environmental monitoring, water quality testing, and industrial processes where it is important to obtain a representative sample at a specific point in time. Grab sampling allows for accurate analysis of the sample without the need for complex equipment or extensive sample preparation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(422) Before using an air-purifying respirator (APR) or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR), you need to make sure the
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Oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%.
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Chemicals/air contaminants in the air are small-sized particulates.
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Chemicals/air contaminants in the air are large-sized particulates.
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Atmospheric hazards are above immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%. -
- 7.
(409) The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to
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Decontaminate.
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Keep personnel out of contaminated zones.
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Have personnel leave contaminated zones by any means.
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Keep personnel inside buildings in contaminated zones.
Correct Answer
A. Keep personnel out of contaminated zones.Explanation
The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to keep personnel out of contaminated zones. This is because being in a contaminated zone increases the risk of exposure to the chemical agent. By keeping personnel out of these areas, the chances of coming into contact with the chemical agent are significantly reduced, thereby minimizing exposure and potential harm.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(417) During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey?
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Direct as possible.
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Crosswind.
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Upwind.
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Downwind.
Correct Answer
A. Upwind.Explanation
During dismounted reconnaissance, the initial entry team will approach the area being surveyed from the upwind direction. This is because approaching from upwind allows the team to avoid carrying any odors or sounds towards the area, reducing the risk of alerting potential threats or disturbing the natural environment. It also provides the team with a better vantage point to observe the area and any potential dangers that may be present.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(423) Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) does the Air Force ground crew personnel use?
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M50.
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M51.
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M52.
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M61.
Correct Answer
A. M50.Explanation
The Air Force ground crew personnel use the M50 model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM).Rate this question:
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- 10.
(432) What category of war reserve materiel (WRM) includes food necessary to feed a person for one day?
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Rations.
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Equipment
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Consumables
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Fuels mobility support equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Rations.Explanation
The correct answer is Rations. Rations are a category of war reserve materiel (WRM) that includes food necessary to feed a person for one day. Rations are essential for sustaining military personnel during combat or emergency situations where regular food supply may not be available. They are designed to provide the necessary nutrition and energy for soldiers to perform their duties effectively. Rations can come in various forms, such as individual meal packs or bulk supplies, and are an important component of military logistics planning.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(402) Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program?
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Shelter management teams.
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Contamination control teams.
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An effective command and control (C2) system.
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A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post.
Correct Answer
A. An effective command and control (C2) system.Explanation
An effective command and control (C2) system is the best item that describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program. This is because a C2 system provides the necessary structure and coordination to effectively manage and respond to emergencies. It allows for efficient communication, decision-making, and resource allocation, which are crucial in emergency situations. With an effective C2 system in place, emergency management teams can better coordinate their efforts and ensure a timely and organized response to emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(405) Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress?
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White.
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Yellow.
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Red.
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Black.
Correct Answer
A. Red.Explanation
The correct answer is Red. The question asks about the air defense warning condition color that indicates an imminent or ongoing attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles. Red is the color used to indicate this level of threat.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(407) Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option?
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Ventilation.
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No-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit.
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Mask-only.
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Hood open.
Correct Answer
A. Hood open.Explanation
The correct answer is "Hood open." In a standard mission oriented protection posture (MOPP), the hood is typically worn to provide additional protection for the head and neck. The other options mentioned, such as ventilation, no-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit, and mask-only, are all valid MOPP options that are used to protect against chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats. However, leaving the hood open would leave the head and neck exposed, which goes against the purpose of MOPP.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(414) During contamination control area (CCA) processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers.
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Dry powder.
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5 percent liquid chlorine solution.
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30 percent super tropical bleach (STB).
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50 percent BK powder and Lo-Bax.
Correct Answer
A. 5 percent liquid chlorine solution.Explanation
During contamination control area (CCA) processing, the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers is a 5 percent liquid chlorine solution. This solution is effective in killing bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that may be present on these items. It is important to use a solution that is strong enough to kill these pathogens but not so strong that it damages the items being decontaminated. A 5 percent liquid chlorine solution strikes the right balance and is therefore the preferred choice for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(428) What type of unit type code (UTC) provides the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible?
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Associate.
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Non-deployable.
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In-place requirement.
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Standard deployable.
Correct Answer
A. Standard deployable.Explanation
Standard deployable unit type codes (UTCs) provide the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible. These UTCs are specifically designed for units that are ready to deploy and can be rapidly mobilized and deployed for various missions. They are crucial for planning and executing military operations as they represent units that are fully trained, equipped, and capable of being deployed at any given time. By utilizing standard deployable UTCs, Air Force planners can ensure that they have the necessary resources and capabilities to support national military strategy effectively.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(428) In reference to mission capability (MISCAP), what are the required skill level(s) on an emergency management (EM) installation management team?
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One 9-level.
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Two 5-levels.
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One 5- and one 7-level.
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One chief master sergeant (3E900).
Correct Answer
A. One 5- and one 7-level.Explanation
The required skill levels on an emergency management installation management team in reference to mission capability (MISCAP) are one 5-level and one 7-level. This means that one team member should have a skill level of 5 and another team member should have a skill level of 7. These skill levels indicate the level of expertise and experience that the team members possess in emergency management.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(402) What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure?
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Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.
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Individual through Emergency Operations Center to the Unit Control Center.
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Emergency Operations Center through Unit Control Center to the individual.
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Unit control center through the Emergency Operations Center to the individual.
Correct Answer
A. Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.Explanation
The correct answer is "Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center." This means that the flow of attack information starts with the individual, who reports it to the Unit Control Center. The Unit Control Center then forwards the information to the Emergency Operations Center for further action and coordination. This flow ensures that the information is properly communicated and reaches the appropriate authorities for response and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under
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MOPP 1.
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MOPP 2.
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MOPP 3.
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MOPP 4.
Correct Answer
A. MOPP 4.Explanation
Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. MOPP 4 is the highest level of protection where personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items. This indicates that the installation is operating under the highest level of readiness and preparedness for CBRN threats.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(414) The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA)?
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25.
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30.
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40.
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50
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least 50 feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA). This distance is necessary to ensure that the waste does not contaminate the entrance or pose a risk to individuals entering or exiting the area. It also helps to prevent the spread of contaminants to other areas and ensures the safety of personnel working in the CCA.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(417) When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first?
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Determine if the item is recognizable.
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Move toward the item.
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Photograph the undisturbed item.
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Initiate detection procedures.
Correct Answer
A. Photograph the undisturbed item.Explanation
When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will first photograph the undisturbed item. This step is taken to ensure that the item is documented before any disturbance or potential damage occurs. By photographing the undisturbed item, the initial entry element can capture its original state and preserve any potential evidence or information that may be lost if the item is moved or disturbed. This allows for a thorough analysis and evaluation of the item later on.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(423) What is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment?
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Mask mold.
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Face form.
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Faceblank.
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Cover.
Correct Answer
A. Face form.Explanation
The correct answer is face form. The face form is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment. The face form helps to maintain the shape and integrity of the mask's face seal, ensuring a proper fit and effective protection for the user.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(429) What is the status of resource and training system (SORTS)?
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A system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer.
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An external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them.
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A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system.
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An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations.
Correct Answer
A. An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations.Explanation
SORTS stands for Status of Resource and Training System. It is an automated reporting system that serves as the central registry for all operational units of the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations. It allows for the tracking and reporting of resources and training status, providing a comprehensive overview of the readiness and capabilities of these units.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(429) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called
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A-levels.
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C-levels.
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M-levels.
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P-levels.
Correct Answer
A. C-levels.Explanation
The correct answer is C-levels. The question states that a five-point scale is used to indicate the degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment. Out of the options provided, C-levels is the only one that fits this description. The other options (A-levels, M-levels, and P-levels) do not match the criteria mentioned in the question. Therefore, C-levels is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(417) During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door?
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An “X”.
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A “slash”.
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A “slash & circle”.
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An “X & circle”.
Correct Answer
A. An “X”.Explanation
During the initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places an "X" mark on the door.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(401) An installation’s primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the
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Commanders’ notifications.
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Primary and secondary crash nets.
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Disaster response force recall.
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Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
Correct Answer
A. Primary and secondary crash nets.Explanation
The installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the use of primary and secondary crash nets. Crash nets are communication systems that allow for immediate and direct communication between individuals involved in emergency response. They are specifically designed to quickly relay important information and coordinate actions during emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(402) What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations?
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Unit control centers.
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Emergency operations centers.
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Installation command posts.
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Installation information exchange networks.
Correct Answer
A. Unit control centers.Explanation
Unit commanders use unit control centers to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations. These control centers provide a centralized location for commanders to coordinate and control the allocation of resources and implement passive defense measures to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the unit during contingency operations. They serve as a hub for communication, decision-making, and resource management, allowing commanders to effectively manage and respond to the demands of the operation.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(403) Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center?
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Detection.
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Plotting.
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Defending.
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Identification.
Correct Answer
A. Defending.Explanation
The question asks for the option that is not one of the seven major requirements of the CBRN control center. The given options are "Detection," "Plotting," "Defending," and "Identification." Out of these options, "Defending" is the correct answer. The other options, such as "Detection," "Plotting," and "Identification," are all major requirements of the CBRN control center.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(408) While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds?
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Alpha.
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Beta.
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Gamma.
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Beta/gamma.
Correct Answer
A. Alpha.Explanation
When conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), holding the alpha probe in place for 10 seconds is necessary. This is because alpha particles are relatively large and have a short range, so holding the probe in place allows for accurate measurement of any alpha radiation present in the area. Beta particles have a longer range and can penetrate deeper into the body, while gamma rays have the longest range and can pass through most materials. Beta/gamma probe is not specified in the question, so it is not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(411) A collective protection shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification?
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Radiological.
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Chemical.
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Biological.
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Chlorine.
Correct Answer
A. Radiological.Explanation
A collective protection shelter is designed to provide protection from various forms of contamination, including chemical, biological, and radiological threats. However, without modification, it may not provide sufficient shielding from radiological contamination. This means that additional measures or adjustments would be required to ensure adequate protection from radiation in the shelter.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(418) During two-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?
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Clean person.
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Dirty person.
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Recorder.
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Incident commander (IC).
Correct Answer
A. Dirty person.Explanation
During two-person sample collection operations, the dirty person exercises overall control of sample collection. This is because the dirty person is responsible for directly handling and collecting the samples, ensuring proper procedures are followed, and maintaining the integrity of the samples. The clean person's role is to assist the dirty person by providing necessary equipment and support, while the recorder documents the process. The incident commander (IC) oversees the overall operation but does not have direct control over sample collection.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(431) What is the weight of an empty 463L pallet?
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65 pounds.
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290 pounds.
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355 pounds.
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463 pounds.
Correct Answer
A. 290 pounds.Explanation
The correct answer is 290 pounds. This means that an empty 463L pallet weighs 290 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(415) Which option is not a form of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance operation?
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Route.
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Area.
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Installation.
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Zone.
Correct Answer
A. Installation.Explanation
The options given in the question are all related to different forms of CBRN reconnaissance operations. Route reconnaissance involves surveying and assessing potential routes for CBRN threats. Area reconnaissance focuses on identifying and evaluating potential CBRN hazards in a specific area. Zone reconnaissance involves conducting surveillance and gathering information about a larger region. However, installation reconnaissance refers to the process of assessing and monitoring CBRN threats specifically within a military installation or facility. Therefore, installation is not a form of CBRN reconnaissance operation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the surface area of a soil sample that should be taken?
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3½ inches by 3½ inches.
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2½ inches by 2½ inches
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1½ inches by 1½ inches
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½ inches by ½ inches
Correct Answer
A. 3½ inches by 3½ inches.Explanation
When taking an environmental sample, it is recommended to take a soil sample with a surface area of 3½ inches by 3½ inches. This larger surface area allows for a more representative sample of the soil, ensuring that any potential contaminants or pollutants are properly captured and analyzed. A smaller surface area, such as 2½ inches by 2½ inches or 1½ inches by 1½ inches, may not provide enough soil for accurate testing. A surface area of ½ inches by ½ inches would be too small to gather a sufficient amount of soil for analysis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(429) Who ensure all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy?
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Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander.
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Logistics Readiness Squadron commander.
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Unit Deployment manager.
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Prime BEEF manager.
Correct Answer
A. Prime BEEF manager.Explanation
The Prime BEEF manager is responsible for ensuring that all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles. They also ensure that all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy. The Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander may be responsible for overall readiness and emergency management, but they may not specifically focus on the organization, training, and equipment of the BEEF team. The Logistics Readiness Squadron commander may oversee logistics operations but may not have direct responsibility for the BEEF team. The Unit Deployment manager may handle the deployment of personnel, but they may not have direct responsibility for the organization, training, and equipment of the BEEF team.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(403) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident?
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ESF–8.
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ESF–7.
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ESF–6.
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ESF–5.
Correct Answer
A. ESF–5.Explanation
ESF-5, also known as the Emergency Support Function for Emergency Management, is responsible for coordinating and managing the financial aspects of a CBRNE incident. This includes monitoring, tracking, and reporting the financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the incident. ESF-5 works closely with other ESFs and agencies to ensure that financial resources are properly allocated and accounted for during the response and recovery phases of the incident.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(412) What decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder?
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RSDL.
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M291.
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M295.
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M256.
Correct Answer
A. M295.Explanation
The correct answer is M295. The M295 decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder. This powder is designed to neutralize and absorb chemical agents, providing effective decontamination. RSDL is not the correct answer as it is a different type of decontamination kit that uses a liquid solution. M291 and M256 are also not the correct answers as they are different types of kits used for detecting and identifying chemical agents, rather than decontaminating them.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(420) During surface sample collection procedures, charcoal-impregnated pads can be used for sampling what type of substances?
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Volatile solvents.
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Organic Substances.
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Radiological Materials.
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Collection of metals.
Correct Answer
A. Volatile solvents.Explanation
Charcoal-impregnated pads are commonly used during surface sample collection procedures to sample volatile solvents. These pads have the ability to absorb and retain volatile substances, making them suitable for capturing and analyzing volatile solvents. They are designed to trap and retain these substances, allowing for accurate detection and analysis in various applications such as environmental monitoring or industrial hygiene assessments.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(424) The M45 land warrior mask comes in what sizes?
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Small, medium, large.
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Short, medium, long.
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Extra small, small, medium, large.
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Extra short, short, medium, long.
Correct Answer
A. Extra small, small, medium, large.Explanation
The M45 land warrior mask is available in extra small, small, medium, and large sizes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(434) The personnel deployment function (PDF) is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until
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They arrive at the aggregation point.
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They depart the PDF for the aircraft.
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Otherwise directed by the troop commander.
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They are turned over to the passenger terminal function.
Correct Answer
A. They are turned over to the passenger terminal function.Explanation
The correct answer is "they are turned over to the passenger terminal function." This means that the personnel deployment function is responsible for maintaining accountability of deploying personnel until they are handed over to the passenger terminal function. This suggests that the PDF's role is to ensure that personnel are properly accounted for and transferred to the appropriate department for further processing and deployment.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(414) Which formula is used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content?
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(30 ÷ 8) × (50 – 5) ÷ 5.
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(50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.
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(30 ÷ 5) × (50 – 5) ÷ 5.
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(50 ÷ 5) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.
Correct Answer
A. (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.Explanation
The formula used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content is (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5. This formula calculates the amount of STB needed to achieve the desired chlorine content by dividing the initial weight of STB by 8, then multiplying it by the difference between the initial chlorine content and the desired chlorine content, and finally dividing it by 5 to get the final amount of liquid solution needed.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(416) Which chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination?
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Cloverleaf.
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Grid.
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Lane.
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Zigzag.
Correct Answer
A. Cloverleaf.Explanation
The cloverleaf technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain to ensure that sites for high-value facilities are free of contamination. This technique involves systematically searching an area by dividing it into smaller sections in the shape of a cloverleaf. This allows for thorough coverage and identification of any potential CBRN contamination. The other options, grid, lane, and zigzag, may also be used in certain situations, but the cloverleaf technique is specifically mentioned as the primary method for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(417) During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every
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Minute.
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5 minutes.
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10 minutes.
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15 minutes.
Correct Answer
A. 5 minutes.Explanation
During an initial area survey, it is important for the initial entry element to conduct radio checks with command frequently to ensure constant communication and coordination. Conducting radio checks every 5 minutes allows for regular updates on the team's progress, any potential hazards or obstacles encountered, and any changes in the situation that may require immediate attention or support. This frequency strikes a balance between maintaining communication without overwhelming the team with constant check-ins.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(429) Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-level ratings are based on a five-point scale reflecting the degree to which a unit’s resources meet prescribed levels of all of the following except
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Equipment.
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Personnel.
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Funding.
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Training.
Correct Answer
A. Funding.Explanation
C-level ratings in SORTS are based on a five-point scale that assesses the degree to which a unit's resources meet prescribed levels. These ratings evaluate the unit's equipment, personnel, and training. However, the exception mentioned in the question is funding. This means that the C-level rating does not consider the adequacy of funding when assessing the unit's resources.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(430) Which allowance standard (AS) contains identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC)?
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429.
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456.
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459.
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660.
Correct Answer
A. 429.Explanation
The correct answer is 429 because this allowance standard (AS) contains the identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC). The other options, 456, 459, and 660, do not contain these specific identifiers.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(401) What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period?
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Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.
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Contingency Response Plan.
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Incident Response Plan (IRP).
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Incident Action Plan (IAP).
Correct Answer
A. Incident Action Plan (IAP).Explanation
The correct answer is the Incident Action Plan (IAP). An IAP is a planning mechanism used during an incident to organize and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period. It provides a comprehensive overview of the current situation, identifies objectives and strategies, assigns resources, and outlines specific actions to be taken by response personnel. The IAP ensures that all responders are working towards a common goal and helps to coordinate and prioritize response efforts.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(418) During three-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?
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Sample collector.
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Assistant sample collector.
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Element leader.
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Incident commander (IC).
Correct Answer
A. Element leader.Explanation
During three-person sample collection operations, the element leader exercises overall control of sample collection. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and directing the activities of the sample collector and assistant sample collector. The element leader ensures that the collection process is carried out efficiently and effectively, following established protocols and safety guidelines. The incident commander (IC) may have a broader role in managing the overall incident, but when it comes to sample collection specifically, the element leader takes charge.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(434) The only type of orders used to deploy personnel is
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Contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders.
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North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) orders.
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Personnel deployment function (PDF) orders.
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Temporary duty (TDY) orders.
Correct Answer
A. Contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders.Explanation
The correct answer is contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders. This is because CED orders are specifically used for deploying personnel in various situations such as contingency operations, exercises, and deployments. NATO orders are specific to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and may not apply to all personnel deployments. PDF orders refer to the personnel deployment function, which is a broader term and may include other types of orders besides deployment. TDY orders are temporary duty orders, which are not necessarily related to personnel deployment. Therefore, the most appropriate and specific type of orders for personnel deployment is CED orders.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(409) Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within how many minutes?
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1.
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5.
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10.
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60.
Correct Answer
A. 10.Explanation
Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within 10 minutes. This means that within 10 minutes, the droplet clouds settle down completely and deposit on the ground. The deposition process refers to the settling of the droplets from the cloud onto surfaces such as buildings, vegetation, and the ground itself. This information is important for understanding the potential spread and impact of hazardous substances released during a ground burst event.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(415) Which option is not one of the four operational elements of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?
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CBRN shape.
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CBRN sense.
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CBRN shield.
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CBRN supply.
Correct Answer
A. CBRN supply.Explanation
The four operational elements of CBRN passive defense are CBRN shape, CBRN sense, CBRN shield, and CBRN supply. However, CBRN supply is not one of these operational elements. The other three elements focus on different aspects of passive defense, such as shaping the environment to minimize vulnerabilities, sensing and detecting CBRN threats, and providing protective measures or shields against these threats. CBRN supply, on the other hand, refers to the provision of necessary equipment, materials, and resources related to CBRN defense, rather than being an operational element itself.Rate this question:
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Sep 07, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 28, 2016Quiz Created by
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