3E951 Vol 3 Edit Code 8 Air Force Incident Management System

1. (423) When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and must be replaced, its center color changes from white to

Black.

Green.

Dark blue.

Dark green.

When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and needs to be replaced, its center color changes from white to dark blue.

Explanation

When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and needs to be replaced, its center color changes from white to dark blue.

2. (410) What colors are used for the background and writing on chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) marking signs to indicate biological contamination?

Blue background; red writing.

Red background; blue writing.

Yellow background; red writing.

Red background; white writing.

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Explanation

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3. (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated?

Immediate.

Operational.

Thorough.

Clearance.

The level of decontamination conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated is called immediate decontamination. This type of decontamination aims to remove or neutralize the contaminant as quickly as possible to prevent further exposure or spread of contamination. It typically involves actions such as removing contaminated clothing, rinsing off the contaminant, and applying decontamination solutions or treatments. Immediate decontamination is crucial in minimizing the potential health risks associated with contamination.

Explanation

The level of decontamination conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated is called immediate decontamination. This type of decontamination aims to remove or neutralize the contaminant as quickly as possible to prevent further exposure or spread of contamination. It typically involves actions such as removing contaminated clothing, rinsing off the contaminant, and applying decontamination solutions or treatments. Immediate decontamination is crucial in minimizing the potential health risks associated with contamination.

4. (422) Before using an air-purifying respirator (APR) or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR), you need to make sure the

Oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%.

Chemicals/air contaminants in the air are small-sized particulates.

Chemicals/air contaminants in the air are large-sized particulates.

Atmospheric hazards are above immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) conditions.

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Explanation

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5. (420) Which sample collection technique is the basic and preferred sample collection method?

Composite.

Discrete.

Surface.

Grab.

The grab sample collection technique is considered the basic and preferred method because it involves quickly collecting a sample from a specific location without mixing or diluting it with other samples. This technique is commonly used in environmental monitoring, water quality testing, and industrial processes where it is important to obtain a representative sample at a specific point in time. Grab sampling allows for accurate analysis of the sample without the need for complex equipment or extensive sample preparation.

Explanation

The grab sample collection technique is considered the basic and preferred method because it involves quickly collecting a sample from a specific location without mixing or diluting it with other samples. This technique is commonly used in environmental monitoring, water quality testing, and industrial processes where it is important to obtain a representative sample at a specific point in time. Grab sampling allows for accurate analysis of the sample without the need for complex equipment or extensive sample preparation.

6. (418) During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the

Clean person.

Dirty person.

Element leader.

Recorder.

During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the clean person. This term is used to describe the individual responsible for maintaining cleanliness and preventing contamination during the sampling process. They ensure that proper hygiene practices are followed, such as wearing appropriate protective clothing and using sterile equipment. The clean person plays a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the collected samples.

Explanation

During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the clean person. This term is used to describe the individual responsible for maintaining cleanliness and preventing contamination during the sampling process. They ensure that proper hygiene practices are followed, such as wearing appropriate protective clothing and using sterile equipment. The clean person plays a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the collected samples.

7. (409) The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to

Decontaminate.

Keep personnel out of contaminated zones.

Have personnel leave contaminated zones by any means.

Keep personnel inside buildings in contaminated zones.

The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to keep personnel out of contaminated zones. This is because being in a contaminated zone increases the risk of exposure to the chemical agent. By keeping personnel out of these areas, the chances of coming into contact with the chemical agent are significantly reduced, thereby minimizing exposure and potential harm.

Explanation

The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to keep personnel out of contaminated zones. This is because being in a contaminated zone increases the risk of exposure to the chemical agent. By keeping personnel out of these areas, the chances of coming into contact with the chemical agent are significantly reduced, thereby minimizing exposure and potential harm.

8. (423) Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) does the Air Force ground crew personnel use?

M50.

M51.

M52.

M61.

The Air Force ground crew personnel use the M50 model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM).

Explanation

The Air Force ground crew personnel use the M50 model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM).

9. (432) What category of war reserve materiel (WRM) includes food necessary to feed a person for one day?

Rations.

Equipment

Consumables

Fuels mobility support equipment.

The correct answer is Rations. Rations are a category of war reserve materiel (WRM) that includes food necessary to feed a person for one day. Rations are essential for sustaining military personnel during combat or emergency situations where regular food supply may not be available. They are designed to provide the necessary nutrition and energy for soldiers to perform their duties effectively. Rations can come in various forms, such as individual meal packs or bulk supplies, and are an important component of military logistics planning.

Explanation

The correct answer is Rations. Rations are a category of war reserve materiel (WRM) that includes food necessary to feed a person for one day. Rations are essential for sustaining military personnel during combat or emergency situations where regular food supply may not be available. They are designed to provide the necessary nutrition and energy for soldiers to perform their duties effectively. Rations can come in various forms, such as individual meal packs or bulk supplies, and are an important component of military logistics planning.

10. (417) During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey?

Direct as possible.

Crosswind.

Upwind.

Downwind.

During dismounted reconnaissance, the initial entry team will approach the area being surveyed from the upwind direction. This is because approaching from upwind allows the team to avoid carrying any odors or sounds towards the area, reducing the risk of alerting potential threats or disturbing the natural environment. It also provides the team with a better vantage point to observe the area and any potential dangers that may be present.

Explanation

During dismounted reconnaissance, the initial entry team will approach the area being surveyed from the upwind direction. This is because approaching from upwind allows the team to avoid carrying any odors or sounds towards the area, reducing the risk of alerting potential threats or disturbing the natural environment. It also provides the team with a better vantage point to observe the area and any potential dangers that may be present.

11. (402) Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program?

Shelter management teams.

Contamination control teams.

An effective command and control (C2) system.

A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post.

An effective command and control (C2) system is the best item that describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program. This is because a C2 system provides the necessary structure and coordination to effectively manage and respond to emergencies. It allows for efficient communication, decision-making, and resource allocation, which are crucial in emergency situations. With an effective C2 system in place, emergency management teams can better coordinate their efforts and ensure a timely and organized response to emergencies.

Explanation

An effective command and control (C2) system is the best item that describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program. This is because a C2 system provides the necessary structure and coordination to effectively manage and respond to emergencies. It allows for efficient communication, decision-making, and resource allocation, which are crucial in emergency situations. With an effective C2 system in place, emergency management teams can better coordinate their efforts and ensure a timely and organized response to emergencies.

12. (405) Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress?

White.

Yellow.

Red.

Black.

The correct answer is Red. The question asks about the air defense warning condition color that indicates an imminent or ongoing attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles. Red is the color used to indicate this level of threat.

Explanation

The correct answer is Red. The question asks about the air defense warning condition color that indicates an imminent or ongoing attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles. Red is the color used to indicate this level of threat.

13. (414) During contamination control area (CCA) processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers.

Dry powder.

5 percent liquid chlorine solution.

30 percent super tropical bleach (STB).

50 percent BK powder and Lo-Bax.

During contamination control area (CCA) processing, the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers is a 5 percent liquid chlorine solution. This solution is effective in killing bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that may be present on these items. It is important to use a solution that is strong enough to kill these pathogens but not so strong that it damages the items being decontaminated. A 5 percent liquid chlorine solution strikes the right balance and is therefore the preferred choice for this purpose.

Explanation

During contamination control area (CCA) processing, the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers is a 5 percent liquid chlorine solution. This solution is effective in killing bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that may be present on these items. It is important to use a solution that is strong enough to kill these pathogens but not so strong that it damages the items being decontaminated. A 5 percent liquid chlorine solution strikes the right balance and is therefore the preferred choice for this purpose.

14. (428) In reference to mission capability (MISCAP), what are the required skill level(s) on an emergency management (EM) installation management team?

One 9-level.

Two 5-levels.

One 5- and one 7-level.

One chief master sergeant (3E900).

The required skill levels on an emergency management installation management team in reference to mission capability (MISCAP) are one 5-level and one 7-level. This means that one team member should have a skill level of 5 and another team member should have a skill level of 7. These skill levels indicate the level of expertise and experience that the team members possess in emergency management.

Explanation

The required skill levels on an emergency management installation management team in reference to mission capability (MISCAP) are one 5-level and one 7-level. This means that one team member should have a skill level of 5 and another team member should have a skill level of 7. These skill levels indicate the level of expertise and experience that the team members possess in emergency management.

15. (428) What type of unit type code (UTC) provides the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible?

Associate.

Non-deployable.

In-place requirement.

Standard deployable.

Standard deployable unit type codes (UTCs) provide the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible. These UTCs are specifically designed for units that are ready to deploy and can be rapidly mobilized and deployed for various missions. They are crucial for planning and executing military operations as they represent units that are fully trained, equipped, and capable of being deployed at any given time. By utilizing standard deployable UTCs, Air Force planners can ensure that they have the necessary resources and capabilities to support national military strategy effectively.

Explanation

Standard deployable unit type codes (UTCs) provide the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible. These UTCs are specifically designed for units that are ready to deploy and can be rapidly mobilized and deployed for various missions. They are crucial for planning and executing military operations as they represent units that are fully trained, equipped, and capable of being deployed at any given time. By utilizing standard deployable UTCs, Air Force planners can ensure that they have the necessary resources and capabilities to support national military strategy effectively.

16. (407) Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option?

Ventilation.

No-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit.

Mask-only.

Hood open.

The correct answer is "Hood open." In a standard mission oriented protection posture (MOPP), the hood is typically worn to provide additional protection for the head and neck. The other options mentioned, such as ventilation, no-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit, and mask-only, are all valid MOPP options that are used to protect against chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats. However, leaving the hood open would leave the head and neck exposed, which goes against the purpose of MOPP.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hood open." In a standard mission oriented protection posture (MOPP), the hood is typically worn to provide additional protection for the head and neck. The other options mentioned, such as ventilation, no-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit, and mask-only, are all valid MOPP options that are used to protect against chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats. However, leaving the hood open would leave the head and neck exposed, which goes against the purpose of MOPP.

17. (402) What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure?

Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.

Individual through Emergency Operations Center to the Unit Control Center.

Emergency Operations Center through Unit Control Center to the individual.

Unit control center through the Emergency Operations Center to the individual.

The correct answer is "Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center." This means that the flow of attack information starts with the individual, who reports it to the Unit Control Center. The Unit Control Center then forwards the information to the Emergency Operations Center for further action and coordination. This flow ensures that the information is properly communicated and reaches the appropriate authorities for response and decision-making.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center." This means that the flow of attack information starts with the individual, who reports it to the Unit Control Center. The Unit Control Center then forwards the information to the Emergency Operations Center for further action and coordination. This flow ensures that the information is properly communicated and reaches the appropriate authorities for response and decision-making.

18. (417) When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first?

Determine if the item is recognizable.

Move toward the item.

Photograph the undisturbed item.

Initiate detection procedures.

When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will first photograph the undisturbed item. This step is taken to ensure that the item is documented before any disturbance or potential damage occurs. By photographing the undisturbed item, the initial entry element can capture its original state and preserve any potential evidence or information that may be lost if the item is moved or disturbed. This allows for a thorough analysis and evaluation of the item later on.

Explanation

When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will first photograph the undisturbed item. This step is taken to ensure that the item is documented before any disturbance or potential damage occurs. By photographing the undisturbed item, the initial entry element can capture its original state and preserve any potential evidence or information that may be lost if the item is moved or disturbed. This allows for a thorough analysis and evaluation of the item later on.

19. (429) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called

A-levels.

C-levels.

M-levels.

P-levels.

The correct answer is C-levels. The question states that a five-point scale is used to indicate the degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment. Out of the options provided, C-levels is the only one that fits this description. The other options (A-levels, M-levels, and P-levels) do not match the criteria mentioned in the question. Therefore, C-levels is the correct answer.

Explanation

The correct answer is C-levels. The question states that a five-point scale is used to indicate the degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment. Out of the options provided, C-levels is the only one that fits this description. The other options (A-levels, M-levels, and P-levels) do not match the criteria mentioned in the question. Therefore, C-levels is the correct answer.

20. (429) What is the status of resource and training system (SORTS)?

A system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer.

An external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them.

A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system.

SORTS stands for Status of Resource and Training System. It is an automated reporting system that serves as the central registry for all operational units of the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations. It allows for the tracking and reporting of resources and training status, providing a comprehensive overview of the readiness and capabilities of these units.

Explanation

SORTS stands for Status of Resource and Training System. It is an automated reporting system that serves as the central registry for all operational units of the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations. It allows for the tracking and reporting of resources and training status, providing a comprehensive overview of the readiness and capabilities of these units.

21. (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under

MOPP 1.

MOPP 2.

MOPP 3.

MOPP 4.

Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. MOPP 4 is the highest level of protection where personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items. This indicates that the installation is operating under the highest level of readiness and preparedness for CBRN threats.

Explanation

Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. MOPP 4 is the highest level of protection where personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items. This indicates that the installation is operating under the highest level of readiness and preparedness for CBRN threats.

22. (414) The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA)?

25.

30.

40.

50

The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least 50 feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA). This distance is necessary to ensure that the waste does not contaminate the entrance or pose a risk to individuals entering or exiting the area. It also helps to prevent the spread of contaminants to other areas and ensures the safety of personnel working in the CCA.

Explanation

The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least 50 feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA). This distance is necessary to ensure that the waste does not contaminate the entrance or pose a risk to individuals entering or exiting the area. It also helps to prevent the spread of contaminants to other areas and ensures the safety of personnel working in the CCA.

23. (423) What is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment?

Mask mold.

Face form.

Faceblank.

Cover.

The correct answer is face form. The face form is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment. The face form helps to maintain the shape and integrity of the mask's face seal, ensuring a proper fit and effective protection for the user.

Explanation

The correct answer is face form. The face form is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment. The face form helps to maintain the shape and integrity of the mask's face seal, ensuring a proper fit and effective protection for the user.

24. (417) During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door?

An “X”.

A “slash”.

A “slash & circle”.

An “X & circle”.

During the initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places an "X" mark on the door.

Explanation

During the initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places an "X" mark on the door.

25. (408) While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds?

Alpha.

Beta.

Gamma.

Beta/gamma.

When conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), holding the alpha probe in place for 10 seconds is necessary. This is because alpha particles are relatively large and have a short range, so holding the probe in place allows for accurate measurement of any alpha radiation present in the area. Beta particles have a longer range and can penetrate deeper into the body, while gamma rays have the longest range and can pass through most materials. Beta/gamma probe is not specified in the question, so it is not the correct answer.

Explanation

When conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), holding the alpha probe in place for 10 seconds is necessary. This is because alpha particles are relatively large and have a short range, so holding the probe in place allows for accurate measurement of any alpha radiation present in the area. Beta particles have a longer range and can penetrate deeper into the body, while gamma rays have the longest range and can pass through most materials. Beta/gamma probe is not specified in the question, so it is not the correct answer.

26. (401) An installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the

Commanders’ notifications.

Primary and secondary crash nets.

Disaster response force recall.

Emergency Operations Center (EOC).

The installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the use of primary and secondary crash nets. Crash nets are communication systems that allow for immediate and direct communication between individuals involved in emergency response. They are specifically designed to quickly relay important information and coordinate actions during emergency situations.

Explanation

The installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the use of primary and secondary crash nets. Crash nets are communication systems that allow for immediate and direct communication between individuals involved in emergency response. They are specifically designed to quickly relay important information and coordinate actions during emergency situations.

27. (403) Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center?

Detection.

Plotting.

Defending.

Identification.

The question asks for the option that is not one of the seven major requirements of the CBRN control center. The given options are "Detection," "Plotting," "Defending," and "Identification." Out of these options, "Defending" is the correct answer. The other options, such as "Detection," "Plotting," and "Identification," are all major requirements of the CBRN control center.

Explanation

The question asks for the option that is not one of the seven major requirements of the CBRN control center. The given options are "Detection," "Plotting," "Defending," and "Identification." Out of these options, "Defending" is the correct answer. The other options, such as "Detection," "Plotting," and "Identification," are all major requirements of the CBRN control center.

28. (411) A collective protection shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification?

Radiological.

Chemical.

Biological.

Chlorine.

A collective protection shelter is designed to provide protection from various forms of contamination, including chemical, biological, and radiological threats. However, without modification, it may not provide sufficient shielding from radiological contamination. This means that additional measures or adjustments would be required to ensure adequate protection from radiation in the shelter.

Explanation

A collective protection shelter is designed to provide protection from various forms of contamination, including chemical, biological, and radiological threats. However, without modification, it may not provide sufficient shielding from radiological contamination. This means that additional measures or adjustments would be required to ensure adequate protection from radiation in the shelter.

29. (402) What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations?

Unit control centers.

Emergency operations centers.

Installation command posts.

Installation information exchange networks.

Unit commanders use unit control centers to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations. These control centers provide a centralized location for commanders to coordinate and control the allocation of resources and implement passive defense measures to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the unit during contingency operations. They serve as a hub for communication, decision-making, and resource management, allowing commanders to effectively manage and respond to the demands of the operation.

Explanation

Unit commanders use unit control centers to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations. These control centers provide a centralized location for commanders to coordinate and control the allocation of resources and implement passive defense measures to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the unit during contingency operations. They serve as a hub for communication, decision-making, and resource management, allowing commanders to effectively manage and respond to the demands of the operation.

30. (431) What is the weight of an empty 463L pallet?

65 pounds.

290 pounds.

355 pounds.

463 pounds.

The correct answer is 290 pounds. This means that an empty 463L pallet weighs 290 pounds.

Explanation

The correct answer is 290 pounds. This means that an empty 463L pallet weighs 290 pounds.

31. (418) During two-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?

Clean person.

Dirty person.

Recorder.

Incident commander (IC).

During two-person sample collection operations, the dirty person exercises overall control of sample collection. This is because the dirty person is responsible for directly handling and collecting the samples, ensuring proper procedures are followed, and maintaining the integrity of the samples. The clean person's role is to assist the dirty person by providing necessary equipment and support, while the recorder documents the process. The incident commander (IC) oversees the overall operation but does not have direct control over sample collection.

Explanation

During two-person sample collection operations, the dirty person exercises overall control of sample collection. This is because the dirty person is responsible for directly handling and collecting the samples, ensuring proper procedures are followed, and maintaining the integrity of the samples. The clean person's role is to assist the dirty person by providing necessary equipment and support, while the recorder documents the process. The incident commander (IC) oversees the overall operation but does not have direct control over sample collection.

32. (429) Who ensure all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy?

Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander.

Logistics Readiness Squadron commander.

Unit Deployment manager.

Prime BEEF manager.

The Prime BEEF manager is responsible for ensuring that all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles. They also ensure that all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy. The Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander may be responsible for overall readiness and emergency management, but they may not specifically focus on the organization, training, and equipment of the BEEF team. The Logistics Readiness Squadron commander may oversee logistics operations but may not have direct responsibility for the BEEF team. The Unit Deployment manager may handle the deployment of personnel, but they may not have direct responsibility for the organization, training, and equipment of the BEEF team.

Explanation

The Prime BEEF manager is responsible for ensuring that all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles. They also ensure that all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy. The Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander may be responsible for overall readiness and emergency management, but they may not specifically focus on the organization, training, and equipment of the BEEF team. The Logistics Readiness Squadron commander may oversee logistics operations but may not have direct responsibility for the BEEF team. The Unit Deployment manager may handle the deployment of personnel, but they may not have direct responsibility for the organization, training, and equipment of the BEEF team.

33. (415) Which option is not a form of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance operation?

Route.

Area.

Installation.

Zone.

The options given in the question are all related to different forms of CBRN reconnaissance operations. Route reconnaissance involves surveying and assessing potential routes for CBRN threats. Area reconnaissance focuses on identifying and evaluating potential CBRN hazards in a specific area. Zone reconnaissance involves conducting surveillance and gathering information about a larger region. However, installation reconnaissance refers to the process of assessing and monitoring CBRN threats specifically within a military installation or facility. Therefore, installation is not a form of CBRN reconnaissance operation.

Explanation

The options given in the question are all related to different forms of CBRN reconnaissance operations. Route reconnaissance involves surveying and assessing potential routes for CBRN threats. Area reconnaissance focuses on identifying and evaluating potential CBRN hazards in a specific area. Zone reconnaissance involves conducting surveillance and gathering information about a larger region. However, installation reconnaissance refers to the process of assessing and monitoring CBRN threats specifically within a military installation or facility. Therefore, installation is not a form of CBRN reconnaissance operation.

34. (419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the surface area of a soil sample that should be taken?

3½ inches by 3½ inches.

2½ inches by 2½ inches

1½ inches by 1½ inches

½ inches by ½ inches

When taking an environmental sample, it is recommended to take a soil sample with a surface area of 3½ inches by 3½ inches. This larger surface area allows for a more representative sample of the soil, ensuring that any potential contaminants or pollutants are properly captured and analyzed. A smaller surface area, such as 2½ inches by 2½ inches or 1½ inches by 1½ inches, may not provide enough soil for accurate testing. A surface area of ½ inches by ½ inches would be too small to gather a sufficient amount of soil for analysis.

Explanation

When taking an environmental sample, it is recommended to take a soil sample with a surface area of 3½ inches by 3½ inches. This larger surface area allows for a more representative sample of the soil, ensuring that any potential contaminants or pollutants are properly captured and analyzed. A smaller surface area, such as 2½ inches by 2½ inches or 1½ inches by 1½ inches, may not provide enough soil for accurate testing. A surface area of ½ inches by ½ inches would be too small to gather a sufficient amount of soil for analysis.

35. (412) What decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder?

RSDL.

M291.

M295.

M256.

The correct answer is M295. The M295 decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder. This powder is designed to neutralize and absorb chemical agents, providing effective decontamination. RSDL is not the correct answer as it is a different type of decontamination kit that uses a liquid solution. M291 and M256 are also not the correct answers as they are different types of kits used for detecting and identifying chemical agents, rather than decontaminating them.

Explanation

The correct answer is M295. The M295 decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder. This powder is designed to neutralize and absorb chemical agents, providing effective decontamination. RSDL is not the correct answer as it is a different type of decontamination kit that uses a liquid solution. M291 and M256 are also not the correct answers as they are different types of kits used for detecting and identifying chemical agents, rather than decontaminating them.

36. (434) The personnel deployment function (PDF) is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until

They arrive at the aggregation point.

They depart the PDF for the aircraft.

Otherwise directed by the troop commander.

They are turned over to the passenger terminal function.

The correct answer is "they are turned over to the passenger terminal function." This means that the personnel deployment function is responsible for maintaining accountability of deploying personnel until they are handed over to the passenger terminal function. This suggests that the PDF's role is to ensure that personnel are properly accounted for and transferred to the appropriate department for further processing and deployment.

Explanation

The correct answer is "they are turned over to the passenger terminal function." This means that the personnel deployment function is responsible for maintaining accountability of deploying personnel until they are handed over to the passenger terminal function. This suggests that the PDF's role is to ensure that personnel are properly accounted for and transferred to the appropriate department for further processing and deployment.

37. (424) The M45 land warrior mask comes in what sizes?

Small, medium, large.

Short, medium, long.

Extra small, small, medium, large.

Extra short, short, medium, long.

The M45 land warrior mask is available in extra small, small, medium, and large sizes.

Explanation

The M45 land warrior mask is available in extra small, small, medium, and large sizes.

38. (403) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident?

ESF–8.

ESF–7.

ESF–6.

ESF–5.

ESF-5, also known as the Emergency Support Function for Emergency Management, is responsible for coordinating and managing the financial aspects of a CBRNE incident. This includes monitoring, tracking, and reporting the financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the incident. ESF-5 works closely with other ESFs and agencies to ensure that financial resources are properly allocated and accounted for during the response and recovery phases of the incident.

Explanation

ESF-5, also known as the Emergency Support Function for Emergency Management, is responsible for coordinating and managing the financial aspects of a CBRNE incident. This includes monitoring, tracking, and reporting the financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the incident. ESF-5 works closely with other ESFs and agencies to ensure that financial resources are properly allocated and accounted for during the response and recovery phases of the incident.

39. (420) During surface sample collection procedures, charcoal-impregnated pads can be used for sampling what type of substances?

Volatile solvents.

Organic Substances.

Radiological Materials.

Collection of metals.

Charcoal-impregnated pads are commonly used during surface sample collection procedures to sample volatile solvents. These pads have the ability to absorb and retain volatile substances, making them suitable for capturing and analyzing volatile solvents. They are designed to trap and retain these substances, allowing for accurate detection and analysis in various applications such as environmental monitoring or industrial hygiene assessments.

Explanation

Charcoal-impregnated pads are commonly used during surface sample collection procedures to sample volatile solvents. These pads have the ability to absorb and retain volatile substances, making them suitable for capturing and analyzing volatile solvents. They are designed to trap and retain these substances, allowing for accurate detection and analysis in various applications such as environmental monitoring or industrial hygiene assessments.

40. (430) Which allowance standard (AS) contains identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC)?

429.

456.

459.

660.

The correct answer is 429 because this allowance standard (AS) contains the identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC). The other options, 456, 459, and 660, do not contain these specific identifiers.

Explanation

The correct answer is 429 because this allowance standard (AS) contains the identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC). The other options, 456, 459, and 660, do not contain these specific identifiers.

41. (414) Which formula is used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content?

(30 ÷ 8) × (50 – 5) ÷ 5.

(50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.

(30 ÷ 5) × (50 – 5) ÷ 5.

(50 ÷ 5) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.

The formula used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content is (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5. This formula calculates the amount of STB needed to achieve the desired chlorine content by dividing the initial weight of STB by 8, then multiplying it by the difference between the initial chlorine content and the desired chlorine content, and finally dividing it by 5 to get the final amount of liquid solution needed.

Explanation

The formula used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content is (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5. This formula calculates the amount of STB needed to achieve the desired chlorine content by dividing the initial weight of STB by 8, then multiplying it by the difference between the initial chlorine content and the desired chlorine content, and finally dividing it by 5 to get the final amount of liquid solution needed.

42. (417) During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every

Minute.

5 minutes.

10 minutes.

15 minutes.

During an initial area survey, it is important for the initial entry element to conduct radio checks with command frequently to ensure constant communication and coordination. Conducting radio checks every 5 minutes allows for regular updates on the team's progress, any potential hazards or obstacles encountered, and any changes in the situation that may require immediate attention or support. This frequency strikes a balance between maintaining communication without overwhelming the team with constant check-ins.

Explanation

During an initial area survey, it is important for the initial entry element to conduct radio checks with command frequently to ensure constant communication and coordination. Conducting radio checks every 5 minutes allows for regular updates on the team's progress, any potential hazards or obstacles encountered, and any changes in the situation that may require immediate attention or support. This frequency strikes a balance between maintaining communication without overwhelming the team with constant check-ins.

43. (429) Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-level ratings are based on a five-point scale reflecting the degree to which a unit's resources meet prescribed levels of all of the following except

Equipment.

Personnel.

Funding.

Training.

C-level ratings in SORTS are based on a five-point scale that assesses the degree to which a unit's resources meet prescribed levels. These ratings evaluate the unit's equipment, personnel, and training. However, the exception mentioned in the question is funding. This means that the C-level rating does not consider the adequacy of funding when assessing the unit's resources.

Explanation

C-level ratings in SORTS are based on a five-point scale that assesses the degree to which a unit's resources meet prescribed levels. These ratings evaluate the unit's equipment, personnel, and training. However, the exception mentioned in the question is funding. This means that the C-level rating does not consider the adequacy of funding when assessing the unit's resources.

44. (416) Which chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination?

Cloverleaf.

Grid.

Lane.

Zigzag.

The cloverleaf technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain to ensure that sites for high-value facilities are free of contamination. This technique involves systematically searching an area by dividing it into smaller sections in the shape of a cloverleaf. This allows for thorough coverage and identification of any potential CBRN contamination. The other options, grid, lane, and zigzag, may also be used in certain situations, but the cloverleaf technique is specifically mentioned as the primary method for this purpose.

Explanation

The cloverleaf technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain to ensure that sites for high-value facilities are free of contamination. This technique involves systematically searching an area by dividing it into smaller sections in the shape of a cloverleaf. This allows for thorough coverage and identification of any potential CBRN contamination. The other options, grid, lane, and zigzag, may also be used in certain situations, but the cloverleaf technique is specifically mentioned as the primary method for this purpose.

45. (418) During three-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?

Sample collector.

Assistant sample collector.

Element leader.

Incident commander (IC).

During three-person sample collection operations, the element leader exercises overall control of sample collection. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and directing the activities of the sample collector and assistant sample collector. The element leader ensures that the collection process is carried out efficiently and effectively, following established protocols and safety guidelines. The incident commander (IC) may have a broader role in managing the overall incident, but when it comes to sample collection specifically, the element leader takes charge.

Explanation

During three-person sample collection operations, the element leader exercises overall control of sample collection. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and directing the activities of the sample collector and assistant sample collector. The element leader ensures that the collection process is carried out efficiently and effectively, following established protocols and safety guidelines. The incident commander (IC) may have a broader role in managing the overall incident, but when it comes to sample collection specifically, the element leader takes charge.

46. (434) The only type of orders used to deploy personnel is

Contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders.

North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) orders.

Personnel deployment function (PDF) orders.

Temporary duty (TDY) orders.

The correct answer is contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders. This is because CED orders are specifically used for deploying personnel in various situations such as contingency operations, exercises, and deployments. NATO orders are specific to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and may not apply to all personnel deployments. PDF orders refer to the personnel deployment function, which is a broader term and may include other types of orders besides deployment. TDY orders are temporary duty orders, which are not necessarily related to personnel deployment. Therefore, the most appropriate and specific type of orders for personnel deployment is CED orders.

Explanation

The correct answer is contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders. This is because CED orders are specifically used for deploying personnel in various situations such as contingency operations, exercises, and deployments. NATO orders are specific to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and may not apply to all personnel deployments. PDF orders refer to the personnel deployment function, which is a broader term and may include other types of orders besides deployment. TDY orders are temporary duty orders, which are not necessarily related to personnel deployment. Therefore, the most appropriate and specific type of orders for personnel deployment is CED orders.

47. (401) What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period?

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.

Contingency Response Plan.

Incident Response Plan (IRP).

Incident Action Plan (IAP).

The correct answer is the Incident Action Plan (IAP). An IAP is a planning mechanism used during an incident to organize and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period. It provides a comprehensive overview of the current situation, identifies objectives and strategies, assigns resources, and outlines specific actions to be taken by response personnel. The IAP ensures that all responders are working towards a common goal and helps to coordinate and prioritize response efforts.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Incident Action Plan (IAP). An IAP is a planning mechanism used during an incident to organize and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period. It provides a comprehensive overview of the current situation, identifies objectives and strategies, assigns resources, and outlines specific actions to be taken by response personnel. The IAP ensures that all responders are working towards a common goal and helps to coordinate and prioritize response efforts.

48. (415) Which option is not one of the four operational elements of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?

CBRN shape.

CBRN sense.

CBRN shield.

CBRN supply.

The four operational elements of CBRN passive defense are CBRN shape, CBRN sense, CBRN shield, and CBRN supply. However, CBRN supply is not one of these operational elements. The other three elements focus on different aspects of passive defense, such as shaping the environment to minimize vulnerabilities, sensing and detecting CBRN threats, and providing protective measures or shields against these threats. CBRN supply, on the other hand, refers to the provision of necessary equipment, materials, and resources related to CBRN defense, rather than being an operational element itself.

Explanation

The four operational elements of CBRN passive defense are CBRN shape, CBRN sense, CBRN shield, and CBRN supply. However, CBRN supply is not one of these operational elements. The other three elements focus on different aspects of passive defense, such as shaping the environment to minimize vulnerabilities, sensing and detecting CBRN threats, and providing protective measures or shields against these threats. CBRN supply, on the other hand, refers to the provision of necessary equipment, materials, and resources related to CBRN defense, rather than being an operational element itself.

49. (409) Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within how many minutes?

1.

5.

10.

60.

Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within 10 minutes. This means that within 10 minutes, the droplet clouds settle down completely and deposit on the ground. The deposition process refers to the settling of the droplets from the cloud onto surfaces such as buildings, vegetation, and the ground itself. This information is important for understanding the potential spread and impact of hazardous substances released during a ground burst event.

Explanation

Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within 10 minutes. This means that within 10 minutes, the droplet clouds settle down completely and deposit on the ground. The deposition process refers to the settling of the droplets from the cloud onto surfaces such as buildings, vegetation, and the ground itself. This information is important for understanding the potential spread and impact of hazardous substances released during a ground burst event.

50. (420) When samples are taken at predetermined intervals it is considered what type of collection strategy?

Periodic.

Random.

Systematic.

Judgmental.

Systematic collection strategy refers to the method of collecting samples at regular intervals or predetermined time intervals. This approach ensures that the samples are representative of the population being studied and helps in reducing bias. It allows for a systematic and organized approach to data collection, making it easier to analyze and draw conclusions from the collected data. Therefore, the correct answer is systematic.

Explanation

Systematic collection strategy refers to the method of collecting samples at regular intervals or predetermined time intervals. This approach ensures that the samples are representative of the population being studied and helps in reducing bias. It allows for a systematic and organized approach to data collection, making it easier to analyze and draw conclusions from the collected data. Therefore, the correct answer is systematic.

51. (430) Who ensures protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement?

Aircrew.

Couriers.

Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) manager.

Unit deployment manager (UDM).

Couriers ensure that protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement. They are responsible for transporting valuable and sensitive items, ensuring their safety and monitoring them throughout the entire process. This includes maintaining constant surveillance and implementing necessary security measures to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering. Couriers play a crucial role in the protection and transportation of valuable cargo during deployment movements.

Explanation

Couriers ensure that protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement. They are responsible for transporting valuable and sensitive items, ensuring their safety and monitoring them throughout the entire process. This includes maintaining constant surveillance and implementing necessary security measures to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering. Couriers play a crucial role in the protection and transportation of valuable cargo during deployment movements.

52. (428) Which emergency management equipment unit type code (UTC) provides initial equipment for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) personnel decontamination capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel?

4F9WM – EN HLD Response Equipment.

4F9WS – EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment.

4F9WL – EN active CBRN response equipment.

4F9WP – EN CBRN detection augmentation equipment.

The correct answer is 4F9WS – EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment. This unit type code provides initial equipment for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) personnel decontamination capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel.

Explanation

The correct answer is 4F9WS – EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment. This unit type code provides initial equipment for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) personnel decontamination capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel.

53. (427) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities?

Personnel identification and travel itinerary report.

Mobility requirements/resources roster.

Processing discrepancy report.

Departure report.

A processing discrepancy report is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities. This report helps to identify any discrepancies or issues in the processing of information related to UTC capabilities, allowing commanders to address and rectify them. The other options, such as personnel identification and travel itinerary report, mobility requirements/resources roster, and departure report, do not specifically address the identification of deficiencies in UTC capabilities.

Explanation

A processing discrepancy report is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities. This report helps to identify any discrepancies or issues in the processing of information related to UTC capabilities, allowing commanders to address and rectify them. The other options, such as personnel identification and travel itinerary report, mobility requirements/resources roster, and departure report, do not specifically address the identification of deficiencies in UTC capabilities.

54. (421) Air Force Instruction 48–137 does not apply to which protection?

Commercial respiratory.

Service specific respiratory.

Foreign respiratory.

Military-unique respiratory.

Air Force Instruction 48-137 is a document that provides guidance and regulations on respiratory protection within the Air Force. It covers various types of respiratory protection, including commercial respiratory, service specific respiratory, and foreign respiratory. However, it does not apply to military-unique respiratory protection. This means that the regulations and guidelines outlined in AFI 48-137 do not pertain to respiratory protection equipment and protocols that are specific to the military and not commonly used in civilian or other non-military contexts.

Explanation

Air Force Instruction 48-137 is a document that provides guidance and regulations on respiratory protection within the Air Force. It covers various types of respiratory protection, including commercial respiratory, service specific respiratory, and foreign respiratory. However, it does not apply to military-unique respiratory protection. This means that the regulations and guidelines outlined in AFI 48-137 do not pertain to respiratory protection equipment and protocols that are specific to the military and not commonly used in civilian or other non-military contexts.

55. (401) In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), who identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC)?

Incident Commander (IC).

Civil Engineer (CE) commander.

Director of Operations.

Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.

In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC). The EOC Director is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall emergency response efforts, including the recovery operations. They have the authority to appoint key personnel, such as the ROC, who will oversee and coordinate the specific recovery activities. The Incident Commander (IC), Civil Engineer (CE) commander, and Director of Operations may have important roles in the overall incident management, but they are not specifically tasked with identifying the ROC in the Recovery phase.

Explanation

In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC). The EOC Director is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall emergency response efforts, including the recovery operations. They have the authority to appoint key personnel, such as the ROC, who will oversee and coordinate the specific recovery activities. The Incident Commander (IC), Civil Engineer (CE) commander, and Director of Operations may have important roles in the overall incident management, but they are not specifically tasked with identifying the ROC in the Recovery phase.

56. (418) Which item is not defined in a sample collection plan?

Purpose and scope of operations.

Priority of sample collection.

Sample collection parameters.

Route of entry to facility.

The purpose and scope of operations, priority of sample collection, and sample collection parameters are all factors that are typically defined in a sample collection plan. However, the route of entry to the facility is not directly related to the sample collection process and is therefore not defined in the plan.

Explanation

The purpose and scope of operations, priority of sample collection, and sample collection parameters are all factors that are typically defined in a sample collection plan. However, the route of entry to the facility is not directly related to the sample collection process and is therefore not defined in the plan.

57. (412) Covering chemical agents with at least how many inches of earth will give protection provided the area is not disturbed?

1 inch.

2 inches.

3 inches.

4 inches.

Covering chemical agents with at least 4 inches of earth will provide protection as long as the area is not disturbed. This depth of earth is sufficient to create a barrier and prevent the chemical agents from reaching the surface and causing harm. It is important to ensure that the area remains undisturbed to maintain the effectiveness of the protection.

Explanation

Covering chemical agents with at least 4 inches of earth will provide protection as long as the area is not disturbed. This depth of earth is sufficient to create a barrier and prevent the chemical agents from reaching the surface and causing harm. It is important to ensure that the area remains undisturbed to maintain the effectiveness of the protection.

58. (419) During sample collection operations, how many water samples should be taken?

Minimum of two (1 sample, 1 control).

Minimum of three (2 sample, 1 control).

Minimum of four (3 sample, 1 control).

Minimum of four (2 sample, 2 control).

During sample collection operations, it is recommended to take a minimum of four water samples, with three being samples and one being a control. This is important to ensure accurate and reliable results. By having multiple samples, it allows for better representation of the overall water quality and helps to account for any potential variations or anomalies. The control sample is necessary to provide a baseline comparison and to ensure that any changes observed in the samples are not due to external factors.

Explanation

During sample collection operations, it is recommended to take a minimum of four water samples, with three being samples and one being a control. This is important to ensure accurate and reliable results. By having multiple samples, it allows for better representation of the overall water quality and helps to account for any potential variations or anomalies. The control sample is necessary to provide a baseline comparison and to ensure that any changes observed in the samples are not due to external factors.

59. (405) Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war?

1.

3.

5.

7.

DEFCON 1 is the highest level of defense condition, indicating that a state of war exists. At DEFCON 1, there is a maximum readiness for military action, with all forces prepared to engage in combat. This level is only reached during times of imminent or ongoing war. DEFCON 3, 5, and 7 are lower levels of readiness, indicating varying degrees of preparedness for potential threats, but not specifically indicating war.

Explanation

DEFCON 1 is the highest level of defense condition, indicating that a state of war exists. At DEFCON 1, there is a maximum readiness for military action, with all forces prepared to engage in combat. This level is only reached during times of imminent or ongoing war. DEFCON 3, 5, and 7 are lower levels of readiness, indicating varying degrees of preparedness for potential threats, but not specifically indicating war.

60. (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under

MOPP 0.

MOPP 1.

MOPP 2.

MOPP 3.

When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under MOPP 1. This means that there is a low level of threat or potential exposure to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) hazards. MOPP 1 is the initial level of readiness and requires personnel to have their protective gear readily available and be prepared to put it on if necessary. However, at this level, the gear is not worn continuously and personnel can still perform their duties without hindrance.

Explanation

When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under MOPP 1. This means that there is a low level of threat or potential exposure to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) hazards. MOPP 1 is the initial level of readiness and requires personnel to have their protective gear readily available and be prepared to put it on if necessary. However, at this level, the gear is not worn continuously and personnel can still perform their duties without hindrance.

61. (403) After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center provides advice to the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) commander pertaining to agent persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent?

Internal.

External.

Coordination.

Exposure determination.

This action best represents the internal responsibility of the CBRN control center. After an attack involving chemical warfare agents, the CBRN control center provides advice to the EOC commander regarding agent persistency. This suggests that the CBRN control center is responsible for assessing and managing the situation within their own installation, rather than providing advice or support to external entities or coordinating with other organizations.

Explanation

This action best represents the internal responsibility of the CBRN control center. After an attack involving chemical warfare agents, the CBRN control center provides advice to the EOC commander regarding agent persistency. This suggests that the CBRN control center is responsible for assessing and managing the situation within their own installation, rather than providing advice or support to external entities or coordinating with other organizations.

62. (408) What rank is a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander?

Major.

Colonel.

General.

Civilian.

The rank of a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander is General. This indicates that the commander holds a high-ranking position within the military hierarchy. As a General, they would have extensive experience, leadership skills, and expertise in managing and coordinating response efforts during emergencies or crisis situations. This rank signifies their authority and responsibility in overseeing and directing the RTF's operations effectively.

Explanation

The rank of a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander is General. This indicates that the commander holds a high-ranking position within the military hierarchy. As a General, they would have extensive experience, leadership skills, and expertise in managing and coordinating response efforts during emergencies or crisis situations. This rank signifies their authority and responsibility in overseeing and directing the RTF's operations effectively.

63. (408) A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your contamination control station (CCS). Unfortunately, you have only four personnel and a limited number of radiation, indication, and computations (RADIAC) to operate your CCS. Your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of people needing to process. Given these circumstances, what is the best action to take?

Implement initial CCS procedures.

Implement standard CCS procedures.

Direct the civilians to a holding area until the response task force (RTF) arrives.

Implementing initial CCS procedures would be the best action to take in this situation. This is because a nuclear weapons accident has caused a high-order detonation and radioactive contamination is spreading downwind. With limited personnel and resources, it is important to prioritize immediate actions to control the contamination. Implementing initial CCS procedures would involve quickly setting up and initiating basic decontamination measures to prevent further spread of radiation and minimize the risk to the civilians. Once the initial procedures are in place, further steps can be taken to manage and process the large number of people needing assistance.

Explanation

Implementing initial CCS procedures would be the best action to take in this situation. This is because a nuclear weapons accident has caused a high-order detonation and radioactive contamination is spreading downwind. With limited personnel and resources, it is important to prioritize immediate actions to control the contamination. Implementing initial CCS procedures would involve quickly setting up and initiating basic decontamination measures to prevent further spread of radiation and minimize the risk to the civilians. Once the initial procedures are in place, further steps can be taken to manage and process the large number of people needing assistance.

64. (401) In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), during the Response phase of an incident, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP?

6 or 12 hours.

12 or 24 hours.

24 or 48 hours.

48 or 72 hours.

In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established during the Response phase of an incident. This plan is created for a certain operational period, which is typically either 12 or 24 hours. This allows for a specific timeframe in which actions and strategies can be implemented to manage and respond to the incident effectively.

Explanation

In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established during the Response phase of an incident. This plan is created for a certain operational period, which is typically either 12 or 24 hours. This allows for a specific timeframe in which actions and strategies can be implemented to manage and respond to the incident effectively.

65. (434) Which logistics module (LOGMOD) report, created through the Schedule module, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment?

Movement summary.

Hazard code list.

Packing list.

Load list.

The correct answer is Packing list. The packing list, created through the Schedule module in the logistics module (LOGMOD) report, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment. This list provides detailed information about the contents of each package or container, including the quantity, description, and weight of each item. It is used to ensure that all necessary items are included in the shipment and to facilitate the unpacking and distribution process at the destination.

Explanation

The correct answer is Packing list. The packing list, created through the Schedule module in the logistics module (LOGMOD) report, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment. This list provides detailed information about the contents of each package or container, including the quantity, description, and weight of each item. It is used to ensure that all necessary items are included in the shipment and to facilitate the unpacking and distribution process at the destination.

66. (420) What is the recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample?

2 leaves or 2 handfuls of grass.

2 leaves or 1 handful of grass.

3 leaves or 1 handful of grass.

3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass.

The recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample is 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass. This ensures that an adequate amount of plant material is collected for accurate analysis and to account for any variations within the sample. Collecting more than 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass may provide a larger sample size, but it is not necessary for obtaining reliable results.

Explanation

The recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample is 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass. This ensures that an adequate amount of plant material is collected for accurate analysis and to account for any variations within the sample. Collecting more than 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass may provide a larger sample size, but it is not necessary for obtaining reliable results.

67. (434) Where is cargo weighed and measured and the cargo documentation validated?

Cargo deployment function (CDF).

Deployment control center (DCC).

Marshaling yard.

Personnel deployment function (PDF).

Cargo is weighed and measured, and the cargo documentation is validated at the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). This implies that the CDF is responsible for ensuring that the cargo is accurately measured and documented before it is deployed. The other options, such as the Deployment Control Center (DCC), Marshaling Yard, and Personnel Deployment Function (PDF), do not specifically mention the weighing, measuring, and validating of cargo documentation. Therefore, the correct answer is the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF).

Explanation

Cargo is weighed and measured, and the cargo documentation is validated at the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). This implies that the CDF is responsible for ensuring that the cargo is accurately measured and documented before it is deployed. The other options, such as the Deployment Control Center (DCC), Marshaling Yard, and Personnel Deployment Function (PDF), do not specifically mention the weighing, measuring, and validating of cargo documentation. Therefore, the correct answer is the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF).

68. (429) Which units are measured (tracked) in status of resource and training system (SORTS)?

Offensive or defensive.

Skills or grades needed.

Combat or combat support.

Requisitions or requirements.

SORTS is a system used to measure and track the readiness and availability of military resources and training. It focuses on the combat and combat support units within the military. These units are essential for carrying out offensive or defensive operations. The system helps to assess the readiness levels of these units by evaluating their capabilities, training, and resources. By measuring and tracking combat and combat support units, SORTS provides valuable information for military planning and decision-making.

Explanation

SORTS is a system used to measure and track the readiness and availability of military resources and training. It focuses on the combat and combat support units within the military. These units are essential for carrying out offensive or defensive operations. The system helps to assess the readiness levels of these units by evaluating their capabilities, training, and resources. By measuring and tracking combat and combat support units, SORTS provides valuable information for military planning and decision-making.

69. (412) Which decontamination technique is not conducted during the operational level of decontamination?

Spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used.

Mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange.

Detailed equipment decontamination (DED).

Equipment wash down.

During the operational level of decontamination, spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used, mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange, and equipment wash down are conducted to remove contamination. However, detailed equipment decontamination (DED) is not conducted at the operational level. DED is a more thorough and extensive decontamination process that is typically performed at a higher level, such as the technical or specialized level.

Explanation

During the operational level of decontamination, spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used, mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange, and equipment wash down are conducted to remove contamination. However, detailed equipment decontamination (DED) is not conducted at the operational level. DED is a more thorough and extensive decontamination process that is typically performed at a higher level, such as the technical or specialized level.

70. (419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the total volume of stones that should be taken?

100 to 200 milliliters.

200 to 300 milliliters.

300 to 400 milliliters.

When taking an environmental sample, it is recommended to take a total volume of 200 to 300 milliliters of stones. This volume range ensures that an adequate amount of stones is collected for analysis while also minimizing the risk of contamination or bias in the sample. Taking a larger volume may be unnecessary and could lead to increased costs and time for analysis, while taking a smaller volume may not provide a representative sample of the stones present in the environment.

Explanation

When taking an environmental sample, it is recommended to take a total volume of 200 to 300 milliliters of stones. This volume range ensures that an adequate amount of stones is collected for analysis while also minimizing the risk of contamination or bias in the sample. Taking a larger volume may be unnecessary and could lead to increased costs and time for analysis, while taking a smaller volume may not provide a representative sample of the stones present in the environment.

71. (413) During decontamination operations, you let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on your skin for at least how many minutes?

1.

2.

3.

4.

During decontamination operations, it is recommended to let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on the skin for at least 2 minutes. This allows enough time for the lotion to effectively neutralize and remove any contaminants present on the skin's surface.

Explanation

During decontamination operations, it is recommended to let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on the skin for at least 2 minutes. This allows enough time for the lotion to effectively neutralize and remove any contaminants present on the skin's surface.

72. (427) Which element is one of the five essential elements of a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?

Departure date.

Air Force specialty code.

Aircraft types and numbers.

Personnel selected for deployment.

The Air Force specialty code is one of the five essential elements of a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD). This code identifies the specific job or specialty that an Air Force personnel holds. It is crucial to include this information in the DRMD as it helps in determining the specific skills and qualifications required for the deployment. By including the Air Force specialty code, the document ensures that the right personnel with the necessary expertise are selected for the deployment.

Explanation

The Air Force specialty code is one of the five essential elements of a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD). This code identifies the specific job or specialty that an Air Force personnel holds. It is crucial to include this information in the DRMD as it helps in determining the specific skills and qualifications required for the deployment. By including the Air Force specialty code, the document ensures that the right personnel with the necessary expertise are selected for the deployment.

73. (426) During a contingency, where can you find a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

Interim work information management system (IWIMS).

Automated data processing equipment (ADPE).

War reserve materiel (WRM).

Unit type code (UTC).

During a contingency, a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location can be found in the Unit Type Code (UTC). The UTC provides a standardized system for identifying the specific types and quantities of equipment and supplies needed for different mission requirements. It helps in planning and organizing the movement of resources to support the forward location during contingencies.

Explanation

During a contingency, a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location can be found in the Unit Type Code (UTC). The UTC provides a standardized system for identifying the specific types and quantities of equipment and supplies needed for different mission requirements. It helps in planning and organizing the movement of resources to support the forward location during contingencies.

74. (406) Prior to deploying to a high threat environment, you find out that the location you are deploying to does not use the Unites States Air Force (USAF) standardized alarm signals for areas subject to chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) attack. What best describes the action the Readiness and Emergency Management flight takes?

Establish a pre-deployment information program to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system.

Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system.

The correct answer is to establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location's warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location. This option acknowledges that the deployed location has its own warning system and recognizes the importance of informing personnel about it. By disseminating this information prior to deployment and as personnel arrive, the Readiness and Emergency Management flight ensures that everyone is aware of the warning system and can respond appropriately in the event of a CBRNE attack.

Explanation

The correct answer is to establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location's warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location. This option acknowledges that the deployed location has its own warning system and recognizes the importance of informing personnel about it. By disseminating this information prior to deployment and as personnel arrive, the Readiness and Emergency Management flight ensures that everyone is aware of the warning system and can respond appropriately in the event of a CBRNE attack.

75. (404) You are deployed to a contingency situation fulfilling the role of a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center team member. Chemical agents have not been used thus far in the theater of operations. The enemy attacks your installation. Several CBRN reconnaissance teams report a positive indication that the enemy used a chemical warfare agent. What North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) CBRN report must the installation CBRN generate to the theater CBRN cell?

CBRN 1.

CBRN 2.

CBRN 4.

CBRN 5.

The correct answer is CBRN 1. In this scenario, the installation CBRN team has received reports indicating the use of a chemical warfare agent by the enemy. CBRN 1 is the NATO CBRN report that must be generated by the installation CBRN team and sent to the theater CBRN cell. This report is specifically designed for reporting the presence or suspected presence of chemical agents in the theater of operations. It provides detailed information about the agent, its effects, and any protective measures that should be taken.

Explanation

The correct answer is CBRN 1. In this scenario, the installation CBRN team has received reports indicating the use of a chemical warfare agent by the enemy. CBRN 1 is the NATO CBRN report that must be generated by the installation CBRN team and sent to the theater CBRN cell. This report is specifically designed for reporting the presence or suspected presence of chemical agents in the theater of operations. It provides detailed information about the agent, its effects, and any protective measures that should be taken.

76. (402) What is the primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

Monitor and direct active defense measures.

Pass attack information to the base populace and direct defensive measures.

Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations.

The primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) is to monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations. This means that the EOC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the actions taken before and during an attack to ensure the safety and survival of individuals, as well as managing the recovery efforts after an attack has occurred. This includes assessing damage reports, establishing priorities, dispatching and controlling response forces, and informing the command post on the status of base facilities.

Explanation

The primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) is to monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations. This means that the EOC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the actions taken before and during an attack to ensure the safety and survival of individuals, as well as managing the recovery efforts after an attack has occurred. This includes assessing damage reports, establishing priorities, dispatching and controlling response forces, and informing the command post on the status of base facilities.

77. (425) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

Advance echelon (ADVON).

Follow-on force.

Initial force.

Cadre.

The advance echelon (ADVON) is the team that is sent ahead of the main force to prepare and set up a deployed location. They are responsible for conducting reconnaissance, establishing communication lines, and coordinating logistics. Therefore, they are the first team to arrive at the deployed location.

Explanation

The advance echelon (ADVON) is the team that is sent ahead of the main force to prepare and set up a deployed location. They are responsible for conducting reconnaissance, establishing communication lines, and coordinating logistics. Therefore, they are the first team to arrive at the deployed location.

78. (407) What is the most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis?

Initial training required.

Warning and reporting information.

Gathering of post attack information.

Work rate and rest cycle implementation.

The most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis is the gathering of post attack information. This information is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of the protective measures taken during the attack and determining any necessary adjustments or improvements. Without this information, it would be difficult to evaluate the success of the MOPP and make informed decisions for future missions.

Explanation

The most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis is the gathering of post attack information. This information is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of the protective measures taken during the attack and determining any necessary adjustments or improvements. Without this information, it would be difficult to evaluate the success of the MOPP and make informed decisions for future missions.

79. (408) Which option is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)?

Hot line.

Contamination control line (CCL).

Contamination removal zone.

Contamination reduction area (CRA).

A contamination control station (CCS) is a facility designed to prevent the spread of contaminants. It typically consists of various elements such as a hot line, contamination control line (CCL), and contamination reduction area (CRA). These elements are aimed at minimizing contamination and maintaining a clean environment. However, a contamination removal zone is not a principal element of a CCS. This suggests that the removal of contamination is not a primary focus within the station, but rather the prevention and reduction of contamination.

Explanation

A contamination control station (CCS) is a facility designed to prevent the spread of contaminants. It typically consists of various elements such as a hot line, contamination control line (CCL), and contamination reduction area (CRA). These elements are aimed at minimizing contamination and maintaining a clean environment. However, a contamination removal zone is not a principal element of a CCS. This suggests that the removal of contamination is not a primary focus within the station, but rather the prevention and reduction of contamination.

80. (426) What list combined with individuals on leave and quarters provides availability?

Recall roster.

Weekly work schedule.

Unit manning document (UMD).

Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).

The Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) is the correct answer because it combines the individuals on leave and quarters with the list to provide availability. The UPMR is a document that includes the names and duty statuses of all personnel in a unit, including those on leave or in quarters. By referring to the UPMR, unit leaders can determine who is available for duty at any given time. The other options, such as the recall roster, weekly work schedule, and unit manning document, may provide some information about personnel availability, but they do not specifically combine the individuals on leave and quarters with the list to provide availability.

Explanation

The Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) is the correct answer because it combines the individuals on leave and quarters with the list to provide availability. The UPMR is a document that includes the names and duty statuses of all personnel in a unit, including those on leave or in quarters. By referring to the UPMR, unit leaders can determine who is available for duty at any given time. The other options, such as the recall roster, weekly work schedule, and unit manning document, may provide some information about personnel availability, but they do not specifically combine the individuals on leave and quarters with the list to provide availability.

81. (413) In an attempt to extend the wear time of the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to agents other an VX, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your over garment no longer than how many minutes ?

3.

7.

10.

15.

The M291/M295 kit is used to decontaminate the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to chemical agents. The kit is effective for a certain period of time, after which it may no longer be effective in decontaminating the BDO. The correct answer of 15 minutes suggests that the M291/M295 kit should be used on the over garment for no longer than 15 minutes to extend its wear time after exposure to agents other than VX.

Explanation

The M291/M295 kit is used to decontaminate the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to chemical agents. The kit is effective for a certain period of time, after which it may no longer be effective in decontaminating the BDO. The correct answer of 15 minutes suggests that the M291/M295 kit should be used on the over garment for no longer than 15 minutes to extend its wear time after exposure to agents other than VX.

82. (419) Sample collection teams should bring enough sample collection equipment and consumables to take a minimum of how many samples of a necessary type?

Four.

Six.

Eight.

Ten.

Sample collection teams should bring enough sample collection equipment and consumables to take a minimum of ten samples of a necessary type. This ensures that they have an adequate number of samples to conduct thorough testing and analysis. Having enough samples is crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable results, as it allows for proper replication and statistical analysis. Bringing fewer than ten samples may lead to insufficient data and compromised conclusions.

Explanation

Sample collection teams should bring enough sample collection equipment and consumables to take a minimum of ten samples of a necessary type. This ensures that they have an adequate number of samples to conduct thorough testing and analysis. Having enough samples is crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable results, as it allows for proper replication and statistical analysis. Bringing fewer than ten samples may lead to insufficient data and compromised conclusions.

83. (408) In what area of the contamination control station (CCS) do the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring?

Hot line.

Contamination control line (CCL).

Contamination removal zone.

Contamination reduction area (CRA).

In the contamination control station (CCS), the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring in the Contamination reduction area (CRA). This area is specifically designed for reducing contamination and ensuring the safety and cleanliness of the station. It is where the team carries out activities such as decontamination, cleaning, and removing any radioactive substances or particles. Monitoring in this area is crucial to ensure that the contamination levels are effectively reduced and maintained within acceptable limits.

Explanation

In the contamination control station (CCS), the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring in the Contamination reduction area (CRA). This area is specifically designed for reducing contamination and ensuring the safety and cleanliness of the station. It is where the team carries out activities such as decontamination, cleaning, and removing any radioactive substances or particles. Monitoring in this area is crucial to ensure that the contamination levels are effectively reduced and maintained within acceptable limits.

84. (411) Who is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attacks?

Civil Engineer (CE) Commander.

Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander.

Installation Commander.

Individual Units.

The Installation Commander is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from CBRN attacks. This role falls under their jurisdiction as the commander of the installation, which includes overseeing all aspects of the facility's operations and ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel. As such, they are tasked with developing and implementing plans to mitigate the effects of CBRN attacks, including establishing shelters for protection and coordinating recovery efforts. The Civil Engineer Commander, Mission Support Group Commander, and Individual Units may play a role in supporting the shelter plan, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Installation Commander.

Explanation

The Installation Commander is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from CBRN attacks. This role falls under their jurisdiction as the commander of the installation, which includes overseeing all aspects of the facility's operations and ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel. As such, they are tasked with developing and implementing plans to mitigate the effects of CBRN attacks, including establishing shelters for protection and coordinating recovery efforts. The Civil Engineer Commander, Mission Support Group Commander, and Individual Units may play a role in supporting the shelter plan, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Installation Commander.

85. (420) What is the recommended sample collection size for a biological liquid sample?

10 to 25 milliliters.

25 to 50 milliliters.

50 to 75 milliliters.

75 to 100 milliliters.

The recommended sample collection size for a biological liquid sample is 25 to 50 milliliters. This range ensures that there is enough volume of the sample for various laboratory tests and analyses to be conducted accurately. Collecting a smaller volume may not provide sufficient material for all required tests, while collecting a larger volume may result in unnecessary wastage of resources. Therefore, 25 to 50 milliliters is the optimal range for sample collection.

Explanation

The recommended sample collection size for a biological liquid sample is 25 to 50 milliliters. This range ensures that there is enough volume of the sample for various laboratory tests and analyses to be conducted accurately. Collecting a smaller volume may not provide sufficient material for all required tests, while collecting a larger volume may result in unnecessary wastage of resources. Therefore, 25 to 50 milliliters is the optimal range for sample collection.

86. (427) Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment?

Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).

Unit manpower document (UMD).

Unit type code (UTC).

The Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) is the document that lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment. It provides detailed information about the personnel and manpower needed for the deployment, including specific roles, qualifications, and numbers required. The Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) is a document that lists the personnel assigned to a unit, but it does not specifically address deployment tasking requirements. The Unit manpower document (UMD) provides information about the overall manpower needs of a unit, but it does not focus on deployment requirements. The Unit type code (UTC) is a code that identifies the type and capabilities of a unit, but it does not list deployment tasking requirements.

Explanation

The Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) is the document that lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment. It provides detailed information about the personnel and manpower needed for the deployment, including specific roles, qualifications, and numbers required. The Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) is a document that lists the personnel assigned to a unit, but it does not specifically address deployment tasking requirements. The Unit manpower document (UMD) provides information about the overall manpower needs of a unit, but it does not focus on deployment requirements. The Unit type code (UTC) is a code that identifies the type and capabilities of a unit, but it does not list deployment tasking requirements.

87. (425) Missile maintenance would arrive at a bare base force deployed location with which force deployment team?

Advance echelon (ADVON).

Follow-on force.

Initial force.

Cadre.

Missile maintenance would arrive at a bare base force deployed location with the follow-on force. The follow-on force refers to the second group of personnel and equipment that arrives at a location after the initial force has already established a presence. In this scenario, the missile maintenance team would arrive after the initial force has set up the bare base force deployed location. The advance echelon (ADVON) is the first group to arrive and prepare the location for the follow-on force. The cadre refers to a group of experienced personnel who provide guidance and training.

Explanation

Missile maintenance would arrive at a bare base force deployed location with the follow-on force. The follow-on force refers to the second group of personnel and equipment that arrives at a location after the initial force has already established a presence. In this scenario, the missile maintenance team would arrive after the initial force has set up the bare base force deployed location. The advance echelon (ADVON) is the first group to arrive and prepare the location for the follow-on force. The cadre refers to a group of experienced personnel who provide guidance and training.

88. (402) A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet what Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type?

Type I.

Type II.

Type III.

Type IV.

A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet the Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type III. This means that the MCC must have the capability to provide mobile communication services during emergency situations. Resource type III is typically used for incidents that require an extended response and involve a moderate level of complexity. The MCC will play a crucial role in coordinating communication efforts and ensuring effective communication between emergency responders and other stakeholders.

Explanation

A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet the Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type III. This means that the MCC must have the capability to provide mobile communication services during emergency situations. Resource type III is typically used for incidents that require an extended response and involve a moderate level of complexity. The MCC will play a crucial role in coordinating communication efforts and ensuring effective communication between emergency responders and other stakeholders.

89. (432) Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel whose purpose is to

Eliminate airlift requirements.

Meet planned defense objectives.

Reduce financial requirements on combatant commanders.

Provide equipment for use during exercises and inspections.

The purpose of Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is to meet planned defense objectives. This means that the WRM is essential in ensuring that the Air Force has the necessary equipment and resources to achieve its strategic goals and fulfill its defense obligations. By having a reserve of materiel, the Air Force can effectively respond to any contingencies or conflicts that may arise, enhancing its readiness and capabilities.

Explanation

The purpose of Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is to meet planned defense objectives. This means that the WRM is essential in ensuring that the Air Force has the necessary equipment and resources to achieve its strategic goals and fulfill its defense obligations. By having a reserve of materiel, the Air Force can effectively respond to any contingencies or conflicts that may arise, enhancing its readiness and capabilities.

90. (421) The specific requirements outlined in AFI 48–137 are based on 29 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)?

1910.134 requirements.

1910.120 requirements.

1918.134 requirements.

1918.120 requirements.

The correct answer is 1910.134 requirements. This is because AFI 48-137, which is the Air Force Instruction for Respiratory Protection Program, is based on the requirements outlined in 29 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.134. This specific CFR section pertains to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards for respiratory protection in general industry. Therefore, AFI 48-137 adopts and incorporates these requirements to ensure compliance with federal regulations.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1910.134 requirements. This is because AFI 48-137, which is the Air Force Instruction for Respiratory Protection Program, is based on the requirements outlined in 29 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.134. This specific CFR section pertains to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards for respiratory protection in general industry. Therefore, AFI 48-137 adopts and incorporates these requirements to ensure compliance with federal regulations.

91. (433) What kind of installation deployment orders is sent to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) to direct execution planning before a COA is formally approved by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and President of the United States (POTUS)?

Deployment.

Planning.

Warning.

Alert.

The correct answer is "Planning". In the given question, it is asking about the kind of installation deployment orders that are sent to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) before a COA (Course of Action) is formally approved by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and President of the United States (POTUS). The term "deployment" refers to the actual movement and positioning of forces, while "warning" and "alert" are related to notifying or signaling potential threats or actions. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is "Planning", as it refers to the orders sent for execution planning before formal approval.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Planning". In the given question, it is asking about the kind of installation deployment orders that are sent to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) before a COA (Course of Action) is formally approved by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and President of the United States (POTUS). The term "deployment" refers to the actual movement and positioning of forces, while "warning" and "alert" are related to notifying or signaling potential threats or actions. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is "Planning", as it refers to the orders sent for execution planning before formal approval.

92. (402) Which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC)?

Strategy.

Logistics.

Combat Plans.

Air Mobility.

The question asks which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC). The divisions listed are Strategy, Logistics, Combat Plans, and Air Mobility. Since the question asks for the division that is not part of the AOC, the correct answer is Logistics.

Explanation

The question asks which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC). The divisions listed are Strategy, Logistics, Combat Plans, and Air Mobility. Since the question asks for the division that is not part of the AOC, the correct answer is Logistics.

93. (405) What terrorist force protection condition (FPCON) applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent?

FPCON ALPHA.

FPCON BRAVO.

FPCON CHARLIE.

FPCON DELTA.

FPCON CHARLIE is the correct answer because it is the force protection condition that applies when there is an imminent threat of terrorist action against personnel and facilities. This means that there has been an incident or intelligence has been received indicating that a terrorist attack is likely to occur. FPCON CHARLIE involves increased security measures and heightened awareness to ensure the safety of personnel and facilities.

Explanation

FPCON CHARLIE is the correct answer because it is the force protection condition that applies when there is an imminent threat of terrorist action against personnel and facilities. This means that there has been an incident or intelligence has been received indicating that a terrorist attack is likely to occur. FPCON CHARLIE involves increased security measures and heightened awareness to ensure the safety of personnel and facilities.

94. (433) What kind of installation deployment orders does the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) issue to prepare forces to deploy?

Deployment.

Planning.

Warning.

Alert.

The Secretary of Defense (SecDef) issues deployment orders to prepare forces to deploy. Deployment refers to the process of moving military personnel and equipment to a designated location in order to carry out a mission or operation. These orders outline the specific details and instructions for the deployment, including the timeline, logistics, and objectives. Planning, warning, and alert are also important stages in the deployment process, but the SecDef specifically issues deployment orders to initiate the actual movement of forces.

Explanation

The Secretary of Defense (SecDef) issues deployment orders to prepare forces to deploy. Deployment refers to the process of moving military personnel and equipment to a designated location in order to carry out a mission or operation. These orders outline the specific details and instructions for the deployment, including the timeline, logistics, and objectives. Planning, warning, and alert are also important stages in the deployment process, but the SecDef specifically issues deployment orders to initiate the actual movement of forces.

95. (432) Who or what command determines war reserve materiel (WRM) pre-positioning requirements?

WRM program manager.

Using major command.

Storing major command.

Host installation commander.

The correct answer is "Using major command." In the context of war reserve materiel (WRM) pre-positioning requirements, the major command is responsible for determining these requirements. They assess the needs and capabilities of their specific command and make decisions on what WRM should be pre-positioned. The WRM program manager may assist in this process, but ultimately it is the major command that determines the requirements. The storing major command is not mentioned in relation to determining requirements, and the host installation commander is not directly responsible for this task.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Using major command." In the context of war reserve materiel (WRM) pre-positioning requirements, the major command is responsible for determining these requirements. They assess the needs and capabilities of their specific command and make decisions on what WRM should be pre-positioned. The WRM program manager may assist in this process, but ultimately it is the major command that determines the requirements. The storing major command is not mentioned in relation to determining requirements, and the host installation commander is not directly responsible for this task.

96. (431) What are the usable surface dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet?

84” by 104”.

84” by 108”.

88” by 108”.

88” by 104”.

The usable surface dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet are 84" by 104".

Explanation

The usable surface dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet are 84" by 104".

97. (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas?

Immediate.

Operational.

Thorough.

Clearance.

Thorough decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas. This level of decontamination involves a comprehensive and systematic process that ensures all potential contaminants are removed, minimizing the risk of further contamination. It is a more extensive and time-consuming process compared to immediate or operational decontamination, as it aims to achieve a higher level of cleanliness and safety. Clearance decontamination, on the other hand, refers to the final stage of the decontamination process, where a designated authority verifies that the decontamination has been successfully completed.

Explanation

Thorough decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas. This level of decontamination involves a comprehensive and systematic process that ensures all potential contaminants are removed, minimizing the risk of further contamination. It is a more extensive and time-consuming process compared to immediate or operational decontamination, as it aims to achieve a higher level of cleanliness and safety. Clearance decontamination, on the other hand, refers to the final stage of the decontamination process, where a designated authority verifies that the decontamination has been successfully completed.

98. (432) What is not considered war reserve materiel (WRM)?

Rations.

Vehicles.

Subsistence items.

Consumable items.

Subsistence items are not considered war reserve materiel (WRM) because they are perishable and cannot be stored for long periods of time. War reserve materiel refers to the equipment, supplies, and materials that are stockpiled and maintained for use during times of war or national emergency. Rations, vehicles, and consumable items can be stockpiled and stored for extended periods, making them suitable for war reserve purposes. However, subsistence items such as food and water need to be regularly replenished and cannot be stored for long-term use.

Explanation

Subsistence items are not considered war reserve materiel (WRM) because they are perishable and cannot be stored for long periods of time. War reserve materiel refers to the equipment, supplies, and materials that are stockpiled and maintained for use during times of war or national emergency. Rations, vehicles, and consumable items can be stockpiled and stored for extended periods, making them suitable for war reserve purposes. However, subsistence items such as food and water need to be regularly replenished and cannot be stored for long-term use.

99. (433) What kind of installation deployment orders establishes a tentative C-day (day deployment operations will begin)?

Deployment.

Planning.

Warning.

Alert.

A warning is a type of installation deployment order that establishes a tentative C-day, which is the day when deployment operations will begin. This order serves as a notice or indication that the deployment is imminent and allows the necessary preparations to be made. It alerts the relevant personnel and units to get ready for the deployment, ensuring that they are aware of the upcoming operations and can plan accordingly.

Explanation

A warning is a type of installation deployment order that establishes a tentative C-day, which is the day when deployment operations will begin. This order serves as a notice or indication that the deployment is imminent and allows the necessary preparations to be made. It alerts the relevant personnel and units to get ready for the deployment, ensuring that they are aware of the upcoming operations and can plan accordingly.

100. (429) Which product is used as a baseline to compare actual available personnel when compiling the status of resources and training system (SORTS) report?

Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

Unit type code (UTC) Availability record.

Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL).

Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

The Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL) is used as a baseline to compare actual available personnel when compiling the status of resources and training system (SORTS) report. SORTS report is a comprehensive assessment of a unit's readiness and capability to perform its assigned mission. By comparing the actual available personnel with the desired personnel listed in the AFPDL, the report can accurately reflect the unit's readiness and identify any gaps or deficiencies in personnel resources. The other options, such as the Designed operational capability (DOC) statement, Unit type code (UTC) Availability record, and Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD), are not specifically designed for this purpose and therefore not the correct answer.

Explanation

The Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL) is used as a baseline to compare actual available personnel when compiling the status of resources and training system (SORTS) report. SORTS report is a comprehensive assessment of a unit's readiness and capability to perform its assigned mission. By comparing the actual available personnel with the desired personnel listed in the AFPDL, the report can accurately reflect the unit's readiness and identify any gaps or deficiencies in personnel resources. The other options, such as the Designed operational capability (DOC) statement, Unit type code (UTC) Availability record, and Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD), are not specifically designed for this purpose and therefore not the correct answer.

3e951 Vol 3 Edit Code 8 Air Force Incident Management System

1. (423) When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and must be replaced, its center color changes from white to

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. (410) What colors are used for the background and writing on chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) marking signs to indicate biological contamination?

3. (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated?

4. (422) Before using an air-purifying respirator (APR) or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR), you need to make sure the

5. (420) Which sample collection technique is the basic and preferred sample collection method?

6. (418) During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the

7. (409) The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to

8. (423) Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) does the Air Force ground crew personnel use?

9. (432) What category of war reserve materiel (WRM) includes food necessary to feed a person for one day?

10. (417) During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey?

11. (402) Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program?

12. (405) Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress?

13. (414) During contamination control area (CCA) processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers.

14. (428) In reference to mission capability (MISCAP), what are the required skill level(s) on an emergency management (EM) installation management team?

15. (428) What type of unit type code (UTC) provides the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible?

16. (407) Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option?

17. (402) What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure?

18. (417) When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first?

19. (429) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called

20. (429) What is the status of resource and training system (SORTS)?

21. (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under

22. (414) The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA)?

23. (423) What is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment?

24. (417) During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door?

25. (408) While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds?

26. (401) An installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the

27. (403) Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center?

28. (411) A collective protection shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification?

29. (402) What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations?

30. (431) What is the weight of an empty 463L pallet?

31. (418) During two-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?

32. (429) Who ensure all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy?

33. (415) Which option is not a form of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance operation?

34. (419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the surface area of a soil sample that should be taken?

35. (412) What decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder?

36. (434) The personnel deployment function (PDF) is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until

37. (424) The M45 land warrior mask comes in what sizes?

38. (403) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident?

39. (420) During surface sample collection procedures, charcoal-impregnated pads can be used for sampling what type of substances?

40. (430) Which allowance standard (AS) contains identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC)?

41. (414) Which formula is used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content?

42. (417) During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every

43. (429) Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-level ratings are based on a five-point scale reflecting the degree to which a unit's resources meet prescribed levels of all of the following except

44. (416) Which chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination?

45. (418) During three-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?

46. (434) The only type of orders used to deploy personnel is

47. (401) What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period?

48. (415) Which option is not one of the four operational elements of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?

49. (409) Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within how many minutes?

50. (420) When samples are taken at predetermined intervals it is considered what type of collection strategy?

51. (430) Who ensures protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement?

52. (428) Which emergency management equipment unit type code (UTC) provides initial equipment for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) personnel decontamination capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel?

53. (427) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities?

54. (421) Air Force Instruction 48–137 does not apply to which protection?

55. (401) In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), who identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC)?

56. (418) Which item is not defined in a sample collection plan?

57. (412) Covering chemical agents with at least how many inches of earth will give protection provided the area is not disturbed?

58. (419) During sample collection operations, how many water samples should be taken?

59. (405) Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war?

60. (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under

62. (408) What rank is a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander?

64. (401) In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), during the Response phase of an incident, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP?

65. (434) Which logistics module (LOGMOD) report, created through the Schedule module, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment?

66. (420) What is the recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample?

67. (434) Where is cargo weighed and measured and the cargo documentation validated?

68. (429) Which units are measured (tracked) in status of resource and training system (SORTS)?

69. (412) Which decontamination technique is not conducted during the operational level of decontamination?

70. (419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the total volume of stones that should be taken?

71. (413) During decontamination operations, you let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on your skin for at least how many minutes?

72. (427) Which element is one of the five essential elements of a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?

73. (426) During a contingency, where can you find a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

76. (402) What is the primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

77. (425) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

78. (407) What is the most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis?

79. (408) Which option is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)?

80. (426) What list combined with individuals on leave and quarters provides availability?

81. (413) In an attempt to extend the wear time of the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to agents other an VX, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your over garment no longer than how many minutes ?