3e951 Vol 3 Edit Code 8 Air Force Incident Management System

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 58

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

The Air Force being a very disciplined group is guided and led by codes, which every member has to adhere to. 3e951 Vol 3 Air Force Incident Management System assesses your knowledge on code 8. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401) An installation’s primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the
    • A. 

      Commanders’ notifications.

    • B. 

      Primary and secondary crash nets.

    • C. 

      Disaster response force recall.

    • D. 

      Emergency Operations Center (EOC).

  • 2. 
    (401) What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period?
    • A. 

      Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.

    • B. 

      Contingency Response Plan.

    • C. 

      Incident Response Plan (IRP).

    • D. 

      Incident Action Plan (IAP).

  • 3. 
    (401) In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), during the Response phase of an incident, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP?
    • A. 

      6 or 12 hours.

    • B. 

      12 or 24 hours.

    • C. 

      24 or 48 hours.

    • D. 

      48 or 72 hours.

  • 4. 
    (401) In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), who identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC)?
    • A. 

      Incident Commander (IC).

    • B. 

      Civil Engineer (CE) commander.

    • C. 

      Director of Operations.

    • D. 

      Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.

  • 5. 
    (402) Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program?
    • A. 

      Shelter management teams.

    • B. 

      Contamination control teams.

    • C. 

      An effective command and control (C2) system.

    • D. 

      A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post.

  • 6. 
    (402) Which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC)?
    • A. 

      Strategy.

    • B. 

      Logistics.

    • C. 

      Combat Plans.

    • D. 

      Air Mobility.

  • 7. 
    (402) What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations?
    • A. 

      Unit control centers.

    • B. 

      Emergency operations centers.

    • C. 

      Installation command posts.

    • D. 

      Installation information exchange networks.

  • 8. 
    (402) What is the primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?
    • A. 

      Monitor and direct active defense measures.

    • B. 

      Pass attack information to the base populace and direct defensive measures.

    • C. 

      Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations.

    • D. 

      Assess damage reports, establish priorities, dispatch and control response forces, and inform the command post on the status of base facilities.

  • 9. 
    (402) What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure?
    • A. 

      Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.

    • B. 

      Individual through Emergency Operations Center to the Unit Control Center.

    • C. 

      Emergency Operations Center through Unit Control Center to the individual.

    • D. 

      Unit control center through the Emergency Operations Center to the individual.

  • 10. 
    (402) A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet what Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type?
    • A. 

      Type I.

    • B. 

      Type II.

    • C. 

      Type III.

    • D. 

      Type IV.

  • 11. 
    (403) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident?
    • A. 

      ESF–8.

    • B. 

      ESF–7.

    • C. 

      ESF–6.

    • D. 

      ESF–5.

  • 12. 
    (403) Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center?
    • A. 

      Detection.

    • B. 

      Plotting.

    • C. 

      Defending.

    • D. 

      Identification.

  • 13. 
    (403) After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center provides advice to the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) commander pertaining to agent persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent?
    • A. 

      Internal.

    • B. 

      External.

    • C. 

      Coordination.

    • D. 

      Exposure determination.

  • 14. 
    (404) You are deployed to a contingency situation fulfilling the role of a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center team member. Chemical agents have not been used thus far in the theater of operations. The enemy attacks your installation. Several CBRN reconnaissance teams report a positive indication that the enemy used a chemical warfare agent. What North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) CBRN report must the installation CBRN generate to the theater CBRN cell?
    • A. 

      CBRN 1.

    • B. 

      CBRN 2.

    • C. 

      CBRN 4.

    • D. 

      CBRN 5.

  • 15. 
    (405) Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      7.

  • 16. 
    (405) Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress?
    • A. 

      White.

    • B. 

      Yellow.

    • C. 

      Red.

    • D. 

      Black.

  • 17. 
    (405) What terrorist force protection condition (FPCON) applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent?
    • A. 

      FPCON ALPHA.

    • B. 

      FPCON BRAVO.

    • C. 

      FPCON CHARLIE.

    • D. 

      FPCON DELTA.

  • 18. 
    (406) Prior to deploying to a high threat environment, you find out that the location you are deploying to does not use the Unites States Air Force (USAF) standardized alarm signals for areas subject to chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) attack. What best describes the action the Readiness and Emergency Management flight takes?
    • A. 

      Establish a pre-deployment information program to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system.

    • B. 

      Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system.

    • C. 

      Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location.

    • D. 

      Work with the deployed location to change the warning system to mirror the USAF standardized alarm signals for areas subject to CBRNE attack.

  • 19. 
    (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under
    • A. 

      MOPP 0.

    • B. 

      MOPP 1.

    • C. 

      MOPP 2.

    • D. 

      MOPP 3.

  • 20. 
    (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under
    • A. 

      MOPP 1.

    • B. 

      MOPP 2.

    • C. 

      MOPP 3.

    • D. 

      MOPP 4.

  • 21. 
    (407) Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option?
    • A. 

      Ventilation.

    • B. 

      No-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit.

    • C. 

      Mask-only.

    • D. 

      Hood open.

  • 22. 
    (407) What is the most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis?
    • A. 

      Initial training required.

    • B. 

      Warning and reporting information.

    • C. 

      Gathering of post attack information.

    • D. 

      Work rate and rest cycle implementation.

  • 23. 
    (408) What rank is a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander?
    • A. 

      Major.

    • B. 

      Colonel.

    • C. 

      General.

    • D. 

      Civilian.

  • 24. 
    (408) A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your contamination control station (CCS). Unfortunately, you have only four personnel and a limited number of radiation, indication, and computations (RADIAC) to operate your CCS. Your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of people needing to process. Given these circumstances, what is the best action to take?
    • A. 

      Implement initial CCS procedures.

    • B. 

      Implement standard CCS procedures.

    • C. 

      Direct the civilians to a holding area until the response task force (RTF) arrives.

    • D. 

      Separate the civilians into several large groups and conduct a spot monitor of only a few in each group. If the few are clean, then release the rest.

  • 25. 
    (408) Which option is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)?
    • A. 

      Hot line.

    • B. 

      Contamination control line (CCL).

    • C. 

      Contamination removal zone.

    • D. 

      Contamination reduction area (CRA).

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