3e951 Vol 3 Edit Code 8 Air Force Incident Management System

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3e951 Vol 3 Edit Code 8 Air Force Incident Management System - Quiz


The Air Force being a very disciplined group is guided and led by codes, which every member has to adhere to. 3e951 Vol 3 Air Force Incident Management System assesses your knowledge on code 8. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (401) An installation’s primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the

    • A.

      Commanders’ notifications.

    • B.

      Primary and secondary crash nets.

    • C.

      Disaster response force recall.

    • D.

      Emergency Operations Center (EOC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary and secondary crash nets.
    Explanation
    The installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the use of primary and secondary crash nets. Crash nets are communication systems that allow for immediate and direct communication between individuals involved in emergency response. They are specifically designed to quickly relay important information and coordinate actions during emergency situations.

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  • 2. 

    (401) What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period?

    • A.

      Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.

    • B.

      Contingency Response Plan.

    • C.

      Incident Response Plan (IRP).

    • D.

      Incident Action Plan (IAP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Incident Action Plan (IAP). An IAP is a planning mechanism used during an incident to organize and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period. It provides a comprehensive overview of the current situation, identifies objectives and strategies, assigns resources, and outlines specific actions to be taken by response personnel. The IAP ensures that all responders are working towards a common goal and helps to coordinate and prioritize response efforts.

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  • 3. 

    (401) In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), during the Response phase of an incident, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP?

    • A.

      6 or 12 hours.

    • B.

      12 or 24 hours.

    • C.

      24 or 48 hours.

    • D.

      48 or 72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. 12 or 24 hours.
    Explanation
    In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established during the Response phase of an incident. This plan is created for a certain operational period, which is typically either 12 or 24 hours. This allows for a specific timeframe in which actions and strategies can be implemented to manage and respond to the incident effectively.

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  • 4. 

    (401) In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), who identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC)?

    • A.

      Incident Commander (IC).

    • B.

      Civil Engineer (CE) commander.

    • C.

      Director of Operations.

    • D.

      Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.

    Correct Answer
    D. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.
    Explanation
    In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC). The EOC Director is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall emergency response efforts, including the recovery operations. They have the authority to appoint key personnel, such as the ROC, who will oversee and coordinate the specific recovery activities. The Incident Commander (IC), Civil Engineer (CE) commander, and Director of Operations may have important roles in the overall incident management, but they are not specifically tasked with identifying the ROC in the Recovery phase.

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  • 5. 

    (402) Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program?

    • A.

      Shelter management teams.

    • B.

      Contamination control teams.

    • C.

      An effective command and control (C2) system.

    • D.

      A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post.

    Correct Answer
    C. An effective command and control (C2) system.
    Explanation
    An effective command and control (C2) system is the best item that describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program. This is because a C2 system provides the necessary structure and coordination to effectively manage and respond to emergencies. It allows for efficient communication, decision-making, and resource allocation, which are crucial in emergency situations. With an effective C2 system in place, emergency management teams can better coordinate their efforts and ensure a timely and organized response to emergencies.

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  • 6. 

    (402) Which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC)?

    • A.

      Strategy.

    • B.

      Logistics.

    • C.

      Combat Plans.

    • D.

      Air Mobility.

    Correct Answer
    B. Logistics.
    Explanation
    The question asks which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC). The divisions listed are Strategy, Logistics, Combat Plans, and Air Mobility. Since the question asks for the division that is not part of the AOC, the correct answer is Logistics.

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  • 7. 

    (402) What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations?

    • A.

      Unit control centers.

    • B.

      Emergency operations centers.

    • C.

      Installation command posts.

    • D.

      Installation information exchange networks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit control centers.
    Explanation
    Unit commanders use unit control centers to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations. These control centers provide a centralized location for commanders to coordinate and control the allocation of resources and implement passive defense measures to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the unit during contingency operations. They serve as a hub for communication, decision-making, and resource management, allowing commanders to effectively manage and respond to the demands of the operation.

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  • 8. 

    (402) What is the primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

    • A.

      Monitor and direct active defense measures.

    • B.

      Pass attack information to the base populace and direct defensive measures.

    • C.

      Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations.

    • D.

      Assess damage reports, establish priorities, dispatch and control response forces, and inform the command post on the status of base facilities.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations.
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) is to monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations. This means that the EOC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the actions taken before and during an attack to ensure the safety and survival of individuals, as well as managing the recovery efforts after an attack has occurred. This includes assessing damage reports, establishing priorities, dispatching and controlling response forces, and informing the command post on the status of base facilities.

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  • 9. 

    (402) What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure?

    • A.

      Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.

    • B.

      Individual through Emergency Operations Center to the Unit Control Center.

    • C.

      Emergency Operations Center through Unit Control Center to the individual.

    • D.

      Unit control center through the Emergency Operations Center to the individual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center." This means that the flow of attack information starts with the individual, who reports it to the Unit Control Center. The Unit Control Center then forwards the information to the Emergency Operations Center for further action and coordination. This flow ensures that the information is properly communicated and reaches the appropriate authorities for response and decision-making.

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  • 10. 

    (402) A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet what Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type?

    • A.

      Type I.

    • B.

      Type II.

    • C.

      Type III.

    • D.

      Type IV.

    Correct Answer
    C. Type III.
    Explanation
    A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet the Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type III. This means that the MCC must have the capability to provide mobile communication services during emergency situations. Resource type III is typically used for incidents that require an extended response and involve a moderate level of complexity. The MCC will play a crucial role in coordinating communication efforts and ensuring effective communication between emergency responders and other stakeholders.

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  • 11. 

    (403) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident?

    • A.

      ESF–8.

    • B.

      ESF–7.

    • C.

      ESF–6.

    • D.

      ESF–5.

    Correct Answer
    D. ESF–5.
    Explanation
    ESF-5, also known as the Emergency Support Function for Emergency Management, is responsible for coordinating and managing the financial aspects of a CBRNE incident. This includes monitoring, tracking, and reporting the financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the incident. ESF-5 works closely with other ESFs and agencies to ensure that financial resources are properly allocated and accounted for during the response and recovery phases of the incident.

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  • 12. 

    (403) Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center?

    • A.

      Detection.

    • B.

      Plotting.

    • C.

      Defending.

    • D.

      Identification.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defending.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the option that is not one of the seven major requirements of the CBRN control center. The given options are "Detection," "Plotting," "Defending," and "Identification." Out of these options, "Defending" is the correct answer. The other options, such as "Detection," "Plotting," and "Identification," are all major requirements of the CBRN control center.

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  • 13. 

    (403) After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center provides advice to the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) commander pertaining to agent persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent?

    • A.

      Internal.

    • B.

      External.

    • C.

      Coordination.

    • D.

      Exposure determination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal.
    Explanation
    This action best represents the internal responsibility of the CBRN control center. After an attack involving chemical warfare agents, the CBRN control center provides advice to the EOC commander regarding agent persistency. This suggests that the CBRN control center is responsible for assessing and managing the situation within their own installation, rather than providing advice or support to external entities or coordinating with other organizations.

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  • 14. 

    (404) You are deployed to a contingency situation fulfilling the role of a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center team member. Chemical agents have not been used thus far in the theater of operations. The enemy attacks your installation. Several CBRN reconnaissance teams report a positive indication that the enemy used a chemical warfare agent. What North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) CBRN report must the installation CBRN generate to the theater CBRN cell?

    • A.

      CBRN 1.

    • B.

      CBRN 2.

    • C.

      CBRN 4.

    • D.

      CBRN 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. CBRN 1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CBRN 1. In this scenario, the installation CBRN team has received reports indicating the use of a chemical warfare agent by the enemy. CBRN 1 is the NATO CBRN report that must be generated by the installation CBRN team and sent to the theater CBRN cell. This report is specifically designed for reporting the presence or suspected presence of chemical agents in the theater of operations. It provides detailed information about the agent, its effects, and any protective measures that should be taken.

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  • 15. 

    (405) Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      5.

    • D.

      7.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    DEFCON 1 is the highest level of defense condition, indicating that a state of war exists. At DEFCON 1, there is a maximum readiness for military action, with all forces prepared to engage in combat. This level is only reached during times of imminent or ongoing war. DEFCON 3, 5, and 7 are lower levels of readiness, indicating varying degrees of preparedness for potential threats, but not specifically indicating war.

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  • 16. 

    (405) Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress?

    • A.

      White.

    • B.

      Yellow.

    • C.

      Red.

    • D.

      Black.

    Correct Answer
    C. Red.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Red. The question asks about the air defense warning condition color that indicates an imminent or ongoing attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles. Red is the color used to indicate this level of threat.

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  • 17. 

    (405) What terrorist force protection condition (FPCON) applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent?

    • A.

      FPCON ALPHA.

    • B.

      FPCON BRAVO.

    • C.

      FPCON CHARLIE.

    • D.

      FPCON DELTA.

    Correct Answer
    C. FPCON CHARLIE.
    Explanation
    FPCON CHARLIE is the correct answer because it is the force protection condition that applies when there is an imminent threat of terrorist action against personnel and facilities. This means that there has been an incident or intelligence has been received indicating that a terrorist attack is likely to occur. FPCON CHARLIE involves increased security measures and heightened awareness to ensure the safety of personnel and facilities.

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  • 18. 

    (406) Prior to deploying to a high threat environment, you find out that the location you are deploying to does not use the Unites States Air Force (USAF) standardized alarm signals for areas subject to chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) attack. What best describes the action the Readiness and Emergency Management flight takes?

    • A.

      Establish a pre-deployment information program to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system.

    • B.

      Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system.

    • C.

      Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location.

    • D.

      Work with the deployed location to change the warning system to mirror the USAF standardized alarm signals for areas subject to CBRNE attack.

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location's warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location. This option acknowledges that the deployed location has its own warning system and recognizes the importance of informing personnel about it. By disseminating this information prior to deployment and as personnel arrive, the Readiness and Emergency Management flight ensures that everyone is aware of the warning system and can respond appropriately in the event of a CBRNE attack.

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  • 19. 

    (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under

    • A.

      MOPP 0.

    • B.

      MOPP 1.

    • C.

      MOPP 2.

    • D.

      MOPP 3.

    Correct Answer
    B. MOPP 1.
    Explanation
    When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under MOPP 1. This means that there is a low level of threat or potential exposure to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) hazards. MOPP 1 is the initial level of readiness and requires personnel to have their protective gear readily available and be prepared to put it on if necessary. However, at this level, the gear is not worn continuously and personnel can still perform their duties without hindrance.

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  • 20. 

    (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under

    • A.

      MOPP 1.

    • B.

      MOPP 2.

    • C.

      MOPP 3.

    • D.

      MOPP 4.

    Correct Answer
    D. MOPP 4.
    Explanation
    Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. MOPP 4 is the highest level of protection where personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items. This indicates that the installation is operating under the highest level of readiness and preparedness for CBRN threats.

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  • 21. 

    (407) Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option?

    • A.

      Ventilation.

    • B.

      No-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit.

    • C.

      Mask-only.

    • D.

      Hood open.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hood open.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hood open." In a standard mission oriented protection posture (MOPP), the hood is typically worn to provide additional protection for the head and neck. The other options mentioned, such as ventilation, no-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit, and mask-only, are all valid MOPP options that are used to protect against chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats. However, leaving the hood open would leave the head and neck exposed, which goes against the purpose of MOPP.

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  • 22. 

    (407) What is the most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis?

    • A.

      Initial training required.

    • B.

      Warning and reporting information.

    • C.

      Gathering of post attack information.

    • D.

      Work rate and rest cycle implementation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gathering of post attack information.
    Explanation
    The most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis is the gathering of post attack information. This information is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of the protective measures taken during the attack and determining any necessary adjustments or improvements. Without this information, it would be difficult to evaluate the success of the MOPP and make informed decisions for future missions.

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  • 23. 

    (408) What rank is a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander?

    • A.

      Major.

    • B.

      Colonel.

    • C.

      General.

    • D.

      Civilian.

    Correct Answer
    C. General.
    Explanation
    The rank of a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander is General. This indicates that the commander holds a high-ranking position within the military hierarchy. As a General, they would have extensive experience, leadership skills, and expertise in managing and coordinating response efforts during emergencies or crisis situations. This rank signifies their authority and responsibility in overseeing and directing the RTF's operations effectively.

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  • 24. 

    (408) A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your contamination control station (CCS). Unfortunately, you have only four personnel and a limited number of radiation, indication, and computations (RADIAC) to operate your CCS. Your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of people needing to process. Given these circumstances, what is the best action to take?

    • A.

      Implement initial CCS procedures.

    • B.

      Implement standard CCS procedures.

    • C.

      Direct the civilians to a holding area until the response task force (RTF) arrives.

    • D.

      Separate the civilians into several large groups and conduct a spot monitor of only a few in each group. If the few are clean, then release the rest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Implement initial CCS procedures.
    Explanation
    Implementing initial CCS procedures would be the best action to take in this situation. This is because a nuclear weapons accident has caused a high-order detonation and radioactive contamination is spreading downwind. With limited personnel and resources, it is important to prioritize immediate actions to control the contamination. Implementing initial CCS procedures would involve quickly setting up and initiating basic decontamination measures to prevent further spread of radiation and minimize the risk to the civilians. Once the initial procedures are in place, further steps can be taken to manage and process the large number of people needing assistance.

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  • 25. 

    (408) Which option is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)?

    • A.

      Hot line.

    • B.

      Contamination control line (CCL).

    • C.

      Contamination removal zone.

    • D.

      Contamination reduction area (CRA).

    Correct Answer
    C. Contamination removal zone.
    Explanation
    A contamination control station (CCS) is a facility designed to prevent the spread of contaminants. It typically consists of various elements such as a hot line, contamination control line (CCL), and contamination reduction area (CRA). These elements are aimed at minimizing contamination and maintaining a clean environment. However, a contamination removal zone is not a principal element of a CCS. This suggests that the removal of contamination is not a primary focus within the station, but rather the prevention and reduction of contamination.

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  • 26. 

    (408) In what area of the contamination control station (CCS) do the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring?

    • A.

      Hot line.

    • B.

      Contamination control line (CCL).

    • C.

      Contamination removal zone.

    • D.

      Contamination reduction area (CRA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Contamination reduction area (CRA).
    Explanation
    In the contamination control station (CCS), the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring in the Contamination reduction area (CRA). This area is specifically designed for reducing contamination and ensuring the safety and cleanliness of the station. It is where the team carries out activities such as decontamination, cleaning, and removing any radioactive substances or particles. Monitoring in this area is crucial to ensure that the contamination levels are effectively reduced and maintained within acceptable limits.

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  • 27. 

    (408) While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds?

    • A.

      Alpha.

    • B.

      Beta.

    • C.

      Gamma.

    • D.

      Beta/gamma.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha.
    Explanation
    When conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), holding the alpha probe in place for 10 seconds is necessary. This is because alpha particles are relatively large and have a short range, so holding the probe in place allows for accurate measurement of any alpha radiation present in the area. Beta particles have a longer range and can penetrate deeper into the body, while gamma rays have the longest range and can pass through most materials. Beta/gamma probe is not specified in the question, so it is not the correct answer.

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  • 28. 

    (409) Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within how many minutes?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10.
    Explanation
    Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within 10 minutes. This means that within 10 minutes, the droplet clouds settle down completely and deposit on the ground. The deposition process refers to the settling of the droplets from the cloud onto surfaces such as buildings, vegetation, and the ground itself. This information is important for understanding the potential spread and impact of hazardous substances released during a ground burst event.

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  • 29. 

    (409) The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to

    • A.

      Decontaminate.

    • B.

      Keep personnel out of contaminated zones.

    • C.

      Have personnel leave contaminated zones by any means.

    • D.

      Keep personnel inside buildings in contaminated zones.

    Correct Answer
    B. Keep personnel out of contaminated zones.
    Explanation
    The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to keep personnel out of contaminated zones. This is because being in a contaminated zone increases the risk of exposure to the chemical agent. By keeping personnel out of these areas, the chances of coming into contact with the chemical agent are significantly reduced, thereby minimizing exposure and potential harm.

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  • 30. 

    (410) What colors are used for the background and writing on chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) marking signs to indicate biological contamination?

    • A.

      Blue background; red writing.

    • B.

      Red background; blue writing.

    • C.

      Yellow background; red writing.

    • D.

      Red background; white writing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue background; red writing.
  • 31. 

    (411) Who is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attacks?

    • A.

      Civil Engineer (CE) Commander.

    • B.

      Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander.

    • C.

      Installation Commander.

    • D.

      Individual Units.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation Commander.
    Explanation
    The Installation Commander is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from CBRN attacks. This role falls under their jurisdiction as the commander of the installation, which includes overseeing all aspects of the facility's operations and ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel. As such, they are tasked with developing and implementing plans to mitigate the effects of CBRN attacks, including establishing shelters for protection and coordinating recovery efforts. The Civil Engineer Commander, Mission Support Group Commander, and Individual Units may play a role in supporting the shelter plan, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Installation Commander.

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  • 32. 

    (411) A collective protection shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification?

    • A.

      Radiological.

    • B.

      Chemical.

    • C.

      Biological.

    • D.

      Chlorine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Radiological.
    Explanation
    A collective protection shelter is designed to provide protection from various forms of contamination, including chemical, biological, and radiological threats. However, without modification, it may not provide sufficient shielding from radiological contamination. This means that additional measures or adjustments would be required to ensure adequate protection from radiation in the shelter.

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  • 33. 

    (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated?

    • A.

      Immediate.

    • B.

      Operational.

    • C.

      Thorough.

    • D.

      Clearance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediate.
    Explanation
    The level of decontamination conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated is called immediate decontamination. This type of decontamination aims to remove or neutralize the contaminant as quickly as possible to prevent further exposure or spread of contamination. It typically involves actions such as removing contaminated clothing, rinsing off the contaminant, and applying decontamination solutions or treatments. Immediate decontamination is crucial in minimizing the potential health risks associated with contamination.

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  • 34. 

    (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas?

    • A.

      Immediate.

    • B.

      Operational.

    • C.

      Thorough.

    • D.

      Clearance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Thorough.
    Explanation
    Thorough decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas. This level of decontamination involves a comprehensive and systematic process that ensures all potential contaminants are removed, minimizing the risk of further contamination. It is a more extensive and time-consuming process compared to immediate or operational decontamination, as it aims to achieve a higher level of cleanliness and safety. Clearance decontamination, on the other hand, refers to the final stage of the decontamination process, where a designated authority verifies that the decontamination has been successfully completed.

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  • 35. 

    (412) Which decontamination technique is not conducted during the operational level of decontamination?

    • A.

      Spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used.

    • B.

      Mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange.

    • C.

      Detailed equipment decontamination (DED).

    • D.

      Equipment wash down.

    Correct Answer
    C. Detailed equipment decontamination (DED).
    Explanation
    During the operational level of decontamination, spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used, mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange, and equipment wash down are conducted to remove contamination. However, detailed equipment decontamination (DED) is not conducted at the operational level. DED is a more thorough and extensive decontamination process that is typically performed at a higher level, such as the technical or specialized level.

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  • 36. 

    (412) What decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder?

    • A.

      RSDL.

    • B.

      M291.

    • C.

      M295.

    • D.

      M256.

    Correct Answer
    C. M295.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M295. The M295 decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder. This powder is designed to neutralize and absorb chemical agents, providing effective decontamination. RSDL is not the correct answer as it is a different type of decontamination kit that uses a liquid solution. M291 and M256 are also not the correct answers as they are different types of kits used for detecting and identifying chemical agents, rather than decontaminating them.

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  • 37. 

    (412) Covering chemical agents with at least how many inches of earth will give protection provided the area is not disturbed?

    • A.

      1 inch.

    • B.

      2 inches.

    • C.

      3 inches.

    • D.

      4 inches.

    Correct Answer
    D. 4 inches.
    Explanation
    Covering chemical agents with at least 4 inches of earth will provide protection as long as the area is not disturbed. This depth of earth is sufficient to create a barrier and prevent the chemical agents from reaching the surface and causing harm. It is important to ensure that the area remains undisturbed to maintain the effectiveness of the protection.

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  • 38. 

    (413) During decontamination operations, you let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on your skin for at least how many minutes?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
    Explanation
    During decontamination operations, it is recommended to let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on the skin for at least 2 minutes. This allows enough time for the lotion to effectively neutralize and remove any contaminants present on the skin's surface.

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  • 39. 

    (413) In an attempt to extend the wear time of the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to agents other an VX, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your over garment no longer than how many minutes ?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      7.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    D. 15.
    Explanation
    The M291/M295 kit is used to decontaminate the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to chemical agents. The kit is effective for a certain period of time, after which it may no longer be effective in decontaminating the BDO. The correct answer of 15 minutes suggests that the M291/M295 kit should be used on the over garment for no longer than 15 minutes to extend its wear time after exposure to agents other than VX.

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  • 40. 

    (414) During contamination control area (CCA) processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers.

    • A.

      Dry powder.

    • B.

      5 percent liquid chlorine solution.

    • C.

      30 percent super tropical bleach (STB).

    • D.

      50 percent BK powder and Lo-Bax.

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 percent liquid chlorine solution.
    Explanation
    During contamination control area (CCA) processing, the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers is a 5 percent liquid chlorine solution. This solution is effective in killing bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that may be present on these items. It is important to use a solution that is strong enough to kill these pathogens but not so strong that it damages the items being decontaminated. A 5 percent liquid chlorine solution strikes the right balance and is therefore the preferred choice for this purpose.

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  • 41. 

    (414) The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA)?

    • A.

      25.

    • B.

      30.

    • C.

      40.

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    D. 50
    Explanation
    The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least 50 feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA). This distance is necessary to ensure that the waste does not contaminate the entrance or pose a risk to individuals entering or exiting the area. It also helps to prevent the spread of contaminants to other areas and ensures the safety of personnel working in the CCA.

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  • 42. 

    (414) Which formula is used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content?

    • A.

      (30 ÷ 8) × (50 – 5) ÷ 5.

    • B.

      (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.

    • C.

      (30 ÷ 5) × (50 – 5) ÷ 5.

    • D.

      (50 ÷ 5) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.

    Correct Answer
    B. (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5.
    Explanation
    The formula used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content is (50 ÷ 8) × (30 – 5) ÷ 5. This formula calculates the amount of STB needed to achieve the desired chlorine content by dividing the initial weight of STB by 8, then multiplying it by the difference between the initial chlorine content and the desired chlorine content, and finally dividing it by 5 to get the final amount of liquid solution needed.

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  • 43. 

    (415) Which option is not one of the four operational elements of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?

    • A.

      CBRN shape.

    • B.

      CBRN sense.

    • C.

      CBRN shield.

    • D.

      CBRN supply.

    Correct Answer
    D. CBRN supply.
    Explanation
    The four operational elements of CBRN passive defense are CBRN shape, CBRN sense, CBRN shield, and CBRN supply. However, CBRN supply is not one of these operational elements. The other three elements focus on different aspects of passive defense, such as shaping the environment to minimize vulnerabilities, sensing and detecting CBRN threats, and providing protective measures or shields against these threats. CBRN supply, on the other hand, refers to the provision of necessary equipment, materials, and resources related to CBRN defense, rather than being an operational element itself.

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  • 44. 

    (415) Which option is not a form of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance operation?

    • A.

      Route.

    • B.

      Area.

    • C.

      Installation.

    • D.

      Zone.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation.
    Explanation
    The options given in the question are all related to different forms of CBRN reconnaissance operations. Route reconnaissance involves surveying and assessing potential routes for CBRN threats. Area reconnaissance focuses on identifying and evaluating potential CBRN hazards in a specific area. Zone reconnaissance involves conducting surveillance and gathering information about a larger region. However, installation reconnaissance refers to the process of assessing and monitoring CBRN threats specifically within a military installation or facility. Therefore, installation is not a form of CBRN reconnaissance operation.

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  • 45. 

    (416) Which chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination?

    • A.

      Cloverleaf.

    • B.

      Grid.

    • C.

      Lane.

    • D.

      Zigzag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloverleaf.
    Explanation
    The cloverleaf technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain to ensure that sites for high-value facilities are free of contamination. This technique involves systematically searching an area by dividing it into smaller sections in the shape of a cloverleaf. This allows for thorough coverage and identification of any potential CBRN contamination. The other options, grid, lane, and zigzag, may also be used in certain situations, but the cloverleaf technique is specifically mentioned as the primary method for this purpose.

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  • 46. 

    (417) During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey?

    • A.

      Direct as possible.

    • B.

      Crosswind.

    • C.

      Upwind.

    • D.

      Downwind.

    Correct Answer
    C. Upwind.
    Explanation
    During dismounted reconnaissance, the initial entry team will approach the area being surveyed from the upwind direction. This is because approaching from upwind allows the team to avoid carrying any odors or sounds towards the area, reducing the risk of alerting potential threats or disturbing the natural environment. It also provides the team with a better vantage point to observe the area and any potential dangers that may be present.

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  • 47. 

    (417) During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door?

    • A.

      An “X”.

    • B.

      A “slash”.

    • C.

      A “slash & circle”.

    • D.

      An “X & circle”.

    Correct Answer
    A. An “X”.
    Explanation
    During the initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places an "X" mark on the door.

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  • 48. 

    (417) During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every

    • A.

      Minute.

    • B.

      5 minutes.

    • C.

      10 minutes.

    • D.

      15 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 minutes.
    Explanation
    During an initial area survey, it is important for the initial entry element to conduct radio checks with command frequently to ensure constant communication and coordination. Conducting radio checks every 5 minutes allows for regular updates on the team's progress, any potential hazards or obstacles encountered, and any changes in the situation that may require immediate attention or support. This frequency strikes a balance between maintaining communication without overwhelming the team with constant check-ins.

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  • 49. 

    (417) When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first?

    • A.

      Determine if the item is recognizable.

    • B.

      Move toward the item.

    • C.

      Photograph the undisturbed item.

    • D.

      Initiate detection procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. Photograph the undisturbed item.
    Explanation
    When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will first photograph the undisturbed item. This step is taken to ensure that the item is documented before any disturbance or potential damage occurs. By photographing the undisturbed item, the initial entry element can capture its original state and preserve any potential evidence or information that may be lost if the item is moved or disturbed. This allows for a thorough analysis and evaluation of the item later on.

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  • 50. 

    (418) Which item is not defined in a sample collection plan?

    • A.

      Purpose and scope of operations.

    • B.

      Priority of sample collection.

    • C.

      Sample collection parameters.

    • D.

      Route of entry to facility.

    Correct Answer
    D. Route of entry to facility.
    Explanation
    The purpose and scope of operations, priority of sample collection, and sample collection parameters are all factors that are typically defined in a sample collection plan. However, the route of entry to the facility is not directly related to the sample collection process and is therefore not defined in the plan.

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