3S251 Edit 4: Pretest 002 (Education And Training Manager Journeyman)
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Be advised: this doesn't cover entire course material. Questions used are from 2st half of each volume. Each test consists of 100 questions randomly selected out of the 117 total questions created.
Questions and Answers
1.
When writing an objective, the minimum requirement is that the objective contains a...
A.
Condition and standard.
B.
Standard.
C.
Performance/behavior.
D.
Condition, performance/behavior, and a standard.
Correct Answer
C. Performance/behavior.
Explanation When writing an objective, the minimum requirement is that the objective contains a performance/behavior. This means that the objective should clearly state what action or behavior is expected from the individual. The condition and standard are not necessary components of an objective, although they can be included to provide further context or criteria for evaluation. However, the presence of a performance/behavior is essential in order to define what is expected to be achieved or demonstrated.
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2.
Which element of an objective tells a trainee the level of performance that must be met?
A.
Standard.
B.
Condition.
C.
Performance/behavior.
D.
Condition and behavior.
Correct Answer
A. Standard.
Explanation The standard element of an objective tells a trainee the level of performance that must be met. It sets the benchmark or the expected level of achievement that the trainee should reach. It provides a clear and specific target for the trainee to strive for, ensuring that they understand the desired outcome and can work towards meeting it. The standard element helps to establish a measurable and objective criteria for evaluating the trainee's performance.
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3.
What are the three parts of a task objective?
A.
Condition, Action, Standard
B.
Instructions, Action, Results
C.
Condition, Performance/Behavior, Standard
D.
Instructions, Performance/Behavior, Results
Correct Answer
C. Condition, Performance/Behavior, Standard
Explanation The three parts of a task objective are the condition, performance/behavior, and standard. The condition specifies the circumstances under which the task will be performed. The performance/behavior describes the specific actions or behaviors that need to be demonstrated. The standard sets the criteria or level of performance that is expected to be achieved.
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4.
What are the two types of test items?
A.
Matching or essay.
B.
Selection or supply.
C.
Selection or completion.
D.
Supply or multiple choice.
Correct Answer
B. Selection or supply.
Explanation The two types of test items are selection or supply. Selection items require the test taker to choose the correct answer from a given list of options. On the other hand, supply items require the test taker to provide their own answer without any options to choose from. Therefore, selection or supply is the correct answer as it correctly identifies the two types of test items.
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5.
Which type of test questions can you use in the same way as multiple-choice type questions?
A.
Completion.
B.
Essay.
C.
True-false.
D.
Matching.
Correct Answer
D. Matching.
Explanation Matching questions can be used in the same way as multiple-choice questions because they both require the test taker to select the correct answer from a given set of options. In a matching question, the test taker is presented with two columns of information and they need to match the items from one column to the corresponding items in the other column. This format allows for objective grading and provides the test taker with a limited set of options to choose from, similar to multiple-choice questions.
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6.
When you match each test question with the objective it measures, and if the questions pertain to the performance/behavior portions of each objective, then the test is...
A.
Comprehensive.
B.
Valid.
C.
Objective.
D.
Reliable.
Correct Answer
B. Valid.
Explanation When you match each test question with the objective it measures, and if the questions pertain to the performance/behavior portions of each objective, then the test is valid. This means that the test accurately measures what it is intended to measure, in this case, the performance/behavior portions of each objective. The test is not necessarily comprehensive, as it may only cover specific aspects of the objectives. It may also be reliable, meaning that it consistently produces similar results, but reliability alone does not ensure that the test is accurately measuring the intended objectives. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is valid.
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7.
If a test distinguishes between poor, average, and outstanding trainees, it is called...
A.
Comprehensive.
B.
Differentiating.
C.
Reliable.
D.
Valid.
Correct Answer
B. Differentiating.
Explanation The correct answer is "differentiating" because the question states that the test is able to distinguish between poor, average, and outstanding trainees. This implies that the test is able to differentiate or separate the trainees into these different categories based on their performance.
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8.
What are the two basic ways of measuring a person's knowledge of a subject?
A.
Written or Oral Testing
B.
Product or Illustration Testing
C.
Multiple-Choice or Oral Testing
D.
Written or Multiple-Choice Testing
Correct Answer
A. Written or Oral Testing
Explanation Written or oral testing are the two basic ways of measuring a person's knowledge of a subject. Written testing involves evaluating a person's understanding and comprehension through written responses, while oral testing assesses their knowledge through verbal communication and discussion. Both methods provide a means to assess an individual's understanding, application, and communication of knowledge in a subject area.
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9.
Which of the following is not a selection-type question used on a written test?
A.
Multiple-Choice
B.
Matching
C.
True or False
D.
Essay
Correct Answer
D. Essay
Explanation The question asks for a selection-type question that is not used on a written test. Multiple-choice, matching, and true or false questions are all examples of selection-type questions, as they require the test-taker to choose from a set of options. However, an essay question is not a selection-type question, as it requires the test-taker to provide a written response in their own words, rather than selecting from predetermined options.
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10.
After writing your test questions, you review them for what test characteristics?
A.
Valid, Reliable, Comprehensive, Objective, & Discriminatory in nature
B.
Valid, Objective, & Non-Discriminatory in nature.
C.
Reasonable, Readable, & Relatable
D.
Reasonable, Reliable, & Comprehensive.
Correct Answer
A. Valid, Reliable, Comprehensive, Objective, & Discriminatory in nature
Explanation The correct answer is "Valid, Reliable, Comprehensive, Objective, & Discriminatory in nature." This answer suggests that when reviewing test questions, one should consider if they are valid, meaning they measure what they are intended to measure; reliable, meaning they produce consistent results; comprehensive, meaning they cover a wide range of content; objective, meaning they are free from bias or subjectivity; and discriminatory in nature, meaning they can effectively differentiate between individuals with different levels of knowledge or skill.
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11.
The references or materials used by the trainee during the performance test are those...
A.
The MAJCOM determines are required.
B.
The supervisor determines are needed.
C.
Used by the trainee while learning the objective.
D.
The trainee determines are needed to accomplish the task.
Correct Answer
C. Used by the trainee while learning the objective.
Explanation The correct answer is "used by the trainee while learning the objective." This means that the references or materials used by the trainee during the performance test are the ones that the trainee used while learning the objective of the test. This implies that the trainee should be familiar with and have studied these references or materials in order to successfully complete the test.
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12.
When you develop a checklist to use for scoring a performance test, you include those items...
A.
The trainee is to be denied.
B.
Required for complete performance.
C.
Required by the major command (MAJCOM).
D.
The trainee is allowed, with enough time to complete during the test.
Correct Answer
B. Required for complete performance.
Explanation The correct answer is "required for complete performance." When developing a checklist for scoring a performance test, you include items that are necessary for the trainee to demonstrate complete and accurate performance. These items are essential for evaluating the trainee's competency and ensuring that they meet the required standards. Including items that are not necessary or relevant to the performance would not provide an accurate assessment of the trainee's abilities. Therefore, the checklist should only include items that are required for complete performance.
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13.
Due to the error of standard, which is a common rating error that detracts from a test, the evaluator may rate the trainee either high or low based on his or her own...
A.
Requirement to do the task.
B.
Qualification to do the task.
C.
Expertise to do the task.
D.
Ability to do the task.
Correct Answer
D. Ability to do the task.
14.
The four common rating errors include ______, and you need to make test evaluators aware of them.
A.
Basic, Logic, Halo, & Favoritism
B.
Standard, Logic, Central Tendency, & Halo
C.
Standard, Favoritism, Central Tendency, & Halo
D.
Central Tendency, Standard, Discriminatory, & Fatigue
Correct Answer
B. Standard, Logic, Central Tendency, & Halo
Explanation The correct answer is "Standard, Logic, Central Tendency, & Halo". In test evaluation, it is important to be aware of the four common rating errors. The standard error refers to inconsistencies in rating due to factors such as mood or fatigue. Logic error occurs when evaluators make illogical or inconsistent judgments. Central tendency error happens when evaluators rate all test takers in the middle range, regardless of their actual performance. Halo error refers to the tendency to rate a test taker based on one outstanding characteristic or impression, rather than considering all aspects of their performance. It is crucial to inform test evaluators about these errors to ensure fair and accurate evaluations.
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15.
What are the three basic parts of a performance test?
A.
Objective, Reference-Materials, & Instructions
B.
Overview, Reference-Materials, & Performance
C.
Instructions, Performance, & Product
D.
Objective, Instructions, & Performance
Correct Answer
A. Objective, Reference-Materials, & Instructions
Explanation The three basic parts of a performance test are objective, reference materials, and instructions. The objective defines the purpose and goals of the test, providing a clear understanding of what needs to be achieved. Reference materials include any resources or documentation necessary for the test, such as user manuals or technical specifications. Instructions outline the steps and procedures that need to be followed during the test, ensuring consistency and accuracy in the evaluation process.
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16.
Error of ____ occurs when the evaluator gives a final score based on only seeing one portion of the task being performed.
A.
Logic
B.
Central Tendency
C.
Halo
D.
Standard
Correct Answer
A. Logic
Explanation The error of logic occurs when the evaluator gives a final score based on only seeing one portion of the task being performed. This means that the evaluator is not considering the entire task or all the relevant information before making a judgment. This type of error can lead to biased or inaccurate evaluations, as it fails to take into account the complete context or the full range of abilities demonstrated by the individual performing the task.
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17.
Error of ____ is based on the evaluator's impressions of the trainee.
A.
Logic
B.
Central Tendency
C.
Halo
D.
Standard
Correct Answer
C. Halo
Explanation Halo error refers to the tendency of an evaluator to let their overall impression of a trainee influence their evaluation of specific traits or behaviors. In other words, if an evaluator has a positive or negative impression of a trainee, they may rate them higher or lower on various dimensions, regardless of their actual performance. This error is based on the evaluator's subjective impressions rather than objective criteria.
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18.
Error of ____ occurs when the evaluator does not allow either a high score or a low score.
A.
Logic
B.
Central Tendency
C.
Halo
D.
Standard
Correct Answer
B. Central Tendency
Explanation Central Tendency is the correct answer because it refers to the error that occurs when the evaluator does not allow either a high score or a low score. Central Tendency error happens when the evaluator tends to rate all items or individuals around the average or middle point, without considering the full range of scores. This error can lead to biased or inaccurate evaluations as it fails to capture the true variability or differences among the items or individuals being evaluated.
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19.
After completing task breakdowns during lesson plan development, which elements become the major teaching steps?
A.
Subtasks.
B.
Procedural skills.
C.
Supporting knowledge.
D.
Elements listed in AFMAN 36–2108.
Correct Answer
A. Subtasks.
Explanation After completing task breakdowns during lesson plan development, the major teaching steps are the subtasks. Task breakdowns involve breaking down a larger task into smaller, manageable subtasks. These subtasks then become the major teaching steps that guide the instruction and learning process. By focusing on each subtask, teachers can provide clear and structured instruction, ensuring that students understand and master the content. Therefore, subtasks are the key elements that drive the teaching and learning process after task breakdowns.
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20.
A task breakdown indicates that a trainee must use a screwdriver to complete the task. Tool use is identified on the task breakdown as a...
A.
Task.
B.
Subtask.
C.
Procedural skill.
D.
Supporting knowledge.
Correct Answer
C. Procedural skill.
Explanation The task breakdown specifies that a trainee needs to use a screwdriver to complete the task. This indicates that the use of a screwdriver is a specific skill required to carry out the task effectively. Therefore, it can be categorized as a procedural skill, which refers to the knowledge and abilities needed to perform specific actions or tasks.
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21.
Once you complete the task breakdown, who should review it next?
A.
Newly assigned personnel.
B.
Recent technical school graduates.
C.
A 5-skill level staff sergeant (SSgt).
D.
Other subject matter experts.
Correct Answer
D. Other subject matter experts.
Explanation Other subject matter experts should review the completed task breakdown next because they have the necessary knowledge and expertise in the specific subject area to provide valuable feedback and ensure the accuracy and effectiveness of the breakdown. They can offer insights, suggestions, and identify any potential gaps or improvements that need to be made. Reviewing the breakdown with other subject matter experts helps to validate its content and ensure its overall quality.
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22.
What resource can you use when doing research for completing a task breakdown?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
A.
Books
B.
Yourself
C.
Other Experts
D.
None of these items
Correct Answer(s)
A. Books B. Yourself C. Other Experts
Explanation When doing research for completing a task breakdown, you can use various resources. Books can provide in-depth information and insights on the subject matter. Your own knowledge and expertise can also be a valuable resource as you can draw upon your own experiences and understanding. Additionally, consulting other experts in the field can provide different perspectives and additional information. Therefore, all three options - books, yourself, and other experts - can be utilized as resources when conducting research for a task breakdown.
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23.
What three items must you identify when developing and documenting a task breakdown?
Subtasks, Production Skills, & Supporting Knowledge
D.
Tasks, Production Skills, & Supporting Material
Correct Answer
B. Subtasks, Procedural Skills, & Supporting Knowledge
Explanation When developing and documenting a task breakdown, it is necessary to identify the subtasks involved in completing the task, the procedural skills required to perform each subtask, and the supporting knowledge needed to carry out the subtasks effectively. This ensures that all aspects of the task are properly understood and accounted for, allowing for efficient and successful completion.
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24.
After you have finished the task breakdown, what specific thing do you look for when you review it?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
A.
Accuracy.
B.
Completeness.
C.
Practice Procedures.
D.
Required Equipment.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Accuracy. B. Completeness. D. Required Equipment.
Explanation When reviewing the task breakdown, the specific things to look for are completeness, accuracy, and required equipment. Completeness ensures that all necessary steps and information are included in the breakdown. Accuracy ensures that the steps and information provided are correct and reliable. Required equipment ensures that all necessary tools and resources are listed, ensuring that the task can be carried out effectively.
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25.
When you develop a lesson plan, which portion of the introduction helps to focus the trainee’s attention on the first major teaching step?
A.
Transition.
B.
Overview.
C.
Attention.
D.
Motivation.
Correct Answer
A. Transition.
Explanation The transition portion of the introduction helps to focus the trainee's attention on the first major teaching step. This is because transition acts as a bridge between the previous information or activity and the upcoming content or task. It helps to smoothly shift the trainee's focus and prepare them for what is coming next in the lesson. By providing a clear and concise transition, the trainee's attention is directed towards the first major teaching step, allowing for a more effective learning experience.
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26.
One of the more versatile teaching aids available is the...
A.
Filmstrip.
B.
Flat picture.
C.
Chalkboard.
D.
Television.
Correct Answer
C. Chalkboard.
Explanation The chalkboard is considered a versatile teaching aid because it allows teachers to visually present information, write notes, draw diagrams, and engage students in interactive learning. Unlike a filmstrip or television, the chalkboard provides a hands-on approach where teachers can actively involve students in the learning process by encouraging them to write, solve problems, and participate in discussions. Additionally, the chalkboard can be easily modified and erased, allowing for dynamic and adaptive teaching methods. A flat picture, on the other hand, lacks the interactivity and flexibility that the chalkboard offers.
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27.
Which training aid provides the trainee with a realistic job-type setting since it enhances transfer of learning?
A.
Mockups.
B.
Simulator.
C.
Television.
D.
Printed matter.
Correct Answer
B. Simulator.
Explanation Simulators are training aids that provide trainees with a realistic job-type setting, allowing them to practice and learn in a controlled environment. Simulators mimic real-life scenarios and provide hands-on experience, which enhances the transfer of learning. Unlike mockups, which may lack interactivity, simulators offer a more immersive and interactive experience that closely resembles the actual job setting. Television and printed matter may provide information or demonstrations, but they do not offer the same level of engagement and practical application as simulators.
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28.
What are the major parts of a lesson plan?
A.
Beginning, Middle, & End
B.
Introduction, Middle, & Conclusion
C.
Introduction, Development or Body, & Conclusion
D.
Beginning, Development or Body, & Conclusion
Correct Answer
C. Introduction, Development or Body, & Conclusion
Explanation A lesson plan typically consists of three major parts: introduction, development or body, and conclusion. The introduction sets the stage for the lesson, providing an overview of the topic and engaging students' interest. The development or body section is where the main content is presented and explored, with activities, discussions, and examples. Finally, the conclusion wraps up the lesson, summarizing key points, allowing for student reflection, and providing closure. This structure ensures a logical flow and progression of ideas throughout the lesson.
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29.
What are the basic parts of the introduction?
A.
Attention, Motivation, Overview, & Transition
B.
Open Statement, Comparison, & Transition
C.
Attention, Comparison, & Overview
D.
Open Statement, Motivation, Overview, & Transition
Correct Answer
A. Attention, Motivation, Overview, & Transition
Explanation The basic parts of the introduction include attention, motivation, overview, and transition. Attention is important to grab the audience's interest and make them want to listen further. Motivation is necessary to explain why the topic is relevant and why the audience should care about it. Overview provides a brief summary of what will be discussed in the presentation. Transition helps to smoothly move from the introduction to the main body of the presentation.
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30.
On what document is the body of your lesson plane based?
A.
Your task groups.
B.
Your task breakdown.
C.
Your product procedure.
D.
Your product breakdown.
Correct Answer
B. Your task breakdown.
Explanation The body of a lesson plan is based on the task breakdown. A task breakdown is a detailed outline of the specific activities and tasks that will be covered in the lesson. It breaks down the lesson into smaller, manageable tasks, allowing for a clear and organized structure. The task breakdown helps the teacher to plan and sequence the lesson effectively, ensuring that all necessary content and objectives are covered. It serves as a guide for the teacher to follow during the lesson delivery, ensuring that all essential components are included and that the lesson flows smoothly.
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31.
What is not an item of a conclusion?
A.
Summary
B.
Remotivation
C.
Closure
D.
Attention
Correct Answer
D. Attention
Explanation The item that is not a part of a conclusion is "Attention". In a conclusion, the focus is on summarizing the main points discussed and providing closure to the argument or discussion. Remotivation refers to re-engaging the audience or reminding them of the main purpose or goal. Closure signifies bringing the discussion to an end and leaving a lasting impression. Attention, on the other hand, refers to capturing the interest or focus of the audience, which is not a direct component of a conclusion.
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32.
What are considered teaching aids?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
A.
Equipment.
B.
Television & Computers.
C.
Simulators.
D.
Distance Learning & Printed Matter.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Equipment. B. Television & Computers. C. Simulators. D. Distance Learning & Printed Matter.
Explanation Teaching aids are tools or resources that assist teachers in delivering instruction effectively. They can include equipment such as projectors, whiteboards, and audiovisual devices. Television and computers provide visual and interactive learning opportunities. Distance learning and printed matter refer to materials that support remote education, including textbooks and online resources. Simulators are used to create realistic scenarios for hands-on learning.
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33.
What isn't something you should consider before selecting the teaching aids that you will use?
A.
Use teaching aids that are easiest to employ.
B.
Most inexpensive to develop and maintain.
C.
Adds realism to the learning process.
D.
Warranty date expiration.
Correct Answer
D. Warranty date expiration.
Explanation When selecting teaching aids, it is important to consider factors such as ease of use, cost-effectiveness, and the ability to enhance the learning process. However, warranty date expiration is not a relevant factor to consider when choosing teaching aids. The expiration of a warranty does not affect the functionality or effectiveness of the teaching aid. Therefore, it is not something that should be taken into account during the selection process.
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34.
When you coordinate a training session schedule, the more you involve the supervisors in the process the more...
A.
They will accept it.
B.
The program is used.
C.
“no-shows” you will have.
D.
Time it takes for coordination.
Correct Answer
A. They will accept it.
Explanation When supervisors are involved in the process of coordinating a training session schedule, they are more likely to accept it. This could be because involving supervisors gives them a sense of ownership and control over the schedule, making them more likely to be supportive and accepting of it. By involving supervisors, you are also able to gather their input and address any concerns or preferences they may have, which can help increase their acceptance of the schedule.
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35.
When you schedule training, what are the three steps you must follow?
A.
Prepare an agenda, coordinate, and conduct the training.
B.
Prepare an agenda, coordinate, and assign trainees to the training session.
C.
Prepare a tentative training schedule, coordinate, and conduct the training.
D.
Prepare a tentative training schedule, coordinate, and assign trainees to the training session.
Correct Answer
D. Prepare a tentative training schedule, coordinate, and assign trainees to the training session.
Explanation The three steps that must be followed when scheduling training are: preparing a tentative training schedule, coordinating the training, and assigning trainees to the training session. This ensures that there is a plan in place for the training, that all necessary arrangements are made, and that the appropriate individuals are assigned to participate in the session.
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36.
What should you provide to each affected supervisor after you schedule trainees for training?
A.
A copy of the training roster or training notification letter.
B.
A copy of trainee's IMDS-593 RIP.
C.
Completed AF Form 2096.
D.
A copy of the OJT roster.
Correct Answer
A. A copy of the training roster or training notification letter.
Explanation After scheduling trainees for training, it is important to provide each affected supervisor with a copy of the training roster or training notification letter. This will ensure that supervisors are aware of which trainees are scheduled for training and can make the necessary arrangements for their absence. It also serves as a record for both the supervisor and the trainees, providing information about the training schedule and any specific requirements or instructions. This communication helps to ensure a smooth and organized training process.
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37.
The two types of training validation that you can use are...
A.
Formal and informal.
B.
Subject matter expert (SME) and trainee.
C.
Trainee and instructional.
D.
SME and instructional.
Correct Answer
B. Subject matter expert (SME) and trainee.
Explanation The correct answer is subject matter expert (SME) and trainee. These two types of training validation involve different perspectives. The SME provides expertise and knowledge in the subject matter, ensuring that the training content is accurate and up-to-date. On the other hand, the trainee's validation is important as they provide feedback on the effectiveness and relevance of the training from the learner's perspective. By combining the input from both the SME and the trainee, the training program can be improved and tailored to meet the needs of both the content and the learners.
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38.
Which type of training validation is being conducted when the people who need the training are used in the validation process?
A.
Formal.
B.
Trainee.
C.
Instructional.
D.
Subject matter expert (SME).
Correct Answer
B. Trainee.
Explanation When the people who need the training are used in the validation process, it is referred to as trainee validation. This type of validation involves evaluating the effectiveness of the training program by gathering feedback and input directly from the trainees themselves. By involving the trainees in the validation process, their perspectives and experiences can be taken into account, ensuring that the training meets their needs and is effective in achieving its objectives.
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39.
How should you respond to errors that were identified during the training validation process?
A.
Look for the symptoms; then eliminate the errors.
B.
Wait until the course is revised, and then correct the errors.
C.
Look for the root problem.
D.
Fix the errors as you find them.
Correct Answer
C. Look for the root problem.
Explanation When errors are identified during the training validation process, it is important to look for the root problem rather than just fixing the errors as they are found. By looking for the root problem, one can identify the underlying cause of the errors and address it effectively. This approach helps in preventing similar errors from occurring in the future and ensures a more comprehensive and long-lasting solution. Simply waiting for the course to be revised or eliminating the errors based on symptoms may not address the underlying issue and could lead to recurring errors.
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40.
The use of visits, task evaluation reports, and quality control reports allows the training manager to...
A.
Track trainee progression.
B.
Revise the training schedule.
C.
Review the work center training program.
D.
Inform the commander of training program status.
Correct Answer
C. Review the work center training program.
Explanation The use of visits, task evaluation reports, and quality control reports allows the training manager to review the work center training program. By conducting visits and evaluating tasks, the training manager can assess the effectiveness of the training program and identify any areas that may need improvement. The quality control reports provide additional feedback on the quality of training being provided. This information allows the training manager to review the overall training program and make any necessary revisions to ensure it is meeting the needs of the work center.
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41.
What type of visit is being conducted when a unit training manager goes to the work center, talks with the people about potential training problems, and builds rapport?
A.
Formal visit.
B.
Informal visit
C.
Staff assistance visit.
D.
Job performance evaluation.
Correct Answer
B. Informal visit
Explanation An informal visit is being conducted when a unit training manager goes to the work center, talks with the people about potential training problems, and builds rapport. During an informal visit, there is no specific agenda or formal structure, and the purpose is to establish a casual and friendly environment for open communication and relationship building. This type of visit allows the training manager to gather information, address concerns, and provide support in a more relaxed and informal setting.
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42.
What other types of information can you review that can apply to your work center training program?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
A.
News, Weather, & Sports
B.
IG crosstells & MAJCOM newsletters
C.
Survey results & other training managers
D.
Base & local community archives
Correct Answer(s)
B. IG crosstells & MAJCOM newsletters C. Survey results & other training managers
Explanation The correct answer is IG crosstells & MAJCOM newsletters, Survey results & other training managers. IG crosstells and MAJCOM newsletters can provide important information related to policies, procedures, and updates that can be relevant to the work center training program. Survey results and other training managers can provide insights and feedback on the effectiveness of the training program and help identify areas for improvement.
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43.
The purpose of reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV) is to...
A.
Determine which sections need to be visited.
B.
Get an overall view of the unit training program.
C.
Determine which supervisors are doing their jobs.
D.
Determine where all the training deficiencies are located.
Correct Answer
B. Get an overall view of the unit training program.
Explanation Reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV) allows the reviewer to gain an overall view of the unit training program. By analyzing the statistics, the reviewer can assess the effectiveness of the training program, identify any areas of improvement, and make informed decisions regarding the focus of the visit. This helps in understanding the strengths and weaknesses of the unit's training program and assists in providing targeted assistance and recommendations during the SAV.
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44.
Compiling and reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conductinga staff assistance visit (SAV) reveals the following except...
A.
Rank/grade of personnel.
B.
Number of personnel in upgrade training (UGT).
C.
Percentage of personnel enrolled in career development courses (CDC).
D.
Percentage of personnel that have not finished the Air Force Training Course (AFTC).
Correct Answer
A. Rank/grade of personnel.
Explanation During pre-visit preparations for a staff assistance visit (SAV), compiling and reviewing unit statistics helps in identifying various aspects of personnel readiness and training. The rank/grade of personnel is not relevant in this context as it does not provide any information about their training or readiness. However, the other options - number of personnel in upgrade training (UGT), percentage of personnel that have not finished the Air Force Training Course (AFTC), and percentage of personnel enrolled in career development courses (CDC) - are all important factors to consider when assessing the readiness and training of the unit.
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45.
For a successful Staff Assistance Visit (SAV) utilize the ___ phases.(each phase action is provided in order)
A.
4 - Previsit preparations, In-brief, Out-brief, and distribute report
B.
5 - In-brief, schedule the visit, conduct the visit, Out-brief, & fix training deficiencies.
C.
6 - Previsit preparations, Schedule the visit, Conduct the visit, Out-brief, Prepare the report, & Assist in corrective actions.
Correct Answer
C. 6 - Previsit preparations, Schedule the visit, Conduct the visit, Out-brief, Prepare the report, & Assist in corrective actions.
Explanation The correct answer is 6 - Previsit preparations, Schedule the visit, Conduct the visit, Out-brief, Prepare the report, & Assist in corrective actions. This answer provides a logical sequence of actions for a successful Staff Assistance Visit (SAV). It starts with previsit preparations to ensure that everything is in order before the visit. Then, the visit is scheduled and conducted, followed by an out-briefing to discuss the findings and recommendations. Afterward, a report is prepared based on the visit, and assistance is provided in implementing corrective actions. This sequence ensures a systematic approach to conducting a successful SAV.
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46.
When conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV), always begin the visit...
A.
With a supervisor’s interview.
B.
By interviewing the trainees.
C.
With a review of the task evaluations.
D.
By briefing the commander and other unit leaders.
Correct Answer
D. By briefing the commander and other unit leaders.
Explanation When conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV), it is important to begin the visit by briefing the commander and other unit leaders. This allows for effective communication and ensures that everyone is on the same page regarding the purpose and objectives of the visit. By briefing the commander and other unit leaders, it also sets the tone for the visit and establishes a clear chain of command and leadership. This step is crucial in order to gain necessary support and cooperation from the command and ensure a successful SAV.
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47.
If you have a high number of trainees and a low number of trainers in the work center or section, you may have a...
A.
High trainer-to-trainee ratio.
B.
Lack of training capacity.
C.
Lack of training capability.
D.
Haphazard training.
Correct Answer
B. Lack of training capacity.
Explanation A high number of trainees and a low number of trainers in the work center or section indicates a lack of training capacity. This means that there are not enough resources or infrastructure to adequately train all the individuals. This can result in a situation where the training needs of the trainees cannot be met, leading to a lack of training capacity.
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48.
When do you conduct the out-briefing for the CC?
A.
After the SAV & before the written report.
B.
After the BTM has been out-briefed.
C.
Before the BTM receives their in-briefing.
D.
Before the SAV & after the written report.
Correct Answer
A. After the SAV & before the written report.
Explanation The out-briefing for the CC is conducted after the SAV (Staff Assistance Visit) and before the written report. This means that once the SAV has been completed, the out-briefing is scheduled to provide a summary of the findings and recommendations to the CC. The out-briefing serves as an opportunity to discuss the results of the SAV and address any questions or concerns before the written report is finalized and submitted. Conducting the out-briefing at this stage ensures that the CC is informed and involved in the process before the final report is presented.
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49.
When conducting a SAV, how do you begin the "conduct a visit" phase?
A.
With an informal meeting (i.e. meet-and-greet or ice-breaker).
B.
With a formal presentation.
C.
With an out-briefing.
D.
With an in-briefing.
Correct Answer
D. With an in-briefing.
Explanation The "conduct a visit" phase of a SAV (Systematic Assessment Visit) typically begins with an in-briefing. This is a formal meeting where the purpose, objectives, and scope of the visit are discussed. It provides an opportunity for the visiting team to gather necessary information, clarify any questions, and establish a common understanding with the host organization. The in-briefing sets the stage for the visit and helps ensure that everyone is on the same page before proceeding with the assessment.
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50.
What areas are used to review and assess the quality of a training program?
A.
Evaluation procedures, work standards vs requirements, & communication channels.
B.
Management procedures, compliance with work center rules, & safety discipline.
C.
Experience levels, planning procedures, & projected training needs.
D.
All items listed are correct.
Correct Answer
D. All items listed are correct.
Explanation The correct answer is "All items listed are correct." This means that all of the areas mentioned - experience levels, planning procedures, projected training needs, evaluation procedures, work standards vs requirements, communication channels, management procedures, compliance with work center rules, and safety discipline - are used to review and assess the quality of a training program.
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