Hidden EP Quiz No.8

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Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 4,463
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 280

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Hidden EP Quiz No.8 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A 'single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is

    • A.

      Good for one household

    • B.

      Intended for ownership

    • C.

      Completely surrounded by a yard

    • D.

      Wilh one or more of its sides abutting the property line

    Correct Answer
    C. Completely surrounded by a yard
    Explanation
    A 'single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is completely surrounded by a yard. This means that the house is not connected to any other structures and has open space on all sides, creating a clear boundary between the house and the surrounding area. This definition helps to distinguish a single detached dwelling unit from other types of housing, such as townhouses or apartments, which may have shared walls or limited outdoor space.

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  • 2. 

    All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977, except

    • A.

      Traditional indigenous family dwellings

    • B.

      Socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220

    • C.

      Garden pools, grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth

    • D.

      Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sq.m

    • E.

      Sheds, outhouses, greenhouses, gazebos, aviaries, not exceeding 6 sq.m in total area

    Correct Answer
    D. Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sq.m
    Explanation
    Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sq.m are not exempted from regulation under PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977. This means that these types of structures must comply with the building code requirements and regulations. The other options listed in the question, such as traditional indigenous family dwellings, socialized and low-cost housing, garden pools, grottos, aquariums, sheds, outhouses, greenhouses, gazebos, and aviaries, are all exempted from regulation under the building code, as long as they meet certain size limitations or criteria.

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  • 3. 

    Under PD 957, which of the following is not necessary in determining the suitability of site for economic or socialized housing? 

    • A.

      Physical suitability

    • B.

      Availability of basic needs

    • C.

      On the perimeter of an ecozone

    • D.

      Presence of geohazard

    • E.

      Conformity to the national development plan

    • F.

      Links to the transport network

    Correct Answer
    C. On the perimeter of an ecozone
    Explanation
    Under PD 957, the suitability of a site for economic or socialized housing is determined by various factors such as physical suitability, availability of basic needs, presence of geohazard, conformity to the national development plan, and links to the transport network. However, being on the perimeter of an ecozone is not necessary in determining the suitability of a site for housing.

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  • 4. 

    According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative housing need would reach 6,732,464 by year 2016, but government's capacity to directly provide houses only averages 120,000 units per annum. What would be a more rational strategy for housing development? 

    • A.

      Leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the free play of market forces;

    • B.

      Allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter projects;

    • C.

      Rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of house and lot packages;

    • D.

      LGU's should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low;

    • E.

      Stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing production .

    Correct Answer
    E. Stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing production .
    Explanation
    The more rational strategy for housing development would be to stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing production. This approach would involve collaboration between different sectors to address the housing needs, leveraging their resources, expertise, and networks. By involving multiple stakeholders, the burden of housing development is shared, and it allows for a more comprehensive and inclusive approach. This strategy can help increase the capacity to provide houses and address the housing needs more effectively.

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  • 5. 

    Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, this refers to housing programs and projects undertaken by the government or the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens which include sites and services development, long-term financing, liberalized terms on interest payments, and other related benefits. 

    • A.

      Economic housing

    • B.

      Sociaiized housing

    • C.

      Low-cost housing

    • D.

      Open-market housing

    Correct Answer
    B. Sociaiized housing
    Explanation
    Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, "sociaiized housing" refers to housing programs and projects that are specifically designed for the underprivileged and homeless citizens. These programs can be undertaken by either the government or the private sector. Sociaiized housing includes various benefits such as sites and services development, long-term financing, liberalized terms on interest payments, and other related benefits. It aims to provide affordable housing options for those who are in need, ensuring that they have access to decent and secure homes.

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  • 6. 

    Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is' approach and hence not conducive to 'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement? 

    • A.

      Off-site resettlement

    • B.

      In-city relocation

    • C.

      On-site slum upgrading

    • D.

      Land readjustment

    • E.

      Medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter

    • F.

      Collaborative models such as 'Gawad Kalinga' and 'Habitat for Humanity'

    Correct Answer
    C. On-site slum upgrading
    Explanation
    On-site slum upgrading refers to the process of improving the existing slum areas by upgrading the infrastructure, services, and living conditions without relocating the residents. This approach does not involve land assembly or acquiring new land for the settlement. Instead, it focuses on improving the existing slum areas to make them more habitable and sustainable. This approach is not conducive to land assembly because it does not involve the relocation or resettlement of slum dwellers to a new location.

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  • 7. 

    Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UOHA that "developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost, at the option of the developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible," so that both government and market can jointly provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes. 

    • A.

      Public Private Resources Exchange

    • B.

      Cooperative Housing Development

    • C.

      Balanced Housing Development

    • D.

      Corporate Social Responsibility

    Correct Answer
    C. Balanced Housing Development
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Balanced Housing Development. The principle stated in RA 7279 UOHA requires developers of subdivision projects to allocate a portion of their project for socialized housing. This ensures that both the government and market work together to provide housing for the lower socio-economic classes. Balanced Housing Development refers to the idea of creating a mix of housing options that cater to different income groups, promoting social integration and equal access to housing opportunities.

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  • 8. 

    A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which "assists legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of community ownership so that residents of blighted or depressed areas can own the lots they occupy, or where they choose to relocate to, and eventually improve their homes to the extent of their affordability" 

    • A.

      Zonal Improvement Program

    • B.

      Unified Home Lending Program

    • C.

      Slum Upgrading

    • D.

      Community Mortgage Program

    Correct Answer
    D. Community Mortgage Program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Community Mortgage Program. This program is designed to assist underprivileged and homeless citizens in purchasing and developing land under the concept of community ownership. It aims to empower residents of blighted or depressed areas by allowing them to own the lots they occupy or choose to relocate to, and eventually improve their homes according to their affordability.

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  • 9. 

    In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board, which unit ought to prepare the local shelter plan of an LGU? 

    • A.

      Planning and Development Office

    • B.

      Local Development Council

    • C.

      Subdivision Homeowners Association

    • D.

      Association of Barangay Capt2ins

    Correct Answer
    B. Local Development Council
    Explanation
    The Local Development Council is the unit that should prepare the local shelter plan of an LGU in the absence of an operational Local Housing Board. The Local Development Council is responsible for coordinating and integrating local development plans and programs, including housing and shelter plans. They are composed of representatives from various sectors and are tasked with ensuring the implementation of development projects and programs in the LGU. Therefore, it is logical that they would be responsible for preparing the local shelter plan in the absence of the Local Housing Board.

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  • 10. 

    As per HUDCC circular, a dwelling unit with total value of P375,000 or less is called

    • A.

      Low-Cost Housing

    • B.

      Socialized Housing

    • C.

      Economic Housing

    • D.

      Gawad Kalinga

    Correct Answer
    B. Socialized Housing
    Explanation
    As per HUDCC circular, a dwelling unit with a total value of P375,000 or less is categorized as Socialized Housing. This means that the housing unit is intended for low-income individuals or families who are in need of affordable housing options. Socialized Housing aims to provide decent and affordable housing to those who cannot afford to purchase or rent a house at regular market prices.

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  • 11. 

    According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is based on that portion of total gross family income that an average household would regularly allocate for shelter, which is

    • A.

      30%

    • B.

      40%

    • C.

      50%

    • D.

      60%

    Correct Answer
    A. 30%
    Explanation
    According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is determined by the portion of total gross family income that an average household would regularly allocate for shelter. The correct answer is 30%, indicating that an average household should allocate 30% of their income towards housing expenses to be considered affordable.

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  • 12. 

    What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas Pambansa 220?

    • A.

      32 sqm

    • B.

      36 sqm

    • C.

      18 sqm

    • D.

      22 sqm

    Correct Answer
    A. 32 sqm
    Explanation
    The minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas Pambansa 220 is 32 sqm. This means that the row-house unit must have a minimum area of 32 square meters in order to qualify as socialized housing under this law.

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  • 13. 

    What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market housing under PD 957?

    • A.

      90 sqm

    • B.

      100 sqm

    • C.

      110 sqm

    • D.

      120 sqm

    Correct Answer
    D. 120 sqm
    Explanation
    The minimum gross lot area for a single-detached family dwelling unit of open market housing under PD 957 is 120 sqm. This means that in order to construct a single-detached family dwelling unit in the open market housing, the lot area must be at least 120 sqm.

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  • 14. 

    According to BP 220, at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be appropriate to allocate space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project? 

    • A.

      4,000-5,000

    • B.

      3,000-2,500

    • C.

      2,000-2,499

    • D.

      1,500-1,999

    Correct Answer
    D. 1,500-1,999
    Explanation
    According to BP 220, it is appropriate to allocate space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project when the scale or minimum number of family dwelling units is between 1,500 and 1,999.

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  • 15. 

    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977.Sec 104, a residential dwelling unit or "Group A" building shall have one side adjoin or have direct access to a public space, yard, street, or alley; shall not occupy more than 90% of a comer lot or 80% of an inside lot; and be built in such a way that its exterior wall is at least_____from the property line.

    • A.

      2.0 m

    • B.

      4.0 m

    • C.

      6.0 m

    • D.

      8.0 m

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.0 m
  • 16. 

    If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, what should be the total distance of building exterior wall from the curb of street? 

    • A.

      5 m

    • B.

      6 m

    • C.

      7 m

    • D.

      8 m

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 m
    Explanation
    If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, the total distance of the building exterior wall from the curb of the street should be 5 meters. This can be calculated by adding the width of the sidewalk (3 meters) to the distance from the sidewalk to the building exterior wall (2 meters). Therefore, the total distance is 3 + 2 = 5 meters.

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  • 17. 

    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a residential dwelling unit should have a minimum area of 6 sq.m (14 m3) and ceiling height or headroom clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling, of at least

    • A.

      2.40 m

    • B.

      2.80 sm

    • C.

      3.40 m

    • D.

      3.80 m

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.40 m
    Explanation
    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a residential dwelling unit should have a minimum area of 6 sq.m (14 m3) and ceiling height or headroom clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling, of at least 2.40 m. This means that the minimum height required for a habitable room is 2.40 meters.

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  • 18. 

    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, room ventilation in a dwelling unit without air conditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on ratio that area of window opening should be at least __ of floor space.

    • A.

      One-fifth

    • B.

      One-sixth

    • C.

      One-eighth

    • D.

      One-tenth

    Correct Answer
    D. One-tenth
    Explanation
    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, the room ventilation in a dwelling unit without air conditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on the ratio that the area of the window opening should be at least one-tenth of the floor space.

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  • 19. 

    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003, projections such as balconies or appendages of a -dwelling unit should have this vertical distance between the established street / sidewalk grade and the lowest undersurface of balcony 

    • A.

      2 meters

    • B.

      3 meters

    • C.

      3.5 meters

    • D.

      4 meters

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 meters
    Explanation
    According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003, projections such as balconies or appendages of a dwelling unit should have a vertical distance of 3 meters between the established street/sidewalk grade and the lowest undersurface of the balcony.

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  • 20. 

    O According landings to (not PD steps) 1096 of a National stairway. Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, this is the maximum vertical distance between two landings (not steps) of a stairway.

    • A.

      2.4 m

    • B.

      2.6 m

    • C.

      3.6 m

    • D.

      4.5 m

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.6 m
    Explanation
    According to the National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, the maximum vertical distance between two landings (not steps) of a stairway is 3.6 meters.

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  • 21. 

    According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972 the minimum parking requirements one parking slot for every...

    • A.

      100-125 m2 of floorspace

    • B.

      100-125 m2 of business and customer service area

    • C.

      100-125 m2 of titled property

    • D.

      100-125 m2 of frontyard

    Correct Answer
    A. 100-125 m2 of floorspace
    Explanation
    According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972, the minimum parking requirement is one parking slot for every 100-125 m2 of floorspace. This means that for every 100-125 square meters of floorspace in a building, there should be one parking slot available. This regulation ensures that there is adequate parking space for the occupants or customers of the building, promoting convenience and accessibility.

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  • 22. 

    Lower than US standards by 10% this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of an open-market subdivision as required under PD 957 or Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Act?

    • A.

      Minimum of 60% open space

    • B.

      Minimum of 50% open space

    • C.

      60% saleable and 40% non-saleable

    • D.

      70% saleable and 30% non-saleable

    Correct Answer
    D. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable. This ratio is required under PD 957 or the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Act. It means that 70% of the subdivision must be designated for saleable portions such as residential units or commercial spaces, while the remaining 30% can be non-saleable portions like open spaces, parks, or common areas. This ensures that there is a balance between developed areas and open spaces within the subdivision.

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  • 23. 

    By Philippine standards,how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or piace of ill-repute be allowed to locate in relation to a school?

    • A.

      50 mtrs away or more

    • B.

      100 mtrs away or more

    • C.

      At least 200 mtrs away

    • D.

      At least 500 mtrs away

    Correct Answer
    C. At least 200 mtrs away
    Explanation
    In the Philippines, there are regulations regarding the proximity of establishments such as striptease joints, beerhouses, casas, or places of ill-repute to schools. The correct answer suggests that these establishments should be located at least 200 meters away from schools. This distance is likely considered appropriate to ensure that students are not exposed to inappropriate or potentially harmful activities that may occur in these establishments. It also aims to maintain a safe and conducive learning environment for students.

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  • 24. 

    By Philippine standards, how much open space should an ideal school campus have, out of its total land area?

    • A.

      60% or more

    • B.

      50% or more

    • C.

      40% or more

    • D.

      30% or more

    Correct Answer
    A. 60% or more
    Explanation
    An ideal school campus in the Philippines should have 60% or more of its total land area as open space. This means that more than half of the campus should be dedicated to open areas such as playgrounds, gardens, and recreational spaces. Having a significant amount of open space allows students to engage in physical activities, promotes a healthy environment, and provides opportunities for outdoor learning. It also helps in creating a conducive and pleasant atmosphere for students, teachers, and staff.

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  • 25. 

    To compute standard size of of classroom, 1.40 m2 as(HLURB) or 3cu.m. 'bubble' per pupil (PD1096 of NBC) is multiplied by the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by DepEd. This use in design of average measurements of body and bodily movements is an application of the field of.

    • A.

      Biomechanics

    • B.

      Bionics

    • C.

      Physiometrics

    • D.

      Anthropometrics

    Correct Answer
    D. Anthropometrics
    Explanation
    (from Greek ἄνθρωπος anthropos, "human", and μέτρον metron, "measure") refers to the measurement of the human individual.

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  • 26. 

    A University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrollment of 10,000 or more, should have a campus area of at least 7 hectares. What would be the required open space

    • A.

      At least 2,500 m2

    • B.

      At least 5,000 m2

    • C.

      At least 10,000 m2

    • D.

      At least 25,000 m2

    Correct Answer
    D. At least 25,000 m2
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, a University or Institution of Higher Learning with a total enrollment of 10,000 or more should have a campus area of at least 7 hectares. To convert this into square meters, we multiply 7 hectares by 10,000 square meters/hectare, which gives us 70,000 square meters. Therefore, the required open space should be at least 70,000 square meters. Among the given options, the only one that meets this requirement is "at least 25,000 m2," so it is the correct answer.

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  • 27. 

    Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, who among the following members of the Local School Board other than the Governor or Mayor, holds an elective officer.

    • A.

      LGU Treasurer

    • B.

      Division Superintendent or district supervisor

    • C.

      Chairperson of sanggunian's committee on education

    • D.

      Representatives of federations of teachers, SK youth, PTA's & non-academic personnel of schools.

    Correct Answer
    C. Chairperson of sanggunian's committee on education
    Explanation
    According to RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, the chairperson of the sanggunian's committee on education holds an elective office.

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  • 28. 

    By Philippine standards,  the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with 300 beds is

    • A.

      4.5 hectares

    • B.

      3.5 hectares

    • C.

      2.5 hectares

    • D.

      1.5 hectares

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.5 hectares
    Explanation
    In the Philippines, a tertiary-level general hospital with 300 beds is required to have a minimum total area of 3.5 hectares. This means that the hospital needs a large enough space to accommodate the facilities, infrastructure, and services necessary to cater to the needs of a tertiary-level hospital with 300 beds. The larger area allows for the inclusion of various departments, such as emergency rooms, operating rooms, diagnostic facilities, administrative offices, and patient rooms, ensuring that the hospital can provide comprehensive medical care to its patients.

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  • 29. 

    As per  PD 856 or Sanitaion Code of 1975 Sec. 13a, washing of clothes and bathing cannot take place within what distance from any public well or public source of drinking water?

    • A.

      25 mtrs.

    • B.

      100 mtrs.

    • C.

      150 mtrs.

    • D.

      200 mtrs.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 mtrs.
    Explanation
    According to PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975 Sec. 13a, washing of clothes and bathing cannot take place within 25 meters from any public well or public source of drinking water.

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  • 30. 

    What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the drainfield of a septic tank?

    • A.

      15 m

    • B.

      25 m

    • C.

      35 m

    • D.

      45 m

    • E.

      55 m

    Correct Answer
    B. 25 m
    Explanation
    The minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the drainfield of a septic tank should be 25 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent contamination of the drinking water source by any potential pathogens or pollutants that may be present in the septic tank's drainfield. A greater distance helps to ensure that there is a sufficient buffer zone to protect the water supply from any potential contamination.

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  • 31. 

    Which 'environmental management' practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated below?

    • A.

      Re-use

    • B.

      Reduce

    • C.

      Recycle

    • D.

      Reform lifestyles

    Correct Answer
    D. Reform lifestyles
    Explanation
    The practice of "reform lifestyles" is the broadest environmental management practice among the options provided. While the other practices (re-use, reduce, and recycle) focus on specific actions to minimize waste and conserve resources, reforming lifestyles encompasses a broader approach. It involves making significant changes to one's overall way of living, such as adopting sustainable habits, using eco-friendly products, and reducing overall consumption. This practice encourages a holistic and long-term shift towards more environmentally conscious choices, making it the broadest among the given options.

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  • 32. 

    Which 'environmental management' practice by firms is most encompassing of the four enumerated below?

    • A.

      'Disperse and Dilute'

    • B.

      End-of-Pipe Treatment

    • C.

      Product Life Cycle Assessment

    • D.

      Factory waste-exchange

    Correct Answer
    C. Product Life Cycle Assessment
    Explanation
    Product Life Cycle Assessment is the most encompassing environmental management practice among the four options provided. This practice involves evaluating the environmental impact of a product throughout its entire life cycle, from raw material extraction to disposal. It considers factors such as resource consumption, energy use, emissions, and waste generation. By assessing the product's life cycle, firms can identify areas where environmental improvements can be made, such as reducing resource consumption and waste generation. This practice goes beyond just treating the end-of-pipe emissions or exchanging waste and aims to address the overall environmental impact of the product.

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  • 33. 

    Apart from taxes, incentives, and property rights approaches, the major approach of the National Government to manage the environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is called--

    • A.

      Coerce and Compel

    • B.

      Contain and Constrain

    • C.

      Command and Control

    • D.

      Cash and Checks

    Correct Answer
    C. Command and Control
    Explanation
    The major approach of the National Government to manage the environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is called "Command and Control." This approach refers to the government's authority to set regulations and enforce them through penalties and fines. It involves the government taking charge and dictating specific actions and behaviors that individuals and organizations must follow to protect the environment. This approach is often criticized for being inflexible and burdensome, but it is also seen as necessary to ensure compliance and achieve environmental goals.

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  • 34. 

    RA 8371 IPRA grants to Indigenous Cultural Communities and Indigenous Peoples the right to own and possess their tribal lands as a limited form of private ownership that does not include the right to alienate the same lands. 

    • A.

      Regional Autonomy

    • B.

      Ancestral Domain

    • C.

      Self-Government

    • D.

      Tribal Ownership

    Correct Answer
    B. Ancestral Domain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ancestral Domain. The explanation is that RA 8371, also known as the Indigenous Peoples' Rights Act (IPRA), grants Indigenous Cultural Communities and Indigenous Peoples the right to own and possess their ancestral domains. Ancestral domain refers to the land, territories, and resources traditionally occupied, owned, or used by Indigenous Peoples. This right is a limited form of private ownership that does not include the right to alienate or transfer the land to others.

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  • 35. 

    This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of development by promoting the "Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in Development and Nation Building." 

    • A.

      RA 1010

    • B.

      RA 7192

    • C.

      RA 6969

    • D.

      RA 8010

    Correct Answer
    B. RA 7192
    Explanation
    RA 7192 is the correct answer because it is the law that promotes the integration of women as full and equal partners of men in development and nation-building. This law marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the development agenda, emphasizing the importance of gender equality and women's participation in all aspects of society.

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  • 36. 

    According to RA 9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009 Sec. 4g, this refers to policies, instruments, programs,services and actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in society by providing preferential treatment and affirmative action such as measures aimed to accelerate de facto equality between men and women.

    • A.

      Sexual Equality

    • B.

      Gender Equity

    • C.

      Women's Liberation

    • D.

      Gender Parity

    • E.

      Feminist Empowerment

    Correct Answer
    B. Gender Equity
    Explanation
    According to RA 9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009 Sec. 4g, the term "gender equity" refers to policies, instruments, programs, services, and actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in society by providing preferential treatment and affirmative action. It aims to accelerate de facto equality between men and women. This means that gender equity focuses on ensuring fairness and equal opportunities for both men and women, rather than promoting the superiority or dominance of one gender over the other.

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  • 37. 

    According to RA 9710, this refers to the strategy for making women's as well as men's concerns and experiences an integral dimension of the design, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of policies and programs in all political, economic, and societal spheres so that women and men benefit equally and inequality is not perpetuated. 

    • A.

      integration & rationalization

    • B.

      Gender mainstreaming

    • C.

      Sexual equality

    • D.

      Transgender accommodation

    Correct Answer
    B. Gender mainstreaming
    Explanation
    Gender mainstreaming is the correct answer because it aligns with the definition provided in the question. According to RA 9710, gender mainstreaming involves incorporating women's and men's concerns and experiences into policies and programs in all areas of society to ensure equal benefits and prevent perpetuating inequality. Integration and rationalization, sexual equality, and transgender accommodation do not fully capture the concept of gender mainstreaming as described in the question.

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  • 38. 

    An individual, group, organization, sector, or community who has a direct or indirect interest in a policy, program, or project, who affects or is affected by -- positively or negatively -- the implementation and outcome of it, is called 

    • A.

      Recipient /beneficiary

    • B.

      Proponent/ exponent

    • C.

      Advocate

    • D.

      Stakeholder

    • E.

      Shareholder

    Correct Answer
    D. Stakeholder
    Explanation
    A stakeholder is someone who has an interest in a policy, program, or project and can be directly or indirectly affected by it. They can have a positive or negative impact on the implementation and outcome of the policy, program, or project. Stakeholders can include individuals, groups, organizations, sectors, or communities. The term "stakeholder" encompasses a wide range of people or entities who have a stake in the success or failure of the initiative in question.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following - all true! - about people's participation in planning, implementation and management holds the same meaning as the statement "people are the principal actors, the subject rather than the object, of development."

    • A.

      Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term benefit as people provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns !1 policy-makers and implementors.

    • B.

      The very process of participating is, in and of itself, educational, liberating, and empowering for the poor.

    • C.

      People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.

    • D.

      Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future.

    • E.

      Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by changes in policy.

    Correct Answer
    D. Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future.
    Explanation
    The statement "people are the principal actors, the subject rather than the object, of development" means that people are active participants in the development process, rather than passive recipients. They take ownership of their problems and become leaders in their communities, gaining control over their own fate and making critical decisions for their common future. This aligns with the answer choice "Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future."

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  • 40. 

    The "SMART test" by George Doran means that both 'task objectives' and 'process objectives' have to be specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and __ 

    • A.

      Tenable

    • B.

      Truthful

    • C.

      Time-bound

    • D.

      Testable

    • E.

      Treatable

    Correct Answer
    C. Time-bound
    Explanation
    The "SMART test" by George Doran requires that both task objectives and process objectives are specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and time-bound. This means that objectives should have a clear deadline or timeframe in which they should be achieved. This helps to create a sense of urgency and accountability, ensuring that progress is made within a specified time frame.

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  • 41. 

    Public participation is important for each of the following reasons except

    • A.

      Decision-making competency improves

    • B.

      The legitimacy of the decision increases

    • C.

      The decision-making process is speeded up

    • D.

      Participants become more responsible democratic citizens

    Correct Answer
    C. The decision-making process is speeded up
    Explanation
    Public participation is important for several reasons, including improving decision-making competency, increasing the legitimacy of decisions, and fostering responsible democratic citizenship. However, the statement that the decision-making process is sped up is not a valid reason for the importance of public participation. In fact, public participation often involves more deliberation and discussion, which can slow down the decision-making process but ultimately leads to more informed and inclusive decisions.

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  • 42. 

    Which element of 'participatory' planning process implies multi-stakeholdership?

    • A.

      Bottom-up process to define and prioritize local needs

    • B.

      Collective leadership and innovative decision-making

    • C.

      Coalition of partners and groundswell of support

    • D.

      Negotiated rule-making and policy dialogue

    • E.

      Consensus-building and dispute resolution

    • F.

      All of the choices

    Correct Answer
    F. All of the choices
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the choices." This is because all of the options mentioned in the question imply multi-stakeholdership in the participatory planning process. A bottom-up process involves involving various stakeholders at the local level to define and prioritize needs. Collective leadership and innovative decision-making involve multiple stakeholders coming together to make decisions. A coalition of partners and groundswell of support also implies the involvement of multiple stakeholders. Negotiated rule-making and policy dialogue involve engaging different stakeholders in the decision-making process. Lastly, consensus-building and dispute resolution require the participation of multiple stakeholders to reach an agreement. Therefore, all of these options indicate multi-stakeholdership.

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  • 43. 

    The main economic theory that underlies both CBA and EIA is that an economic activity or project should not make one person better off by making someone else worse off, such that gains in producer surplus or consumer satisfaction to some firms or individuals do not simultaneously impose losses on others. 

    • A.

      Theory of General Equilibrium

    • B.

      Classical Economics

    • C.

      David Ricardo's Theory of Value

    • D.

      Pareto Optimality

    Correct Answer
    D. Pareto Optimality
    Explanation
    Pareto efficiency, or Pareto optimality, is a state of allocation of resources in which it is impossible to make any one individual better off without making at least one individual worse off.

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  • 44. 

    A school of thought that holds that the measure of efficiency is people's well-being and such is attained if the total gains among those who benefit exceed the total losses of those adversely affected by any economic activity. 

    • A.

      Keynesian economics

    • B.

      Welfare economics

    • C.

      Neo-classical economics

    • D.

      Marxist economics

    Correct Answer
    B. Welfare economics
    Explanation
    Welfare economics is the correct answer because it is a school of thought that focuses on the well-being of individuals as the measure of efficiency. It argues that economic activities should be evaluated based on whether the total gains for those who benefit outweigh the total losses for those who are adversely affected. Welfare economics seeks to maximize social welfare and improve people's overall well-being through economic policies and interventions.

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  • 45. 

    This refers to the collaborative process by which governments, businesses, community organizations, etc at the local level engage one another to improve economic well-being of their community, enhance business climate, increase income opportunities, and sustainably utilize human, natural, infrastructural, and institutional resources.

    • A.

      Project Development Planning

    • B.

      Investment Coordination

    • C.

      Economic Planning

    • D.

      Industrial Convergence

    Correct Answer
    C. Economic Planning
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Economic Planning". Economic planning refers to the process of making decisions on the allocation of resources in an economy to achieve specific economic goals. In the context of the question, economic planning is necessary to improve the economic well-being of a community, enhance the business climate, increase income opportunities, and effectively utilize various resources. It involves collaboration between governments, businesses, community organizations, and other stakeholders at the local level to strategize and implement policies and initiatives that promote economic growth and development.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is not a 'virtue' of free markets?

    • A.

      'motivation'

    • B.

      'efficiency'

    • C.

      'productivity''

    • D.

      Equity'

    • E.

      'diverse consumer choices'

    Correct Answer
    D. Equity'
    Explanation
    Equity is not considered a virtue of free markets because free markets prioritize efficiency and productivity over equal distribution of resources. In a free market system, individuals and businesses are free to pursue their own self-interest, which can lead to unequal outcomes. While free markets can create wealth and increase overall prosperity, they often result in income inequality and disparities in access to resources and opportunities. Therefore, equity is not a core principle or virtue of free markets.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following data-sets is least needed in Economic Area Analysis?

    • A.

      Population forecasts

    • B.

      Employment trends

    • C.

      Income levels

    • D.

      Cohort survival

    • E.

      Poverty incidence of households

    • F.

      Gross sales of registered enterprises

    Correct Answer
    D. Cohort survival
    Explanation
    Cohort survival is the least needed dataset in Economic Area Analysis because it refers to the tracking of a specific group of individuals over time to determine their survival rates. While this information may be useful for other purposes, such as demographic studies or healthcare planning, it is not directly relevant to analyzing economic trends and conditions within a specific area. The other datasets, such as population forecasts, employment trends, income levels, poverty incidence of households, and gross sales of registered enterprises, provide more relevant and actionable information for economic analysis.

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  • 48. 

    In Walt Rostow's Theory of Economic Modernization in Linear Stages (1960), tile stage wherein techniques in  production improve, new industries diversify and accelerate output, local supply exceeds local demand, and the national economy participates in international trade , is termed as

    • A.

      NIChood or newly industrializing economy

    • B.

      Pre-conditions for take-off

    • C.

      Take-off period

    • D.

      Drive to maturity

    Correct Answer
    D. Drive to maturity
    Explanation
    The stage described in the question, where production techniques improve, new industries diversify and accelerate output, local supply exceeds local demand, and the national economy participates in international trade, is referred to as the "drive to maturity" stage. This stage represents a period of economic growth and development where the economy becomes more advanced and self-sustaining. It signifies the transition from a developing economy to a mature and fully industrialized one.

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  • 49. 

    Following Rostow's theory, as an economy develops, a smaller percentage of workforce tends to be employed in

    • A.

      Agriculture, because industrialization decreases the value of rural land

    • B.

      Agriculture, because investment in technology increases yieid per unit effort and decreases labor demand

    • C.

      industry, because the profit from extracting natural resources increases

    • D.

      industry, because productivity increases as labor costs rise

    • E.

      Services, because technology increases efficiency in the provision of services

    Correct Answer
    B. Agriculture, because investment in technology increases yieid per unit effort and decreases labor demand
    Explanation
    According to Rostow's theory, as an economy develops, there is a decrease in the percentage of the workforce employed in agriculture. This is because investment in technology increases yield per unit effort and decreases the demand for labor in agriculture. As technology improves, farmers can produce more with less labor, leading to a smaller workforce needed in the agricultural sector. This allows for a shift of labor towards other sectors such as industry or services, which contribute to the overall development of the economy.

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  • 50. 

    This phenomenon in economics (Alfred Marshall, 1897) wherein profit-oriented firms try to locate close to-each other to save on utility costs, realize gains from increased business interaction, and enjoy benefits .from sharing new technologies, improved skills of local workforce, common infrastructure and amenities, is called --

    • A.

      Co-Location

    • B.

      Proximization

    • C.

      Aggrandization

    • D.

      Agglomeration

    Correct Answer
    D. Agglomeration
    Explanation
    Agglomeration refers to the phenomenon in economics where profit-oriented firms choose to locate near each other in order to save on utility costs, benefit from increased business interaction, and enjoy advantages such as sharing new technologies, improved skills of the local workforce, and common infrastructure and amenities. This clustering of firms can lead to economies of scale, increased productivity, and innovation within the region.

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    Quiz Edited by
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