Municipal Solid Waste: Test Your Knowledge About Waste Management! Trivia Quiz

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Municipal Solid Waste: Test Your Knowledge About Waste Management! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Below is a Municipal Solid Waste trivia quiz to help Test Your Knowledge about Waste Management! TA good sewerage system makes an area clean and at the same time, frees the community from some waterborne diseases and other dangers associated with filthy waters. How about you give it a shot and see just how knowledgeable you are about solid waste management.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is

    • A.

      0-18%

    • B.

      Above 50%

    • C.

      16-50%

    • D.

      0-8%

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-18%
    Explanation
    The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is 0-18%. This means that land with a slope of 0-18% is suitable for agricultural activities and production purposes. Slopes within this range are gentle enough to allow for effective cultivation and management of crops. Land with slopes above 18% may be too steep for agricultural activities, while land with slopes below 0% may have drainage issues. Therefore, the range of 0-18% is considered the ideal slope range for production land use.

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  • 2. 

    The elevation reserved for protection land use is

    • A.

      Above 500

    • B.

      Above 100

    • C.

      Above 2,000

    • D.

      Above 1,000 mtrs.

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Above 1,000 mtrs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Above 1,000 mtrs." This suggests that the elevation reserved for protection land use is above 1,000 meters. This indicates that certain areas of land above this elevation are designated for protection, potentially due to their ecological significance or vulnerability.

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  • 3. 

    Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification leveldepicted in the Bureau of Soils and Water Management is the

    • A.

      Soil order

    • B.

      Soil type

    • C.

      Soil great group

    • D.

      Soil series

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Soil series
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Soil series." The 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System categorizes soils into different levels of classification, including soil order, soil type, soil great group, and soil series. The soil series is the most specific level of classification, referring to a group of soils that share similar characteristics and are found in a particular geographic area. The Bureau of Soils and Water Management would therefore classify soils based on their soil series.

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  • 4. 

    A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughout the years refers to:

    • A.

      Type III

    • B.

      Type II

    • C.

      Type IV

    • D.

      Type I

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Type IV
    Explanation
    Type IV refers to a Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughout the year. This means that in this type of climate, there is no distinct dry or wet season, and rainfall occurs consistently throughout the year. This type of climate is often found in areas near the equator, where there is a relatively stable climate with consistent rainfall patterns.

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  • 5. 

    The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and in places with a distinct wet and dry season is the

    • A.

      Pine/saleng

    • B.

      Diptrocarp

    • C.

      Molave/molawin

    • D.

      Mangrove

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Molave/molawin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Molave/molawin. Molave/molawin is a Philippine forest type that is well adapted to growing in steep slopes and in places with a distinct wet and dry season. This forest type is characterized by the dominant presence of the Molave tree, which is known for its ability to thrive in challenging environments. Its deep root system helps stabilize the soil on steep slopes, while its leaves and bark have adaptations to withstand both wet and dry conditions.

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  • 6. 

    The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plan initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunians is:

    • A.

      PD 399

    • B.

      Executive Order No. 72

    • C.

      RA 7160

    • D.

      PD 1517

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. RA 7160
    Explanation
    RA 7160, also known as the Local Government Code of 1991, requires Local Government Units (LGUs) to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plans. These plans are initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunians. This law provides guidelines and mandates for the planning and development of LGUs, ensuring that their plans are comprehensive and address the needs and priorities of their respective areas.

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  • 7. 

    The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is

    • A.

      PD 1308

    • B.

      PD 1517

    • C.

      PD 957

    • D.

      None of the choices

    • E.

      PD1096

    Correct Answer
    A. PD 1308
    Explanation
    PD 1308 is the correct answer because it is the law that regulates the practice of environmental planning. PD stands for Presidential Decree, which is a type of legislative act issued by the President of the Philippines. PD 1308 specifically focuses on environmental planning and provides guidelines and regulations for the proper management and protection of the environment. PD 1517, PD 957, and PD 1096 are not the correct answers because they do not pertain to environmental planning.

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  • 8. 

    The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects asenvironmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS system

    • A.

      PD 1586

    • B.

      Proclamation No. 2146

    • C.

      PD 1152

    • D.

      DAO 96-37

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. PD 1586
    Explanation
    PD 1586 is the correct answer because it is the law that proclaims certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of the Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) system. This law was enacted to ensure that projects with potential environmental impacts are thoroughly assessed and regulated. Proclamation No. 2146, PD 1152, and DAO 96-37 are not specifically related to the proclamation of land areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS system.

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  • 9. 

    Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting publichearing for the purpose, shall be limited to

    • A.

      10%

    • B.

      15%

    • C.

      20%

    • D.

      25%

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    B. 15%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15% because according to the given information, the reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas can only be done up to a certain limit after conducting a public hearing. Out of the given options, 15% is the only choice that falls within this limit. This suggests that any reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas should not exceed 15% of the total land area.

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  • 10. 

    A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is

    • A.

      Comprehensive Land Use Plan

    • B.

      Zoning Ordinance

    • C.

      Cadastral Survey

    • D.

      Tax Declaration

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    B. Zoning Ordinance
    Explanation
    A zoning ordinance is a local legal measure that regulates land use. It establishes specific zones for different types of land use, such as residential, commercial, or industrial. It sets out rules and regulations regarding the permitted uses, building heights, setbacks, and other aspects of development within each zone. This helps to ensure that land is used in a way that is compatible with its surrounding environment and promotes orderly and planned development. A comprehensive land use plan, on the other hand, is a broader document that guides overall land use and development decisions, but it is the zoning ordinance that enforces those decisions on a more detailed level. Cadastral survey and tax declaration are not directly related to land use regulations.

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  • 11. 

    A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certainprovisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance withheight, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to theowner

    • A.

      Certificate of Non-Conformance

    • B.

      Exception

    • C.

      Variance

    • D.

      None of the choices

    • E.

      Zoning Clearance

    Correct Answer
    C. Variance
    Explanation
    EXCEPTION - A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the Zoning Ordinance because the specific use would result in a particular hardship upon the owner, as distinguished from a mere inconvenience or a desire to make more money.
    CERTIFICATE OF NON-CONFORMANCE - Certificate issued to owners of all uses existing prior to the approval of the Zoning Ordinance which do not conform in a zone as per provision of the said Ordinance.

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  • 12. 

    A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result in a particularhardship to the owner

    • A.

      Variance

    • B.

      Certificate of Non-Conformance

    • C.

      Exception

    • D.

      Development

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Exception
    Explanation
    CERTIFICATE OF NON-CONFORMANCE - Certificate issued to owners of all uses existing prior to the approval of the Zoning Ordinance which do not conform in a zone as per provision of the said Ordinance.
    VARIANCE- A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to the owner

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  • 13. 

    This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion andother built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areasand whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agriculturalactivities:

    • A.

      Central business district

    • B.

      Urban area

    • C.

      City center

    • D.

      Suburban area

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    B. Urban area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urban area". An urban area refers to all barangays or portions that make up the poblacion and other built-up areas, including the urbanizable land nearby. In this area, at least 50% of the population is engaged in non-agricultural activities. This term encompasses the densely populated and developed regions of a city or town, typically characterized by infrastructure, commercial establishments, and residential areas. The other options, such as central business district, city center, suburban area, and none of the choices, do not fully encompass the definition provided.

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  • 14. 

    Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by theNational Statistics Office and with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City Treasurer are called

    • A.

      Independent Component Cities

    • B.

      Regional Centers

    • C.

      Highly Urbanized Cities

    • D.

      Component Cities

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Highly Urbanized Cities
    Explanation
    Highly Urbanized Cities are cities that have a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by the National Statistics Office and a latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000 based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City Treasurer. This means that these cities have a large population and a high level of economic development, making them highly urbanized and more advanced compared to other cities.

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  • 15. 

    Urbanization began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the

    • A.

      Fertile Crescent

    • B.

      Mediterranean

    • C.

      Babylon

    • D.

      Asia

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Fertile Crescent
    Explanation
    The Fertile Crescent is the correct answer because it is widely recognized as the region where urbanization first began around 4,000 B.C. This area, located in the Middle East, includes parts of modern-day Iraq, Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, and Palestine. It is known for its fertile soil and favorable climate, which allowed early civilizations to develop agriculture and settle in permanent communities. The Fertile Crescent is often referred to as the "cradle of civilization" because it gave rise to some of the earliest known civilizations, such as Sumer, Babylon, and Assyria.

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  • 16. 

    The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along theIndus Valley is/are:

    • A.

      Transport

    • B.

      Agriculture

    • C.

      Defense

    • D.

      None of the choices

    • E.

      All of the choices except none

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the choices except none
    Explanation
    During the Bronze Age along the Indus Valley, the primary factors in the location of cities were transport, agriculture, and defense. Transport was crucial for trade and communication, which led to the establishment of cities in accessible areas. Agriculture played a significant role as fertile land was necessary for sustaining the population. Defense was also important to protect the cities from external threats. Therefore, all of these factors were considered while selecting the locations for cities during the Bronze Age along the Indus Valley.

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  • 17. 

    He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning

    • A.

      Hippodamus

    • B.

      Nicodemus

    • C.

      Nostradamus

    • D.

      Aristotle

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Hippodamus
    Explanation
    Hippodamus is the correct answer because he is credited with developing the first theoretical basis for physical planning. He was an ancient Greek architect and urban planner who introduced the concept of dividing cities into separate zones for different functions, such as residential, commercial, and public spaces. This approach to urban planning revolutionized the design of cities and influenced subsequent city planners throughout history.

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  • 18. 

    They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the firstregional planners of the world.

    • A.

      Greeks

    • B.

      Romans

    • C.

      Sumerians

    • D.

      Egyptians

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    B. Romans
    Explanation
    The Romans understood the importance of transportation and emerged as the first regional planners of the world. They built an extensive network of roads, bridges, and aqueducts, which allowed for the efficient movement of goods, people, and information across their vast empire. This transportation infrastructure played a crucial role in connecting different regions, facilitating trade, and enabling the spread of Roman culture and influence. The Romans' innovative approach to transportation planning set a precedent for future civilizations and greatly contributed to their success and longevity.

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  • 19. 

    It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established

    • A.

      Renaissance

    • B.

      Bronze Age

    • C.

      Medieval Period

    • D.

      Atomic Age

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Renaissance
    Explanation
    During the Renaissance period, which occurred from the 14th to the 17th century, there was a significant shift in the way cities were planned and designed. This period marked a revival of interest in classical architecture and urban planning principles, with a focus on creating harmonious and aesthetically pleasing cities. Renaissance thinkers emphasized the importance of urban design in creating functional and beautiful spaces, which laid the foundation for the modern concept of urban design. Therefore, the establishment of the concept of urban design can be attributed to the Renaissance period.

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  • 20. 

    The Garden City as a solution to urban planning problems

    • A.

      Malthus

    • B.

      Ebenezer Howard

    • C.

      Nicodemus

    • D.

      Adam Smith

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    B. Ebenezer Howard
    Explanation
    Ebenezer Howard is the correct answer because he is known for his concept of the Garden City, which was a solution to urban planning problems. Howard believed that cities should be planned in a way that combines the benefits of both urban and rural life. His Garden City concept aimed to create self-contained communities with a balance of residential, commercial, and agricultural areas, surrounded by greenbelts. This approach was intended to address the issues of overcrowding, pollution, and lack of green spaces in cities, providing a healthier and more sustainable living environment.

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  • 21. 

    He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditionsunless it was integrated with social and economic planning in a context odenvironmental concerns.

    • A.

      William Penn

    • B.

      Patrick Geddes

    • C.

      Peirre L’ Enfant

    • D.

      None of the Choices

    • E.

      Allan Carreon

    Correct Answer
    B. Patrick Geddes
    Explanation
    Patrick Geddes is the correct answer because he believed that physical planning alone could not improve urban living conditions. He emphasized the need for integrating social and economic planning with physical planning, taking into consideration environmental concerns. This holistic approach to urban planning was a key aspect of Geddes' theories and ideas.

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  • 22. 

    The Architect Planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay and Baguio

    • A.

      Burnham

    • B.

      Concio

    • C.

      Faithful

    • D.

      None of the choices

    • E.

      Lynch

    Correct Answer
    A. Burnham
    Explanation
    Burnham is the correct answer because he is known as the architect planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay, and Baguio. He was an American architect and urban planner who designed many cities and parks in the Philippines during the American colonial period. Burnham's designs for these cities were influenced by the City Beautiful movement, which emphasized grand boulevards, parks, and open spaces. His designs for Luneta, Tagaytay, and Baguio incorporated these principles, creating beautiful and functional urban spaces that are still enjoyed today.

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  • 23. 

    Rectangular streets are examples of the

    • A.

      Grid Iron Pattern

    • B.

      Axial

    • C.

      Radial

    • D.

      Ribbon-Type

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Grid Iron Pattern
    Explanation
    Rectangular streets are an example of the Grid Iron Pattern. This pattern is characterized by a network of perpendicular streets that form a grid-like structure. The streets intersect at right angles, creating a series of rectangular blocks. This pattern is commonly found in many cities and towns, as it provides a practical and efficient layout for urban planning. It allows for easy navigation and accessibility, as well as efficient land use.

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  • 24. 

    What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during theSpanish Period in the Philippines?

    • A.

      Plaza

    • B.

      Economy

    • C.

      Transportation

    • D.

      Religion

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Religion
    Explanation
    During the Spanish Period in the Philippines, religion was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns. The Spanish colonizers aimed to spread Christianity throughout the archipelago, so they established towns and settlements around churches and religious institutions. The presence of churches and religious activities influenced the layout and organization of the communities, with the central plaza often located near the church. Religion played a significant role in shaping the social, cultural, and architectural aspects of the settlements during this period.

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  • 25. 

    Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analystshould consider in analyzing tourist arrivals?

    • A.

      Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals

    • B.

      Socio-cultural changes

    • C.

      Political changes

    • D.

      None of the choices

    • E.

      Tourist Comfort

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals
    Explanation
    In addition to volume and growth, a tourism analyst should also consider qualitative changes in tourist arrivals. This refers to analyzing the characteristics and behaviors of the tourists, such as their preferences, spending patterns, and satisfaction levels. By understanding these qualitative changes, analysts can gain insights into the evolving needs and expectations of tourists, which can help in developing effective tourism strategies and improving the overall tourist experience.

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  • 26. 

    The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____markets.

    • A.

      Eco-tourism

    • B.

      Historical

    • C.

      Location specific natural and cultural

    • D.

      None of the choices

    • E.

      Global

    Correct Answer
    C. Location specific natural and cultural
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Location specific natural and cultural." This answer fits logically with the other categories mentioned in the question (business and mass holiday) and provides a specific classification for the tourist market based on the location's natural and cultural attractions.

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  • 27. 

    Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These aredirect, indirect and ____ jobs.

    • A.

      Multiplier

    • B.

      Induced

    • C.

      Locational

    • D.

      Service

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    B. Induced
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Induced". When tourists visit an area, they not only create direct employment opportunities in the tourism industry but also indirectly generate jobs in related sectors such as transportation, accommodation, and restaurants. Additionally, their spending in the local economy stimulates further economic activity, leading to induced employment opportunities in various service sectors like retail, entertainment, and healthcare. Therefore, tourists have a multiplier effect on the local economy, creating both direct and indirect jobs, as well as induced employment opportunities.

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  • 28. 

    The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.

    • A.

      Slump

    • B.

      Deflation

    • C.

      Inflation

    • D.

      Sustainable growth

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Slump
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Slump" because it accurately describes the phase in the economic cycle where there is a significant decline in economic activity. During a slump, there is a decrease in production, employment, and spending, leading to a contraction in the overall economy. This phase is characterized by low consumer confidence, reduced business investment, and a general slowdown in economic growth.

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  • 29. 

    In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity,technical efficiency and ______

    • A.

      Allocative efficiency

    • B.

      Comparative advantages

    • C.

      Resource collection

    • D.

      Availability of skilled labor

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Allocative efficiency
    Explanation
    Allocative efficiency refers to the optimal allocation of resources in order to maximize overall welfare or utility. In the context of the government formulating its industrial program, considering allocative efficiency means ensuring that resources are allocated in a way that maximizes the overall benefit to society. This involves making decisions about which industries or sectors to prioritize, how to allocate funding and resources, and how to balance the needs of different stakeholders. By considering allocative efficiency, the government can make informed decisions that lead to the most effective and beneficial industrial program.

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  • 30. 

    Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastesfrom existing disposal facilities within a period of:

    • A.

      10 years

    • B.

      2 years

    • C.

      5 years

    • D.

      1 year

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. 5 years
    Explanation
    Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from existing disposal facilities within a period of 5 years. This means that local government units have to implement waste management strategies to reduce the amount of waste being sent to disposal facilities such as landfills or incinerators. This requirement aims to promote sustainable waste management practices and reduce the environmental impact of solid waste disposal.

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  • 31. 

    At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid WasteManagement Commission under the office of:

    • A.

      President

    • B.

      DENR

    • C.

      DILG

    • D.

      NEDA

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. President
    Explanation
    RA 9003, also known as the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act, is a law in the Philippines that mandates the creation of the National Solid Waste Management Commission. This commission is responsible for formulating and implementing policies, plans, and programs for solid waste management in the country. Since the President is the highest-ranking official in the Philippines and has the authority to create and oversee government agencies, it is logical that the National Solid Waste Management Commission would be under the office of the President. Therefore, the correct answer is President.

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  • 32. 

    Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid WasteManagement Program seeks to:

    • A.

      Promote public health and environment protection

    • B.

      Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and responsibility with the LGUs

    • C.

      Mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse, recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities

    • D.

      All of the choices except none

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the choices except none
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices except none" because Republic Act 9003 aims to promote public health and environment protection, encourage private sector participation while still placing the primary enforcement and responsibility with the LGUs, and mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of solid wastes from disposal facilities through various resource recovery activities such as reuse, recycling, and composting.

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  • 33. 

    The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated andshall include the following:

    • A.

      Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the national, provincial, ad municipal levels

    • B.

      Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods, techniques and practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste

    • C.

      All of the choices except none

    • D.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the choices except none
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices except none" because the question is asking for the components that should be included in the National Solid Waste Management Framework. The answer states that all of the choices listed (analysis and evaluation of current state, trends, projections of solid waste management, characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods, techniques and practices) should be included in the framework, except for none. This means that there are no exclusions or exceptions to the components that should be included in the framework.

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  • 34. 

    It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage,collection, transfer and transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in amanner that is in accord with the best principles of public health, economies,engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations andwhich is also responsive to public attitudes

    • A.

      Environmental Impact Assessment

    • B.

      Development Planning

    • C.

      Waste Segregation

    • D.

      Solid Waste Management

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Solid Waste Management
    Explanation
    Solid Waste Management refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage, collection, transfer and transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health, economies, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations and which is also responsive to public attitudes. This involves managing the entire lifecycle of solid waste, from its generation to its final disposal, in a way that minimizes its impact on the environment and human health.

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  • 35. 

    The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited tothe following components:

    • A.

      City or Municipal profile

    • B.

      Waste characterization

    • C.

      Collection and transfer

    • D.

      Source reduction

    • E.

      All of the choices

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the choices
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices". The Local Government Solid Management Plan should include all of the mentioned components: City or Municipal profile, Waste characterization, Collection and transfer, and Source reduction. These components are important for effective solid waste management at the local government level.

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  • 36. 

    Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solidwastes. Specifically, the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owneror person in charge of premises containing:______________to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which toaccumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal orprivate center.

    • A.

      Five residential units

    • B.

      Six residential units

    • C.

      Six or more residential units

    • D.

      At least ten residential units

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Six or more residential units
    Explanation
    Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 states that the LGUs shall require the owner or person in charge of premises containing six or more residential units to provide a designated area and containers for source separated recyclable materials. This means that if a residential property has six or more units, the owner or person in charge must provide a specific area and containers for residents to accumulate recyclable materials. These materials will then be collected by either the municipal or private center.

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  • 37. 

    The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills

    • A.

      The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU

    • B.

      The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares

    • C.

      The site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted

    • D.

      All of the Choices except none

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the Choices except none
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Choices except none". This means that all of the criteria mentioned in the question are necessary for the siting of sanitary landfills, except for none of them. In other words, all the criteria listed in the question are important and must be met when selecting a site for a sanitary landfill. This includes ensuring that the site aligns with the overall land use plan of the local government unit, is easily accessible from major roadways, and has an adequate quantity of earth cover material that can be handled and compacted.

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  • 38. 

    Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems andare appropriate for clustered solid waste management services shall be based onthe following:

    • A.

      Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the integrated of such with the national plan

    • B.

      Size and location of areas which should be included

    • C.

      Volume of solid waste which should be generated

    • D.

      Possible life span of the disposal facilities

    • E.

      All of the choices

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the choices
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices" because all of the given guidelines are important for the identification of common solid waste management problems and for determining appropriate clustered solid waste management services. The available means of coordinating local government planning between and among LGUs and integrating it with the national plan ensures effective collaboration and coordination. Considering the size and location of areas to be included helps in determining the scope of waste management services. The volume of solid waste generated is crucial for designing appropriate disposal facilities, and the possible lifespan of these facilities is important for long-term planning. Therefore, all of these choices are necessary for effective solid waste management.

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  • 39. 

    The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing,Adopting, and implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall bebased on the following minimum factors:

    • A.

      Type of solid waste

    • B.

      Amount/volume of solid waste

    • C.

      Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility

    • D.

      All of the choices except none

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the choices except none
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices except none". This means that the LGU (Local Government Unit) can impose fees based on the type of solid waste, the amount/volume of solid waste, and the distance of the transfer station to the waste management facility. In order to cover the costs of preparing, adopting, and implementing a solid waste management plan, the LGU can consider these factors to determine the appropriate fees to be imposed.

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  • 40. 

    Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activityexcept for scientific studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenouscommunities

    • A.

      Restoration Zone

    • B.

      Habitat Management Zone

    • C.

      Bypass Zone

    • D.

      Strict Protection Zone

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Strict Protection Zone
    Explanation
    A Strict Protection Zone refers to areas with high biodiversity value that are closed to all human activity, except for scientific studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenous communities. This means that these areas are off-limits to any human interference or exploitation and are strictly protected to preserve their natural state and biodiversity.

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  • 41. 

    Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:

    • A.

      Office of the Mayor

    • B.

      Sanggunian Bayan

    • C.

      Planning Officer

    • D.

      Protected Area Management Board

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Protected Area Management Board
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Protected Area Management Board. The establishment protected area is administered by this board, which is responsible for the management and conservation of the protected area. The board is composed of various stakeholders, including representatives from the local government, indigenous communities, non-government organizations, and other relevant agencies. They work together to develop and implement plans and policies for the sustainable use and protection of the area's natural resources.

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  • 42. 

    This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectivelythe relevance, efficiency, effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of theirobjectives

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Project Identification

    • C.

      Resource Generation

    • D.

      Evaluation

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Evaluation
    Explanation
    Evaluation is the correct answer because it involves the systematic and objective assessment of activities to determine their relevance, efficiency, effectiveness, and impact in relation to their objectives. This process helps organizations understand the outcomes and impact of their actions, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions for future planning and resource allocation.

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  • 43. 

    This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completionwhen full project benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.

    • A.

      Terminal Evaluation

    • B.

      On-going Evaluation

    • C.

      Ex-post Evaluation

    • D.

      Pre-Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    C. Ex-post Evaluation
    Explanation
    Ex-post evaluation refers to the evaluation that is conducted after the completion of a project, when the full benefits and impact of the project are expected to have been realized. This evaluation allows for a comprehensive assessment of the project's outcomes and effectiveness, taking into account the actual results achieved. It helps in identifying the strengths and weaknesses of the project and provides valuable insights for future project planning and decision-making.

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  • 44. 

    The Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) strategy should carefully examine

    • A.

      The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used

    • B.

      The format

    • C.

      The frequency of existing reports

    • D.

      All of the choices

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the choices
    Explanation
    The Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) strategy should carefully examine all of the choices. This means that the strategy should consider the contents of existing reports, including the data and indicators used. It should also evaluate the format of the reports and determine if any improvements or changes are necessary. Additionally, the strategy should assess the frequency of the reports to ensure that they are being produced at appropriate intervals. By examining all of these aspects, the M&E strategy can ensure that the monitoring and evaluation process is comprehensive and effective.

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  • 45. 

    A project with negative Net Present Value(NPV) means;

    • A.

      Benefit cost ration is higher that 1

    • B.

      Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots

    • C.

      IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate

    • D.

      Discount rate used is higher that IRR

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Discount rate used is higher that IRR
    Explanation
    A project with a negative Net Present Value (NPV) means that the present value of costs is higher than the present value of benefits. This indicates that the project is not generating enough value to cover its costs and is therefore not financially viable. The discount rate used in calculating the NPV is higher than the Internal Rate of Return (IRR), which means that the project's cash flows are being discounted at a higher rate than the rate of return it is expected to generate. This further reinforces the fact that the project is not economically feasible.

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  • 46. 

    When projecting market demand for a project, which of the followingcombination of techniques is not advisable:

    • A.

      Survey/planning standards

    • B.

      Market testing/time series analysis

    • C.

      Experts’ opinion/census

    • D.

      Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Experts’ opinion/census
    Explanation
    Experts’ opinion/census is not advisable when projecting market demand for a project. This is because experts' opinions can be subjective and may not always accurately reflect the actual market demand. Similarly, relying solely on census data may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the market dynamics and consumer behavior. Therefore, it is recommended to use other techniques such as survey/planning standards, market testing/time series analysis, and statistical demand analysis/time series analysis to get a more accurate projection of market demand.

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  • 47. 

    This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in heproject

    • A.

      Payback Period

    • B.

      Retention Period

    • C.

      Return on Investment

    • D.

      Profit Margin

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Payback Period
    Explanation
    The payback period is a financial metric that indicates the amount of time it would take to recover the initial investment in a project. It is calculated by dividing the initial investment by the annual cash inflows generated by the project. The payback period is useful for assessing the risk and liquidity of an investment, as a shorter payback period indicates a quicker return on investment. Therefore, the given correct answer, "Payback Period," aligns with the explanation provided.

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  • 48. 

    Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of

    • A.

      Uncertainty of risk

    • B.

      Income opportunities now

    • C.

      Better prospects in the future

    • D.

      Present consumption

    • E.

      None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Present consumption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is present consumption. Money is more valuable now than tomorrow because it can be used for immediate needs and desires. By consuming goods and services in the present, individuals can satisfy their current wants and needs. This immediate gratification makes money more valuable in the present rather than in the future, where there may be uncertainty, risks, or better prospects. Therefore, the value of money is higher when it can be used for present consumption.

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  • 49. 

    Millenium Development Goals (2000-2015) except:

    • A.

      Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

    • B.

      Promote gender equality and empower women

    • C.

      Reduce Child mortality

    • D.

      Minimize Government Corruption

    • E.

      Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases

    Correct Answer
    D. Minimize Government Corruption
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Minimize Government Corruption," does not align with the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) set for the period of 2000-2015. The MDGs aimed to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger, promote gender equality and empower women, reduce child mortality, and combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases. While minimizing government corruption is an important goal for sustainable development, it was not specifically included as one of the MDGs during this period.

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  • 50. 

    As per RA7279 of 1992,the acquisition of land at values based on existing use inadvance of actual need to promote planned development and socialized housing programs is called

    • A.

      Land banking

    • B.

      Land assembly or consolidation

    • C.

      Land swapping

    • D.

      Land promotion

    Correct Answer
    A. Land banking
    Explanation
    RA7279 of 1992 Sec.3

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 29, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Rdakis
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