2s071 EOC Review

160 Questions | Total Attempts: 713

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2s071 EOC Review

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)? 
    • A. 

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • B. 

      JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.

    • C. 

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    • D. 

      JFBMM – Materiel Control.

  • 2. 
    (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
    • A. 

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • B. 

      JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.

    • C. 

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    • D. 

      JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.

  • 3. 
    (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)? 
    • A. 

      JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.

    • B. 

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • C. 

      JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.

    • D. 

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

  • 4. 
    (001) What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems?
    • A. 

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • B. 

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    • C. 

      JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • D. 

      JFBMM – Materiel Control.

  • 5. 
    (002) When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM)? 
    • A. 

      August/September.

    • B. 

      July/August.

    • C. 

      June/July.

    • D. 

      May/June.

  • 6. 
    (002) Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?
    • A. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA).

    • B. 

      Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).

    • C. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.

    • D. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R.

  • 7. 
    (003) What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
    • A. 

      Squadron superintendent.

    • B. 

      Vehicle management flight.

    • C. 

      Materiel Management flight.

    • D. 

      Deployment and distribution flight.

  • 8. 
    (003) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
    • A. 

      Fuels Management Flight.

    • B. 

      Vehicle Management Flight.

    • C. 

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • D. 

      Deployment and Distribution Flight.

  • 9. 
    (003) Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron’s recall roster?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.

    • B. 

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • C. 

      Squadron Readiness.

    • D. 

      Logistics Manager.

  • 10. 
    (003) Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.

    • B. 

      Customer Support section.

    • C. 

      Squadron Readiness.

    • D. 

      Logistics Manager.

  • 11. 
    (004) Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).

    • B. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Officer.

    • D. 

      Operations Officer.

  • 12. 
    (004) Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems and report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision?
    • A. 

      Maintenance officer.

    • B. 

      Maintenance personnel.

    • C. 

      Decentralized supply support personnel.

    • D. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).

  • 13. 
    (005) What is the central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?
    • A. 

      Supply Chain Operation (SCO).

    • B. 

      Supply Chain Management (SCM).

    • C. 

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • D. 

      Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).

  • 14. 
    (005) How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) perform? 
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 15. 
    (005) How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)? 
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 16. 
    (006) What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management? 
    • A. 

      36–123, Supply Manual

    • B. 

      23–110, USAF Supply Manual.

    • C. 

      36–2108, Enlisted Classification.

    • D. 

      23–2308, Material Classification.

  • 17. 
    006) How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published? 
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

  • 18. 
    (006) What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23– 110, USAF Supply Manual?
    • A. 

      Table of contents.

    • B. 

      Search Tools.

    • C. 

      Hyperlinks.

    • D. 

      Find Tools.

  • 19. 
    (007) Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data? 
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 20. 
    (008) What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites?
    • A. 

      Global Transportation Network (GTN).

    • B. 

      Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

    • C. 

      Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).

    • D. 

      Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

  • 21. 
    (008) What is the Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
    • A. 

      Global Transportation Network (GTN).

    • B. 

      Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

    • C. 

      Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).

    • D. 

      Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

  • 22. 
    (009) What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors?
    • A. 

      Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).

    • B. 

      Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).

    • C. 

      Requirement/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM).

    • D. 

      Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).

  • 23. 
    (009) What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community? 
    • A. 

      TRACKER.

    • B. 

      Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).

    • C. 

      Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).

    • D. 

      Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).

  • 24. 
    (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 25. 
    (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records? 
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 26. 
    (010) A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected _________?
    • A. 

      Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.

    • B. 

      On an Air Force suggestion form.

    • C. 

      In the next scheduled release.

    • D. 

      As workload permits.

  • 27. 
    (011) How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management functions scheduled? 
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 28. 
    (011) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function? 
    • A. 

      Check in and out with the flight chief.

    • B. 

      Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.

    • C. 

      Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.

    • D. 

      Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.

  • 29. 
    (011) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within ________________.
    • A. 

      15 days after checking in.

    • B. 

      Five days after checking in.

    • C. 

      15 workdays after the exit briefing.

    • D. 

      Five workdays after the exit briefing.

  • 30. 
    (011) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
    • A. 

      7.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 31. 
    (011) Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?
    • A. 

      Procedures element.

    • B. 

      Customer service.

    • C. 

      Computer operations.

    • D. 

      Receiving section.

  • 32. 
    (012) An effective analysis program must be based on  __________.
    • A. 

      Mission requirements.

    • B. 

      Management seminars.

    • C. 

      Organizational objectives.

    • D. 

      The analysis of operating instructions.

  • 33. 
    (012) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis? 
    • A. 

      Trend.

    • B. 

      Problem.

    • C. 

      Important.

    • D. 

      Performance.

  • 34. 
    (013) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is __________.
    • A. 

      Charts.

    • B. 

      Opinions.

    • C. 

      A database.

    • D. 

      Reliable and valid data.

  • 35. 
    (013) You should request “as required” computer products by using the ___________.
    • A. 

      AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.

    • B. 

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1530, Supply Request.

    • D. 

      Telephone or message only.

  • 36. 
    (014) What forms can management indicators take? 
    • A. 

      Subjective and informational.

    • B. 

      Informational and available.

    • C. 

      Quantitative or qualitative.

    • D. 

      Available or subjective.

  • 37. 
    (014) Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of _____________.
    • A. 

      Issue effectiveness.

    • B. 

      Supply support to the customer.

    • C. 

      Supply support to the contractor.

    • D. 

      How often an item was requested.

  • 38. 
    (015) How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property? 
    • A. 

      Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP).

    • B. 

      Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.

    • C. 

      Externally by the accountable officer.

    • D. 

      Externally by the flight chief.

  • 39. 
    (015) What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?
    • A. 

      R01.

    • B. 

      Q07.

    • C. 

      D18.

    • D. 

      D20.

  • 40. 
    (015) Who must approve the use of credit code “Y’ in the materiel management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
    • A. 

      Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.

    • B. 

      Maintenance or supply inspector.

    • C. 

      Division SMAG officer.

    • D. 

      Accounting and finance.

  • 41. 
    (016) Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron/Commander (LRS/CC).

    • B. 

      All Air Force members and employees.

    • C. 

      Management and systems flight.

    • D. 

      Maintenance officer.

  • 42. 
    (016) What can be assessed if it appears that an individual’s actions, or failure to act, constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
    • A. 

      Letter of counseling.

    • B. 

      Financial liability.

    • C. 

      Letter of reprimand.

    • D. 

      Fine.

  • 43. 
    (017) Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept? 
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • B. 

      Stock Control.

    • C. 

      Receiving.

    • D. 

      Inspection.

  • 44. 
    (017) Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account?
    • A. 

      Procedures.

    • B. 

      Stock Control.

    • C. 

      Receiving.

    • D. 

      Inspection.

  • 45. 
    (018) What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
    • A. 

      Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).

    • B. 

      Supply Interface System (SIFS).

    • C. 

      ADRSS II.

    • D. 

      User.

  • 46. 
    (018) Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
    • A. 

      Accountable officer.

    • B. 

      Individual flight chiefs.

    • C. 

      Procedures and accountability.

    • D. 

      Management and system officer.

  • 47. 
    (019) Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed? 
    • A. 

      Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.

    • B. 

      Procedures and Accountability.

    • C. 

      Individual flight chiefs.

    • D. 

      PPCT member.

  • 48. 
    (019) How often is long term performed? 
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 49. 
    (020) Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program? 
    • A. 

      Accountable officer.

    • B. 

      Reject monitors.

    • C. 

      Procedures and Analysis.

    • D. 

      Management and system officer.

  • 50. 
    (020) What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor? 
    • A. 

      D818.

    • B. 

      D04.

    • C. 

      D11.

    • D. 

      D20.

  • 51. 
    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 52. 
    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item? 
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 53. 
    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?
    • A. 

      F.

    • B. 

      G.

    • C. 

      H.

    • D. 

      J.

  • 54. 
    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?
    • A. 

      F.

    • B. 

      G.

    • C. 

      H.

    • D. 

      J.

  • 55. 
    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP? 
    • A. 

      X.

    • B. 

      T.

    • C. 

      R.

    • D. 

      S.

  • 56. 
    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support? 
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 57. 
    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurrence?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      7.

  • 58. 
    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error? 
    • A. 

      0.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      9.

  • 59. 
    (203) What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
    • A. 

      X.

    • B. 

      U.

    • C. 

      R.

    • D. 

      J.

  • 60. 
    (203) What due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a release (due-out release)?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 61. 
    (204) What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items? 
    • A. 

      Q04.

    • B. 

      D19.

    • C. 

      D20.

    • D. 

      D23.

  • 62. 
    (204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used? 
    • A. 

      Q04.

    • B. 

      D19.

    • C. 

      D20

    • D. 

      D23

  • 63. 
    (204) What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) “DFM” input?
    • A. 

      Memo and credit.

    • B. 

      Firm and credit.

    • C. 

      Firm and memo.

    • D. 

      Credit only.

  • 64. 
    (205) When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC) ____________.
    • A. 

      “AB” only.

    • B. 

      “AR” only.

    • C. 

      “AA” or “AB.”

    • D. 

      “AR” or “BR.”

  • 65. 
    (205) When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing?
    • A. 

      “02P.”

    • B. 

      “03P.”

    • C. 

      “AWP.”

    • D. 

      “FWP.”

  • 66. 
    (206) What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for two-level maintenance (2LM) items?
    • A. 

      999.

    • B. 

      777.

    • C. 

      256.

    • D. 

      123

  • 67. 
    (206) What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting? 
    • A. 

      Supply Points.

    • B. 

      Warehouse.

    • C. 

      Storage.

    • D. 

      Vault.

  • 68. 
    (206) Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point? 
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)/Mobility Support.

    • B. 

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • C. 

      LRS/Supply Activity.

    • D. 

      Maintenance officer.

  • 69. 
    (207) What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?
    • A. 

      WRM.

    • B. 

      Mobility.

    • C. 

      Joint use.

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) use.

  • 70. 
    (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?
    • A. 

      B-150.

    • B. 

      B-550i.

    • C. 

      B-550f.

    • D. 

      B-IO.

  • 71. 
    (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B-550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?
    • A. 

      B-150.

    • B. 

      B-550i.

    • C. 

      B-550f.

    • D. 

      B-IO.

  • 72. 
    (208) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set support?
    • A. 

      3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons.

    • B. 

      3,300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons.

    • C. 

      550 personnel/3 fighter squadrons.

    • D. 

      550 personnel/5 fighter squadrons.

  • 73. 
     (209) How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization published?
    • A. 

      Semi-annually.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 74. 
    (209) Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (HQ ACC)/A4.

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC/LGX).

    • C. 

      United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX).

    • D. 

      Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC)/A4.

  • 75. 
    (209) How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares?
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      60 days.

    • C. 

      90 days.

    • D. 

      120 days.

  • 76. 
    (210) Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area?
    • A. 

      War Readiness.

    • B. 

      Accountable officer.

    • C. 

      Materiel Management superintendent.

    • D. 

      Mobility Non Commissioned Officer In Charge (NCOIC).

  • 77. 
    210) What system do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels? 
    • A. 

      Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM).

    • B. 

      Consumable Readiness Spares Packages (CRSP).

    • C. 

      Mobility Readiness Spares Packages (MRSP).

    • D. 

      In-place Readiness Spares Packages (IRSP).

  • 78. 
    (211) Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility? 
    • A. 

      Deployment and Distribution Flight.

    • B. 

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • C. 

      Squadron Readiness.

    • D. 

      War Readiness.

  • 79. 
    (212) Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags? 
    • A. 

      Mobility.

    • B. 

      Readiness.

    • C. 

      War Readiness.

    • D. 

      Security Forces.

  • 80. 
    (212) What personal computer-based program is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?
    • A. 

      COMPES.

    • B. 

      DCAPES.

    • C. 

      WSMIS.

    • D. 

      MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System).

  • 81. 
    (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      IV.

    • D. 

      V.

  • 82. 
    (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized? 
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      IV.

    • D. 

      V.

  • 83. 
    (213) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?
    • A. 

      DOC statement.

    • B. 

      LOGMOD.

    • C. 

      TPFDDL.

    • D. 

      OPORD.

  • 84. 
    (213) For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is identified by a  ___________.
    • A. 

      C-1 Rating.

    • B. 

      C-2 Rating.

    • C. 

      C-3 Rating.

    • D. 

      C-4 Rating.

  • 85. 
    (214) What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?
    • A. 

      ART.

    • B. 

      SORTS.

    • C. 

      PC-ASM.

    • D. 

      WMP-3 Part 2.

  • 86. 
    (214) What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?
    • A. 

      ART.

    • B. 

      SORTS.

    • C. 

      PC-ASM.

    • D. 

      WMP-3 Part 2.

  • 87. 
    (215) What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level flag “E”? 
    • A. 

      Fixed.

    • B. 

      Minimum.

    • C. 

      Maximum.

    • D. 

      Restricted.

  • 88. 
    (216) How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually.

  • 89. 
    (216) Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via ________________.
    • A. 

      An electronic Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Computed Level Transaction (XCC).

    • B. 

      An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).

    • C. 

      Stock Number User Directory (SNUD).

    • D. 

      Message, mail, or phone call.

  • 90. 
    (217) What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders? 
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Directed.

    • C. 

      Automatic.

    • D. 

      Nondirected.

  • 91. 
    (217) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?
    • A. 

      A2x.

    • B. 

      A5J.

    • C. 

      TRM.

    • D. 

      FTR.

  • 92. 
    (217) At least how often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) run to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      Once a month.

    • D. 

      Twice a month.

  • 93. 
    (217) What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation Listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously identified as received by Traffic Management Office (TMO); however, not received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)? 
    • A. 

      Parcel post tracer listing.

    • B. 

      Transportation tracer listing.

    • C. 

      Receipt acknowledged error listing.

    • D. 

      Consolidated shipment error listing.

  • 94. 
    (218) What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)? 
    • A. 

      Excess exception.

    • B. 

      Allowance source.

    • C. 

      Shipment exception.

    • D. 

      Equipment management codes (EMC).

  • 95. 
    (219) Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item requests are identified by what expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD)?
    • A. 

      XD2.

    • B. 

      XB3.

    • C. 

      NF1.

    • D. 

      ND1.

  • 96. 
    (219) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?
    • A. 

      TORC.

    • B. 

      TRAC.

    • C. 

      TACR.

    • D. 

      OLVIMS.

  • 97. 
    (220) Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?
    • A. 

      OO-ALC.

    • B. 

      SA-ALC.

    • C. 

      OC-ALC.

    • D. 

      WR-ALC.

  • 98. 
    (220) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on what type detail?
    • A. 

      249.

    • B. 

      250.

    • C. 

      Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM).

    • D. 

      Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

  • 99. 
    (220) On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed? 
    • A. 

      30 March.

    • B. 

      1 April.

    • C. 

      30 April.

    • D. 

      15 September.

  • 100. 
    (220) What output document reflects the serial numbers for each communication security (COMSEC) transaction?
    • A. 

      D20 report.

    • B. 

      D24 report.

    • C. 

      F114 management notice.

    • D. 

      F117 management notice.

  • 101. 
    (401) How are material deficiency report (MDR)/ product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items readily identified in stock?
    • A. 

      I023 Management Notice

    • B. 

      I003 Management Notice.

    • C. 

      I012 Management Notice.

    • D. 

      I008 Management Notice.

  • 102. 
    (401) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?
    • A. 

      ISU.

    • B. 

      DFM.

    • C. 

      TIN.

    • D. 

      TRM.

  • 103. 
    (402) Who performs normal inspection functions which include certifying work by the receiving inchecker, changing the stock number, unit of issue, and quantity if required?
    • A. 

      Qualified inspectors.

    • B. 

      Inspection section.

    • C. 

      Receiving clerk.

    • D. 

      Storage and issue personnel.

  • 104. 
    (402) What do you do if the original documents are missing or badly mutilated?
    • A. 

      Reproduce the copies.

    • B. 

      Notify the source of supply.

    • C. 

      Fill out a new document based on the information you find from the mutilated documents.

    • D. 

      Initiate a supply discrepancy report.

  • 105. 
    (403) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?
    • A. 

      FCC.

    • B. 

      ISU.

    • C. 

      MSI.

    • D. 

      TIN.

  • 106. 
    (403) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032, Inspection Extension? 
    • A. 

      Update inspection data.

    • B. 

      Identify condemned items.

    • C. 

      Identify property turned over to maintenance.

    • D. 

      Identify property in stock that has been suspended.

  • 107. 
    (404) What list is published by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
    • A. 

      Quality Status List (QSL).

    • B. 

      Priority Requirements Activity List (R01).

    • C. 

      Problem Item List (R29).

    • D. 

      Due Out Validation Listing (M30).

  • 108. 
    (405) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?
    • A. 

      FCD.

    • B. 

      FCH.

    • C. 

      FCK.

    • D. 

      FTR.

  • 109. 
    (405) How often are functional check listings run? 
    • A. 

      Semiannually.

    • B. 

      Annually.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 110. 
    (406) Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?
    • A. 

      Receiving.

    • B. 

      Inspector.

    • C. 

      War readiness.

    • D. 

      Procedures and analysis.

  • 111. 
    (406) Who forwards two copies of each time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the inspection function?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) In-checker.

    • B. 

      TCTO kit monitor.

    • C. 

      LRS Warehouse supervisor.

    • D. 

      Base Maintenance quality control.

  • 112. 
    (406) A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTO flag or by _____________.
    • A. 

      Other assets indicator “5.”

    • B. 

      Other assets indicator “4.”

    • C. 

      Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) “5.”

    • D. 

      NPPC “4.”

  • 113. 
    (407) Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item? 
    • A. 

      FCC with an “F” in position 48.

    • B. 

      FCD with an “F” in position 48.

    • C. 

      FCC with an “S” in position 48.

    • D. 

      FCD with an “S” in position 48.

  • 114. 
    (407) Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use? 
    • A. 

      Repair cycle report (RCS).

    • B. 

      Materiel Management inspector.

    • C. 

      Stock Control.

    • D. 

      Production control.

  • 115. 
    (407) The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least _______________.
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 116. 
    (408) What Department of Defense (DOD) system provides an automated database of specific manufacturer’s materiel safety data sheet (MSDS) information readily available to Air Force personnel?
    • A. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS).

    • B. 

      Materiel Management System.

    • C. 

      Hazardous Materials Information Resource System (HMIRS).

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

  • 117. 
    (408) The document that specifies materiel safety data sheets (MSDS) requirements for government purchases is ____________.
    • A. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110.

    • B. 

      AFMAN 23–210.

    • C. 

      Federal Standard (FED-STD)–313.

    • D. 

      Federal Publication (FED–PUB) 313.

  • 118. 
    (408) Which issue exception (IEX) codes identify health hazard items? 
    • A. 

      “3,” “6,” and “M.”

    • B. 

      “8,” “9,” and “M.”

    • C. 

      “E,” “F,” and “9.”

    • D. 

      “H,” “G,” and “8.”

  • 119. 
    (408) Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL)?
    • A. 

      Maintenance contact point.

    • B. 

      Customer service.

    • C. 

      Item manager.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

  • 120. 
    (409) How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? 
    • A. 

      Issue exception (IEX) code “3.”

    • B. 

      IEX code “4.”

    • C. 

      Type cargo code “3.”

    • D. 

      Type cargo code “4.”

  • 121. 
    (409) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing?
    • A. 

      Issue (ISU), “E.”

    • B. 

      MSI, “E.”

    • C. 

      ISU, “C.”

    • D. 

      MSI, “C.”

  • 122. 
    (410) What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed? 
    • A. 

      Facility design plan.

    • B. 

      Facility layout guide.

    • C. 

      Warehouse design plan.

    • D. 

      Warehouse layout plan.

  • 123. 
    (410) When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the _______________.
    • A. 

      Reference point.

    • B. 

      Authorization point.

    • C. 

      Identification point.

    • D. 

      Implementation point.

  • 124. 
    (410) What item storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great demand in locations are easily accessible with as little handling as possible and slow-moving items in less-convenient locations?
    • A. 

      Quantity.

    • B. 

      Similarity.

    • C. 

      Popularity.

    • D. 

      Size and weight.

  • 125. 
    (410) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what item storage factor?
    • A. 

      Quantity.

    • B. 

      Similarity.

    • C. 

      Popularity.

    • D. 

      Size and weight.

  • 126. 
    (410) Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse? 
    • A. 

      Fire.

    • B. 

      Main.

    • C. 

      Service.

    • D. 

      Working.

  • 127. 
    (410) Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse? 
    • A. 

      Main.

    • B. 

      Service.

    • C. 

      Working.

    • D. 

      Personnel.

  • 128. 
    (411) The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the ______________.
    • A. 

      Gross space available.

    • B. 

      Storage space layout.

    • C. 

      Storage space.

    • D. 

      Storage plan.

  • 129. 
    (411) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called ___________.
    • A. 

      Honeycombing.

    • B. 

      Cross stacking.

    • C. 

      Mezzanine storage.

    • D. 

      Potential vacant space.

  • 130. 
    (412) Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
    • A. 

      First in, last out.

    • B. 

      First in, first out.

    • C. 

      Stock by serial number.

    • D. 

      Stock using national stock number (NSN)

  • 131. 
    (412) In what class of storage vault is Top Secret materiel stored? 
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 132. 
    (412) What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions; and, therefore, are subject to theft?
    • A. 

      Sensitive items.

    • B. 

      Pilferable items.

    • C. 

      Protective items

    • D. 

      Highly desired items.

  • 133. 
    (412) As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 134. 
    (412) What form must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?
    • A. 

      Standard form (SF) 700.

    • B. 

      SF 702.

    • C. 

      SF 703.

    • D. 

      Air Force Form 701.

  • 135. 
    (413) What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?
    • A. 

      Material Storage and Distribution (MS&D) officer.

    • B. 

      Account storage personnel.

    • C. 

      Inventory activity.

    • D. 

      Accountable officer.

  • 136. 
    (413) All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least _____________.
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 137. 
    (414) What freeze code is loaded to the item record of a warehouse refusal? 
    • A. 

      “C.”

    • B. 

      “D.”

    • C. 

      “I.”

    • D. 

      “Q.”

  • 138. 
    (414) All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what materiel management element? 
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Receiving.

    • C. 

      Inventory.

    • D. 

      Equipment.

  • 139. 
    (415) When controlled items, which are not already specified by an issue exception (IEX) code, are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned IEX code ___________.
    • A. 

      “J.”

    • B. 

      “K.”

    • C. 

      “M.”

    • D. 

      “N.”

  • 140. 
    (415) What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items?
    • A. 

      M04.

    • B. 

      R26.

    • C. 

      R31.

    • D. 

      S04.

  • 141. 
    (415) As a minimum, how often must standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 142. 
    (415) When is the S04 run in item number sequence? 
    • A. 

      At least annually.

    • B. 

      After the M04 is processed.

    • C. 

      After each semiannual review.

    • D. 

      After items with deviations are added.

  • 143. 
    (416) What type of inventory is conducted using the closed warehouse method? 
    • A. 

      Complete.

    • B. 

      Special.

    • C. 

      Sample.

    • D. 

      Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

  • 144. 
    (416) Which program assigns freeze code “C” to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
    • A. 

      Supply Point Listing (Q13).

    • B. 

      Sample Inventory Program (R17).

    • C. 

      Inventory Count File Program (R12).

    • D. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

  • 145. 
    (417) Which option is not an objective of inventory research? 
    • A. 

      Account for rejected transactions.

    • B. 

      Correct warehouse location errors.

    • C. 

      Process requisitions when required.

    • D. 

      Reverse-post erroneous transactions.

  • 146. 
    (417) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount (IRC) image contains a recount/research indicator of
    • A. 

      “AC.”

    • B. 

      “AR.”

    • C. 

      “AT.”

    • D. 

      “AZ.”

  • 147. 
    (417) When researching a physical overage, how far back from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?
    • A. 

      18 months.

    • B. 

      12 months.

    • C. 

      6 months.

    • D. 

      3 months.

  • 148. 
    (418) The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is ____________.
    • A. 

      “B.”

    • B. 

      “D.”

    • C. 

      “E.”

    • D. 

      “X.”

  • 149. 
    (418) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 150. 
    (418) What function is responsible for ensuring that certification and approved signatures are on the original copy of the Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)? 
    • A. 

      Inventory.

    • B. 

      Procedures.

    • C. 

      Document Control.

    • D. 

      Records Maintenance.

  • 151. 
    (419) When submitting the query, what icon is selected to retrieve the selected Items Not Received report from the ES-S Asset Management database? 
    • A. 

      Run Query.

    • B. 

      Run Report.

    • C. 

      Asset management database.

    • D. 

      Items not delivered.

  • 152. 
    (419) In the ES-S Asset Management database , to view records in more detail, select a record from the report results list by clicking on ______________.
    • A. 

      Items Not Pulled icon.

    • B. 

      Items Not Put Away icon.

    • C. 

      Hyperlinked asset management ID number.

    • D. 

      Items Not Delivered icon.

  • 153. 
    (420) This is defined as material which requires protection in the interest of national security. 
    • A. 

      Nuclear Weapons Related Materiel (NWRM).

    • B. 

      Classified.

    • C. 

      COMSEC.

    • D. 

      Sensitive

  • 154. 
    (421) Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held under its control to include units maintaining communications security (COMSEC) and equipment in-use assets?
    • A. 

      Storage activity.

    • B. 

      Inspection section.

    • C. 

      Mobility section.

    • D. 

      Equipment element.

  • 155. 
    (421) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) directs Air Force organizations to formally designate in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel?
    • A. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110.

    • B. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI )23–2308.

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Instructions (CJCSI) 3150.04.

    • D. 

      AFI 31–401.

  • 156. 
    (422) How often are code components inventoried as designated in Strategic Command (STRATCOM) guidance?
    • A. 

      At 15, 30 and/or 90 day intervals.

    • B. 

      At 30, 45 and/or 90 day intervals.

    • C. 

      At 15, 30 and/or 120 day intervals.

    • D. 

      At 30, 45 and/or 120 day intervals.

  • 157. 
    (422) What color ink is used to stamp or handwrite the words “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items?
    • A. 

      Blue.

    • B. 

      Red.

    • C. 

      Black.

    • D. 

      Green.

  • 158. 
    (423) How is an overage of a serialized control item processed?
    • A. 

      A. By processing a serialized asset inquiry in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) and/or contact the depot with the actual serial number of the asset.

    • B. 

      B. By processing a serialized asset inquiry in Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) and/or contact the depot with the actual serial number of the asset.

    • C. 

      C. By processing a serialized asset inquiry in AFEMS and/or contacting the contractor.

    • D. 

      D. By processing an overage in the Reparable Item Movement Control System (RIMCS) detail system.

  • 159. 
    (423) What does materiel management activities sign to maintain custody accountability?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907, or carrier furnished signature and tally record.

    • C. 

      DD Form 200.

    • D. 

      Custody Receipt Listing.

  • 160. 
    (423) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the life cycle of these assets?
    • A. 

      Item Manager.

    • B. 

      Inspection.

    • C. 

      Air Force Material Command (AFMC).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).