2s071 EOC Review

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1. (422) What color ink is used to stamp or handwrite the words "Classified Item" on copies of source documents for classified items?
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2s071 EOC Review - Quiz

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2. (016) Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
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3. (020) Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program? 
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4. (206) What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting? 
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5. (412) Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
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6. (003) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
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7. (011) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function? 
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8. (411) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called ___________.
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9. (412) What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions; and, therefore, are subject to theft?
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10. (417) When researching a physical overage, how far back from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?
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11. (003) What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
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12. (010) A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected _________?
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13. (013) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is __________.
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14. (205) When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC) ____________.
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15. (212) What personal computer-based program is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?
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16. (408) Which issue exception (IEX) codes identify health hazard items? 
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17. (410) What item storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great demand in locations are easily accessible with as little handling as possible and slow-moving items in less-convenient locations?
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18. (419) In the ES-S Asset Management database , to view records in more detail, select a record from the report results list by clicking on ______________.
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19. (006) What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23– 110, USAF Supply Manual?
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20. (016) What can be assessed if it appears that an individual's actions, or failure to act, constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
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21. (019) How often is long term performed? 
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22. (410) Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse? 
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23. (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error? 
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24. (204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used? 
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25. (205) When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing?
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26. (408) Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL)?
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27. (412) In what class of storage vault is Top Secret materiel stored? 
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28. (416) What type of inventory is conducted using the closed warehouse method? 
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29. (417) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount (IRC) image contains a recount/research indicator of
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30. (014) What forms can management indicators take? 
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31. (403) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032, Inspection Extension? 
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32. (410) What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed? 
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33. (410) When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the _______________.
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34. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
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35. (006) What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management? 
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36. (018) What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
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37. (206) What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for two-level maintenance (2LM) items?
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38. (406) A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTO flag or by _____________.
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39. (409) How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? 
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40. (012) An effective analysis program must be based on  __________.
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41. (012) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis? 
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42. (204) What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) "DFM" input?
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43. (218) What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)? 
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44. (219) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?
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45. (413) All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least _____________.
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46. (003) Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron's recall roster?
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47. (015) Who must approve the use of credit code "Y' in the materiel management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
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48. (207) What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?
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49. 210) What system do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels? 
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50. (215) What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level flag "E"? 
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51. (217) What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders? 
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52. (217) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?
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53. (220) On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed? 
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54. (403) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?
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55. (405) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?
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56. (005) How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)? 
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57. (015) How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property? 
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58. (203) What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
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59. (220) Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?
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60. (412) As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?
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61. (418) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of how many days?
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62. (420) This is defined as material which requires protection in the interest of national security. 
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63. (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?
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64. (213) For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is identified by a  ___________.
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65. (220) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on what type detail?
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66. (404) What list is published by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
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67. (407) Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item? 
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68. (013) You should request "as required" computer products by using the ___________.
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69. (414) All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what materiel management element? 
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70. (417) Which option is not an objective of inventory research? 
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71. (422) How often are code components inventoried as designated in Strategic Command (STRATCOM) guidance?
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72. (005) How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) perform? 
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73. (009) What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community? 
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74. (208) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set support?
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75. (213) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?
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76. (001) What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems?
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77. (002) When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM)? 
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78. (002) Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?
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79. (011) How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management functions scheduled? 
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80. (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B-550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?
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81. (216) Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via ________________.
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82. (410) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing what item storage factor?
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83. (204) What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items? 
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84. (219) Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item requests are identified by what expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD)?
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85. (402) What do you do if the original documents are missing or badly mutilated?
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86. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)? 
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87. (003) Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers?
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88. (011) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
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89. (214) What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?
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90. (401) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?
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91. (409) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing?
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92. (410) Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse? 
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93. (412) What form must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?
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94. (423) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the life cycle of these assets?
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95. (005) What is the central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?
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96. (206) Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point? 
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97. (220) What output document reflects the serial numbers for each communication security (COMSEC) transaction?
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98. (004) Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems and report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision?
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99. (014) Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of _____________.
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100. (415) What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items?
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101. (415) When is the S04 run in item number sequence? 
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102. (423) How is an overage of a serialized control item processed?
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103. (007) Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data? 
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104. (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized? 
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105. (414) What freeze code is loaded to the item record of a warehouse refusal? 
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106. (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records? 
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107. (011) Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?
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108. (211) Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility? 
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109. (217) What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation Listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously identified as received by Traffic Management Office (TMO); however, not received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)? 
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110. (401) How are material deficiency report (MDR)/ product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items readily identified in stock?
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111. (408) The document that specifies materiel safety data sheets (MSDS) requirements for government purchases is ____________.
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112. (011) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within ________________.
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113. (411) The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the ______________.
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114. (415) When controlled items, which are not already specified by an issue exception (IEX) code, are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned IEX code ___________.
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115. (419) When submitting the query, what icon is selected to retrieve the selected Items Not Received report from the ES-S Asset Management database? 
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116. (004) Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?
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117. (008) What is the Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
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118. (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?
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119. (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP? 
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120. (402) Who performs normal inspection functions which include certifying work by the receiving inchecker, changing the stock number, unit of issue, and quantity if required?
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121. (408) What Department of Defense (DOD) system provides an automated database of specific manufacturer's materiel safety data sheet (MSDS) information readily available to Air Force personnel?
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122. (416) Which program assigns freeze code "C" to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
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123. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)? 
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124. (209) How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares?
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125. (217) At least how often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) run to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria?
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126. (406) Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?
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127. 006) How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published? 
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128. (008) What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites?
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129. (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item? 
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130. (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support? 
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131. (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurrence?
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132. (406) Who forwards two copies of each time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the inspection function?
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133. (423) What does materiel management activities sign to maintain custody accountability?
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134. (421) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) directs Air Force organizations to formally designate in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel?
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135. (019) Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed? 
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136. (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?
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137. (210) Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area?
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138. (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?
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139. (020) What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor? 
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140. (418) The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is ____________.
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141. (017) Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept? 
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142. (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?
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143. (214) What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?
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144. (413) What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?
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145. (421) Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held under its control to include units maintaining communications security (COMSEC) and equipment in-use assets?
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146. (209) Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations?
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147. (009) What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors?
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148. (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
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149. (418) What function is responsible for ensuring that certification and approved signatures are on the original copy of the Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)? 
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150. (203) What due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a release (due-out release)?
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151. (407) The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least _______________.
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152. (415) As a minimum, how often must standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
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153.  (209) How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization published?
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154. (407) Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use? 
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155. (015) What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?
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156. (018) Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
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157. (212) Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags? 
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158. (216) How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?
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159. (405) How often are functional check listings run? 
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160. (017) Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account?
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    Answered ()
(422) What color ink is used to stamp or handwrite the words...
(016) Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of...
(020) Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor...
(206) What are additional warehouses called if they are located within...
(412) Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items...
(003) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary...
(011) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit...
(411) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of...
(412) What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or...
(417) When researching a physical overage, how far back from the...
(003) What flight is responsible for the centralized command and...
(010) A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop...
(013) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is __________.
(205) When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at...
(212) What personal computer-based program is designed to account for...
(408) Which issue exception (IEX) codes identify health hazard...
(410) What item storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great...
(419) In the ES-S Asset Management database , to view records in more...
(006) What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force...
(016) What can be assessed if it appears that an individual's actions,...
(019) How often is long term performed? 
(410) Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the...
(202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request...
(204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what...
(205) When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or...
(408) Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the...
(412) In what class of storage vault is Top Secret materiel...
(416) What type of inventory is conducted using the closed warehouse...
(417) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory...
(014) What forms can management indicators take? 
(403) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032, Inspection...
(410) What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage...
(410) When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the...
(001) What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during...
(006) What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management? 
(018) What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
(206) What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output...
(406) A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in...
(409) How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the...
(012) An effective analysis program must be based...
(012) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of...
(204) What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be...
(218) What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on...
(219) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System...
(413) All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at...
(003) Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)...
(015) Who must approve the use of credit code "Y' in the materiel...
(207) What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized...
210) What system do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness...
(215) What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level...
(217) What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and...
(217) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets...
(220) On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled...
(403) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector...
(405) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load...
(005) How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global...
(015) How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a...
(203) What activity code is used to identify issues processed through...
(220) Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity...
(412) As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination...
(418) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories...
(420) This is defined as material which requires protection in the...
(208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component...
(213) For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is...
(220) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics...
(404) What list is published by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that...
(407) Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to...
(013) You should request "as required" computer products by using...
(414) All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what...
(417) Which option is not an objective of inventory research? 
(422) How often are code components inventoried as designated in...
(005) How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support...
(009) What provides the capability to compute whole engine...
(208) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic...
(213) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer...
(001) What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and...
(002) When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S...
(002) Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days...
(011) How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management...
(208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component...
(216) Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail...
(410) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location...
(204) What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end...
(219) Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item requests...
(402) What do you do if the original documents are missing or badly...
(001) What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when...
(003) Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment...
(011) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a...
(214) What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated...
(401) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load...
(409) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code...
(410) Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage...
(412) What form must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and...
(423) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet...
(005) What is the central, process driven initiative designed to...
(206) Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply...
(220) What output document reflects the serial numbers for each...
(004) Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply...
(014) Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure...
(415) What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers...
(415) When is the S04 run in item number sequence? 
(423) How is an overage of a serialized control item processed?
(007) Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on...
(213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are...
(414) What freeze code is loaded to the item record of a warehouse...
(010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when...
(011) Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics...
(211) Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage...
(217) What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures...
(401) How are material deficiency report (MDR)/ product quality...
(408) The document that specifies materiel safety data sheets (MSDS)...
(011) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a...
(411) The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is...
(415) When controlled items, which are not already specified by an...
(419) When submitting the query, what icon is selected to retrieve the...
(004) Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance...
(008) What is the Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force level command and...
(201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock...
(201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full...
(402) Who performs normal inspection functions which include...
(408) What Department of Defense (DOD) system provides an automated...
(416) Which program assigns freeze code "C" to all item records...
(001) What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support...
(209) How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness...
(217) At least how often is the Military Standard Transportation and...
(406) Which materiel management personnel identify and control all...
006) How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply...
(008) What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that...
(201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision...
(202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item...
(202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates...
(406) Who forwards two copies of each time-compliance technical order...
(423) What does materiel management activities sign to maintain...
(421) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) directs Air Force organizations...
(019) Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction...
(201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring...
(210) Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the...
(213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the...
(020) What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor? 
(418) The type account code for an item to be considered for an...
(017) Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports...
(201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of...
(214) What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system...
(413) What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse...
(421) Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held under its...
(209) Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published...
(009) What is an automated logistics decision support tool which...
(010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when...
(418) What function is responsible for ensuring that certification and...
(203) What due-out status code on the transaction identification code...
(407) The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at...
(415) As a minimum, how often must standard reporting designator (SRD)...
 (209) How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP)...
(407) Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for...
(015) What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG)...
(018) Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface...
(212) Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying,...
(216) How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air...
(405) How often are functional check listings run? 
(017) Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming...
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