Dental Materials Final Review

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Dental Materials Final Review - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The word "obturation" when used in discussion of root canal therapy means:

    • A.

      Accessing the canal

    • B.

      Filling and sealing the canal

    • C.

      Placing the final restoration

    • D.

      Removing the contents of the pulp

    Correct Answer
    B. Filling and sealing the canal
    Explanation
    Obturate refers to the filling and sealing of the root canal once the pulp tissue is removed. Accessing the canal means to create an opening through the tooth to the pulp chamber. This is done with a handpiece and bur.

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  • 2. 

    Which type of composite gives the clinician an advantage when removing orthodontic resins during bonding?

    • A.

      Microfilled

    • B.

      Macrofilled

    • C.

      Hybrid

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Macrofilled
    Explanation
    A macrofilled composite has the advantage in that when fixed appliances are removed at the end of treatment (debonding), it is much eassier to locate residual composite bonding material. Macrofilled composites are rough and turn gray when the composite material is abraded with a metal instrument.

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  • 3. 

    The endodontic surgical procedure that removes 1-3 mm of the root apex is called a/an:

    • A.

      Endodontic treatment

    • B.

      Retrofill

    • C.

      Root resection

    • D.

      Apicoectomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Apicoectomy
    Explanation
    An apicoectomy surgically removes 1-3 mm of the root apex. A retrofill is preparing, filling, and sealing of the apical end of the root. A root resection, another surgical procedure, is the removal of an entire root of a multirooted tooth. Retreatment is root canal therapy performed a second time.

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  • 4. 

    What is used to disinfect the canal system by killing bacteria and dissolving pulpal tissue?

    • A.

      Endodontic sealers

    • B.

      Paper points

    • C.

      Irrigants

    • D.

      Gutta-percha

    Correct Answer
    C. Irrigants
    Explanation
    irrigants are aqueous solutions used to disinfect the canal system. Common irrigants are sodium hypochlorite, saline, and chlorohexidine gluconate. Paper points are used to dry the root canal. Sealers are a type of cement used to coat the canal and to fill in voids between the canal wall and gutta-percha. Gutta-percha is a polymeric material with zinc oxide and barium sulfate added.

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  • 5. 

    Which orthodontic device prevents "relapse" of the teeth?

    • A.

      Archwire

    • B.

      Ligature

    • C.

      Bracket

    • D.

      Retainer

    Correct Answer
    D. Retainer
    Explanation
    A retainer is a fixed (bonded) or removable appliance to prevent relapse after active orthodontic treatement is completed. A bracket is a small metal, ceramic, or polymer material that has a centered, horizontal slot. the archwire fits into the slot of each bracket, usually across the entire arch. A ligature, either wire or elastic, secures the archwire into the bracket slot.

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  • 6. 

    The debonding procedure is done after orthodontic treatment is completed. The dental material removed from tooth surfaces is:

    • A.

      Composite resin

    • B.

      Cold cure resin

    • C.

      Dental cement

    • D.

      Ligature material

    Correct Answer
    A. Composite resin
    Explanation
    Brackets are secured to the tooth surface by acid etching and coposite resin. Dental cements may be used to secure bands to the tooth (molars). Chemically activated resins are used to make custom trays and denture fabrication and repairs. Ligatures secure the archwire into the bracket slot.

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  • 7. 

    The most commonly used technique to fill a root canal with gutta-percha is termed:

    • A.

      Direct compression

    • B.

      Lateral compression

    • C.

      Direct condensation

    • D.

      Lateral condensation

    Correct Answer
    D. Lateral condensation
    Explanation
    Lateral condensation is used to fill the root canal with gutta-percha. Condensation is a term used in dentistry to describe the method of compressing and filling a small area in a tooth, such as a preparation or root canal. Of all the answers, this one is most appropriate.

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  • 8. 

    A pulpotomy usually serves as a _________ procedure on permanent molars.

    • A.

      Temporary

    • B.

      Permanent

    • C.

      Either temporary or permanent

    • D.

      Neither temporary or permanent

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary
    Explanation
    For permanent molars, a pulpotomy is a temporary procedure and is followed by root canal therapy. For primary molars, it is a permanent procedure and is restored with a stainless-steel crown. This will maintain space and function until the permanent molar takes its place.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following materials used in orthodontic treatment serves to secure the arch wire on the facial surfaces of a tooth?

    • A.

      Band

    • B.

      Bracket

    • C.

      Composite resin

    • D.

      Retainer

    Correct Answer
    B. Bracket
    Explanation
    Orthodontic brackets are bonded onto the facial surfaces and hold an arch wire in place on each tooth in the arch. The brackets transfer the forces of the wire, springs, and elastics to the teeth. Bands encircle the crown, and are used on molars because they require more force to move compared to other teeth. Retainers are used to prevent relapse after treatment. Composite resin is used to attach the bracket to the tooth surface.

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  • 10. 

    Surgical silk surture is:

    • A.

      Another name for surgical gut suture

    • B.

      Absorbable and removed at a later appointment

    • C.

      Nonabsorbable and removed at a later appoinment

    • D.

      Absorbable and exists both inside and outside the body while in place

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonabsorbable and removed at a later appoinment
    Explanation
    surgical silk suture is nonabsorbable and must be removed at a later appointment. Absorbable sutures are usually placed on the inside of the body, and since the body resorbs them, a later appointment for removal is not necessary. Surgical gut suture is one type of absorbable suture.

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  • 11. 

    The type of implant that involves cutting a hole into the alveolar bone and then pressing or screwing in the implant is called:

    • A.

      Subperiosteal

    • B.

      Staple

    • C.

      Transosseous

    • D.

      Endosseous

    Correct Answer
    D. Endosseous
    Explanation
    endosseous or tooth form implants are screwed or pressed into a cut hole in the bone. Transosseous or staple implants include a plate and bolts that go through the mandible in the anterior region. Subperiosteal implants involve two surgeries, an impression, cast, and a metal framework.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following takes place during the second endosseous implant surgery?

    • A.

      An impression is taken for crown fabrication

    • B.

      An abutment is attached to the body of the implant

    • C.

      A healing cap is attached to the body of the implant

    • D.

      The amount of osseointegration is measured

    Correct Answer
    C. A healing cap is attached to the body of the implant
    Explanation
    A healing cap is placed on the implant during the second surgery. It extends out of the mucosa into the oral cavity. Once this heals and epithelial tissues are formed, the healing cap is removed, and an abutment is placed. Impressions may be necessary before treatment is completed, but they are not taken during the second surgery. Osseointegration is not measured during either surgery.

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  • 13. 

    To ensure longevity and function of the implant, the patient is responsible for:

    • A.

      Eventual payment in full of all implant procedures

    • B.

      Plaque control

    • C.

      Application of tray delivered fluoride

    • D.

      Proper occlusion

    Correct Answer
    B. Plaque control
    Explanation
    The patient must maintain excellent plaque control and practice frequent and effective oral hygiene to ensure longevity of the implant. The dentist would adjust and monitor the occlusion of the implant with the opposing teeth. Fluoride applications at home are not typical for maintenance of implants.

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  • 14. 

    The surgical procedure for placing implants must not injure the bone. Overheating the bone prevents osseointegration of the implant. Recommended temperatures are not to exceed:

    • A.

      98.6 degrees F

    • B.

      47 degrees F

    • C.

      117 degrees C

    • D.

      117 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    D. 117 degrees F
    Explanation
    The temperature of the bone must not be greater than 117 degrees F or 47 degrees C when the surgical handpiece is being used. The bone can be heated a little past body temperature (98.6 F). The temperature of 117 degrees C is equivalent to 243 degrees F and would definitely damage the bone tissue

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  • 15. 

    All of the following conditions are contraindications for implant placement except:

    • A.

      Recurrent caries

    • B.

      Poor oral hygiene

    • C.

      Diabetes

    • D.

      Smoking

    Correct Answer
    A. Recurrent caries
    Explanation
    Patients with systemic diseases, such as diabetes, are contraindicated for dental implants. Smokers and patients practicing poor oral hygiene are also poor candidates for implants. Recurrent caries are not associated with contraindications for dental implants.

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  • 16. 

    Titanium is very difficult to cast. It is not very strong but is acceptable for implant uses.

    • A.

      The first statement is true, the second statement is false.

    • B.

      The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

    • C.

      Both statements are true

    • D.

      Both statements are false

    Correct Answer
    C. Both statements are true
    Explanation
    It is true that titanium is very difficult to cast and does not have high strength compared to other metals. The strength of titanium is adequate for implants. However, it will osseointegrate to bone.

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  • 17. 

    A patient who has a very small, or essentially no mandibular ridge, is said to have a (an):

    • A.

      Atrophic dentulous mandible

    • B.

      Atrophic edentulous mandible

    • C.

      Iatrogenic edentulous mandible

    • D.

      Dysfunctional edentulous mandible

    Correct Answer
    B. Atrophic edentulous mandible
    Explanation
    An alveolar ridge having no teeth is said to be edentulous. In most cases, when the mandibular arch atrophies, it becomes smaller in size due to aging. An atrophic edentulous mandible is one that has no teeth, is very "low" and small, and would be adequate to support a denture. The word "iatrogenic" means "caused by a professional by accident" and the word "dentulous" means "with, or having teeth"

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  • 18. 

    The patient's home care regimen of implant maintenance may consist only of a toothbrush and floss. Without proper maintenance, the possibility of implant failure greatly increases.

    • A.

      The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

    • B.

      The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

    • C.

      Both statements are true

    • D.

      Both statements are false

    Correct Answer
    C. Both statements are true
    Explanation
    The first statement is true because the patient's home care regimen for implant maintenance can indeed consist only of a toothbrush and floss. This is a common and effective method for maintaining oral hygiene around implants. The second statement is also true because without proper maintenance, the possibility of implant failure does increase. Regular and proper care, including brushing and flossing, is necessary to prevent complications and ensure the long-term success of dental implants.

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  • 19. 

    The prosthodontic phase of implant treatment involves the placement of several "parts" or attachments. A patient who has completed the surgeries and restorative care would receive, in order:

    • A.

      Cylinder, implant, abutment, crown

    • B.

      Implant, cylinder, abutment, crown

    • C.

      Cylinder, implant, crown, abutment

    • D.

      Implant, abutment, cylinder, crown

    Correct Answer
    D. Implant, abutment, cylinder, crown
    Explanation
    In the first surgery, an implant is placed. In the next surgery, a healing cap is placed, which is exposed to the oral cavity. Later, the healing cap is removed and an abutment is placed on the implant. It acts as an abutment of a bridge and supports the prosthesis. A cylinder is then placed on the abutment, and then a crown is placed on the cylinder.

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  • 20. 

    All of the following should be included in the post-care maintenance of a patient with an implant except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

    • A.

      Necessary chairside, home-care instruction

    • B.

      Recommended auxiliary aids

    • C.

      Selecting the restorative material for an adjustment restoration.

    • D.

      Specific length of time between recall visits

    Correct Answer
    C. Selecting the restorative material for an adjustment restoration.
    Explanation
    The scope of practice of the dental hygienist does not include selecting restorative materials for tooth restoration. However, a very important role of the hygienist is patient education, determining the time between dental hygiene visits, and selecting the best auxiliary aids for the patient to achieve optimal plaque removal.

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  • 21. 

    Which kind of implant is used to stabilize a mandibular denture? It consists of a plate and several bolts that transverse the mandible in the anterior region. An extraoral incision under the chin is required to place this type of implant.

    • A.

      Endosseous

    • B.

      Transosseous

    • C.

      Subperiosteal

    • D.

      Staple

    • E.

      Both b and d

    Correct Answer
    E. Both b and d
    Explanation
    The correct answer is both b and d. Both the transosseous and staple implants can be used to stabilize a mandibular denture. The transosseous implant consists of a plate and several bolts that transverse the mandible in the anterior region. An extraoral incision under the chin is required to place this type of implant. Similarly, the staple implant also involves the use of a plate and bolts to stabilize the denture, and it is placed through the mandible. Therefore, both options b and d are correct.

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  • 22. 

    This type of implant is placed on the mandibular bone below the periosteum and involve two surgical procedures.

    • A.

      Endosseous

    • B.

      Transosseous

    • C.

      Subperiosteal

    • D.

      Staple

    Correct Answer
    C. Subperiosteal
    Explanation
    A subperiosteal implant is placed on the mandibular bone below the periosteum, which is the outer layer of the bone. This type of implant involves two surgical procedures, suggesting that it is a more complex and involved process compared to the other options. Endosseous implants are placed directly into the bone, transosseous implants go through the bone, and staples are not typically used for dental implants. Therefore, the correct answer is subperiosteal.

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  • 23. 

    Polycarboxylate cement adheres to which of the following?

    • A.

      Dentin

    • B.

      Enamel

    • C.

      Metal

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Polycarboxylate cement is a dental adhesive material that is known for its excellent adhesion properties. It is capable of adhering to various surfaces in the oral cavity, including dentin, enamel, and metal. This makes it a versatile option for dental restorations, as it can be used to bond restorative materials to different tooth structures and metal frameworks. Its ability to adhere to all of these surfaces makes it a preferred choice for dental professionals in various clinical situations.

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  • 24. 

    If a mold that is created for investing and casting does not _________ to compensate for the action of the metal alloy, the casting will not fit.

    • A.

      Contract

    • B.

      Equate

    • C.

      Expand

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Expand
    Explanation
    The gypsum investment material that comprises the mold must be expanded to compensate exactly for the shrinkage of the metal casting. Otherwise, the cast restoration will not fit the preparation of the patient's tooth.

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  • 25. 

    The most obvious purpose of the investment is to:

    • A.

      Enlarge the mold by hygroscopic expansion

    • B.

      Enlarge the mold by thermal expansion

    • C.

      Form the mold for the casting

    • D.

      Provide compensation for contraction

    Correct Answer
    C. Form the mold for the casting
    Explanation
    The mold (investment) must expand and provide compensation for the metal contraction during casting. The main, obvious purpose of the investment, however, is to create a mold from the wax pattern in the casting process.

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  • 26. 

    Porcelain is "best suited" for which of the following?

    • A.

      Full coverage posterior crowns

    • B.

      MODFL onlays

    • C.

      Veneers on anterior teeth

    • D.

      MOD inlays

    Correct Answer
    C. Veneers on anterior teeth
    Explanation
    Porcelain has outstanding esthetic properties, such as translucency and life-like appearance. It is very brittle, however, and may fracture when subjected to high occlusal forces. It is recommended for veneers and low-stress crowns for anterior teeth, such as maxillary lateral incisors.

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  • 27. 

    The crown portion of a dental bridge is called the:

    • A.

      Pontic

    • B.

      Retainer

    • C.

      Abutment

    • D.

      Fixed partial denture

    Correct Answer
    B. Retainer
    Explanation
    The "crown" portion of a dental bridge is called a retainer. Joined to the retainers are the artificial replacement teeth called pontics. The prepared teeth onto which the bridge is cemented are called abutments.

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  • 28. 

    During the casting procedure, a wax pattern is heated, and the wax melts and flows out of the mold. As the temperature continues to rise, any residual wax is burned away. This heating procedure is called:

    • A.

      Shrinkage compensation

    • B.

      Investing

    • C.

      Burnout

    • D.

      Crucible heating

    Correct Answer
    C. Burnout
    Explanation
    Inlay wax is used for casting procedures. It leaves no residue in the burnout process and has a higher melting temperature. It is also harder than other dental waxes. Sticky wax is also a hard wax that melts at a higher temperature, but this wax is used as an "attachment medium" such as attaching a sprue to a pattern. Boxing wax is used to pour impressions, and baseplate wax is used in the fabrication of dentures.

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  • 29. 

    A 33% gold alloy may also be expressed as:

    • A.

      10 carat

    • B.

      16 carat

    • C.

      333 fine

    • D.

      33 fine

    Correct Answer
    C. 333 fine
    Explanation
    33% of 1,000 parts is 333. Fineness is described in parts per 1,000, hence 33% gold alloy would be expressed as 333 fine or 8 carat. A 50% gold alloy would be 500 fine or 12 carat.

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  • 30. 

    The term used to define the process of firing porcelain powder to become a solid is:

    • A.

      Liquidating

    • B.

      Sintering

    • C.

      Burning

    • D.

      Investing

    Correct Answer
    B. Sintering
    Explanation
    Changing a porcelain powder to a solid is called sintering. The powder is not melted, so the shape of the restoration is maintained. Burnishing involves pushing the metal toward the tooth to close gaps between the casting and the tooth. Investing is covering a wax pattern mounted in a casting ring with mixed gypsum product (investment)

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  • 31. 

    One type of an all-ceramic restoration is castable glass. All-ceramic restorations are superior to ceramometal restorations in all respects.

    • A.

      The first statement is true, the second statement is false.

    • B.

      The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

    • C.

      Both statements are true

    • D.

      Both statements are false

    Correct Answer
    A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
    Explanation
    It is true that castable glass is one type of all-ceramic restoration. All-ceramic restorations are not superior to ceramometal materials in the aspect of strength, however, and that makes the second statement false.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is considered to be a fixed indirect restoration?

    • A.

      Amalgam

    • B.

      Direct gold (gold foil)

    • C.

      Onlay

    • D.

      Composite

    Correct Answer
    C. Onlay
    Explanation
    Amalgam, gold foil, and composite restorations are direct restorations, which means that they are constructed directly in the oral cavity. It usually involves placing the restorative material "directly" into the cavity preparation. Other restorations, such as inlays, onlays, crowns, and bridges are constructed outside of the oral cavity, in a dental laboratory. hence, they are referred to as "indirect" restorations. The term "fixed" is used to designate that it is not removable because it is cemented, or luting, in place. A fixed restoration is not removable by the patient.

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  • 33. 

    A restorative material that is placed on the facial surface of anterior teeth to "cover" or hide an esthetic problem is called a:

    • A.

      Coping

    • B.

      Veneer

    • C.

      Buildup (core)

    • D.

      Pontic

    Correct Answer
    B. Veneer
    Explanation
    A veneer is a thin layer of material that covers another material. In dentistry, it is a restoration that is placed on the facial surface of anterior teeth to cover, or "veneer" esthetic problems. A buildup (core) is when the crown of a tooth is broken down to the point of needing to be "rebuilt" to hold the final restoration. A coping is the metal substructure that supports the porcelain layers in a ceramometal restoration. A pontic is a replacement tooth.

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  • 34. 

    Another name for a provisional restoration is a __________ restoration.

    • A.

      Conditional

    • B.

      Non-permanent

    • C.

      Buildup

    • D.

      Temporary

    Correct Answer
    D. Temporary
    Explanation
    A provisional crown is the appropriate, professional name (especially used by prosthodontists) for a temporary crown.

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  • 35. 

    Silver is classified as a ___________ metal.

    • A.

      Non-precious

    • B.

      High-noble

    • C.

      Precious

    • D.

      Noble

    Correct Answer
    C. Precious
    Explanation
    precious metals include the noble metals and silver. The noble metals are gold, platinum, and palladium. Non-precious metals are those that do not contain any noble elements. High-noble metals contain 60% or more gold and other noble elements.

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  • 36. 

    An advantage of bonding porcelain to metal is:

    • A.

      A precise fit of the metal

    • B.

      The resulting opacity

    • C.

      The resulting translucency

    • D.

      Ease in plaque removal

    Correct Answer
    A. A precise fit of the metal
    Explanation
    Bonding porcelain to metal in a ceramometal restoration provides a precise fit to the prepared tooth structure. The disadvantage is the opacity, because of the metal. There is no difference between all ceramic or ceramometal crown in the pateints ability to remove plaque.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following cements are available in a single-dose capsule, much like that of silver amalgam filling material?

    • A.

      Polycaboxylate

    • B.

      Silicate

    • C.

      ZOE

    • D.

      Glass ionomer

    • E.

      Zinc phosphate

    Correct Answer
    D. Glass ionomer
    Explanation
    Glass ionomer cement is available in a single-dose capsule, similar to silver amalgam filling material. This type of cement is commonly used in dentistry for restorative procedures. It is a versatile material that bonds well to tooth structure and releases fluoride, which helps prevent tooth decay. The single-dose capsule packaging allows for convenient and precise mixing of the cement, making it easier for dental professionals to use during procedures.

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  • 38. 

    Two dental cements that are used for caries control are:

    • A.

      ZOE and zinc phosphate

    • B.

      ZOE and polycarboxylate

    • C.

      Zinc phosphate and glass ionomer

    • D.

      Glass ionomer and polycarboxylate

    • E.

      Glass ionomer and ZOE

    Correct Answer
    E. Glass ionomer and ZOE
    Explanation
    Glass ionomer and ZOE (Zinc Oxide Eugenol) are dental cements that are commonly used for caries control. Glass ionomer cements are tooth-colored and have good adhesion to both enamel and dentin. They release fluoride ions, which help in remineralizing the tooth structure and preventing further decay. ZOE cement contains zinc oxide and eugenol, which have antibacterial properties and can provide temporary relief from tooth sensitivity. Using a combination of glass ionomer and ZOE cement can provide both long-term caries control and temporary relief from symptoms.

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  • 39. 

    All of the following are true for ZOE EXCEPT:

    • A.

      It releases fluoride

    • B.

      It lacks strength

    • C.

      It is an obtundent material

    • D.

      It protects the pulp

    Correct Answer
    A. It releases fluoride
    Explanation
    ZOE (Zinc Oxide Eugenol) is a dental material commonly used for temporary fillings and cementing crowns. It is known for its obtundent properties, which means it helps to soothe and calm the dental pulp. Additionally, it provides a temporary protective barrier for the pulp. However, one property that does not apply to ZOE is that it releases fluoride. Unlike some other dental materials, ZOE does not have the ability to release fluoride ions, which are beneficial for preventing tooth decay.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following cements is most soluble?

    • A.

      Glass ionomer

    • B.

      Zinc phosphate

    • C.

      ZOE

    • D.

      Polycarboxylate

    Correct Answer
    C. ZOE
    Explanation
    ZOE (Zinc Oxide Eugenol) cement is the most soluble among the given options. This cement is commonly used in dentistry for temporary restorations and cementation of crowns. It has a high solubility due to the presence of eugenol, which is a liquid component that can dissolve easily in oral fluids. The solubility of ZOE cement allows for easy removal when necessary, but it also means that it may degrade or dissolve over time, requiring potential replacement.

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  • 41. 

    When glass ionomer is mixed too slowly, the resulting mix is:

    • A.

      Thin

    • B.

      Thick

    • C.

      Lumpy

    • D.

      Granular

    Correct Answer
    B. Thick
    Explanation
    When glass ionomer is mixed too slowly, the resulting mix becomes thick. This is because glass ionomer is a self-curing material, meaning it sets and hardens on its own without the need for additional curing agents or external factors. Mixing it slowly prevents the proper incorporation of the powder and liquid components, leading to a thicker consistency. A slow mixing process does not allow for the proper dispersion and hydration of the glass particles, resulting in a thicker and less workable mixture.

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  • 42. 

    Cements are _______ soluble than the overlying restoration.

    • A.

      More

    • B.

      Less

    • C.

      Equally

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. More
    Explanation
    Cements are more soluble than the overlying restoration. This means that cements have a higher tendency to dissolve or break down compared to the restoration material that is placed on top of it. This could be due to differences in composition or chemical properties between the two materials. As a result, cements may require more maintenance or replacement over time compared to the restoration material.

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  • 43. 

    During mixing, which of the following cements should use as much of the area on the slab as possible to reduce the exothermic reaction?

    • A.

      Polycarboxylate

    • B.

      Glass ionomer

    • C.

      ZOE

    • D.

      Zinc phosphate

    Correct Answer
    D. Zinc phosphate
    Explanation
    Zinc phosphate cement should be used as much as possible on the slab during mixing to reduce the exothermic reaction. This is because zinc phosphate cement has a high exothermic reaction, meaning it generates a significant amount of heat during the setting process. By using as much of the area on the slab as possible, the heat generated by the cement can be spread out and dissipated more effectively, reducing the risk of thermal damage to the surrounding tissues.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following dental materials promotes the formation of secondary dentin?

    • A.

      Composite cements

    • B.

      Silicate cement

    • C.

      Calcium hydroxide

    • D.

      Temporary cements

    Correct Answer
    C. Calcium hydroxide
    Explanation
    Calcium hydroxide promotes the formation of secondary dentin. Secondary dentin is a protective layer of dentin that forms in response to dental trauma or irritation. Calcium hydroxide stimulates the pulp cells to produce secondary dentin, helping to repair and protect the tooth. Composite cements, silicate cement, and temporary cements do not have the same effect on promoting the formation of secondary dentin.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is a common additive to glass powder, reduces melting temperature, and improves the flow of molten glass?

    • A.

      Quartz

    • B.

      Fluoride

    • C.

      Silicate

    • D.

      Oxides

    Correct Answer
    B. Fluoride
    Explanation
    Fluoride is a common additive to glass powder because it reduces the melting temperature and improves the flow of molten glass. When added to glass, fluoride lowers the melting point, making it easier to work with and shape. It also improves the flow of molten glass, allowing it to spread more evenly and smoothly. This makes fluoride a valuable additive in the glass-making process.

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  • 46. 

    The cement of choice for luting ceramic restorations to tooth structure is:

    • A.

      ZOE

    • B.

      Zinc phosphate

    • C.

      Polycarboxylate

    • D.

      Composite

    Correct Answer
    D. Composite
    Explanation
    Composite is the cement of choice for luting ceramic restorations to tooth structure because it offers several advantages. Composite cements provide excellent esthetics, as they can be matched to the color of the tooth. They also have good strength and bonding properties, ensuring a durable and long-lasting restoration. Additionally, composite cements are versatile and can be used for a variety of restorative materials, including ceramics.

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  • 47. 

    The disadvantage, or drawback, of using polycarboxylate cement is:

    • A.

      Lack of strength

    • B.

      Ability to bond to tooth structure

    • C.

      Biocompatibility

    • D.

      Lack of sufficient clinical data for long term use

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of strength
    Explanation
    The disadvantage of using polycarboxylate cement is its lack of strength. This means that the cement may not be able to withstand high forces or pressure, making it less durable compared to other dental materials. This weakness can potentially lead to premature failure or damage to the restoration, requiring additional repairs or replacements.

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  • 48. 

    ZOE may be used for the following:

    • A.

      Temporary restorations

    • B.

      Intermediate bases

    • C.

      Permanent restorations

    • D.

      Luting temporary crowns

    • E.

      Luting permanent crowns

    • F.

      A, b, and c

    • G.

      A, b and d

    • H.

      A and d only

    Correct Answer
    G. A, b and d
    Explanation
    ZOE, or Zinc Oxide Eugenol, can be used for temporary restorations, intermediate bases, and luting permanent crowns. It is commonly used in dentistry for its sedative and antibacterial properties. It provides temporary relief and protection for the tooth, acts as a base for restorations, and can be used to cement permanent crowns. Therefore, options a, b, and d are correct.

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  • 49. 

    The term used when the denture teeth are set in wax is:

    • A.

      Denture arrangement

    • B.

      Denture set up

    • C.

      Articulated set up

    • D.

      Articulated arrangement

    Correct Answer
    B. Denture set up
    Explanation
    "Denture set up" refers to the process of setting the denture teeth in wax. This involves arranging the artificial teeth in the desired position and alignment within the wax base of the denture. This step is crucial in creating a properly fitting and functional denture before it is finalized and fabricated.

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  • 50. 

    To repair a broken denture, a thin layer is ground off. Next, a monomer is applied to the surfaces so that:

    • A.

      Some of the set material is dissolved

    • B.

      The setting reaction of the repair is accelerated

    • C.

      The finishing and polishing of the repair is made easier

    • D.

      The color of resin powder does not change

    Correct Answer
    A. Some of the set material is dissolved
    Explanation
    When repairing a broken denture, a thin layer is ground off to create a smooth surface for the repair. Applying a monomer to the surfaces helps in dissolving some of the set material. This is beneficial because it allows the repair material to bond effectively with the existing denture, ensuring a strong and durable repair. Additionally, dissolving some of the set material helps in accelerating the setting reaction of the repair, reducing the overall repair time. It also makes the finishing and polishing of the repair easier, resulting in a seamless and aesthetically pleasing outcome. Lastly, by dissolving some of the set material, the color of the resin powder used for the repair remains unchanged, maintaining a consistent appearance.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 21, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Kellym10152011
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