2f051 CDC 100 Ure

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1. (214) Bases that experience cold weather problems should conduct cloud point analysis on all diesel fuel (DF–2) received from

Explanation

Bases that experience cold weather problems should conduct cloud point analysis on all diesel fuel (DF-2) received from October through March. This is because cold weather can cause the cloud point of diesel fuel to increase, which can lead to filter plugging and other issues in the fuel system. By conducting cloud point analysis during this period, bases can ensure that the diesel fuel they receive is suitable for use in cold weather conditions.

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2f051 CDC 100 Ure - Quiz

100 Random questions from all 5 CDC Volumes

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2. (819) How often should you inspect the tires on an R–19 filter separator unit for proper inflation pressure?

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because regular inspection of the tires on an R-19 filter separator unit is necessary to ensure proper inflation pressure. Monthly inspections allow for timely identification of any changes or issues with the tire pressure, which can affect the performance and efficiency of the unit. Regular inspections also help in preventing potential tire damage or failures, ensuring the safe operation of the equipment.

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3. (215) Equipment on quality control (QC) hold will not be used for servicing

Explanation

The correct answer is "until laboratory personnel have completed required samples with satisfactory results." This means that equipment on quality control hold will only be used for servicing once the laboratory personnel have finished the necessary samples and the results are deemed satisfactory. This ensures that the equipment meets the necessary quality standards before being used for servicing.

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4. (216) When making a telephone purchase, Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should inform vendors to include all of the following information on a shipping document except

Explanation

When making a telephone purchase, Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should inform vendors to include the cardholder’s name, cardholder’s telephone number, and the term “Government-wide Purchase Card” on a shipping document. However, the GPC account number should not be included on the shipping document.

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5. (402) Which component records all transaction data for a service station issue?

Explanation

The Master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) is the component that records all transaction data for a service station issue. This means that when a transaction occurs at the service station, such as fueling or maintenance, the MVIR is responsible for capturing and storing the relevant information. The other options mentioned, such as the Pedestal, Vehicle identification link (VIL), and Satellite vehicle identification reader (SVIR), are not specifically designed for recording transaction data at a service station.

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6. (403) What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system’s receiving strainer basket?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60. In a type III hydrant system, the receiving strainer basket uses a 60 size mesh screen. The mesh screen is used to filter out debris and prevent it from entering the hydrant system. A 60 size mesh screen means that there are 60 openings per linear inch. This size of mesh screen is effective in filtering out larger particles while allowing water to flow through smoothly.

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7. (403) On the type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump #2 were selected as the lead pump?

Explanation

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8. (403) On the type III hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem. At least how many days in advance can the battery become weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3. On the type III hydrant system, the LED in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem when the battery becomes weak. This suggests that the battery can become weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory within 3 days.

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9. (406) Which type III hydrant system valve opens to relieve thermal expansion?

Explanation

The pressure control valve in a type III hydrant system opens to relieve thermal expansion. When the temperature of the fluid inside the system increases, it causes the fluid to expand, which can lead to an increase in pressure. The pressure control valve is designed to open when the pressure exceeds a certain threshold, allowing the excess pressure to be released and preventing damage to the system. This helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the hydrant system during thermal expansion.

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10. (406) During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the “hot pad?”

Explanation

During type IV hydrant system operations, the hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad." The hot refueling supervisor oversees the entire hot refueling process, ensuring that it is conducted safely and efficiently. They coordinate with the hot refueling crewman and other personnel involved in the operation to ensure that the aircraft is positioned correctly on the hot pad, allowing for the safe and effective refueling of the aircraft.

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11. (406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

Explanation

Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations. This means that the disposal of these mixtures should comply with the guidelines and regulations set by the local, state, and federal authorities. These laws and regulations are in place to ensure that the disposal is done in an environmentally responsible manner, minimizing any potential harm to the environment. It is important to follow these guidelines to protect the environment and maintain compliance with the law.

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12. (408) When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report?

Explanation

The Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent should review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report on a monthly basis. This regular review allows them to stay updated on any discrepancies or issues with the fuel system and take appropriate actions to address them. A monthly review ensures that any potential problems are identified and resolved in a timely manner, maintaining the safety and efficiency of the fuel system operations.

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13. (409) When manually gauging a storage tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied to the steel tape?

Explanation

Fuel-finding paste should be applied 3 inches above and below the estimated product depth on the steel tape when manually gauging a storage tank. This ensures that the paste covers a sufficient range to accurately determine the level of fuel in the tank. Applying the paste too close to the estimated depth may result in an inaccurate reading.

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14. (411) How often should active storage fuel tanks be inventoried?

Explanation

Active storage fuel tanks should be inventoried daily to ensure that the fuel levels are accurately monitored and any discrepancies or leaks can be promptly detected and addressed. Daily inventory allows for timely maintenance and prevents potential risks associated with fuel storage, such as fuel shortages or environmental hazards. Regular monitoring also helps in maintaining an efficient fuel management system and ensures that an adequate supply of fuel is available for operations. Therefore, daily inventory is crucial for the safe and effective management of active storage fuel tanks.

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15. (413) Pressure gauges on liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) cryotainer containers are calibrated

Explanation

The pressure gauges on liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) cryotainer containers are calibrated annually. This means that the calibration process, which ensures the accuracy of the gauges, is performed once every year. Calibrating the gauges on a yearly basis is sufficient to maintain their accuracy and ensure that they provide reliable pressure readings. Performing the calibration more frequently, such as monthly or quarterly, may not be necessary and could be a waste of resources.

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16. (416) How many days should you wait to purge liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks?

Explanation

Liquid oxygen (LOX) is highly reactive and can cause explosions if it comes into contact with flammable materials. Therefore, it is necessary to wait for a significant amount of time to ensure that all the LOX has evaporated before purging the storage tanks. The longest option provided, 365 days, ensures a sufficient waiting period to completely purge the tanks of any remaining LOX.

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17. (417) For how many weeks is the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, Aviator Breathing Oxygen Servicing Trailer Log, kept after it is filled in completely?

Explanation

The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, Aviator Breathing Oxygen Servicing Trailer Log, is kept for two weeks after it is filled in completely. This suggests that the log is used to track the servicing of the oxygen trailer for a specific period of time, and after two weeks, the log is likely replaced with a new one to continue tracking the trailer's servicing.

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18. (601) What is the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6,000. This means that the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank is 6,000 gallons.

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19. (601) The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is powered by this amount of volts alternating current (AC) outside power supply.

Explanation

The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is powered by a 110-volt alternating current (AC) outside power supply. The system requires a 20-ampere power supply to operate effectively.

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20. (601) The single-point nozzle on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is equipped with a vacuum breaker that allows the

Explanation

The correct answer is "hose reel and piping to be defueled." The vacuum breaker on the single-point nozzle of the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler allows the hose reel and piping to be defueled. This means that the fuel can be safely removed from the hose and piping system without any spillage or leakage. The vacuum breaker helps to prevent any potential vapor lock or pressure build-up in the system, ensuring a smooth and efficient defueling process.

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21. (602) During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge pointers on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler should register equal air pressure between

Explanation

During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge pointers on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler should register equal air pressure between 90 and 135 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that the air pressure in the brake system should be within this range for proper functioning of the vehicle's brakes. If the air pressure falls below 90 psi or goes above 135 psi, it could indicate a problem with the brake system that needs to be addressed.

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22. (001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a

Explanation

A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a list of applicable publications (LOAP). This document provides a comprehensive list of all the technical orders that are relevant and necessary for the maintenance and operation of the military system. It helps ensure that all the necessary information and instructions are readily available to the personnel responsible for the system, making it easier for them to access the appropriate TOs when needed. The LOAP serves as a reference guide and organizational tool for managing the technical orders associated with a particular military system.

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23. (604) This cable assembly on the Intellicheck2® and Intellitrol® Overfill Prevention Control Systems connects to the refueler for filling operations.`

Explanation

The correct answer is Sculcon. This cable assembly connects to the refueler for filling operations. The other options listed are not related to the cable assembly or its purpose in the Intellicheck2® and Intellitrol® Overfill Prevention Control Systems.

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24. (001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?

Explanation

AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is the most likely form to use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies because it specifically deals with recommending changes to technical manuals. This form allows individuals to document and communicate any issues or deficiencies they have identified in the TOs, and also provides a platform for receiving a reply or response regarding the recommended changes. This form is designed to streamline the process of reporting and addressing TO deficiencies, making it the most appropriate choice for this purpose.

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25. (003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?

Explanation

The freeze point for JP-8 jet fuel is -58° F.

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26. (005) What does a flashing red and green light signal from the control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?

Explanation

A flashing red and green light signal from the control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle to use extreme caution. This signal is used to alert the vehicle operator to potential hazards or dangers on the flight line. It is important for the vehicle to proceed with caution and be prepared to take necessary actions to ensure safety.

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27. (005) Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?

Explanation

Class II fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction. This means that the spill is relatively small and confined to a small area. Class II spills are considered to be moderate in severity and can be managed and contained more easily compared to larger spills.

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28. (005) Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in these decibel ranges.

Explanation

Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in the range of 110 to 130 decibels. This range is the highest among the given options, indicating that aircraft noise can be quite loud. Noise levels in this range can cause hearing damage and are considered very loud.

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29. (616) Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to

Explanation

The correct answer is single hydrant servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses. This is because the question asks for the option that does not have multiple refueling source restrictions. The other options, such as MH-2 series hosecarts, R-11 mobile refueling units, and Air Force owned and operated fuel-servicing equipment, may have restrictions on multiple refueling sources. However, single hydrant servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses do not have such restrictions, as they are designed to connect to a single hydrant and provide fuel through two hoses simultaneously.

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30. (005) How often should fill stand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?

Explanation

Emergency shutdown switches should be tested for proper operation while the system is operating on a monthly basis. This regular testing ensures that the switches are functioning correctly and can effectively shut down the system in case of an emergency. Testing them frequently helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions and allows for timely repairs or replacements, ensuring the safety and reliability of the system.

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31. (618) In what block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip, will the crew chief enter his or her initials to ensure joint verification?

Explanation

The crew chief will enter his or her initials to ensure joint verification in the block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898 labeled "FUEL GRADE." This indicates that the crew chief is verifying the fuel grade of the energy being sold.

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32. (201) Which of these acts as the United States Air Force’s service control point?

Explanation

The Air Force Petroleum Agency serves as the United States Air Force's service control point. This agency is responsible for managing and providing petroleum, oil, and lubricant (POL) support to the Air Force and other Department of Defense (DoD) organizations. They ensure the availability of fuel and related products to support Air Force operations worldwide. By controlling the distribution and storage of POL, the Air Force Petroleum Agency plays a critical role in maintaining the Air Force's operational readiness.

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33. (207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, what is entered in the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block?

Explanation

When encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, the information entered in the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block is the vehicle license plate number. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies the vehicle and is commonly used for tracking and identification purposes in the rental vehicle industry.

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34. (209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels

Explanation

The correct answer is "controllers." In a radio net, maintaining radio transmission discipline is important for effective communication. This responsibility falls under the fuels controllers, who are responsible for managing and coordinating fuel operations. They ensure that proper procedures and protocols are followed during radio transmissions to ensure clear and efficient communication within the team.

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35. (210) Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are known as

Explanation

Inert solids such as rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are referred to as particulate matter. This term is used to describe solid particles suspended in air or water that can be inhaled or ingested, potentially causing harm to human health. These particles can come from various sources, including industrial activities, vehicle emissions, and natural sources like dust storms. It is important to control and minimize exposure to particulate matter to maintain good air and water quality.

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36. (214) The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids relative to water. The hydrometer is used to measure this density, and the point at which the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale indicates the specific gravity of the liquid. Taking the reading at the top or bottom of the hydrometer or cylinder would not provide an accurate measurement of the liquid's density.

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37. (812) How many R–18 pumping units are included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment (FORCE) module?

Explanation

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38. (214) Prior to use new sample containers for solids testing are rinsed with

Explanation

The correct answer is filtered turbine fuel. This is because prior to using new sample containers for solids testing, they need to be rinsed with a substance that is compatible with the type of testing being conducted. In this case, filtered turbine fuel is the most appropriate choice as it is commonly used in laboratory settings for cleaning and rinsing purposes. Petroleum ether, isopropyl alcohol, and demineralized water may not be suitable for this specific purpose and could potentially contaminate the samples or interfere with the testing process.

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39. (214) What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?

Explanation

Sodium fluorescein is used as the dye for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad. This dye is commonly used in various applications, including as a fluorescent tracer dye. It is known for its bright yellow-green fluorescence under UV light, making it suitable for detecting leaks or flow patterns in engines. Zinc chloride, phthalic anhydride, and methanesulfonic acid are not mentioned in relation to the AEL detector pad, so they are not the correct answers.

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40. (814) How many feet of communications wire is each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform equipped?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communications wire.

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41. (214) The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated

Explanation

The correct answer is "daily prior to the first use". This means that the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated every day before it is used for the first time. This is important to ensure accurate and reliable readings of water detection. Calibrating the detector daily helps to maintain its effectiveness and allows for any necessary adjustments to be made before each use, ensuring optimal performance.

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42. (214) When obtaining a sample for fiber analysis how much fuel should be allowed to pass through a filter separator vessel?

Explanation

When obtaining a sample for fiber analysis, it is important to allow a sufficient amount of fuel to pass through the filter separator vessel in order to obtain an accurate representation of the fiber content. Allowing too little fuel to pass through may result in an insufficient sample size, while allowing too much fuel may dilute the fiber content and affect the accuracy of the analysis. Therefore, allowing 2,000 gallons of fuel to pass through the filter separator vessel is the correct amount to ensure a reliable sample for fiber analysis.

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43. (816) When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the

Explanation

When preparing the R-20 filter separator unit for shipment, it is necessary to drain all components except for the surge suppressors. Surge suppressors are devices used to protect electrical equipment from voltage spikes or surges. Unlike the sump tank, control valves, and micronic filter, surge suppressors do not contain any fluids that need to be drained before shipment. Therefore, they can be excluded from the draining process.

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44. (214) During a flashpoint analysis, apply heat to the sample so that the temperature increases at a rate of

Explanation

During a flashpoint analysis, it is important to apply heat to the sample at a controlled rate to ensure accurate results. The temperature should increase at a specific rate to allow for proper observation and measurement of the flashpoint. The correct answer of 9 to 11°F per minute falls within the recommended range for this rate of temperature increase, ensuring that the analysis is conducted under the appropriate conditions.

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45. (417) What symbol is annotated on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Cont), to represent a required special inspection is due?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Red dash." On the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, a red dash symbol is annotated to represent a required special inspection is due. This symbol indicates that the equipment needs to undergo a special inspection to ensure its proper functioning and safety. The red dash serves as a visual reminder for technicians and maintenance personnel to prioritize and schedule the necessary inspection.

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46. (803) At what flow rate is the FFU–15E filter separator capable of filtering petroleum fuels?

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator is capable of filtering petroleum fuels at a flow rate of 600 gallons per minute (gpm).

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47. (406) How frequently should types III, IV, and V hydrant systems be flushed?

Explanation

Types III, IV, and V hydrant systems should be flushed monthly. Flushing these systems regularly helps to remove sediment, debris, and stagnant water, ensuring that the hydrants are in proper working condition and ready for use in case of an emergency. This frequent flushing also helps to maintain water quality and prevent the buildup of bacteria or other contaminants in the system. Flushing on a monthly basis is therefore essential for the proper maintenance and functionality of these hydrant systems.

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48. (005) Which base agency determines hearing protection requirements for cryogenic operations?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental engineering services is the correct answer because they are responsible for determining hearing protection requirements for cryogenic operations. Cryogenic operations involve working with extremely cold temperatures, which can pose a risk to hearing. Bioenvironmental engineering services assess the potential hazards and recommend appropriate hearing protection measures to ensure the safety of personnel working in these conditions.

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49. (810) For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 to 25 psig. When shipping cryotainers by air, the inner tanks need to be pressurized with dry nitrogen gas to prevent the containers from collapsing due to the lower atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes. Pressurizing the tanks at a positive pressure of 15 to 25 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) ensures that the containers remain stable and intact during the flight.

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50. (214) When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for

Explanation

When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for five minutes. This duration ensures proper mixing of the fuel and water, allowing any potential icing inhibitor to be evenly distributed throughout the mixture. Shaking for a shorter duration may result in incomplete mixing, while shaking for a longer duration may not yield any significant improvement in the distribution of the icing inhibitor. Therefore, five minutes is the most appropriate duration for the shaking process in this analysis.

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51. (404) On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the “hot pad” if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically to prevent fuel from spilling onto the "hot pad" if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation.

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52. (416) The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the

Explanation

The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the oil seal between the piston and inside casting of the pump chambers. This is because the oil seal prevents any leakage of air or gas from the pump chambers, allowing the pump to maintain a high level of vacuum. Without a proper seal, the pump would not be able to create and maintain the necessary level of vacuum for its intended operation. Therefore, the oil seal is crucial for the pump's effectiveness.

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53. (605) The Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit’s defueling pump is capable of defueling at this gallon per minute (gpm) rate.

Explanation

The given correct answer for this question is 300 gallons per minute (gpm). This means that the defueling pump of the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit is capable of removing fuel at a rate of 300 gallons per minute.

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54. (605) What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit?

Explanation

The maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit is 55. This means that the fueling nozzle pressure should not exceed 55 psi when using this specific unit.

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55. (005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 91-302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards. This directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight.

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56. (005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

Explanation

Falling is the principal cause of disabling injuries to office workers. This could include slips, trips, and falls from heights or on the same level. Falls can occur due to various reasons such as wet floors, uneven surfaces, loose carpeting, or inadequate lighting. Office workers may also fall while using ladders or step stools to reach high shelves or while navigating stairs. These falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head injuries, which can lead to temporary or permanent disability. Therefore, it is crucial for employers to implement proper safety measures to prevent falls in office environments.

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57. (005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, move out of the taxi path,

Explanation

When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to stop the vehicle to ensure safety. Turning off the headlights is necessary to prevent any potential hazards or distractions caused by the lights. This helps to avoid blinding the pilots or ground crew and allows them to clearly see and navigate the area.

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58. (005) In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, how many feet will signs be posted from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits?

Explanation

In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, signs will be posted 50 feet away from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits.

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59. (618) How should the date wheels on an imprinter be set for 20 August 2012 (Julian calendar date 232)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 12232. This is because the date wheels on an imprinter should be set to the day, month, and year of the desired date. In this case, the date is 20 August 2012. So, the first wheel should be set to 1 (for the 20th day), the second wheel should be set to 2 (for the 8th month), and the last three wheels should be set to 232 (for the year 2012). Therefore, the correct setting is 12232.

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60. (005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area except

Explanation

During electrical storms, it is unsafe to perform certain operations due to the risk of lightning strikes. Transfer operations, base service station issues, and commercial pipeline receipts may all continue during electrical storms as they do not involve the use of fill stands. Fill stand operations, on the other hand, typically involve the use of electrical equipment and can pose a higher risk during storms. Therefore, fill stand operations are the only operation that may not continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area.

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61. (005) What is the proper treatment for someone who has been splashed with cryogenic liquid?

Explanation

When someone is splashed with cryogenic liquid, it is important to wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket. Cryogenic liquids can cause severe burns and tissue damage, and wrapping the area helps to insulate it and prevent further injury. Rewarming the body part as soon as possible is not recommended, as it can cause additional damage. Watching closely and treating for shock is important, but it is not the proper treatment for the immediate injury. Giving the victim plenty of liquids is also not the correct treatment for this specific situation.

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62. (802) The R–22 pumping unit is not authorized to be used alone for direct aircraft servicing because it has no installed

Explanation

The R-22 pumping unit cannot be used alone for direct aircraft servicing because it lacks a filter separator. A filter separator is an essential component that removes contaminants and impurities from the fuel before it is supplied to the aircraft. Without a filter separator, the fuel may contain particles or debris that could damage the aircraft's engine or fuel system. Therefore, it is necessary to have a filter separator installed to ensure the fuel is clean and safe for use in aircraft servicing.

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63. (812) At what maximum rate can an R–19 filter separator unit filter fuel individually?

Explanation

The correct answer is 600 gpm. This means that the R-19 filter separator unit can filter fuel individually at a maximum rate of 600 gallons per minute.

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64. (401) What is the minimum gallon capacity for a fuel storage tank used at a military service station?

Explanation

The minimum gallon capacity for a fuel storage tank used at a military service station is 5,000. This is likely because military service stations require a large amount of fuel to support their operations, and a tank with a capacity of 5,000 gallons would be able to hold a sufficient amount of fuel to meet their needs. A smaller tank would not be able to hold enough fuel, while a larger tank may be unnecessary and more costly to maintain.

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65. (401) What type automotive dispensing unit has two meters with one pump contained within its housing?

Explanation

The correct answer is dual dispensing, single product. This type of automotive dispensing unit has two meters and one pump contained within its housing. It allows for the simultaneous dispensing of the same product from two separate nozzles. This is useful in situations where multiple vehicles need to be fueled at the same time, such as at a gas station or fleet refueling station.

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66. (401) How many fuel-dispensing pumps can one master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) control with a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR)?

Explanation

One master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) can control a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR). Each SVIR can control up to nine fuel-dispensing pumps. Therefore, the total number of fuel-dispensing pumps that can be controlled by one MVIR and eight SVIRs is 8 (SVIRs) x 9 (pumps per SVIR) = 72.

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67. (408) What personnel are responsible for completing the “Maintenance Status” column, on page 2 of the AFTO Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report?

Explanation

The personnel responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the AFTO Form 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report are the Water & fuels systems maintenance.

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68. (411) Between what hours are physical inventories of active fuel storage tanks normally taken?

Explanation

Physical inventories of active fuel storage tanks are normally taken between 2400 and 0800 hours. This time frame is chosen because it typically corresponds to the lowest activity and usage of the tanks, ensuring that the inventory count is as accurate as possible. Taking inventories during these hours minimizes the risk of interruptions or disturbances that could affect the accuracy of the count.

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69. (412) Heat can be transferred in cryotainers using these three methods.

Explanation

Heat can be transferred in cryotainers through conduction, convection, and radiation. Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects, such as when a cryotainer is in contact with a warmer surface. Convection involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases, such as when warmer air circulates inside the cryotainer. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as when heat is emitted from the cryotainer's surface. These three methods work together to ensure efficient heat transfer in cryotainers.

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70. (601) Which of the following is not a position on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler pumping mode selector valve?

Explanation

The Oshkosh R-11 Refueler pumping mode selector valve has positions for Defuel, Low-flow, and High-flow. However, it does not have a position for Single-point.

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71. (603) Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler when the temperature is

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). This is because the ether starting aid is used to help start the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler when the temperature is below freezing. 40 degrees Fahrenheit is equivalent to 4.4 degrees Celsius, which is below freezing and would require the use of the starting aid.

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72. (604) At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler using the bottom loading system?

Explanation

The maximum rate at which the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler can be filled using the bottom loading system is 600 gallons per minute (gpm).

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73. (609) The C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit is equipped with emergency shutoff handles in all of the following locations except

Explanation

The C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit is equipped with emergency shutoff handles in all of the mentioned locations except in the pumping compartment. This means that the emergency shutoff handles can be found on top of the tank, behind the driver's door, and at the right rear of the truck. The pumping compartment does not have an emergency shutoff handle.

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74. (005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

Explanation

To accurately determine the level of fuel in the tank, it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time after filling the tank. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize, ensuring an accurate reading. In this case, the correct answer is 30 minutes, which means that after filling the tank, one should wait for 30 minutes before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob, to determine the fuel level.

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75. (613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneously refueling an aircraft while other maintenance activities take place?

Explanation

Concurrent servicing involves the simultaneous refueling of an aircraft while other maintenance activities are being carried out. This type of operation allows for efficient use of time and resources, as both fueling and maintenance can be completed concurrently. It is commonly used in situations where there is a tight turnaround time between flights or when multiple tasks need to be completed simultaneously.

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76. (618) Which form is used to record fuel issues to aircraft not assigned to your home station?

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip. This form is used to record fuel issues to aircraft that are not assigned to your home station. It is specifically designed for documenting fuel sales and transfers.

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77. (620) What should you do if a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check?

Explanation

If a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check, the correct action to take is to repair the bonding cable. Repairing the cable will ensure that it is in proper working condition and will maintain the necessary electrical bonding between equipment. This will help prevent any potential safety hazards or equipment malfunctions that could occur due to a damaged cable.

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78. (212) A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are

Explanation

A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are 150 microns or larger because the mesh size of the strainer refers to the number of openings per linear inch. A 100 mesh strainer has 100 openings per linear inch, and each opening is 150 microns in size. Therefore, any particles that are larger than 150 microns will be trapped by the strainer and removed.

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79. (214) What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading is 24 hours. This means that the sample can be collected and stored for up to 24 hours before the reading is taken.

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80. (818) The PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system’s hoses are inspected daily for all of the following except

Explanation

The PMU-27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling system's hoses are inspected daily for cracking, worn spots, and deterioration. However, loose mountings are not included in the list of things that are inspected.

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81. (818) What form may be used to document the inspection of fuel bladders?

Explanation

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data, may be used to document the inspection of fuel bladders. This form is specifically designed to record significant historical data related to an aircraft, including inspections and maintenance activities. Since fuel bladder inspections are an important part of aircraft maintenance, using AFTO Form 95 would allow for accurate documentation of these inspections.

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82. (215) Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Fuels laboratory noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC). This individual is responsible for administering the caution tag program in a fuels management flight.

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83. (819) The micronic filter elements on an R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure reading exceeds

Explanation

The micronic filter elements on an R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure reading exceeds 15 psid. This means that once the pressure difference between the upstream and downstream sides of the filter reaches or exceeds 15 pounds per square inch differential, it is necessary to replace the filter elements. This is important to ensure that the filter continues to effectively remove contaminants and maintain the desired level of cleanliness in the system.

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84. (401) What type of gauging device is normally used to gauge service station tanks manually, and what increments of measurement are used on this gauging device?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Stick gauge; ⅛-inch." A stick gauge is a type of gauging device that is commonly used to manually gauge service station tanks. It is used to measure the level of fuel in the tank. The increments of measurement used on this stick gauge are ⅛-inch, meaning each mark on the stick represents an eighth of an inch. This allows for a more precise measurement of the fuel level in the tank.

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85. (401) What is the difference between the motors used in the self-contained automotive single dispensing and dual dispensing units?

Explanation

Dual dispensing motors have a higher horsepower rating compared to the motors used in single dispensing units. This means that the dual dispensing motors are more powerful and capable of delivering a higher amount of torque. The higher horsepower rating allows the dual dispensing units to handle more demanding tasks and provide a greater flow rate.

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86. (401) Which type service station pumping system has a higher delivery rate?

Explanation

A submerged pump has a higher delivery rate compared to other types of service station pumping systems. This is because a submerged pump is fully immersed in the liquid being pumped, allowing for more efficient and faster pumping. In contrast, suction pumps rely on creating a vacuum to draw in the liquid, which can result in a slower delivery rate. Dual dispensing and single dispensing systems may have multiple pumps, but the delivery rate ultimately depends on the type of pump used, making the submerged pump the correct answer for higher delivery rate.

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87. (403) On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on an aboveground operating storage tank on the

Explanation

The correct answer is "exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height." In a type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located outside the tank at the required shut-off height. This means that the assembly is positioned at a specific height on the exterior of the tank to automatically shut off the flow of liquid when it reaches a certain level. Placing the assembly on the exterior allows for easy access and maintenance without the need to enter the tank.

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88. (403) What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel, is completely solid-state with no moving parts, and indicates an emergency is occurring?

Explanation

The correct answer is Alarm annunciator. An alarm annunciator is a type III hydrant system component that is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel. It is completely solid-state with no moving parts and is used to indicate an emergency situation. It provides visual and audible alarms to alert operators or personnel that there is a problem or emergency occurring in the system.

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89. (403) The purpose of the lockout key used on the type III hydrant system is to

Explanation

The lockout key used on the type III hydrant system is designed to transfer control from one microprocessor to the other. This means that when the key is used, it allows the system to switch control from one microprocessor to another, ensuring a smooth transition and uninterrupted operation of the system. This key is likely used during maintenance or in case of any issues with one of the microprocessors, allowing for a seamless transfer of control to ensure the system continues to function properly.

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90. (405) The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates using

Explanation

The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates using fuel pressure. This means that the valve is controlled and activated by the pressure of the fuel in the system. It does not rely on electricity, air pressure, or mechanical techniques to function.

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91. (406) The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702, Petroleum Daily Receipt Summary Sheet, is prepared to cover the 24-hour duty day that runs from

Explanation

The correct answer is 2400 to 2400. This means that the DLA Energy Form 702 covers the 24-hour duty day from midnight to midnight. This ensures that all petroleum receipts for the entire day are accounted for in the summary sheet.

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92. (603) To help in start, the ether starting aid on the Oshkosh R–11 Refueler must be used if the ambient temperature is below

Explanation

The correct answer is 32 °F. The ether starting aid on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler must be used if the ambient temperature is below 32 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). This starting aid is necessary to assist in starting the engine in colder temperatures, as it helps to ignite the fuel-air mixture in the engine cylinders. Using the ether starting aid below 32 °F ensures that the engine can start smoothly and effectively in colder weather conditions.

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93. (604) When you are performing a HIGH FLOW servicing of an aircraft with the Oshkosh R–11, do not allow the engine speed to exceed this number of revolutions per minute (rpm).

Explanation

When performing a HIGH FLOW servicing of an aircraft with the Oshkosh R-11, it is important to not allow the engine speed to exceed 1,950 revolutions per minute (rpm). This is likely because exceeding this rpm could potentially cause damage to the engine or other components of the aircraft. Keeping the engine speed below this limit ensures safe and effective servicing without risking any potential harm.

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94. (605) At what maximum gallons per minute (gpm) rate can the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit issue fuel through the lift platform hoses?

Explanation

The Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit can issue fuel through the lift platform hoses at a maximum rate of 1,000 gallons per minute (gpm).

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95. (605) What should you do if condensation is discovered in the air filter of the Beta-International R–12 Hydrant Servicing unit?

Explanation

If condensation is discovered in the air filter of the Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, the correct action to take is to drain the condensation. This is because condensation in the air filter can restrict airflow and potentially damage the engine. By draining the condensation, the air filter will be able to function properly and prevent any potential issues.

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96. (001) An example of a directive standard publication is a

Explanation

A supplement is an example of a directive standard publication because it provides additional information or updates to an existing publication. It is typically used to add or clarify information that may have been missing or outdated in the original publication. A supplement is often distributed separately from the main publication and is intended to be used in conjunction with it. It serves as a directive standard by providing specific instructions or guidance related to a particular topic or issue.

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97. (003) What is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?

Explanation

The minimum flash point of JP-5 jet fuel is 140°F. Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance can emit enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. In the case of JP-5 jet fuel, it requires a minimum temperature of 140°F for it to produce enough vapor to ignite.

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98. (005) Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?

Explanation

"Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft. These trucks are used to guide aircraft on the ground and ensure they follow the correct path. They have the authority to direct aircraft and other vehicles, so they do not need to yield to aircraft. Refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs, on the other hand, may need to yield to aircraft depending on the situation and airport regulations.

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99. (005) A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction is classified in this spill category.

Explanation

A fuel spill that is less than 2 feet in any direction is classified as Class I. This category is used to classify small spills that have a limited impact and can be easily contained and cleaned up.

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100. (616) Multi-source refueling is approved on medical evacuation aircraft when patients are

Explanation

Multi-source refueling is the process of refueling an aircraft from multiple fuel sources simultaneously. It is not approved on medical evacuation aircraft when patients are on board due to safety concerns. The presence of patients can increase the risk of fire or explosion during refueling, which could jeopardize their safety. Therefore, multi-source refueling is only allowed when patients are not on board the aircraft.

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101. (619) What automated data collection system is used for aircraft billing information?

Explanation

The correct answer is Automated point of sale device (APOSD). APOSD is an automated data collection system used for aircraft billing information. It is a device that allows for the sale of goods or services and collects payment information in a fast and efficient manner. This system is commonly used in various industries, including aviation, to track and manage billing information accurately and effectively.

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102. (006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks every

Explanation

To effectively detect pollutant releases, it is recommended to monitor underground storage tanks every 30 days. This frequency allows for regular and timely inspections, ensuring that any potential leaks or releases are promptly identified and addressed. Monitoring at shorter intervals, such as every 15 days, may be excessive and unnecessary, while longer intervals like 45 or 60 days could increase the risk of undetected pollution incidents. Therefore, a 30-day monitoring cycle strikes a balance between thoroughness and practicality in maintaining environmental safety.

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103. (621) When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (Fuel Servicing Vehicles), which item is checked for leaks and damage and to ensure the dust cover is in place?

Explanation

When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807, the bottom loading system is checked for leaks and damage and to ensure the dust cover is in place. The bottom loading system is an important component of fuel servicing vehicles and it is necessary to inspect it regularly to ensure its proper functioning. Leaks and damage can compromise the system's ability to safely and efficiently transfer fuel, while the dust cover helps to protect the system from dirt and debris. Therefore, checking the bottom loading system is crucial to maintaining the overall integrity and functionality of the fuel servicing vehicle.

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104. (803) The canisters in the FFU–15E filter separator are constructed of

Explanation

The canisters in the FFU-15E filter separator are made of aluminum. Aluminum is a commonly used material in filter separators due to its lightweight, corrosion resistance, and durability. It is able to withstand the harsh conditions and high pressures often encountered in filter separators. Additionally, aluminum is easily machinable, allowing for precise manufacturing of the canisters.

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105. (207) In order to verify billing data, all vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests should be coordinated through the

Explanation

The correct answer is unit financial resource manager. The unit financial resource manager is responsible for coordinating and verifying billing data, including vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that all billing information is accurate and properly accounted for. The responsible officer, property administrator, and Defense fuel support point may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically tasked with verifying billing data and coordinating VIL key requests.

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106. (808) What fuel bladder assembly is used for removing water from the bladder?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vertical vent pipe. The vertical vent pipe is used for removing water from the bladder. It allows air to escape from the bladder as water is being drained, preventing any airlock or pressure build-up. The vent pipe is positioned vertically to ensure efficient water removal from the bladder.

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107. (808) Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders come in all sizes except

Explanation

The question is asking about the sizes of sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders. The correct answer is "6½ inch" because the question states that these clamps come in all sizes except for this specific size. Therefore, 6½ inch is not an available size for these sealing clamps.

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108. (214) What type of cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is used to measure the density or specific gravity of crude oil and petroleum products. This test is performed using a graduated cylinder, which is a type of cylinder that has markings or graduations on its surface to accurately measure the volume of liquids. Graduated cylinders are commonly used in laboratories for precise measurements and are suitable for conducting the API gravity test. Therefore, the correct answer is "Graduated."

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109. (214) Before being used for a bottle method test membrane filters are dried at

Explanation

Membrane filters are dried at 194 °F before being used for a bottle method test.

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110. (817) Accountability for a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) kit transferred to a forward location rests with the

Explanation

The correct answer is the expeditionary LRS at the forward location. When a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) kit is transferred to a forward location, the accountability for the kit rests with the expeditionary LRS. This means that the expeditionary LRS is responsible for keeping track of the kit and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The home logistics readiness squadron (LRS) customer service element may have some involvement in the transfer process, but the ultimate accountability lies with the expeditionary LRS at the forward location.

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111. (215) Who defines what constitutes a negative trend and develops policies to isolate and correct them?

Explanation

The fuel management team is responsible for defining what constitutes a negative trend and developing policies to isolate and correct them. They oversee the management and usage of fuel within an organization or squadron, ensuring efficiency and compliance with environmental regulations. As experts in fuel management, they have the knowledge and authority to identify negative trends and implement corrective measures to address them. The compliance and environmental supervisor, squadron commander, and wing commander may have related responsibilities, but the fuel management team specifically focuses on fuel-related issues.

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112. (412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

Explanation

The two gauges that are permanently installed on cryotainers are pressure and quantity. These gauges are essential for monitoring the pressure levels and the amount of cryogenic material inside the cryotainer. The pressure gauge helps to ensure that the pressure is within safe operating limits, while the quantity gauge provides information about the amount of cryogenic material remaining in the cryotainer.

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113. (610) You are performing servicing operations with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit. What position do you shift the transmission lever in after pulling out the power takeoff (PTO) handle?

Explanation

After pulling out the power takeoff (PTO) handle while performing servicing operations with the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit, the transmission lever should be shifted into the Neutral (N) position. This is done to disengage the transmission and ensure that no power is being transferred to the wheels, allowing for safe and efficient maintenance operations.

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114. (214) How long should matched weight filters be placed in a dessicator after drying?

Explanation

Weight filters should be placed in a desiccator after drying for 30 minutes. This is the recommended time for the filters to fully dry and remove any remaining moisture. Placing the filters for a shorter time may result in incomplete drying, while leaving them for a longer time may cause over-drying and potential damage to the filters. Therefore, 30 minutes is the optimal duration for ensuring proper drying of the weight filters.

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115. (216) How often should Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders reconcile the statement of account via the bank’s electronic access system?

Explanation

Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should reconcile the statement of account via the bank's electronic access system on a monthly basis. This ensures that any discrepancies or unauthorized charges can be identified and resolved in a timely manner. Reconciling the statement of account on a monthly basis also helps in maintaining accurate financial records and prevents any potential fraud or misuse of the GPC. It allows for proper monitoring and control of expenses, ensuring compliance with financial regulations and policies.

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116. (821) How many digits makeup the unit type code (UTC) that identifies personnel and equipment needed to support deployment requirements?

Explanation

The question is asking about the number of digits in the unit type code (UTC) that identifies personnel and equipment needed for deployment requirements. The correct answer is "Five" because the UTC consists of five digits.

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117. (401) How many selectable fuel product pumps does each military service station master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) have the capacity to control?

Explanation

Each military service station master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) has the capacity to control 8 selectable fuel product pumps.

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118. (404) What are the rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the type IV hydrant system?

Explanation

The rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the type IV hydrant system is 600. This means that the pump can deliver water at a rate of 600 gallons per minute.

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119. (404) How many aircraft (depending on the type) can be simultaneously hot refueled in about 8 to 12 minutes when using the type IV hydrant system?

Explanation

The type IV hydrant system allows for simultaneous hot refueling of two aircraft in approximately 8 to 12 minutes. This means that two aircraft can be refueled at the same time within this time frame using this system.

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120. (406) Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, Bill of Lading, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a tank truck?

Explanation

If the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, Bill of Lading, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a tank truck, the Quality Assurance Representative (QAR) should be contacted. The QAR is responsible for ensuring that all materials and supplies received meet the required standards and specifications. They would be the appropriate person to handle any issues or discrepancies with the documentation for the tank truck delivery.

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121. (406) Who is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received (column H) on an AF Form 834, Record of Fuel Transfers, and entering the gain (loss) (column I) on the receipt form?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels service center (FSC). The Fuels service center is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received on an AF Form 834 and entering the gain or loss on the receipt form. They are in charge of managing and distributing fuel, ensuring accurate records are kept, and monitoring any discrepancies in fuel transfers. The Fuels Distribution supervisor, Hydrants supervisor, and Hydrant operator may have related responsibilities, but they are not specifically responsible for comparing quantities transferred/received and entering the gain or loss on the receipt form.

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122. (406) What position should the pump selector switch be placed in when performing flushing operations on a type III, IV, or V system?

Explanation

When performing flushing operations on a type III, IV, or V system, the pump selector switch should be placed in the "Flush" position. This position allows the pump to circulate water through the system, helping to remove any debris or contaminants. The "Off" position would completely shut off the pump, while the "Idle" position would keep the pump running but not actively circulating water. The "Auto" position is typically used for normal operation and may not provide the necessary flow for flushing. Therefore, the correct position for flushing operations is "Flush".

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123. (408) How long are completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report, retained by fuels management?

Explanation

Completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 39, Fuel System Inspection and Discrepancy Report, are retained by fuels management for a period of three years. This allows for proper documentation and record-keeping of fuel system inspections and discrepancies.

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124. (410) What key on the tank control unit (TCU) is used to access the main menu when obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG)?

Explanation

The key on the tank control unit (TCU) that is used to access the main menu when obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG) is ESC.

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125. (412) Cryotainer convection heat transfer from a cryotainer’s outer tank to the inner tank is nonexistent because the

Explanation

The correct answer is "air has been removed from the annular space." In a cryotainer, the annular space refers to the space between the outer and inner tanks. By removing the air from this space, convection heat transfer is minimized because air is a poor conductor of heat. This helps to maintain the low temperature inside the inner tank, as the insulation in the annular space prevents heat from transferring through the walls of the cryotainer.

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126. (602) What percent of additional expansion space is built into the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler’s fuel tank?

Explanation

The Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler's fuel tank has 3% of additional expansion space built into it.

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127. (001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?

Explanation

The correct answer is Time compliance. Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause severe or fatal injuries. These orders specify a specific time frame within which the corrective action must be taken to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. They are prioritized based on the level of risk involved and the urgency of the situation. By complying with the specified time frame, potential hazards can be mitigated or eliminated, reducing the risk of accidents and injuries.

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128. (001) These are considered specialized publications.

Explanation

Technical orders are considered specialized publications because they contain detailed instructions, procedures, and information specific to a particular field or industry. They are often used in technical and military contexts to provide guidance on the maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment or systems. Journals, staff digests, and narrative summaries may also contain specialized information, but technical orders are specifically designed to provide detailed and specific instructions, making them the most appropriate answer.

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129. (606) What precharge pounds per square inch (psi) pressure reading should be indicated on the Kovatch R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit surge suppressor pressure gauges while the surge suppressor service valves are open?

Explanation

The surge suppressor pressure gauges should indicate a precharge pressure reading of 90 psi, with a tolerance of ± 5 psi. This means that the acceptable range for the pressure reading is between 85 psi and 95 psi.

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130. (608) Check to ensure the sump tank on the Beta International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit is below ⅔ full prior to performing a defueling operation to

Explanation

The correct answer is to prevent the sump tank from overfilling. By checking to ensure the sump tank is below ⅔ full before performing a defueling operation, it ensures that the tank does not exceed its capacity and avoids any potential overflow or spillage. This is important for safety reasons and to prevent any damage or contamination that may occur if the tank is overfilled.

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131. (002) When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the

Explanation

When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you can locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the series number in the "TO number" block. This means that if you have the series number of the TO, you can directly enter it in the "TO number" block to find the specific technical order you are looking for in the ETIMS system.

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132. (002) Which block would you enter the form or publication title in when searching by title for an electronic standard publication on the Air Force e-Publishing website?

Explanation

The form or publication title should be entered in the "Search Products" block when searching by title for an electronic standard publication on the Air Force e-Publishing website. This block is specifically designed for searching and retrieving products based on their titles. By entering the title in this block, users can easily find the desired electronic standard publication on the website.

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133. (609) What C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit component allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations?

Explanation

The vent valve is the component that allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations. It helps to release any excess pressure or vacuum that may build up inside the tank, ensuring safe and efficient operations. The other options, float level sensor, bottom loading interlock, and emergency/bottom loading valve, do not serve the same purpose as the vent valve in allowing the tank to breathe.

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134. (004) Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

Explanation

Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can cause frostbite or damage to human tissue upon contact. It reduces the concentration of oxygen and can cause asphyxiation in confined spaces if it evaporates and displaces the oxygen. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to tremendous pressure, potentially causing an explosion.

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135. (005) For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must have

Explanation

Grounded plugs are necessary for safety measures in Air Force electrical equipment. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks by providing a path for excess electrical current to flow into the ground. This helps to protect both the equipment and the personnel using it. Grounded plugs also help to reduce the risk of electrical fires by preventing the buildup of static electricity. Therefore, having grounded plugs is an important safety requirement for Air Force electrical equipment.

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136. (613) Which supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operation supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?

Explanation

Concurrent servicing is the correct answer because it is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operation supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). This means that the supervisor overseeing the concurrent servicing operation is responsible for ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed efficiently and safely, while also coordinating with other teams involved in the combat sortie generation process. Hot refueling, fuel servicing, and chief servicing may be involved in the overall operation, but the concurrent servicing supervisor has the primary responsibility for on-site supervision.

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137. (615) How many operations per day should crewmembers be limited to if they are conducting inshelter refueling with shelter doors completely closed?

Explanation

Crewmembers should be limited to four operations per day when conducting inshelter refueling with shelter doors completely closed. This limitation ensures safety and minimizes the risk of accidents or exposure to hazardous materials. It allows for efficient refueling operations while maintaining a controlled environment inside the shelter.

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138. (005) At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet is considered safe?

Explanation

The minimum safe distance behind an aircraft's operating jet is considered to be 200 feet. This distance ensures that there is enough space for other aircraft or ground personnel to safely maneuver without being affected by the jet blast or any debris that may be generated by the aircraft's engines. It also helps to prevent any potential damage to the aircraft or injury to personnel due to the high velocity and temperature of the jet blast.

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139. (005) Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?

Explanation

Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed 50 feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks. This is important to ensure the safety of individuals in the area and to warn them about the potential dangers associated with the off-loading process. Placing the signs at this distance allows for adequate visibility and gives people enough time to react and stay clear of the area.

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140. (620) All assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every

Explanation

Assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every 7 days. This regular inspection is necessary to ensure that the vehicles and equipment are in proper working condition and meet safety standards. By inspecting them every 7 days, any potential issues or maintenance needs can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of accidents or breakdowns during fuel servicing operations. Regular inspections also help to maintain the efficiency and reliability of the vehicles and equipment, ensuring smooth operations and minimizing downtime.

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141. (005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?

Explanation

When fighting an electrical fire, the first thing you should do is disable the circuit. This is important because electrical fires are fueled by electricity, so cutting off the power supply is crucial to prevent the fire from spreading or causing further damage. By disabling the circuit, you eliminate the source of the fire and minimize the risk of electric shock or injury.

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142. (005) Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on this class of fire.

Explanation

Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on this class of fire because they use water as the extinguishing agent. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, and cloth. Water is able to cool down the fire and remove the heat, which is one of the elements needed for combustion. Therefore, water pressure fire extinguishers are an appropriate choice for tackling Class A fires.

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143. (621) Which item is not recorded on a new AF Form 1807, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (Fuel Servicing Vehicles)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Discrepancies completed from the old form." This means that when filling out a new AF Form 1807 for Fuel Servicing Vehicles, discrepancies that were already resolved or completed on the old form should not be recorded again. The purpose of the new form is to document any defective conditions, overdue inspections, or discrepancies that are still open or unresolved.

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144. (006) To observe environmental pollution precautions, check dikes for deterioration

Explanation

To observe environmental pollution precautions, it is important to regularly check dikes for deterioration. Dikes are structures that are used to contain or control the flow of water, and they play a crucial role in preventing pollution from spreading. Checking them on a weekly basis ensures that any signs of deterioration, such as cracks or leaks, can be promptly identified and addressed. This frequent inspection schedule helps to maintain the integrity of the dikes and prevent potential environmental pollution incidents.

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145. (802) When setting up the R–22, how many sections of 25-foot hose should be used to connect the R–22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly to the FFU–15E?

Explanation

The correct answer is Three. When setting up the R-22, three sections of 25-foot hose should be used to connect the R-22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly to the FFU-15E.

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146. (802) After starting the R–22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly, how many minutes should the engine be allowed to idle before increasing the throttle setting?

Explanation

The engine should be allowed to idle for five minutes before increasing the throttle setting after starting the R-22 trailer-mounted transfer pump assembly.

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147. (203) What method is used to extract data from FuelsManager Defense (FMD) databases?

Explanation

The method used to extract data from FuelsManager Defense (FMD) databases is through queries. Queries are specific requests or questions made to the database in order to retrieve the desired information. By using queries, users can specify the criteria and conditions for the data they want to extract, making it a powerful tool for data extraction and analysis.

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148. (205) A product loss caused by a pipeline rupture is categorized as what type of determinable variance?

Explanation

A product loss caused by a pipeline rupture is categorized as a peacetime loss because it occurs during a time of peace and is not related to any major disaster, wartime, or combat situation. A pipeline rupture can result in the loss of products, such as oil or gas, but it is not directly linked to any conflict or war. Therefore, it falls under the category of a peacetime loss.

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149. (803) When preparing the FFU–15E filter separator for shipment, complete all of the following procedures except

Explanation

When preparing the FFU-15E filter separator for shipment, it is necessary to complete all the listed procedures except for removing the filter elements. The filter elements should not be removed during the shipment preparation process. However, it is important to drain all fuel from the unit, install dust caps on all fittings, and clean the unit thoroughly to remove dirt and debris.

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150. (210) Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank?

Explanation

The correct answer is the bacon bomb sampler. This sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank. This allows for easy and efficient sampling from the tank.

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151. (210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents and sent to the area lab every

Explanation

Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents and sent to the area lab every 90 days. This means that the samples are collected and sent for analysis after a period of 90 days. This timeframe allows for regular monitoring of the purity, odor, and minor constituents of the liquid oxygen in the storage tank. It ensures that any potential issues or changes in the quality of the liquid oxygen can be detected and addressed in a timely manner.

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152. (213) Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste petroleum product category?

Explanation

Turbine engine oil is included in the recoverable and waste petroleum product category number 4.

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153. (214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required

Explanation

Conductivity testing measures the ability of a substance to conduct an electric current. When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached, it means that the meter is able to calibrate and adjust for any potential interference or impurities on the probe. This indicates that the probe is in good working condition and does not require any additional cleaning before conductivity testing.

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154. (818) What grade of oil should you use when changing the engine oil on an R–14C?

Explanation

The correct answer is Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) 30. This is the grade of oil that should be used when changing the engine oil on an R-14C. The SAE 30 oil is suitable for use in moderate to high temperature conditions and provides adequate protection for the engine.

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155. (215) When entering analysis results in the Fuels Manger Defense (FMD) quality control application, the amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample is entered in the

Explanation

In the Fuels Manager Defense (FMD) quality control application, when entering analysis results, the amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample is entered in the "SAMPLE SIZE" block. This block is specifically designed to record the quantity of fuel used for the sample. The other options mentioned, such as "GAL REP," "SRC TYPE," and "SMPL SOURCE," are not relevant to recording the amount of fuel obtained for the sample. Therefore, the correct answer is the "SAMPLE SIZE" block.

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156. (217) Who does the fuels mobility supervisor work in conjunction with to ensure that the appropriate special experience identifier is awarded to personnel completing specialized training?

Explanation

The fuels mobility supervisor works in conjunction with the fuels training supervisor to ensure that the appropriate special experience identifier is awarded to personnel completing specialized training. This indicates that the fuels training supervisor is responsible for determining and awarding the special experience identifier based on the completion of specialized training.

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157. (403) At what liquid percentage level full will the type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close?

Explanation

The type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve will close when the liquid percentage level reaches 80%.

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158. (405) What is the constant pounds per square inch (psi) pressure range for the type V hydrant system?

Explanation

The constant pounds per square inch (psi) pressure range for the type V hydrant system is 45 to 150 psi. This means that the pressure within the hydrant system will always be maintained within this range, providing a consistent and reliable water supply for firefighting purposes.

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159. (406) What two valves on the type III hydrant system combine to bleed the pressure down to 75 pounds per square inch (psi) when the lead pump stops?

Explanation

The pressure control valve and the defuel/flush valve are the two valves that combine to bleed the pressure down to 75 psi when the lead pump stops. The pressure control valve is responsible for regulating the pressure in the system, while the defuel/flush valve is used to drain or flush the fuel from the system. Together, these valves work to reduce the pressure to the desired level when the pump is no longer in operation.

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160. (406) What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R–12 Refueler’s defuel pump?

Explanation

The maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R-12 Refueler's defuel pump is 300.

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161. (417) What part of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, provides a means of documenting required support equipment/trainer servicing and prior-to-use inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a means of documenting required support equipment/trainer servicing and prior-to-use inspections. This implies that there is a specific section or part in the form that is designated for this purpose. However, without further information about the specific sections or parts of the form, it is not possible to provide a more detailed explanation.

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162. (602) What is the maximum number of US gallons that can register on the meter of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The maximum number of US gallons that can register on the meter of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler is 99,999. This means that the meter can measure up to 99,999 gallons of fuel.

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163. (608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, the deadman switch must be re-activated, to prevent automatic shutdown, every

Explanation

During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit, the deadman switch must be re-activated every 2 minutes to prevent automatic shutdown.

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164. (609) What component on the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit prevents the vehicle from moving during filling operations?

Explanation

The bottom loading interlock is the component on the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit that prevents the vehicle from moving during filling operations. This interlock ensures that the vehicle remains stationary while the filling process is taking place, preventing any accidents or spills that could occur if the vehicle were to move. It is an important safety feature that helps to maintain the integrity of the filling operation and protect both the vehicle and the surrounding environment.

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165. (005) Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, how often must the fuels safety monitor brief all personnel on safety matters?

Explanation

Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, the fuels safety monitor is required to brief all personnel on safety matters semiannually. This means that the briefing should take place twice a year. It is important for the fuels safety monitor to provide regular updates and reminders about safety procedures to ensure that all personnel are aware of and following proper safety protocols. By conducting these briefings semiannually, the Air Force can maintain a safe working environment and minimize the risk of accidents or incidents related to fuel safety.

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166. (005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should under no circumstances position it any closer than this minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft.

Explanation

When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The minimum distance that the refueling vehicle should be positioned from any portion of the aircraft is 10 feet. This ensures that there is enough space for maneuvering and reduces the risk of any accidental contact between the vehicle and the aircraft.

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167. (617) Who is normally tasked to observe and record filter separator differential pressure (DP) and flow rates?

Explanation

Fuels quality control personnel are responsible for observing and recording filter separator differential pressure (DP) and flow rates. This task falls under their job responsibilities as they are in charge of ensuring the quality and proper functioning of fuels. Vehicle operators, storage personnel, and the NCOIC, Fuels Compliance, do not typically have this specific duty.

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168. (005) What is the minimum number of minutes that must pass to eliminate static charges before disassembling an in-line sampler?

Explanation

The minimum number of minutes that must pass to eliminate static charges before disassembling an in-line sampler is 1. This suggests that it takes only a short amount of time for the static charges to dissipate, indicating that the process is relatively quick and efficient.

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169. (206) Which form is used to record transactions to non-DOD aircraft?

Explanation

DD Form 1898, Fuel Sales Slip is the correct answer because it is the form used to record transactions to non-DOD aircraft. This form is specifically designed for recording fuel sales, making it the appropriate choice for this purpose. The other options, such as Department of Defense (DD) Form 1896, Jet Fuel Identaplate and Air Force Form 1995, Sales Tax, are not relevant to recording transactions for non-DOD aircraft. Air Force Form 1994, Sales Slip is also not the correct choice as it does not specifically pertain to fuel sales.

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170. (212) During a visual sample what kind of dye is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel?

Explanation

During a visual sample, food coloring is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel. Food coloring is a safe and easily identifiable dye that can be added to a sample to help differentiate between the two substances. Acid dye, fluorescent, and reactive dye are not typically used for this purpose.

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171. (214) Electrical continuity tests must be performed on lab filtration equipment

Explanation

Electrical continuity tests should be performed on lab filtration equipment on a monthly basis. This is important to ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and that there are no issues with the electrical connections. Regular testing helps to identify any potential problems or faults that could compromise the safety and efficiency of the equipment. Monthly testing strikes a balance between ensuring regular maintenance and avoiding excessive testing that may be unnecessary.

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172. (214) When performing a flashpoint analysis, ensure the sample and the test cup temperature is

Explanation

When performing a flashpoint analysis, it is important to ensure that the sample and the test cup temperature is at least 32°F below the expected flashpoint. This is because the flashpoint is the lowest temperature at which a substance can vaporize and ignite in the presence of an ignition source. By keeping the sample and test cup temperature significantly below the expected flashpoint, it reduces the risk of accidental ignition during the analysis.

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173. (403) What supplies air pressure to the pneumatically operated deadman controls on the type III hydrant system?

Explanation

The R-12 refueler supplies air pressure to the pneumatically operated deadman controls on the type III hydrant system. This means that the R-12 refueler is responsible for providing the necessary air pressure to operate the controls, ensuring that the system functions properly. The other options, such as aircraft, compressed air tank, and system air compressor, do not fulfill this specific role in supplying air pressure to the deadman controls.

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174. (208) What are the clipboard color coding requirements for JP–8 + 100 vehicles?

Explanation

The correct answer is yellow clipboard with green stripes. This color coding requirement ensures that JP-8 + 100 vehicles use a specific type of clipboard for identification purposes. The yellow color signifies the type of vehicle, while the green stripes further differentiate it from other vehicles. This color coding system helps in easily identifying and organizing JP-8 + 100 vehicles in a consistent manner.

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175. (210) After you obtain a sample with an in-line sampler, how much time should elapse before disassembling the sampler?

Explanation

After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, it is recommended to wait for 60 seconds before disassembling the sampler. This waiting period allows the sampler to collect an adequate amount of the sample, ensuring accuracy and reliability of the results. Disassembling the sampler too soon may result in an insufficient sample size, leading to inaccurate analysis or measurements.

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176. (215) Who in the fuels management flight is responsible for maintaining the keys to the quality control (QC) hold box?

Explanation

The fuels laboratory personnel are responsible for maintaining the keys to the quality control (QC) hold box. This implies that they have the authority and responsibility to control access to the QC hold box, ensuring the security and integrity of the fuel management process. The other options, such as the fuel management team, fuels service center personnel, and fuels information service center superintendent, do not specifically mention this responsibility.

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177. (819) What should each R–20 surge suppressor precharge gauge indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The precharge gauge on each R-20 surge suppressor should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure level is necessary to ensure proper functioning and readiness of the surge suppressor in case of any sudden surges or fluctuations in the fueling system.

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178. (820) When reconstituting fuels operational readiness capability equipment (FORCE), dispose of hoses in accordance with

Explanation

The correct answer is local procedures. When reconstituting fuels operational readiness capability equipment (FORCE), the disposal of hoses should be done in accordance with local procedures. This means that the specific guidelines and protocols established by the local authorities or organizations should be followed for the proper disposal of the hoses. These local procedures may vary depending on the location and specific regulations in place. It is important to adhere to these procedures to ensure compliance with local regulations and to minimize any potential environmental impact.

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179. (217) The fuels mobility support element supervisor identifies fiscal year mobility support funding requirements to the

Explanation

The fuels mobility support element supervisor identifies fiscal year mobility support funding requirements to the squadron resource manager. The squadron resource manager is responsible for managing the squadron's resources, including funding. Therefore, it makes sense that the fuels mobility support element supervisor would communicate the funding requirements to the squadron resource manager.

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180. (218) Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award of the 5 skill level except

Explanation

The correct answer is completion of a minimum of 12 months on-the-job training. This is because the question asks for an exception, meaning that the requirement that does not need to be met in order to be awarded the 5 skill level is the completion of a minimum of 12 months on-the-job training. The other requirements, such as recommendation from their supervisor, completion of 5 skill level career development courses, and completion of all 5 skill level core tasks outlined in the specialty training standard, must be met in order to be awarded the 5 skill level.

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181. (218) Core task waiver letters for active duty personnel should be approved by

Explanation

Core task waiver letters for active duty personnel should be approved by the major command (MAJCOM). The major command is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of multiple bases and units within a specific geographic area or functional area. They have the authority to grant waivers for core tasks, which are essential duties and responsibilities that personnel must be able to perform. The base formal training and squadron training manager may be involved in the process, but the final approval rests with the major command. Headquarters (HQ) United States Air Force is the highest level of command and may not be directly involved in approving individual waivers.

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182. (401) An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to

Explanation

An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to allow the tank to breathe properly and to keep the vent unobstructed. This means that the vent cap is necessary to ensure that the tank can properly release any built-up pressure and prevent any blockages in the vent line. It allows for proper ventilation and prevents any potential issues that could arise from a blocked or obstructed vent.

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183. (401) What type of valve is found on the suction line in the self-contained storage tank?

Explanation

A foot valve is a type of valve that is typically found on the suction line in a self-contained storage tank. It is designed to prevent backflow and maintain the prime of the pump by keeping the suction line filled with liquid. This valve is located at the bottom of the suction line and allows liquid to flow into the pump while preventing it from flowing back out. It is commonly used in applications where there is a risk of the pump losing its prime or where backflow needs to be prevented.

Submit
184. (402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

Explanation

The appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR) must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts. The QAR is responsible for ensuring the quality and compliance of the products, so they need to be informed about any issues with contamination. The company who shipped the product, base fuels laboratory personnel, and area laboratory personnel may also be involved in the process, but the primary responsibility lies with the QAR.

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185. (402) What is the maximum number of seconds can fuels management personnel permit a vehicle identification reader (VIR) to make a service station fuel pump selection?

Explanation

Fuels management personnel can permit a vehicle identification reader (VIR) to make a service station fuel pump selection for a maximum of 999 seconds. This means that the VIR can be active for almost 17 minutes before it times out and requires the user to reauthorize the selection.

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186. (404) Which major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV hydrant system?

Explanation

The correct answer is United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE). The type IV hydrant system was developed by USAFE, which is responsible for air operations in Europe and parts of Asia. This command oversees the installation and maintenance of infrastructure, including hydrant systems, to support air operations in its area of responsibility.

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187. (404) How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Four; 50,000." This means that the type IV hydrant system uses four tanks, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

Submit
188. (406) Who may approve leaving refueling unit engines running during fillstand operations?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) functional manager may approve leaving refueling unit engines running during fillstand operations. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations and functions within the MAJCOM, including fuel management. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the safe and efficient use of refueling units and can approve the engines to be left running during fillstand operations if deemed necessary.

Submit
189. (406) When using the fuel servicing unit pump in conjunction with the off-loading pumps, the fueling unit operator sets the controls and valves to

Explanation

When using the fuel servicing unit pump in conjunction with the off-loading pumps, the fueling unit operator sets the controls and valves to single-point operation. This means that the fuel is being pumped through a single point, such as a single-point nozzle, into the aircraft's fuel tank. This method is commonly used for refueling larger aircraft, as it allows for a faster and more efficient fueling process.

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190. (407) Strainers equipped with a differential pressure (DP) gauge should be inspected and cleaned when the DP reading reaches what pressure?

Explanation

Strainers equipped with a differential pressure (DP) gauge should be inspected and cleaned when the DP reading reaches 10 psi. This indicates that there is a significant pressure drop across the strainer, which could be due to a buildup of debris or particles. Cleaning the strainer at this point ensures that it continues to function effectively and prevents any potential damage or disruption to the system. A higher DP reading could indicate a more severe clogging, while a lower reading may not require immediate cleaning.

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191. (407) How often should emergency switches be tested for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized?

Explanation

Emergency switches should be tested for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized on a monthly basis. This regular testing ensures that the emergency switches are functioning correctly and can be relied upon in case of an emergency. It is important to test them frequently to identify any potential issues or malfunctions and address them promptly to maintain the safety and efficiency of the system.

Submit
192. (409) When manually gauging a tank, how many minutes should you wait before inserting any device into the storage tank?

Explanation

When manually gauging a tank, it is recommended to wait for 30 minutes before inserting any device into the storage tank. This waiting period allows the tank to settle and stabilize, ensuring accurate measurements. It allows any turbulence or agitation caused by previous activities to subside, providing a more reliable reading. Waiting for this duration helps to minimize errors and obtain precise measurements during the gauging process.

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193. (410) How many measurement points, minimum, does the measurement probe on an automated tank gauging (ATG) system have?

Explanation

An automated tank gauging (ATG) system typically requires a minimum of two measurement points for its measurement probe. These measurement points are used to accurately determine the level of liquid in the tank. By having two measurement points, the system can calculate the volume of liquid based on the difference in level between the two points. This ensures accurate measurement and monitoring of the tank's contents.

Submit
194. (412) The purpose of the portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage tank is to check the

Explanation

The portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage tank is used to check the vacuum in the annular space. The annular space refers to the space between the inner and outer tanks of the storage tank. Maintaining a vacuum in this space is important for insulation purposes and to prevent heat transfer to the inner tank. The portable vacuum gauge allows operators to monitor and ensure that the desired vacuum level is maintained in the annular space.

Submit
195. (417) This symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, is used to indicate an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment.

Explanation

The red diagonal symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to indicate an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment. This symbol serves as a visual indication to maintenance personnel that there is a problem or issue with the equipment, but it is still safe to use. It helps to ensure that the equipment is properly addressed and any necessary repairs or maintenance are conducted, while also allowing for continued use without posing a significant risk to safety.

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196. (418) How often should you check fire extinguishers that are in cryogenic storage facilities for any blockages and pressure?

Explanation

Fire extinguishers in cryogenic storage facilities should be checked monthly for any blockages and pressure. This regular inspection ensures that the extinguishers are in proper working condition and can be relied upon in case of a fire emergency. Checking them on a monthly basis allows for any potential issues to be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of malfunction during a critical situation. Regular maintenance and inspection of fire extinguishers are crucial for ensuring the safety of the facility and its occupants.

Submit
197. (603) At least how many pounds per square inch (psi) must the air pressure be before driving the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The air pressure must be at least 90 pounds per square inch (psi) before driving the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler.

Submit
198. (604) What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute (rpm), for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The desired engine speed for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler is 1,000±50 revolutions per minute (rpm). This means that the engine should ideally be running at a speed of 1,000 rpm, with a tolerance of plus or minus 50 rpm. This specific engine speed is likely determined based on factors such as fuel efficiency, optimal performance, and safety considerations during low flow servicing operations.

Submit
199. (001) The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System. This is the technical order that provides the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs. It is specifically designed to explain the AF Technical Order System and its processes. The other options do not pertain to reporting improvements in TOs, but rather cover different aspects of technical order management and numbering systems.

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200. (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urgent." This recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition that requires immediate attention. It indicates that the situation is serious and needs to be addressed promptly to prevent any harm or danger.

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(403) On the type III hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED)...
(406) Which type III hydrant system valve opens to relieve thermal...
(406) During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for...
(406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be...
(408) When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and...
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(411) How often should active storage fuel tanks be inventoried?
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(416) How many days should you wait to purge liquid oxygen (LOX)...
(417) For how many weeks is the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form...
(601) What is the gallon capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?
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(601) The single-point nozzle on the Oshkosh R-11 Refueler is equipped...
(602) During normal operation, both dual brake air pressure gauge...
(001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a...
(604) This cable assembly on the Intellicheck2® and Intellitrol®...
(001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order...
(003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?
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(005) Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than...
(005) Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in these decibel...
(616) Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to
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(618) In what block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898,...
(201) Which of these acts as the United States Air Force’s service...
(207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental...
(209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is...
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(812) How many R–18 pumping units are included in a fuels...
(214) Prior to use new sample containers for solids testing are rinsed...
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(214) The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated
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(816) When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment,...
(214) During a flashpoint analysis, apply heat to the sample so that...
(417) What symbol is annotated on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
(803) At what flow rate is the FFU–15E filter separator capable of...
(406) How frequently should types III, IV, and V hydrant systems be...
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(404) On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from...
(416) The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the
(605) The Beta-International R-12 Hydrant Servicing unit’s defueling...
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(603) Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler...
(604) At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the...
(609) The C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit is equipped with emergency...
(005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting...
(613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneously...
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(818) The PMU–27M air-transportable trailer-mounted refueling...
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(215) Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for...
(819) The micronic filter elements on an R–20 multi-aircraft...
(401) What type of gauging device is normally used to gauge service...
(401) What is the difference between the motors used in the...
(401) Which type service station pumping system has a higher delivery...
(403) On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the...
(403) What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the...
(403) The purpose of the lockout key used on the type III hydrant...
(405) The deadman control valve on the type V hydrant system operates...
(406) The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702, Petroleum...
(603) To help in start, the ether starting aid on the Oshkosh R–11...
(604) When you are performing a HIGH FLOW servicing of an aircraft...
(605) At what maximum gallons per minute (gpm) rate can the...
(605) What should you do if condensation is discovered in the air...
(001) An example of a directive standard publication is a
(003) What is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?
(005) Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving...
(005) A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction is classified in...
(616) Multi-source refueling is approved on medical evacuation...
(619) What automated data collection system is used for aircraft...
(006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks...
(621) When performing monthly checks using the AF Form 1807,...
(803) The canisters in the FFU–15E filter separator are constructed...
(207) In order to verify billing data, all vehicle identification link...
(808) What fuel bladder assembly is used for removing water from the...
(808) Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladders come...
(214) What type of cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum...
(214) Before being used for a bottle method test membrane filters are...
(817) Accountability for a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP)...
(215) Who defines what constitutes a negative trend and develops...
(412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?
(610) You are performing servicing operations with the C-300/C-301...
(214) How long should matched weight filters be placed in a dessicator...
(216) How often should Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders...
(821) How many digits makeup the unit type code (UTC) that identifies...
(401) How many selectable fuel product pumps does each military...
(404) What are the rated gallons per minute (gpm) pump capacity on the...
(404) How many aircraft (depending on the type) can be simultaneously...
(406) Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection...
(406) Who is responsible for comparing the quantities...
(406) What position should the pump selector switch be placed in when...
(408) How long are completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms...
(410) What key on the tank control unit (TCU) is used to access the...
(412) Cryotainer convection heat transfer from a cryotainer’s outer...
(602) What percent of additional expansion space is built into the...
(001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions...
(001) These are considered specialized publications.
(606) What precharge pounds per square inch (psi) pressure reading...
(608) Check to ensure the sump tank on the Beta International R-12...
(002) When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System...
(002) Which block would you enter the form or publication title in...
(609) What C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit component allows the tank...
(004) Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
(005) For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must...
(613) Which supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during...
(615) How many operations per day should crewmembers be limited to if...
(005) At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet...
(005) Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area,...
(620) All assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be...
(005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
(005) Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on this class of...
(621) Which item is not recorded on a new AF Form 1807, Operator’s...
(006) To observe environmental pollution precautions, check dikes for...
(802) When setting up the R–22, how many sections of 25-foot hose...
(802) After starting the R–22 trailer-mounted transfer pump...
(203) What method is used to extract data from FuelsManager Defense...
(205) A product loss caused by a pipeline rupture is categorized as...
(803) When preparing the FFU–15E filter separator for shipment,...
(210) Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that...
(210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be...
(213) Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste...
(214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not...
(818) What grade of oil should you use when changing the engine oil on...
(215) When entering analysis results in the Fuels Manger Defense (FMD)...
(217) Who does the fuels mobility supervisor work in conjunction with...
(403) At what liquid percentage level full will the type III hydrant...
(405) What is the constant pounds per square inch (psi) pressure range...
(406) What two valves on the type III hydrant system combine to bleed...
(406) What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the...
(417) What part of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244,...
(602) What is the maximum number of US gallons that can register on...
(608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
(609) What component on the C-300/C-301 Ground Servicing unit prevents...
(005) Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH)...
(005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should...
(617) Who is normally tasked to observe and record filter separator...
(005) What is the minimum number of minutes that must pass to...
(206) Which form is used to record transactions to non-DOD aircraft?
(212) During a visual sample what kind of dye is used to aid in...
(214) Electrical continuity tests must be performed on lab filtration...
(214) When performing a flashpoint analysis, ensure the sample and the...
(403) What supplies air pressure to the pneumatically operated deadman...
(208) What are the clipboard color coding requirements for JP–8 +...
(210) After you obtain a sample with an in-line sampler, how much time...
(215) Who in the fuels management flight is responsible for...
(819) What should each R–20 surge suppressor precharge gauge...
(820) When reconstituting fuels operational readiness capability...
(217) The fuels mobility support element supervisor identifies fiscal...
(218) Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award...
(218) Core task waiver letters for active duty personnel should be...
(401) An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to
(401) What type of valve is found on the suction line in the...
(402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive...
(402) What is the maximum number of seconds can fuels management...
(404) Which major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV hydrant...
(404) How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how...
(406) Who may approve leaving refueling unit engines running during...
(406) When using the fuel servicing unit pump in conjunction with the...
(407) Strainers equipped with a differential pressure (DP) gauge...
(407) How often should emergency switches be tested for proper...
(409) When manually gauging a tank, how many minutes should you wait...
(410) How many measurement points, minimum, does the measurement probe...
(412) The purpose of the portable vacuum gauge on a cryogenic storage...
(417) This symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244,...
(418) How often should you check fire extinguishers that are in...
(603) At least how many pounds per square inch (psi) must the air...
(604) What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute...
(001) The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for...
(001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests...
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