2f051 CDC 100 Ure

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2f051 CDC 100 Ure - Quiz

100 Random questions from all 5 CDC Volumes


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a

    • A.

      Technical order index.

    • B.

      Technical order catalog.

    • C.

      List of applicable publications (LOAP).

    • D.

      Numerical index and requirements tables (NI&RT).

    Correct Answer
    C. List of applicable publications (LOAP).
    Explanation
    A technical order (TO) that lists all of the TOs applicable to a specific military system is called a list of applicable publications (LOAP). This document provides a comprehensive list of all the technical orders that are relevant and necessary for the maintenance and operation of the military system. It helps ensure that all the necessary information and instructions are readily available to the personnel responsible for the system, making it easier for them to access the appropriate TOs when needed. The LOAP serves as a reference guide and organizational tool for managing the technical orders associated with a particular military system.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Abbreviated.

    • C.

      Time compliance.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. Time compliance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Time compliance. Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause severe or fatal injuries. These orders specify a specific time frame within which the corrective action must be taken to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. They are prioritized based on the level of risk involved and the urgency of the situation. By complying with the specified time frame, potential hazards can be mitigated or eliminated, reducing the risk of accidents and injuries.

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  • 3. 

    (001) The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is

    • A.

      TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–5–15, AF Time Compliance Technical Order Process.

    • C.

      TO 00–5–18. Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.

    • D.

      TO 00–5–3, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Life cycle Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System. This is the technical order that provides the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs. It is specifically designed to explain the AF Technical Order System and its processes. The other options do not pertain to reporting improvements in TOs, but rather cover different aspects of technical order management and numbering systems.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?

    • A.

      AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log.

    • C.

      AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is the most likely form to use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies because it specifically deals with recommending changes to technical manuals. This form allows individuals to document and communicate any issues or deficiencies they have identified in the TOs, and also provides a platform for receiving a reply or response regarding the recommended changes. This form is designed to streamline the process of reporting and addressing TO deficiencies, making it the most appropriate choice for this purpose.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that could result in a fatal or serious injury, or damaged equipment?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Routine.

    • C.

      Emergency.

    • D.

      Time compliance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Emergency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Emergency" because an emergency recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that could result in a fatal or serious injury, or damaged equipment. This indicates that the situation requires immediate attention and action to prevent any harm or further damage.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Within how many hours is the responsible technical content manager required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    D. 48
    Explanation
    The responsible technical content manager is required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report within 48 hours. This time frame allows for timely response and resolution of any urgent technical issues or improvements that are identified in the report. It ensures that the necessary actions are taken promptly to address the emergency situation and prevent any further complications or delays.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Routine.

    • C.

      Emergency.

    • D.

      Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent." This recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition that requires immediate attention. It indicates that the situation is serious and needs to be addressed promptly to prevent any harm or danger.

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  • 8. 

    (001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Routine.

    • C.

      Emergency.

    • D.

      Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    B. Routine.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Routine. This is because a routine TO improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days. Urgent, emergency, and critical hazard TO improvement recommendations may require quicker response times due to their more urgent nature.

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  • 9. 

    (001) These are considered specialized publications.

    • A.

      Journals.

    • B.

      Staff digests.

    • C.

      Technical orders.

    • D.

      Narrative summaries.

    Correct Answer
    C. Technical orders.
    Explanation
    Technical orders are considered specialized publications because they contain detailed instructions, procedures, and information specific to a particular field or industry. They are often used in technical and military contexts to provide guidance on the maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment or systems. Journals, staff digests, and narrative summaries may also contain specialized information, but technical orders are specifically designed to provide detailed and specific instructions, making them the most appropriate answer.

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  • 10. 

    (001) Which type of AF publication includes instructions and manuals?

    • A.

      Standard.

    • B.

      Technical.

    • C.

      Recurring.

    • D.

      Specialized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Standard" because this type of AF publication includes instructions and manuals. Standard publications are the primary source of guidance for Air Force operations and cover a wide range of topics, including procedures, policies, and instructions for various tasks and activities. These publications are designed to provide standardized guidance and ensure consistency across the Air Force.

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  • 11. 

    (001) An example of a directive standard publication is a

    • A.

      Bulletin.

    • B.

      Pamphlet.

    • C.

      Staff digest.

    • D.

      Supplement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supplement.
    Explanation
    A supplement is an example of a directive standard publication because it provides additional information or updates to an existing publication. It is typically used to add or clarify information that may have been missing or outdated in the original publication. A supplement is often distributed separately from the main publication and is intended to be used in conjunction with it. It serves as a directive standard by providing specific instructions or guidance related to a particular topic or issue.

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  • 12. 

    (001) Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called

    • A.

      Manuals.

    • B.

      Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Instructions.

    • D.

      Operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Instructions.
    Explanation
    Publications that set up management standards and control the official business of the Air Force are called "instructions". Instructions provide detailed guidance and procedures for carrying out specific tasks or operations within an organization. They are typically used to ensure consistency, efficiency, and compliance with established protocols. Manuals, pamphlets, and operating instructions may also provide guidance, but instructions specifically refer to the publications that establish management standards and control official business.

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  • 13. 

    (001) Which type of standard publication contains step-by-step directives telling how to accomplish specific tasks or operations?

    • A.

      Manuals.

    • B.

      Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Instructions.

    • D.

      Technical orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals.
    Explanation
    Manuals are a type of standard publication that contain step-by-step directives telling how to accomplish specific tasks or operations. Manuals provide detailed instructions and guidelines for users to follow in order to successfully complete a task or operation. They are often used in various fields such as technology, manufacturing, and maintenance to ensure consistency and accuracy in performing specific tasks. Pamphlets, instructions, and technical orders may also provide guidance, but manuals are specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 14. 

    (001) Publications that announce policies and prescribe procedures within a single manager’s area of authority are called

    • A.

      Bulletins.

    • B.

      Supplements.

    • C.

      Branch notices.

    • D.

      Operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operating instructions.
    Explanation
    Operating instructions are publications that provide guidance and directions for carrying out specific tasks or procedures within a manager's area of authority. They outline the step-by-step process and provide detailed information on how to perform a particular job or task. Bulletins, supplements, and branch notices may also contain policies and procedures, but they are not specifically focused on providing instructions for carrying out tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is operating instructions.

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  • 15. 

    (001) To find a chapter or section heading in a specific publication, you would first look in the

    • A.

      Chapter index.

    • B.

      Table of contents.

    • C.

      Publication index.

    • D.

      Alphabetical index.

    Correct Answer
    B. Table of contents.
    Explanation
    To find a chapter or section heading in a specific publication, you would first look in the table of contents. The table of contents provides an organized list of all the chapters and sections in the publication, allowing the reader to quickly locate the desired information. The chapter index, publication index, and alphabetical index may also be helpful in finding specific content, but the table of contents is specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 16. 

    (002) Who do you contact to gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)?

    • A.

      Squadron Records Monitor.

    • B.

      Flight Publications Monitor.

    • C.

      Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

    • D.

      Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.
    Explanation
    To gain access to the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), one should contact the Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative. This individual is responsible for distributing technical orders within the squadron and can provide the necessary access to ETIMS. The Squadron Records Monitor is not responsible for ETIMS access, and the Flight Publications Monitor is not directly involved in technical order distribution. The Squadron Technical Order Distribution Office Representative may have a similar role, but the correct answer specifically mentions the Flight Technical Order Distribution Office Representative.

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  • 17. 

    (002) When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the

    • A.

      Series in the ―TO Date‖ block.

    • B.

      Title in the ―Stock Number‖ block.

    • C.

      Series number in the ―TO number‖ block.

    • D.

      Title in the ―Word Search on Title‖ block.

    Correct Answer
    C. Series number in the ―TO number‖ block.
    Explanation
    When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you can locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the series number in the "TO number" block. This means that if you have the series number of the TO, you can directly enter it in the "TO number" block to find the specific technical order you are looking for in the ETIMS system.

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  • 18. 

    (002) Which block would you enter the form or publication title in when searching by title for an electronic standard publication on the Air Force e-Publishing website?

    • A.

      Find it.

    • B.

      Search Products.

    • C.

      Advance Search.

    • D.

      Electronic Publications.

    Correct Answer
    B. Search Products.
    Explanation
    The form or publication title should be entered in the "Search Products" block when searching by title for an electronic standard publication on the Air Force e-Publishing website. This block is specifically designed for searching and retrieving products based on their titles. By entering the title in this block, users can easily find the desired electronic standard publication on the website.

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  • 19. 

    (003) What characteristic refers to how easy a liquid changes into a vapor state?

    • A.

      Volatility.

    • B.

      Viscosity.

    • C.

      Boiling point.

    • D.

      Vapor pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Volatility.
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to how easily a liquid changes into a vapor state. It measures the tendency of a substance to evaporate and is influenced by factors such as temperature and pressure. Liquids with high volatility evaporate quickly, while those with low volatility evaporate slowly. Viscosity, on the other hand, refers to a liquid's resistance to flow, boiling point is the temperature at which a liquid turns into a gas, and vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by a vapor in equilibrium with its liquid phase.

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  • 20. 

    (003) This term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize.

    • A.

      Volatility.

    • B.

      Fire point.

    • C.

      Flash point.

    • D.

      Boiling point.

    Correct Answer
    D. Boiling point.
    Explanation
    The term "boiling point" refers to the temperature at which a liquid begins to actively vaporize. This is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure, causing bubbles of vapor to form within the liquid. The other options, volatility, fire point, and flash point, do not specifically describe the temperature at which vaporization occurs. Volatility refers to how easily a substance vaporizes, while fire point and flash point are temperatures at which a substance can ignite or produce a flammable vapor, respectively.

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  • 21. 

    (003) Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than

    • A.

      100 degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F).

    • B.

      120° F.

    • C.

      140° F.

    • D.

      150° F.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F).
    Explanation
    Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit (F). This means that these liquids will not ignite or catch fire at temperatures below 100 degrees F. Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance gives off enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. Therefore, any temperature below 100 degrees F is considered safe for handling combustible liquids as they will not easily catch fire.

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  • 22. 

    (003) What is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?

    • A.

      –20 degrees () Fahrenheit (F).

    • B.

      –40° F.

    • C.

      100° F.

    • D.

      140° F.

    Correct Answer
    D. 140° F.
    Explanation
    The minimum flash point of JP-5 jet fuel is 140°F. Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance can emit enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. In the case of JP-5 jet fuel, it requires a minimum temperature of 140°F for it to produce enough vapor to ignite.

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  • 23. 

    (003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?

    • A.

      –51 degrees (°) Celsius (C).

    • B.

      –58° C.

    • C.

      –51° Fahrenheit (F).

    • D.

      –58° F.

    Correct Answer
    D. –58° F.
    Explanation
    The freeze point for JP-8 jet fuel is -58° F.

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  • 24. 

    (004) Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

    • A.

      Reduces the concentration of oxygen.

    • B.

      Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact.

    • C.

      Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.

    • D.

      Builds up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area.

    Correct Answer
    C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.
    Explanation
    Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can cause frostbite or damage to human tissue upon contact. It reduces the concentration of oxygen and can cause asphyxiation in confined spaces if it evaporates and displaces the oxygen. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to tremendous pressure, potentially causing an explosion.

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  • 25. 

    (005) Much time and expense are involved in investigating and

    • A.

      Solving accidents.

    • B.

      Reporting accidents.

    • C.

      Validating accidents.

    • D.

      Discovering accidents.

    Correct Answer
    B. Reporting accidents.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "reporting accidents." This is because reporting accidents involves documenting and providing information about the incident, which can be a time-consuming and expensive process. It includes gathering evidence, interviewing witnesses, analyzing data, and preparing comprehensive reports. Investigating and solving accidents refer to the process of determining the cause and preventing future occurrences, while validating accidents and discovering accidents do not accurately reflect the involvement of time and expense in addressing accidents.

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  • 26. 

    (005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight?

    • A.

      AFMAN 48–153, Health Risk Assessment.

    • B.

      AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.

    • C.

      AFMAN 48–155, Occupational and Environmental Health Exposure Controls.

    • D.

      AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91-302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards. This directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight.

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  • 27. 

    (005) Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, how often must the fuels safety monitor brief all personnel on safety matters?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, the fuels safety monitor is required to brief all personnel on safety matters semiannually. This means that the briefing should take place twice a year. It is important for the fuels safety monitor to provide regular updates and reminders about safety procedures to ensure that all personnel are aware of and following proper safety protocols. By conducting these briefings semiannually, the Air Force can maintain a safe working environment and minimize the risk of accidents or incidents related to fuel safety.

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  • 28. 

    (005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

    • A.

      Falling.

    • B.

      Using hand tools.

    • C.

      Handling heavy equipment.

    • D.

      Striking against material or equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falling.
    Explanation
    Falling is the principal cause of disabling injuries to office workers. This could include slips, trips, and falls from heights or on the same level. Falls can occur due to various reasons such as wet floors, uneven surfaces, loose carpeting, or inadequate lighting. Office workers may also fall while using ladders or step stools to reach high shelves or while navigating stairs. These falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head injuries, which can lead to temporary or permanent disability. Therefore, it is crucial for employers to implement proper safety measures to prevent falls in office environments.

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  • 29. 

    (005) For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must have

    • A.

      Grounded plugs.

    • B.

      Single insulation.

    • C.

      Double insulation.

    • D.

      Explosion-proof plugs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grounded plugs.
    Explanation
    Grounded plugs are necessary for safety measures in Air Force electrical equipment. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks by providing a path for excess electrical current to flow into the ground. This helps to protect both the equipment and the personnel using it. Grounded plugs also help to reduce the risk of electrical fires by preventing the buildup of static electricity. Therefore, having grounded plugs is an important safety requirement for Air Force electrical equipment.

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  • 30. 

    (005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    To accurately determine the level of fuel in the tank, it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time after filling the tank. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize, ensuring an accurate reading. In this case, the correct answer is 30 minutes, which means that after filling the tank, one should wait for 30 minutes before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob, to determine the fuel level.

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  • 31. 

    (005) What is the maximum allowable speed when driving a special-purpose vehicle on the flight line?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable speed when driving a special-purpose vehicle on the flight line is 10. This speed limit is likely in place to ensure the safety of personnel and aircraft on the flight line. Driving at a slower speed reduces the risk of accidents and allows for better control and maneuverability of the vehicle. It also gives drivers more time to react to any potential hazards or obstacles that may be present on the flight line.

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  • 32. 

    (005) Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?

    • A.

      "Follow Me"‖ trucks.

    • B.

      Refueling units.

    • C.

      Fire trucks.

    • D.

      Tugs.

    Correct Answer
    A. "Follow Me"‖ trucks.
    Explanation
    "Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft. These trucks are used to guide aircraft on the ground and ensure they follow the correct path. They have the authority to direct aircraft and other vehicles, so they do not need to yield to aircraft. Refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs, on the other hand, may need to yield to aircraft depending on the situation and airport regulations.

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  • 33. 

    (005) What does a flashing red and green light signal from the control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?

    • A.

      General warning, use extreme caution.

    • B.

      Return to starting point.

    • C.

      Safe to cross.

    • D.

      Stop.

    Correct Answer
    A. General warning, use extreme caution.
    Explanation
    A flashing red and green light signal from the control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle to use extreme caution. This signal is used to alert the vehicle operator to potential hazards or dangers on the flight line. It is important for the vehicle to proceed with caution and be prepared to take necessary actions to ensure safety.

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  • 34. 

    (005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, move out of the taxi path,

    • A.

      Slow down, and turn off the headlight.

    • B.

      Stop the vehicle, and leave the headlights on.

    • C.

      Slow down, and leave the headlights on.

    • D.

      Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.
    Explanation
    When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to stop the vehicle to ensure safety. Turning off the headlights is necessary to prevent any potential hazards or distractions caused by the lights. This helps to avoid blinding the pilots or ground crew and allows them to clearly see and navigate the area.

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  • 35. 

    (005) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, you should under no circumstances position it any closer than this minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      25

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The minimum distance that the refueling vehicle should be positioned from any portion of the aircraft is 10 feet. This ensures that there is enough space for maneuvering and reduces the risk of any accidental contact between the vehicle and the aircraft.

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  • 36. 

    (005) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within this many feet of operating aircraft radar.

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      150

    • C.

      200

    • D.

      300

    Correct Answer
    D. 300
    Explanation
    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar systems of aircraft can be sensitive and easily affected by electromagnetic interference. Conducting fuel servicing operations too close to the radar can cause disruptions or malfunctions in the radar system, which can compromise the safety and functionality of the aircraft. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance of 300 feet to ensure the proper functioning of the radar system during fuel servicing operations.

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  • 37. 

    (005) A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction is classified in this spill category.

    • A.

      Class I.

    • B.

      Class II.

    • C.

      Class III.

    • D.

      Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I.
    Explanation
    A fuel spill that is less than 2 feet in any direction is classified as Class I. This category is used to classify small spills that have a limited impact and can be easily contained and cleaned up.

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  • 38. 

    (005) Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?

    • A.

      Class I.

    • B.

      Class II.

    • C.

      Class III.

    • D.

      Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    B. Class II.
    Explanation
    Class II fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction. This means that the spill is relatively small and confined to a small area. Class II spills are considered to be moderate in severity and can be managed and contained more easily compared to larger spills.

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  • 39. 

    (005) Which class of fuel spill should be declared as a ground accident?

    • A.

      I.

    • B.

      II.

    • C.

      III.

    • D.

      IV.

    Correct Answer
    C. III.
    Explanation
    Class III fuel spills should be declared as a ground accident. This class of fuel spill refers to a spill involving a flammable liquid with a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. These spills have a high risk of fire and can cause significant damage to the environment and property. Therefore, it is important to declare them as ground accidents to ensure proper response and containment measures are taken to mitigate the potential hazards.

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  • 40. 

    (005) Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in these decibel ranges.

    • A.

      40 to 90.

    • B.

      80 to 100.

    • C.

      90 to 110.

    • D.

      110 to 130.

    Correct Answer
    D. 110 to 130.
    Explanation
    Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in the range of 110 to 130 decibels. This range is the highest among the given options, indicating that aircraft noise can be quite loud. Noise levels in this range can cause hearing damage and are considered very loud.

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  • 41. 

    What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      25

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 25
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance that should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential accidents or injuries that could occur due to the powerful suction and exhaust produced by the jet engines. Being too close to the intakes can result in severe injury or even death, so it is crucial to maintain a safe distance of 25 feet.

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  • 42. 

    (005) At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet is considered safe?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    D. 200
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance behind an aircraft's operating jet is considered to be 200 feet. This distance ensures that there is enough space for other aircraft or ground personnel to safely maneuver without being affected by the jet blast or any debris that may be generated by the aircraft's engines. It also helps to prevent any potential damage to the aircraft or injury to personnel due to the high velocity and temperature of the jet blast.

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  • 43. 

    (005) In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, how many feet will signs be posted from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, signs will be posted 50 feet away from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits.

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  • 44. 

    (005) When color-coding piping systems, what color is used as a primary warning for all flammable gases and liquids?

    • A.

      Red.

    • B.

      Black.

    • C.

      Green.

    • D.

      Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    D. Yellow.
    Explanation
    Yellow is used as a primary warning color for all flammable gases and liquids when color-coding piping systems. This color is chosen because it is easily recognizable and indicates caution and potential danger. It helps to alert individuals working with or around these systems to take appropriate safety measures and be aware of the potential hazards associated with flammable substances.

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  • 45. 

    (005) How often should fill stand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Emergency shutdown switches should be tested for proper operation while the system is operating on a monthly basis. This regular testing ensures that the switches are functioning correctly and can effectively shut down the system in case of an emergency. Testing them frequently helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions and allows for timely repairs or replacements, ensuring the safety and reliability of the system.

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  • 46. 

    (005) Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than this many feet from fill stands.

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    Emergency shutdown switches should be located no closer than 25 feet from fill stands. This distance ensures that in case of an emergency, such as a fire or gas leak, the switch can be easily accessed and activated to shut down the equipment or system. Placing the switch at a safe distance prevents it from being accidentally activated or damaged during regular operations, while still allowing it to be within reach in case of an emergency.

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  • 47. 

    (005) Fire reporting telephone stations must be located within how many feet of all fixed fueling points?

    • A.

      150

    • B.

      250

    • C.

      300

    • D.

      500

    Correct Answer
    C. 300
    Explanation
    Fire reporting telephone stations must be located within 300 feet of all fixed fueling points. This is important to ensure that in the event of a fire or emergency at a fueling point, immediate communication can be established to report the incident and request assistance. Having the fire reporting telephone stations within close proximity to the fueling points allows for quick response and minimizes the potential damage and risk associated with fires at these locations.

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  • 48. 

    (005) What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?

    • A.

      561 gallons.

    • B.

      661 gallons.

    • C.

      561 barrels.

    • D.

      661 barrels.

    Correct Answer
    B. 661 gallons.
    Explanation
    The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. This means that any tank with a capacity equal to or greater than 661 gallons would need to have a dike area. The dike area is necessary to contain any potential spills or leaks from the tank, ensuring that the surrounding environment is protected.

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  • 49. 

    (005) Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed 50 feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks. This is important to ensure the safety of individuals in the area and to warn them about the potential dangers associated with the off-loading process. Placing the signs at this distance allows for adequate visibility and gives people enough time to react and stay clear of the area.

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  • 50. 

    (005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area except

    • A.

      Transfer operations.

    • B.

      Fill stand operations.

    • C.

      Base service station issues.

    • D.

      Commercial pipeline receipts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fill stand operations.
    Explanation
    During electrical storms, it is unsafe to perform certain operations due to the risk of lightning strikes. Transfer operations, base service station issues, and commercial pipeline receipts may all continue during electrical storms as they do not involve the use of fill stands. Fill stand operations, on the other hand, typically involve the use of electrical equipment and can pose a higher risk during storms. Therefore, fill stand operations are the only operation that may not continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 21, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    USAFPOL
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