2f051 CDC 100 Ure
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(001) The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is
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TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
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TO 00–5–15, AF Time Compliance Technical Order Process.
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TO 00–5–18. Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.
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TO 00–5–3, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Life cycle Management.
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100 Random questions from all 5 CDC Volumes
Quiz Preview
- 2.
(001) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?
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AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
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AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log.
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AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.
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AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.Explanation
AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is the most likely form to use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies because it specifically deals with recommending changes to technical manuals. This form allows individuals to document and communicate any issues or deficiencies they have identified in the TOs, and also provides a platform for receiving a reply or response regarding the recommended changes. This form is designed to streamline the process of reporting and addressing TO deficiencies, making it the most appropriate choice for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?
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Urgent.
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Routine.
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Emergency.
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Critical hazard.
Correct Answer
A. Urgent.Explanation
The correct answer is "Urgent." This recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition that requires immediate attention. It indicates that the situation is serious and needs to be addressed promptly to prevent any harm or danger.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the
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Series in the ―TO Date‖ block.
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Title in the ―Stock Number‖ block.
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Series number in the ―TO number‖ block.
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Title in the ―Word Search on Title‖ block.
Correct Answer
A. Series number in the ―TO number‖ block.Explanation
When using the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), you can locate a technical order (TO) when only the TO series is known by typing the series number in the "TO number" block. This means that if you have the series number of the TO, you can directly enter it in the "TO number" block to find the specific technical order you are looking for in the ETIMS system.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(003) Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than
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100 degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F).
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120° F.
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140° F.
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150° F.
Correct Answer
A. 100 degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F).Explanation
Combustible liquids have a flash point higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit (F). This means that these liquids will not ignite or catch fire at temperatures below 100 degrees F. Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance gives off enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. Therefore, any temperature below 100 degrees F is considered safe for handling combustible liquids as they will not easily catch fire.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(003) What is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?
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–20 degrees () Fahrenheit (F).
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–40° F.
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100° F.
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140° F.
Correct Answer
A. 140° F.Explanation
The minimum flash point of JP-5 jet fuel is 140°F. Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance can emit enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. In the case of JP-5 jet fuel, it requires a minimum temperature of 140°F for it to produce enough vapor to ignite.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) What is the freeze point for JP–8 jet fuel?
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–51 degrees (°) Celsius (C).
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–58° C.
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–51° Fahrenheit (F).
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–58° F.
Correct Answer
A. –58° F.Explanation
The freeze point for JP-8 jet fuel is -58° F.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(004) Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
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Reduces the concentration of oxygen.
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Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact.
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Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.
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Builds up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area.
Correct Answer
A. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.Explanation
Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can cause frostbite or damage to human tissue upon contact. It reduces the concentration of oxygen and can cause asphyxiation in confined spaces if it evaporates and displaces the oxygen. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to tremendous pressure, potentially causing an explosion.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(005) What directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight?
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AFMAN 48–153, Health Risk Assessment.
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AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.
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AFMAN 48–155, Occupational and Environmental Health Exposure Controls.
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AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 91–302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 91-302, Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standards. This directive requires that an effective safety program be established within the fuels flight.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(005) Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?
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Falling.
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Using hand tools.
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Handling heavy equipment.
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Striking against material or equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Falling.Explanation
Falling is the principal cause of disabling injuries to office workers. This could include slips, trips, and falls from heights or on the same level. Falls can occur due to various reasons such as wet floors, uneven surfaces, loose carpeting, or inadequate lighting. Office workers may also fall while using ladders or step stools to reach high shelves or while navigating stairs. These falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head injuries, which can lead to temporary or permanent disability. Therefore, it is crucial for employers to implement proper safety measures to prevent falls in office environments.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(005) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?
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15
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20
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30
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35
Correct Answer
A. 30Explanation
To accurately determine the level of fuel in the tank, it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time after filling the tank. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize, ensuring an accurate reading. In this case, the correct answer is 30 minutes, which means that after filling the tank, one should wait for 30 minutes before inserting any object, such as a tape and bob, to determine the fuel level.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(005) Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?
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"Follow Me"‖ trucks.
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Refueling units.
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Fire trucks.
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Tugs.
Correct Answer
A. "Follow Me"‖ trucks.Explanation
"Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft. These trucks are used to guide aircraft on the ground and ensure they follow the correct path. They have the authority to direct aircraft and other vehicles, so they do not need to yield to aircraft. Refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs, on the other hand, may need to yield to aircraft depending on the situation and airport regulations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(005) What does a flashing red and green light signal from the control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?
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General warning, use extreme caution.
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Return to starting point.
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Safe to cross.
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Stop.
Correct Answer
A. General warning, use extreme caution.Explanation
A flashing red and green light signal from the control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle to use extreme caution. This signal is used to alert the vehicle operator to potential hazards or dangers on the flight line. It is important for the vehicle to proceed with caution and be prepared to take necessary actions to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(005) When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, move out of the taxi path,
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Slow down, and turn off the headlight.
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Stop the vehicle, and leave the headlights on.
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Slow down, and leave the headlights on.
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Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.
Correct Answer
A. Stop the vehicle, and turn the headlights off.Explanation
When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to stop the vehicle to ensure safety. Turning off the headlights is necessary to prevent any potential hazards or distractions caused by the lights. This helps to avoid blinding the pilots or ground crew and allows them to clearly see and navigate the area.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(005) A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction is classified in this spill category.
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Class I.
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Class II.
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Class III.
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Class IV.
Correct Answer
A. Class I.Explanation
A fuel spill that is less than 2 feet in any direction is classified as Class I. This category is used to classify small spills that have a limited impact and can be easily contained and cleaned up.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(005) Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?
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Class I.
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Class II.
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Class III.
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Class IV.
Correct Answer
A. Class II.Explanation
Class II fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any direction. This means that the spill is relatively small and confined to a small area. Class II spills are considered to be moderate in severity and can be managed and contained more easily compared to larger spills.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(005) Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in these decibel ranges.
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40 to 90.
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80 to 100.
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90 to 110.
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110 to 130.
Correct Answer
A. 110 to 130.Explanation
Operating aircraft can produce noise levels in the range of 110 to 130 decibels. This range is the highest among the given options, indicating that aircraft noise can be quite loud. Noise levels in this range can cause hearing damage and are considered very loud.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(005) How often should fill stand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?
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Daily.
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Weekly.
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Monthly.
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Semiannually.
Correct Answer
A. Monthly.Explanation
Emergency shutdown switches should be tested for proper operation while the system is operating on a monthly basis. This regular testing ensures that the switches are functioning correctly and can effectively shut down the system in case of an emergency. Testing them frequently helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions and allows for timely repairs or replacements, ensuring the safety and reliability of the system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(005) Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?
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25
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50
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75
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100
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
Prior to performing off-loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed 50 feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks. This is important to ensure the safety of individuals in the area and to warn them about the potential dangers associated with the off-loading process. Placing the signs at this distance allows for adequate visibility and gives people enough time to react and stay clear of the area.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(005) All of the following operations may continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area except
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Transfer operations.
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Fill stand operations.
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Base service station issues.
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Commercial pipeline receipts.
Correct Answer
A. Fill stand operations.Explanation
During electrical storms, it is unsafe to perform certain operations due to the risk of lightning strikes. Transfer operations, base service station issues, and commercial pipeline receipts may all continue during electrical storms as they do not involve the use of fill stands. Fill stand operations, on the other hand, typically involve the use of electrical equipment and can pose a higher risk during storms. Therefore, fill stand operations are the only operation that may not continue when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of the servicing area.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(005) This condition can exist and you do not have to stop cryogenic production.
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When electrical storms are within 1 nautical mile.
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When electric storms are within 3 nautical miles.
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When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles.
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When electrical storms are within 7 nautical miles.
Correct Answer
A. When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles.Explanation
When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles, it is considered a safe distance to continue cryogenic production without having to stop. This indicates that the production process can still be carried out without significant risks or hazards posed by the electrical storms.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(005) What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
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Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire.
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Contact the base interior electric shop.
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Locate a water-type fire extinguisher.
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Disable the circuit.
Correct Answer
A. Disable the circuit.Explanation
When fighting an electrical fire, the first thing you should do is disable the circuit. This is important because electrical fires are fueled by electricity, so cutting off the power supply is crucial to prevent the fire from spreading or causing further damage. By disabling the circuit, you eliminate the source of the fire and minimize the risk of electric shock or injury.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(005) Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on this class of fire.
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A.
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B.
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C.
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D.
Correct Answer
A. A.Explanation
Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on this class of fire because they use water as the extinguishing agent. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, and cloth. Water is able to cool down the fire and remove the heat, which is one of the elements needed for combustion. Therefore, water pressure fire extinguishers are an appropriate choice for tackling Class A fires.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(005) What is the proper treatment for someone who has been splashed with cryogenic liquid?
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Rewarm the body part as soon as possible.
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Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket.
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Watch closely and treat for shock.
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Give the victim plenty of liquids.
Correct Answer
A. Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket.Explanation
When someone is splashed with cryogenic liquid, it is important to wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket. Cryogenic liquids can cause severe burns and tissue damage, and wrapping the area helps to insulate it and prevent further injury. Rewarming the body part as soon as possible is not recommended, as it can cause additional damage. Watching closely and treating for shock is important, but it is not the proper treatment for the immediate injury. Giving the victim plenty of liquids is also not the correct treatment for this specific situation.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(006) To detect pollutant releases, monitor underground storage tanks every
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15 days.
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30 days.
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45 days.
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60 days.
Correct Answer
A. 30 days.Explanation
To effectively detect pollutant releases, it is recommended to monitor underground storage tanks every 30 days. This frequency allows for regular and timely inspections, ensuring that any potential leaks or releases are promptly identified and addressed. Monitoring at shorter intervals, such as every 15 days, may be excessive and unnecessary, while longer intervals like 45 or 60 days could increase the risk of undetected pollution incidents. Therefore, a 30-day monitoring cycle strikes a balance between thoroughness and practicality in maintaining environmental safety.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(006) As a pollution control precaution, dike drain valves
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Must be locked open to drain the dikes constantly.
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Should not be connected to the base industrial water system.
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Are not required for dikes around aboveground tanks over 2,000 gallons.
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Must be locked in the closed position when the dikes are not being drained.
Correct Answer
A. Must be locked in the closed position when the dikes are not being drained.Explanation
Dike drain valves are used as a pollution control precaution to drain the dikes. However, it is important to lock these valves in the closed position when the dikes are not being drained. This is necessary to prevent any accidental release of pollutants or contaminants into the environment. By locking the valves closed, it ensures that the dikes remain secure and prevents any potential leaks or spills.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(007) Within what time frame of an incident occurring should the fuels management team (FMT) send an initial mishap notification to HQ USAF/A4LE, The Directorate of Logistics Materiel Support Division, Fuels?
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Within 24 hours of the mishap.
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Within 48 hours of the mishap.
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By the end of the first duty day after the mishap.
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By the end of the third duty day after the mishap.
Correct Answer
A. Within 24 hours of the mishap.Explanation
The fuels management team (FMT) should send an initial mishap notification to HQ USAF/A4LE, The Directorate of Logistics Materiel Support Division, Fuels within 24 hours of the mishap. This ensures that the incident is promptly reported and allows for timely response and investigation.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(007) Which outside agency acts as the Air Force’s Service Control Point (SCP)?
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Defense Logistics Agency Energy (DLA-Energy).
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Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
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Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
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Major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).Explanation
The Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) acts as the Service Control Point (SCP) for the Air Force. The SCP is responsible for managing and controlling the supply and distribution of petroleum products within the Air Force. AFPA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the Air Force has a reliable and efficient supply of fuel for its operations. This includes coordinating with other agencies and suppliers to meet the Air Force's petroleum requirements and maintaining inventory levels. AFPA's expertise and capabilities make it the appropriate agency to serve as the SCP for the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(008) Joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the technician and the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section
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Daily.
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Annually.
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Monthly.
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Semiannually.
Correct Answer
A. Annually.Explanation
Joint inventories on individual tool kits are conducted by the technician and the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section annually. This means that the inventories are done once a year.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(201) Which of these acts as the United States Air Force’s service control point?
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Major command (MAJCOM).
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Air Force Petroleum Agency.
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Defense Logistics Agency Energy.
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Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Petroleum Agency.Explanation
The Air Force Petroleum Agency serves as the United States Air Force's service control point. This agency is responsible for managing and providing petroleum, oil, and lubricant (POL) support to the Air Force and other Department of Defense (DoD) organizations. They ensure the availability of fuel and related products to support Air Force operations worldwide. By controlling the distribution and storage of POL, the Air Force Petroleum Agency plays a critical role in maintaining the Air Force's operational readiness.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(203) Which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) function key is used to enter a home station aircraft request in the FMD logsheet?
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F2.
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F3.
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F4.
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F6.
Correct Answer
A. F2.Explanation
The F2 function key is used to enter a home station aircraft request in the FMD logsheet.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(203) What method is used to extract data from FuelsManager Defense (FMD) databases?
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Queries.
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Responses.
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Executions.
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Resolutions.
Correct Answer
A. Queries.Explanation
The method used to extract data from FuelsManager Defense (FMD) databases is through queries. Queries are specific requests or questions made to the database in order to retrieve the desired information. By using queries, users can specify the criteria and conditions for the data they want to extract, making it a powerful tool for data extraction and analysis.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(205) A product loss caused by a pipeline rupture is categorized as what type of determinable variance?
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Peacetime loss.
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Major disaster.
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Wartime loss.
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Combat loss.
Correct Answer
A. Peacetime loss.Explanation
A product loss caused by a pipeline rupture is categorized as a peacetime loss because it occurs during a time of peace and is not related to any major disaster, wartime, or combat situation. A pipeline rupture can result in the loss of products, such as oil or gas, but it is not directly linked to any conflict or war. Therefore, it falls under the category of a peacetime loss.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(207) In order to verify billing data, all vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests should be coordinated through the
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Responsible officer.
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Property administrator.
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Defense fuel support point.
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Unit financial resource manager.
Correct Answer
A. Unit financial resource manager.Explanation
The correct answer is unit financial resource manager. The unit financial resource manager is responsible for coordinating and verifying billing data, including vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that all billing information is accurate and properly accounted for. The responsible officer, property administrator, and Defense fuel support point may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically tasked with verifying billing data and coordinating VIL key requests.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(207) When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, what is entered in the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block?
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Vehicle license plate number.
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Vehicle registration number.
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The word “Temporary”.
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The word “Rental”.
Correct Answer
A. Vehicle license plate number.Explanation
When encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for rental vehicles, the information entered in the Vehicle/Equipment Registration Number block is the vehicle license plate number. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies the vehicle and is commonly used for tracking and identification purposes in the rental vehicle industry.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(209) Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels
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Controllers.
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Management team.
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Information service center superintendent.
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Service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer
A. Controllers.Explanation
The correct answer is "controllers." In a radio net, maintaining radio transmission discipline is important for effective communication. This responsibility falls under the fuels controllers, who are responsible for managing and coordinating fuel operations. They ensure that proper procedures and protocols are followed during radio transmissions to ensure clear and efficient communication within the team.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(210) Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are known as
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Biological contaminants.
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Particulate matter.
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Precipitates.
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Oxides.
Correct Answer
A. Particulate matter.Explanation
Inert solids such as rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are referred to as particulate matter. This term is used to describe solid particles suspended in air or water that can be inhaled or ingested, potentially causing harm to human health. These particles can come from various sources, including industrial activities, vehicle emissions, and natural sources like dust storms. It is important to control and minimize exposure to particulate matter to maintain good air and water quality.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(210) Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents and sent to the area lab every
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30 days.
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60 days.
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90 days.
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120 days.
Correct Answer
A. 90 days.Explanation
Samples are taken from a liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank to be analyzed for purity, odor, and minor constituents and sent to the area lab every 90 days. This means that the samples are collected and sent for analysis after a period of 90 days. This timeframe allows for regular monitoring of the purity, odor, and minor constituents of the liquid oxygen in the storage tank. It ensures that any potential issues or changes in the quality of the liquid oxygen can be detected and addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(213) Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered a minimum of how many times prior to re-issue to aircraft?
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1
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2
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3
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4
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered a minimum of two times prior to re-issue to aircraft. This ensures that any potential contaminants or defects are identified and removed before the product is used again. It helps maintain the quality and safety of the product, reducing the risk of any issues or malfunctions when it is used on an aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(214) The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the
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Top of the hydrometer.
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Bottom of the cylinder.
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Bottom of the hydrometer.
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Point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale.
Correct Answer
A. Point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale.Explanation
The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids relative to water. The hydrometer is used to measure this density, and the point at which the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale indicates the specific gravity of the liquid. Taking the reading at the top or bottom of the hydrometer or cylinder would not provide an accurate measurement of the liquid's density.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(214) Prior to use new sample containers for solids testing are rinsed with
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Petroleum ether.
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Isopropyl alcohol.
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Filtered turbine fuel.
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Demineralized water.
Correct Answer
A. Filtered turbine fuel.Explanation
The correct answer is filtered turbine fuel. This is because prior to using new sample containers for solids testing, they need to be rinsed with a substance that is compatible with the type of testing being conducted. In this case, filtered turbine fuel is the most appropriate choice as it is commonly used in laboratory settings for cleaning and rinsing purposes. Petroleum ether, isopropyl alcohol, and demineralized water may not be suitable for this specific purpose and could potentially contaminate the samples or interfere with the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(214) A flow reducer ring is not used when performing a bottle method analysis on what type of fuel?
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JP–4.
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JP–5.
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JP–7.
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JP–8.
Correct Answer
A. JP–5.Explanation
A flow reducer ring is not used when performing a bottle method analysis on JP-5 fuel.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(214) What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?
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Zinc chloride.
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Phthalic anhydride.
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Sodium fluorescein.
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Methanesulfonic acid.
Correct Answer
A. Sodium fluorescein.Explanation
Sodium fluorescein is used as the dye for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad. This dye is commonly used in various applications, including as a fluorescent tracer dye. It is known for its bright yellow-green fluorescence under UV light, making it suitable for detecting leaks or flow patterns in engines. Zinc chloride, phthalic anhydride, and methanesulfonic acid are not mentioned in relation to the AEL detector pad, so they are not the correct answers.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(214) The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated
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Weekly.
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Monthly.
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Semiannually.
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Daily prior to the first use.
Correct Answer
A. Daily prior to the first use.Explanation
The correct answer is "daily prior to the first use". This means that the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated every day before it is used for the first time. This is important to ensure accurate and reliable readings of water detection. Calibrating the detector daily helps to maintain its effectiveness and allows for any necessary adjustments to be made before each use, ensuring optimal performance.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(214) When obtaining a sample for fiber analysis how much fuel should be allowed to pass through a filter separator vessel?
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500 gallons (gal).
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1,000 gals.
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2,000 gals.
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4,000 gals.
Correct Answer
A. 2,000 gals.Explanation
When obtaining a sample for fiber analysis, it is important to allow a sufficient amount of fuel to pass through the filter separator vessel in order to obtain an accurate representation of the fiber content. Allowing too little fuel to pass through may result in an insufficient sample size, while allowing too much fuel may dilute the fiber content and affect the accuracy of the analysis. Therefore, allowing 2,000 gallons of fuel to pass through the filter separator vessel is the correct amount to ensure a reliable sample for fiber analysis.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(214) Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required
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For new probes.
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If the probe has been cleaned in the past 48 hours.
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When the probe has been stored in a sealed package.
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When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached.
Correct Answer
A. When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached.Explanation
Conductivity testing measures the ability of a substance to conduct an electric current. When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached, it means that the meter is able to calibrate and adjust for any potential interference or impurities on the probe. This indicates that the probe is in good working condition and does not require any additional cleaning before conductivity testing.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(214) What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading?
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24 hours.
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12 hours.
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Six hours.
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Three hours.
Correct Answer
A. 24 hours.Explanation
The maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading is 24 hours. This means that the sample can be collected and stored for up to 24 hours before the reading is taken.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(214) When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for
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One minute.
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Three minutes.
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Five minutes.
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Six minutes.
Correct Answer
A. Five minutes.Explanation
When performing a fuel systems icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for five minutes. This duration ensures proper mixing of the fuel and water, allowing any potential icing inhibitor to be evenly distributed throughout the mixture. Shaking for a shorter duration may result in incomplete mixing, while shaking for a longer duration may not yield any significant improvement in the distribution of the icing inhibitor. Therefore, five minutes is the most appropriate duration for the shaking process in this analysis.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(214) During a flashpoint analysis, apply heat to the sample so that the temperature increases at a rate of
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7 to 9°F per minute.
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8 to 10°F per minute.
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9 to 11°F per minute.
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10 to 12°F per minute.
Correct Answer
A. 9 to 11°F per minute.Explanation
During a flashpoint analysis, it is important to apply heat to the sample at a controlled rate to ensure accurate results. The temperature should increase at a specific rate to allow for proper observation and measurement of the flashpoint. The correct answer of 9 to 11°F per minute falls within the recommended range for this rate of temperature increase, ensuring that the analysis is conducted under the appropriate conditions.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 21, 2016Quiz Created by
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