CompTIA A+ Trivia Exam: MCQ Quiz!

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Which of the following BEST describes the function of DHCP?

    • Blocks MAC address with security violations
    • Translates IP addresses to names
    • Encrypts data traffic on a network
    • Assigns IP addresses on a network
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About This Quiz

This CompTia A+ Trivia Exam assesses knowledge on various technical aspects such as IDE hard disk drive configurations, IP addressing, ExpressCard devices, laptop screen repairs, tape drive configurations, and RAID setups. It is designed to enhance practical skills crucial for IT professionals.

CompTIA A+ Trivia Exam: MCQ Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following storage media would be used to build a RAID 5 array?

    • Dual layer DVDs

    • SATA HDDs

    • Flash drives

    • Blu-ray discs

    Correct Answer
    A. SATA HDDs
    Explanation
    SATA HDDs would be used to build a RAID 5 array because RAID 5 requires multiple hard disk drives to distribute data across them for redundancy and improved performance. SATA HDDs are commonly used in RAID arrays due to their high capacity, reliability, and cost-effectiveness. Dual layer DVDs, flash drives, and Blu-ray discs are not suitable for building a RAID 5 array as they have limited storage capacity and are not designed for continuous, high-performance data storage.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following devices might need drivers installed so that it can be recognized by the operating system and function properly?

    • Speakers

    • Monitors

    • Scanners

    • Projectors

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanners
    Explanation
    Scanners might need drivers installed so that they can be recognized by the operating system and function properly. Drivers are software programs that enable communication between the scanner and the operating system. Without the proper drivers, the operating system may not be able to detect the scanner or utilize its functions effectively. Therefore, installing the appropriate drivers is crucial for scanners to work seamlessly with the operating system.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following will provide the BEST protection against power failures and data loss?

    • Auto-switching power supply

    • Uninterruptible power supply

    • Line conditioner

    • Surge suppressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Uninterruptible power supply
    Explanation
    An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is the best solution for protecting against power failures and data loss. Unlike an auto-switching power supply, which only switches to a backup power source in the event of a power failure, a UPS provides continuous power to connected devices, even during outages. A line conditioner, on the other hand, only regulates the quality of the power supply but does not offer backup power. A surge suppressor protects against voltage spikes but does not provide backup power or protect against power failures. Therefore, a UPS is the most effective option for both power protection and data loss prevention.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following features of Windows allows a device to have a default IP address if a DHCP server is not available?

    • APIPA

    • ARP

    • IPv6

    • DNS

    Correct Answer
    A. APIPA
    Explanation
    APIPA: Automatic Private IP Addressing ARP: Address Resolution Protocol DNS : Domain Name System

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  • 6. 

    How many total IP addresses are represented by the 255.255.255.0 netmask?

    • 128

    • 256

    • 512

    • 1024

    Correct Answer
    A. 256
    Explanation
    The netmask 255.255.255.0 is a class C netmask, which means it has 24 bits set to 1. In binary, the netmask is 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000. The remaining 8 bits are set to 0, which allows for a total of 256 possible IP addresses.

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  • 7. 

    A user on a wireless network has the IP address 169.254.155.2 but cannot connect to the Internet. Which of the following should the user check on the wireless router?

    • WPA

    • DHCP

    • WINS

    • DNS

    Correct Answer
    A. DHCP
    Explanation
    The user should check the DHCP settings on the wireless router. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. In this case, the user has an IP address of 169.254.155.2, which falls within the range of APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing). APIPA addresses are assigned when a device is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. Therefore, the user should check the DHCP settings on the wireless router to ensure that it is properly configured and functioning correctly.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following settings, when enabled, is MOST likely to result in an IP address conflict on a local network?

    • Custom DNS address

    • QoS enabled

    • UPnP enabled

    • Static IP address

    Correct Answer
    A. Static IP address
    Explanation
    Enabling a Static IP address is most likely to result in an IP address conflict on a local network. This is because when a device is assigned a static IP address, it does not dynamically obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. Instead, the device is manually configured with a specific IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server. If another device on the network is also assigned the same static IP address, it will result in an IP address conflict, causing network connectivity issues for both devices.

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  • 9. 

    Primary system functions like basic boot priorities, voltage parameters for the processor, and SATA options are configured in which of the following areas of a PC system?

    • MBR

    • CMOS

    • VRAM

    • BIOS

    Correct Answer
    A. BIOS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is responsible for managing the primary system functions of a PC system. It controls the basic boot priorities, sets voltage parameters for the processor, and configures SATA options. The BIOS is firmware that is stored on a chip on the motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is turned on. It initializes and tests hardware components and then loads the operating system.

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  • 10. 

    An IP address of 10.10.1.180 would be considered part of which of the following address classes?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class B

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    The IP address 10.10.1.180 falls within the range of Class A addresses. In Class A, the first octet of the IP address is reserved for the network portion, and the remaining three octets are used for host addresses. In this case, the first octet is 10, which falls within the range of 1-126, indicating it is a Class A address.

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  • 11. 

    The helpdesk technician has been tasked to reinstall the OS on a desktop and has already inserted the OS install disk in the CD-ROM. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be configured within the BIOS to continue reinstalling the OS?

    • BIOS password

    • Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade

    • Boot sequence

    • Clock speeds

    Correct Answer
    A. Boot sequence
    Explanation
    In order to continue reinstalling the OS, the boot sequence would need to be configured within the BIOS. The boot sequence determines the order in which the computer looks for an operating system to load. By setting the CD-ROM as the first boot device, the computer will boot from the OS install disk inserted in the CD-ROM, allowing the technician to proceed with the reinstallation process. The BIOS password, flash BIOS for firmware upgrade, and clock speeds are unrelated to the task of reinstalling the OS.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following Internet connection types would typically have the GREATEST latency?

    • Satellite

    • WiMAX

    • Cellular

    • ISDN

    Correct Answer
    A. Satellite
    Explanation
    Satellite internet connection typically has the greatest latency compared to other options listed. This is because the signal has to travel a long distance from the satellite in space to the user's dish on the ground, resulting in a delay in data transmission. In contrast, WiMAX, cellular, and ISDN connections have shorter distances to cover, leading to lower latency.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?

    • RGB

    • VGA

    • DVI

    • HDMI

    Correct Answer
    A. VGA
    Explanation
    RGB: RED GREEN BLUE (primary Colour) VGA: video Graphic Array/Adapter DVI : digital Video Interface HDMI :high Definition Media Interface

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  • 14. 

    Activity logs show a large amount of data downloaded from a company server to an employee’s workstation overnight. Upon further investigation, the technician identifies the data as being outside the scope of the employee’s regular job functions. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?

    • Report through proper channels

    • Document the changes

    • Continue to track more evidence

    • Preserve the chain of custody

    Correct Answer
    A. Report through proper channels
    Explanation
    The technician should report the incident through proper channels. This is important to ensure that the appropriate personnel are made aware of the situation and can take appropriate action. Reporting through proper channels also helps to maintain transparency and accountability within the organization.

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  • 15. 

    How many pins does IDE hard disk drive has?

    • 41

    • 40

    • 43

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 40
    Explanation
    IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) hard disk drives typically have 40 pins. This refers to the number of pins on the IDE connector, which is used to connect the hard disk drive to the motherboard or controller card. The IDE connector consists of 40 pins arranged in two rows, with each pin serving a specific purpose in transmitting data and power between the hard drive and the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is 40.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following devices converts digital signals to analog ones?

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Hub

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Modem
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that converts digital signals to analog ones. It is used to connect a computer or other digital devices to the internet through a telephone line or cable line. The modem modulates the digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over the telephone or cable lines, and then demodulates the analog signals back into digital data at the receiving end. This conversion is necessary because telephone lines and cable lines transmit data in analog form, while computers and digital devices process and transmit data in digital form.

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  • 17. 

    Basic Internet web traffic generally travels on which of the following ports?

    • 25 and 53

    • 53 and 8080

    • 80 and 443

    • 110 and 53

    Correct Answer
    A. 80 and 443
    Explanation
    Basic Internet web traffic generally travels on ports 80 and 443. Port 80 is used for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) traffic, which is the protocol used for transmitting web pages. Port 443 is used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) traffic, which is the secure version of HTTP that encrypts data during transmission. These ports are commonly used by web browsers to access websites and communicate with web servers.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following would provide continuous power to various devices connected to it during a power surge or outage?

    • Line conditioner

    • Power strip

    • Battery backup

    • Surge suppressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Battery backup
    Explanation
    A battery backup is designed to provide continuous power to various devices during a power surge or outage. It contains a built-in battery that automatically kicks in when the main power source is disrupted. This ensures that the connected devices receive uninterrupted power supply, allowing them to continue functioning without any interruption or loss of data. Unlike other options such as a line conditioner, power strip, or surge suppressor, a battery backup is specifically designed to provide backup power during power surges or outages.

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  • 19. 

    ECC memory is primarily used in which of the following computers?

    • Tablet

    • Desktop

    • Server

    • Laptop

    Correct Answer
    A. Server
    Explanation
    ECC memory, which stands for Error-Correcting Code memory, is primarily used in servers. Servers handle critical and important tasks, such as data storage, processing, and managing network connections. Since servers are expected to have high uptime and reliability, ECC memory is used to detect and correct errors in data transmission, ensuring data integrity and minimizing the risk of system crashes or data corruption. Tablets, desktops, and laptops typically do not require the same level of error correction as servers, hence ECC memory is not commonly used in these devices.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following properties of TCP/IP is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address?

    • DNS address

    • Default gateway

    • Subnet mask

    • DHCP lease

    Correct Answer
    A. Subnet mask
    Explanation
    The subnet mask is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address. It helps in dividing the IP address into two parts - the network address and the host address. The network address identifies the network to which the device belongs, while the host address identifies the specific device within that network. The subnet mask determines the number of bits used for the network and host portions, allowing for efficient routing and communication within the TCP/IP network.

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  • 21. 

    During a presentation, a client removes confidential proposal materials from the presenter’s laptop via an IR connection. This behavior is expressly prohibited by the company. The client’s location in the audience is immediately identified. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

    • Track the evidence

    • Report to the proper channel

    • Identify the information compromised

    • Document the security breach

    Correct Answer
    A. Report to the proper channel
    Explanation
    The technician should report the incident to the proper channel. This is important because the behavior of the client, removing confidential proposal materials, is expressly prohibited by the company. By reporting the incident, the technician ensures that the appropriate actions can be taken to address the security breach and prevent further unauthorized access to confidential information.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following expansion slots is MOST commonly used for high-end video cards?

    • PCI

    • PCIe

    • CNR

    • AGP

    Correct Answer
    A. PCIe
    Explanation
    PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the most commonly used expansion slot for high-end video cards. It provides faster data transfer rates and higher bandwidth compared to other expansion slots like PCI, CNR, and AGP. PCIe allows for better performance and supports advanced graphics technologies, making it the preferred choice for high-end video cards in modern computer systems.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following memory form factors is MOST commonly found in laptops?

    • SDRAM

    • SODIMM

    • RAMBUS

    • DIMM

    Correct Answer
    A. SODIMM
    Explanation
    SODIMM (Small Outline Dual In-line Memory Module) is the most commonly found memory form factor in laptops. SODIMM modules are smaller in size compared to DIMM (Dual In-line Memory Module) modules, making them suitable for the limited space available in laptops. SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) and RAMBUS are types of memory technologies, not form factors. Therefore, SODIMM is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the memory form factor commonly used in laptops.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following allows for the FARTHEST transmission distance for data? 

    • Bluetooth

    • Single-mode fibre

    • RG-6 cable

    • CAT6 cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Single-mode fibre
    Explanation
    Single-mode fiber allows for the farthest transmission distance for data. This is because it uses a smaller core size compared to multimode fiber, allowing for less signal loss and dispersion over longer distances. Additionally, single-mode fiber uses a single beam of light to transmit data, resulting in higher bandwidth and longer reach compared to other options such as Bluetooth, RG-6 cable, and CAT6 cable.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following wireless encryption types is vulnerable to weak IVS attacks?

    • WEP

    • WPA

    • WPA2

    • AES

    Correct Answer
    A. WEP
    Explanation
    An initialization vector (IV) is an arbitrary number that can be used along with a secret key ... making it more difficult for a hacker using a dictionary attack to find patterns and ... Texting, Twitter, chat and IM abbreviations and acronyms are popular .

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following technologies can be accessed through the Display Port? 

    • USB/HDMI

    • SATA/HDMI

    • DVI/HDMI

    • FireWire/HDMI

    • HDMI/HDMI

    Correct Answer
    A. DVI/HDMI
    Explanation
    The Display Port can be used to access DVI and HDMI technologies. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a video display interface commonly used to connect a video source, such as a computer, to a display device, like a monitor or projector. HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) is a digital audio/video interface used for transmitting high-quality audio and video signals between devices, such as TVs, monitors, and gaming consoles. Therefore, the Display Port can be used to connect devices that support DVI or HDMI technologies.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following features makes logical processor cores appear as physical cores to the operating system?

    • XD-bit

    • Hyperthreading

    • MMU virtualization

    • 64-bit architecture

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperthreading
    Explanation
    XD-bit:To use Execute Disable Bit you must have a PC or server with a processor with Execute Disable Bit capability and a supporting operating system. EDB-enabled processors by Intel are indicated by a "J" after the CPU model number. Execute Disable Bit is abbreviated as EDB (by Intel) or XDB

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following media types is LEAST likely to be affected by electromagnetic interference?

    • Coaxial

    • Fiber

    • Wireless B

    • HSPA

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber
    Explanation
    The HSPA family of technologies is quite large, covering High Speed Downlink Packet Access (HSDPA), High Speed Uplink Packet Access (HSUPA), and Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+). There are others, but these are the big ones. HSPA+: Evolved High Speed Packet Access

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following connector types is associated with a fiber connection?

    • RJ-45

    • RJ-11

    • LC

    • HDMI

    Correct Answer
    A. LC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is LC. LC connectors are commonly used with fiber optic cables. They have a small form factor and are designed for high-density connections. RJ-45 and RJ-11 connectors are associated with Ethernet and telephone connections, respectively. HDMI connectors are used for audio and video connections.

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  • 30. 

    A DVI-D cable is generally used for which of the following computer functions?

    • Delivering audio only

    • Delivering audio & video

    • Delivering video only

    • Delivering an analog signal

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivering video only
    Explanation
    A DVI-D cable is used for delivering video only. DVI-D stands for Digital Visual Interface-Digital, indicating that it is a digital connection that supports high-quality video transmission. It does not carry an audio signal, so it is not used for delivering audio. It is commonly used to connect a computer or other video source to a monitor or display device, providing a reliable and high-resolution video connection.

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  • 31. 

    A home user’s PC has an over-clocked CPU with a relatively small heat sync, small fans on the 800W power supply, and a high-end video card. Which of the following is the recommended solution that will manage heat more effectively?

    • Replace the CPU heat sync with a high RPM fan

    • Purchase an energy efficient power supply

    • Not over-clocking the CPU

    • Liquid cooling system

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid cooling system
    Explanation
    A liquid cooling system is the recommended solution for managing heat more effectively in this scenario. Liquid cooling systems use a liquid coolant to absorb and dissipate heat from the components, providing better cooling performance compared to air cooling methods. This would be particularly beneficial in a situation where the PC has an over-clocked CPU with a small heat sync and small fans on the power supply, as it would help prevent overheating and maintain optimal operating temperatures. Replacing the CPU heat sync with a high RPM fan may provide some improvement, but it may not be as effective as a liquid cooling system. Purchasing an energy-efficient power supply and not over-clocking the CPU would not directly address the issue of managing heat.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following expansion slots can ONLY be found on a desktop computer?

    • PCI express

    • Express Card 34

    • Express Card 54

    • PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    A. PCI express
    Explanation
    PCI Express is the correct answer because it is a type of expansion slot that can only be found on a desktop computer. Express Card 34, Express Card 54, and PCMCIA are all types of expansion slots that are commonly found on laptops and other portable devices. Therefore, PCI Express is the only option that is exclusive to desktop computers.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following network types BEST represents a network centered around one individual?

    • LAN

    • PAN

    • Cloud

    • MAN

    Correct Answer
    A. PAN
    Explanation
    A PAN (Personal Area Network) is the network type that best represents a network centered around one individual. A PAN is a network that connects devices within a short range, typically centered around a single person. It allows for the interconnection of personal devices such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, and wearable devices, enabling communication and data sharing between these devices. This network type is designed to provide convenience and flexibility for an individual's personal use.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following devices transmits data to all ports regardless of final destination?

    • Firewall

    • Router

    • Switch

    • Hub

    Correct Answer
    A. Hub
    Explanation
    A hub is a networking device that broadcasts data to all connected ports, regardless of the final destination. When a device sends data to a hub, the hub will replicate the data and send it to all other ports. This means that all devices connected to the hub will receive the transmitted data, even if it was not intended for them. Hubs operate at the physical layer of the network and do not perform any filtering or routing functions. Therefore, a hub is the correct answer as it transmits data to all ports indiscriminately.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following printer types needs to have toner replaced as part of the normal maintenance cycle?

    • Inkjet

    • Thermal

    • Impact

    • Laser

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser
    Explanation
    Laser printers need to have toner replaced as part of the normal maintenance cycle. Unlike inkjet printers that use liquid ink, laser printers use toner cartridges that contain powdered ink. As the printer is used, the toner gradually gets depleted, and eventually, it needs to be replaced. This is an essential part of maintaining the printer's performance and ensuring high-quality prints. Thermal printers use heat to produce images and do not require toner replacement. Impact printers use physical impact to create characters on the paper and also do not use toner.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following tools are commonly used to remove dust and debris from inside a computer? 

    • Cotton and alcohol / Compressed air

    • Vacuum / Compressed air

    • Compressed air / Compressed air

    • Anti-bacterial surface cleaner / Compressed air

    • Feather duster / Compressed air

    Correct Answer
    A. Vacuum / Compressed air
    Explanation
    Vacuum cleaners and compressed air are commonly used tools to remove dust and debris from inside a computer. A vacuum cleaner can be used to gently suction away loose dust and debris from the computer components, while compressed air can be used to blow away stubborn dust and debris from hard-to-reach areas. Using cotton and alcohol, anti-bacterial surface cleaner, or a feather duster can potentially damage the delicate computer components, so they are not commonly recommended for cleaning the inside of a computer.

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  • 37. 

    Ann, a user, calls requesting help selecting a printer connection technology. She wants to connect multiple devices to her laptop docking station using an external hub. Which of the following connection technologies would BEST meet Ann’s need for multiple devices?

    • Parallel

    • USB

    • FireWire

    • Bluetooth

    Correct Answer
    A. USB
    Explanation
    USB would be the best connection technology for Ann's need for multiple devices. USB (Universal Serial Bus) allows for easy connection and communication between multiple devices, such as printers, through a single hub or port. It is a widely used and versatile technology that supports a wide range of devices, making it a convenient choice for Ann's requirement of connecting multiple devices to her laptop docking station using an external hub.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following laptop accessories would MOST likely be used to support multiple displays when the laptop hardware does not have multiple video outputs?

    • Docking station

    • VGA to DVI converter

    • Adjustable monitor arm

    • PCMCIA card

    Correct Answer
    A. Docking station
    Explanation
    A docking station is a device that allows a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals, including additional displays. It provides extra video outputs, allowing the laptop to support multiple displays even if its hardware does not have that capability. Therefore, a docking station would be the most likely accessory to use in this situation.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following features can be configured with keyboards to assist users with disabilities?

    • Pointer trails

    • Magnifier

    • Sticky keys

    • Character map

    Correct Answer
    A. Sticky keys
    Explanation
    Sticky keys is a feature that can be configured with keyboards to assist users with disabilities. It allows users to press one key at a time instead of having to hold down multiple keys simultaneously, making it easier for individuals with limited dexterity or strength to use a computer keyboard. This feature helps prevent accidental keystrokes and provides a more accessible experience for users with disabilities.

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  • 40. 

    Which type of fire extinguishing technology should be used when encountering an electrical fire?

    • Class B fire extinguishers

    • Overhead sprinkler system

    • Water-based fire extinguishers

    • Non-water based extinguishers

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-water based extinguishers
    Explanation
    Non-water based extinguishers should be used when encountering an electrical fire. This is because water conducts electricity and can potentially cause electrocution or spread the fire. Non-water based extinguishers, such as carbon dioxide or dry chemical extinguishers, are designed to smother the fire without conducting electricity, making them the appropriate choice for electrical fires.

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  • 41. 

    A technician just finished replacing a laptop screen, and upon first boot notices that the screen provides a very faint but darkened image which cannot be adjusted. Which of the following was MOST likely left unplugged after replacement?

    • CMOS Battery

    • Mini-PCI Card

    • Inverter

    • DC Cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Inverter
    Explanation
    After replacing the laptop screen, if the screen provides a faint but darkened image that cannot be adjusted, the most likely reason is that the inverter was left unplugged after replacement. The inverter is responsible for providing power to the backlight of the screen, which is necessary for proper display brightness. If the inverter is not connected, the screen will still display an image but it will be very faint and darkened.

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  • 42. 

    A DSL modem MOST commonly uses which of the following media?

    • Cable TV coax

    • Fiber optic cable

    • Wireless adapter

    • Household telephone lines

    Correct Answer
    A. Household telephone lines
    Explanation
    A DSL modem commonly uses household telephone lines because DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology allows data to be transmitted over existing telephone lines. DSL modems use a technique called frequency division multiplexing, which allows voice and data signals to be transmitted simultaneously over the same line. This allows users to access the internet while still being able to make phone calls using their telephone line.

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  • 43. 

    A user discovers that color laser prints are printing slightly off-color. Which of the following should help restore the appropriate colors?

    • Use different paper

    • Replace the fuser

    • Replace the duplexer

    • Calibrate the printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Calibrate the printer
    Explanation
    Calibrating the printer should help restore the appropriate colors. Calibration adjusts the printer's color settings to ensure accurate and consistent color reproduction. By calibrating the printer, the user can correct any color discrepancies and ensure that the prints are accurate and true to the original colors.

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  • 44. 

    When unable to get an IP address from a server, which of the following represents an APIPA address that a PC might receive?

    • 10.0.1.111

    • 65.71.1.111

    • 169.254.1.111

    • 192.168.1.111

    Correct Answer
    A. 169.254.1.111
    Explanation
    When a PC is unable to get an IP address from a server, it might receive an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. APIPA addresses are self-configured IP addresses that are assigned to a device when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. The APIPA range is 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255, and the given address 169.254.1.111 falls within this range. Therefore, it represents a possible APIPA address that a PC might receive in this situation.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random inconsistencies in the transfer of the data?

    • Low latency

    • Dual channel

    • ECC

    • Single channel

    Correct Answer
    A. ECC
    Explanation
    ECC stands for Error-Correcting Code, which is a memory feature that allows for the protection against random inconsistencies in the transfer of data. It detects and corrects errors that may occur during data transmission, ensuring the integrity and accuracy of the transferred data. This feature is particularly important in systems that require high reliability and data integrity, such as servers and critical computing applications.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following network topologies would MOST likely be used to provide redundancy at each network device to support data transmissions?

    • Mesh

    • Ring

    • PBX

    • Bus

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesh
    Explanation
    A mesh network topology would most likely be used to provide redundancy at each network device to support data transmissions. In a mesh topology, each network device is connected to every other device, creating multiple paths for data to travel. This redundancy ensures that if one device or connection fails, data can still be transmitted through alternative paths. This makes mesh topology highly reliable and suitable for applications where uninterrupted data transmission is crucial, such as in critical systems or large-scale networks.

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  • 47. 

    A user is trying to setup a small office home office (SOHO) wireless network and does not want any neighbors to be able to discover the network. Which of the following parameters would MOST likely be configured?

    • Configure a proxy server address

    • Enable WEP encryption

    • Disable SSID broadcast

    • Configure DMZ settings

    Correct Answer
    A. Disable SSID broadcast
    Explanation
    The most likely parameter to be configured in this scenario is to disable SSID broadcast. When a wireless network broadcasts its SSID (Service Set Identifier), it becomes visible to nearby devices. By disabling SSID broadcast, the network will not be discoverable to neighbors or other nearby devices. This adds an extra layer of security and makes it harder for unauthorized users to access the network.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following printer types requires calibration to ensure the nozzle is adjusted to print properly?

    • Impact

    • Inkjet

    • Laser

    • Thermal

    Correct Answer
    A. Inkjet
    Explanation
    Inkjet printers require calibration to ensure the nozzle is adjusted to print properly. Calibration is necessary because inkjet printers use tiny nozzles to spray ink onto the paper, and over time these nozzles can become misaligned or clogged. By calibrating the printer, the user can ensure that the nozzles are properly adjusted for optimal printing quality and accuracy. This helps to prevent issues such as streaks, smudges, or uneven printing.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following printer types uses an imaging drum?

    • Laser

    • Impact

    • Inkjet

    • Thermal

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser
    Explanation
    Laser printers use an imaging drum to transfer the image or text onto the paper. The imaging drum is an essential component in the laser printing process as it receives the laser beam and attracts toner particles to create the desired image. Once the image is formed on the drum, it is transferred to the paper using heat and pressure. This makes laser printers more efficient and suitable for high-quality printing tasks. Impact, inkjet, and thermal printers do not use an imaging drum in their printing process.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 26, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Maganoor

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