MA 30 = Final Test

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Medical Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Interpret the following order:  give Penicilin V 500 mg po qid.

  • 2. 

    There is no video available yet, please upload the video

  • 3. 

    Relating to the imbalance of the body is an example of an ___________ expression of pain.

  • 4. 

    The _________ group experiences the greatest levels of growth and the need for total nutrients is greatest at this stage.

    Explanation
    During adolescence, individuals experience rapid growth and development. This is a period of significant physical, cognitive, and emotional changes. The body goes through a growth spurt, with increased height and weight, and there is a higher demand for nutrients to support this growth. Adolescents also have increased energy needs due to their active lifestyles and the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, the adolescence group experiences the greatest levels of growth and has the greatest need for total nutrients during this stage.

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  • 5. 

    Vitamins B and C are water soluble?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Vitamins B and C are classified as water soluble because they dissolve in water and are easily excreted from the body through urine. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which are stored in the body's fat tissues, water-soluble vitamins are not stored in large amounts and need to be consumed regularly. This is why it is important to have a consistent intake of foods rich in vitamins B and C to maintain optimal levels in the body.

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  • 6. 

    Carbohydrates are best classified as most dietary fiber?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Carbohydrates are best classified as dietary fiber because they are the main source of energy in our diet and are found in foods like fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes. Dietary fiber is a type of carbohydrate that cannot be fully digested by the body, but it is still important for our overall health. It helps to regulate digestion, prevent constipation, and can even lower the risk of certain diseases like heart disease and diabetes. Therefore, it is true to say that carbohydrates are best classified as dietary fiber.

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  • 7. 

    Your provider has order a parenteral medication.  When you are aspirating the parenteral medication you notice some blood.  What should you do?  Select all that apply

    • A.

      Continue administering the medication

    • B.

      Start again

    • C.

      Dispose of the needle

    • D.

      Withdraw the needle

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Start again
    C. Dispose of the needle
    D. Withdraw the needle
    Explanation
    If you notice blood while aspirating the parenteral medication, it indicates that you have hit a blood vessel. In this situation, you should start again to ensure proper administration of the medication. Additionally, it is important to dispose of the needle to prevent any contamination or infection. Finally, you should withdraw the needle to avoid injecting the medication into the bloodstream. These actions will help ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication administration.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is one of the most important areas of patient teaching regarding technique?

    • A.

      Subcutaneous injection

    • B.

      Z-track injection

    • C.

      Intradermal infection

    • D.

      Usage of the inhaler (nebulizer)

    Correct Answer
    D. Usage of the inhaler (nebulizer)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the usage of the inhaler (nebulizer). Patient teaching regarding the technique of using an inhaler (nebulizer) is crucial because it ensures that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Proper technique includes proper inhalation, coordination, and maintenance of the device. Teaching patients how to use the inhaler correctly can improve medication adherence and optimize the therapeutic benefits of the medication.

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  • 9. 

    You would use a ________ syringe to inject minute amounts of allergy testing and allergy injections.

    Correct Answer
    tuberculin
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe is used to inject very small quantities of substances, such as for allergy testing and allergy injections. It has a small volume capacity and is calibrated in small increments, typically in milliliters or fractions of milliliters. This makes it suitable for accurately measuring and delivering minute amounts of medication or allergens.

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  • 10. 

    Hey, hey....marijuana (mary jane, ganja, pot, weed) is a schedule II drug.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement in the question is incorrect. Marijuana is not classified as a Schedule II drug. In the United States, it is classified as a Schedule I drug, which means it is considered to have a high potential for abuse and has no accepted medical use. Schedule II drugs, on the other hand, have a high potential for abuse but also have accepted medical uses.

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  • 11. 

    Tablets that are scored (touchdown...just kidding) are manufactured with a (get your) groove on it, to help in breaking it?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Tablets that are scored are manufactured with a groove on them to help in breaking them. This groove allows for easier splitting of the tablet into smaller doses if needed.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following best describes why a medical assistant needs an understanding of diagnostic imaging?

    • A.

      To prepare patients for their results

    • B.

      To instruct patients in preparation

    • C.

      To perform chest X-rays in offices

    • D.

      To know which brochures to give to patients

    Correct Answer
    B. To instruct patients in preparation
    Explanation
    A medical assistant needs an understanding of diagnostic imaging in order to instruct patients in preparation. This involves providing patients with the necessary information and guidelines on how to prepare for a diagnostic imaging procedure, such as fasting or avoiding certain medications. By having this knowledge, the medical assistant can ensure that patients are properly prepared for their imaging tests, which can help to improve the accuracy and effectiveness of the results.

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  • 13. 

    Check all that apply.  The dosimeter

    • A.

      Records direct exposure only.

    • B.

      Records on a strip of film

    • C.

      Reads yearly.

    • D.

      Records direct exposure only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Records on a strip of film
    Explanation
    The dosimeter records on a strip of film.

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  • 14. 

    Patients feel a sense of claustrophobia in this type of radiology procedure ___________.

    Correct Answer
    MRI
    Explanation
    MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a radiology procedure that involves the use of a large, enclosed machine. The machine creates a strong magnetic field and uses radio waves to generate detailed images of the body. Due to the enclosed space of the MRI machine, some patients may experience feelings of claustrophobia, which is a fear of being in confined spaces. This can cause discomfort and anxiety during the procedure.

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  • 15. 

    A barium enema takes place the entire day?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A barium enema is a medical procedure in which a contrast material called barium is inserted into the rectum and colon to help diagnose conditions in the gastrointestinal tract. The procedure usually takes several hours to complete as the barium needs time to coat the lining of the colon. During this time, the patient may be required to move into different positions and undergo X-rays to capture images of the colon. Therefore, the statement that a barium enema takes place the entire day is correct.

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  • 16. 

    This view requires the patients body to be at an angle ________.

    Correct Answer
    oblique
    Explanation
    This view requires the patient's body to be at an angle, specifically an oblique angle.

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  • 17. 

    This is a nuclear material in cells; __________.

    Correct Answer
    DNA
    Explanation
    DNA is a nuclear material in cells because it is found inside the nucleus of the cell. It carries the genetic information of an organism and is responsible for the transmission of hereditary traits. DNA is a double-stranded molecule made up of nucleotides, and it plays a crucial role in the replication and protein synthesis processes within cells.

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  • 18. 

    Check all that apply.  Which of the following is not a reagent used in the Gram stain?

    • A.

      Spirilla

    • B.

      Crystal violet

    • C.

      Safranin

    • D.

      Iodine

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Crystal violet
    C. Safranin
    D. Iodine
    Explanation
    The Gram stain is a differential staining technique used to classify bacteria into two groups: Gram-positive and Gram-negative. It involves the use of multiple reagents, including crystal violet, safranin, and iodine. These reagents help to differentiate the bacteria based on their cell wall composition. Spirilla, on the other hand, are not reagents used in the Gram stain. They are a type of bacteria characterized by their spiral shape.

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  • 19. 

    Check all that apply.  Danger, danger, danger.  Splashing of blood or body fluids , you the medical assistant should initially

    • A.

      Wear gloves

    • B.

      Wear a face shield

    • C.

      Wear a gown

    • D.

      Prepare a biohazard spill kit to help protect the exam room

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Wear gloves
    B. Wear a face shield
    C. Wear a gown
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to wear gloves, wear a face shield, and wear a gown. When there is a risk of splashing blood or body fluids, it is important for the medical assistant to protect themselves by wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE). Gloves should be worn to protect the hands, a face shield should be worn to protect the face and eyes from splashes, and a gown should be worn to protect the clothing. These measures help to minimize the risk of exposure to potentially harmful substances.

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  • 20. 

    You have just committed a medication error, you should complete an incident report?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Completing an incident report is not necessary after committing a medication error. Although it is important to acknowledge the error and take appropriate steps to prevent future occurrences, not all errors require an incident report. Incident reports are typically reserved for significant errors or incidents that result in harm or potential harm to the patient. In this case, without further information about the severity or consequences of the medication error, it cannot be concluded that an incident report is required.

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  • 21. 

    ___________ (think equal movement)  is used as an antiviral drug in treatment of Parkinson's disease.

    Correct Answer
    Symmetrel
    Explanation
    Symmetrel is used as an antiviral drug in the treatment of Parkinson's disease because it helps to increase the levels of dopamine in the brain. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for controlling movement and is often depleted in individuals with Parkinson's disease. By increasing dopamine levels, Symmetrel helps to improve movement and reduce the symptoms of the disease.

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  • 22. 

    A __________ best describes  a penile lesion associated with syphilis.

    Correct Answer
    chancre
    Explanation
    A chancre is a term used to describe a penile lesion that is associated with syphilis. It is a painless sore that typically appears at the site of infection, usually on the genitals. This lesion is usually firm, round, and raised, and it may have a clean base and be covered with a crust. It is an early sign of syphilis and is highly infectious. If left untreated, syphilis can progress to more serious stages, so it is important to seek medical attention if a chancre is present.

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  • 23. 

    Male sperm are secretions from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and Cowper's gland?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Male sperm is not a secretion from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and Cowper's gland. Sperm is actually produced in the testes and then stored in the epididymis. The seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and Cowper's gland produce fluids that are mixed with sperm during ejaculation to form semen. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 24. 

    The surgical removal of the male foreskin is referred to as a _____________________ (I cross my legs when ever this procedure is performed).

    Correct Answer
    circumsision
    Explanation
    The surgical removal of the male foreskin is referred to as circumcision. This procedure involves the removal of the fold of skin that covers the head of the penis. It is a common practice in many cultures and religions for various reasons, including religious, cultural, and medical purposes. Circumcision is typically performed for infants, but it can also be done on older males. The procedure is usually carried out by a healthcare professional, such as a doctor, and is done under sterile conditions to minimize the risk of infection.

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  • 25. 

    Hey, hey.....hey!  Tightness of the male foreskin is phimosis?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Phimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis is too tight and cannot be fully retracted. In this case, the statement suggests that the tightness of the male foreskin is indeed phimosis, which is true. Phimosis can cause discomfort and difficulty in maintaining proper hygiene, and in severe cases, it may require medical intervention such as circumcision. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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  • 26. 

    This best describes the interval between menses and ovulation ______________.

    Correct Answer
    postmenstrual phase
    Explanation
    The postmenstrual phase refers to the period of time after menstruation has ended and before ovulation occurs. During this phase, the lining of the uterus is being rebuilt in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. This phase typically lasts around 7-10 days and is characterized by low estrogen levels.

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  • 27. 

    The female external genitalia collectively is referred to as the vulva?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The female external genitalia, including the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and vaginal opening, are collectively known as the vulva. This term is commonly used in medical and anatomical contexts to describe the external structures of the female reproductive system. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 28. 

    This best describes the condition of having an abnormally long or very heavy menstrual flow 

    • A.

      Metorrahagia

    • B.

      Menorrahagia

    • C.

      Menorrahagea

    • D.

      Menorraghia

    Correct Answer
    B. Menorrahagia
    Explanation
    Menorraghia is the correct spelling for the condition of having an abnormally long or very heavy menstrual flow. The term "menorraghia" is derived from the Greek words "meno" meaning month and "rhegnynai" meaning to burst forth. It is a common gynecological problem that can cause significant discomfort and disruption in a woman's life. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing excessive menstrual bleeding as it may be a symptom of an underlying health issue.

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  • 29. 

    Apnea may result when oxygen is given to patients with COPD in amounts greater than

    • A.

      1 LPM

    • B.

      2 LMP

    • C.

      3 LMP

    • D.

      4 LPM

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 LMP
    Explanation
    Apnea may result when oxygen is given to patients with COPD in amounts greater than 2 LPM. This is because high levels of oxygen can suppress the respiratory drive in patients with COPD, leading to a decrease in their breathing rate and even apnea. It is important to carefully monitor and adjust oxygen levels in these patients to avoid this potential complication.

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  • 30. 

    Adverse reactions to estrogen include (check all that apply).

    • A.

      Breakthrough bleeding

    • B.

      Constipation

    • C.

      Diarrhea

    • D.

      Drowsiness

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Constipation
    C. Diarrhea
    D. Drowsiness
    Explanation
    Estrogen can cause adverse reactions in the body, and some of these include constipation, diarrhea, and drowsiness. Constipation refers to difficulty in passing stools, while diarrhea is the frequent passage of loose, watery stools. Drowsiness refers to a feeling of sleepiness or lethargy. These adverse reactions can occur as a result of the hormonal changes caused by estrogen. However, breakthrough bleeding, which refers to unexpected vaginal bleeding, is not listed as an adverse reaction to estrogen in this question.

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  • 31. 

    Your provider has ordered Depo-Testosterone.  What is the usual dose for Depo-Testosterone?

    • A.

      40-500 mg daily

    • B.

      50-750 mg daily

    • C.

      50-1000 mg daily

    • D.

      50-400 mg daily

    Correct Answer
    D. 50-400 mg daily
    Explanation
    Depo-Testosterone is a medication used to treat low testosterone levels in men. The usual dose for Depo-Testosterone is 50-400 mg daily. This dosage range is considered safe and effective in restoring testosterone levels to normal. It is important to note that the specific dose within this range may vary depending on individual factors such as age, weight, and the severity of testosterone deficiency. It is always recommended to follow the dosage instructions provided by the healthcare provider.

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  • 32. 

    ___________ is an insulin disorder dealing with the gland known as the pancreas. 

    Correct Answer
    Diabetes mellitus
    Explanation
    Diabetes mellitus is an insulin disorder that affects the pancreas. The pancreas is responsible for producing insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In diabetes mellitus, the pancreas either does not produce enough insulin or the body is unable to effectively use the insulin that is produced. This results in high blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health complications if not properly managed.

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  • 33. 

    This disease is a life threatening disease that fails to secrete adequate mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids resulting from an autoimmune process.

    Correct Answer
    Addison's
    Explanation
    This disease is characterized by the inadequate secretion of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids, which is caused by an autoimmune process. This condition is known as Addison's disease. It is a life-threatening disease that requires proper medical treatment to manage the hormonal imbalances caused by the insufficient production of these essential hormones.

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  • 34. 

    An acute or chronic destructive inflammatory condition of the pancreas is known as pancreatitis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pancreatitis is indeed an acute or chronic destructive inflammatory condition of the pancreas. It can be caused by various factors such as gallstones, alcohol abuse, certain medications, infections, and genetic factors. The inflammation of the pancreas can lead to symptoms like severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. If left untreated, pancreatitis can lead to serious complications such as pancreatic necrosis, infection, and organ failure. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and manage pancreatitis promptly to prevent further damage to the pancreas and improve patient outcomes.

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  • 35. 

    The lens of the eye turns cloudy or has a loss of transparency is referred to as having a __________.

    Correct Answer
    cataract
    Explanation
    When the lens of the eye becomes cloudy or loses its transparency, it is referred to as having a cataract. A cataract causes vision to become blurry or hazy, making it difficult to see clearly. This condition is commonly associated with aging, but can also be caused by factors such as injury, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. Cataract surgery is often recommended to remove the cloudy lens and replace it with an artificial one, restoring clear vision.

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  • 36. 

    The term otalgia is referred to as ear pain?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The term otalgia refers to ear pain. This means that when someone experiences pain in their ear, it can be described as otalgia. Therefore, the statement "The term otalgia is referred to as ear pain" is true.

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  • 37. 

    ____________ is the procedurefor moving the "pinna" closer to the head.

    Correct Answer
    Otoplasty
    Explanation
    Otoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves reshaping the pinna, which is the visible part of the ear, in order to bring it closer to the head. This procedure is commonly performed to correct prominent or protruding ears, creating a more balanced and aesthetically pleasing appearance.

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  • 38. 

    Serous otitis media is a collection of clear fluid in the middle ear due to either, following an acute OM or an obstructed eustachian tube.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because serous otitis media is indeed a condition characterized by the accumulation of clear fluid in the middle ear. This can occur as a result of either an acute otitis media (OM) infection or due to a blockage in the eustachian tube.

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  • 39. 

    Iodine is essential for this gland to properly function.

    • A.

      Parathyroid

    • B.

      Bilateral thyroid

    • C.

      Pituitary

    • D.

      Thyroid

    Correct Answer
    D. Thyroid
    Explanation
    The thyroid gland requires iodine in order to function properly. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, such as thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate metabolism and growth in the body. Without sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough hormones, leading to a condition called hypothyroidism. Therefore, iodine is essential for the thyroid gland to properly function.

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  • 40. 

    Check all that apply.  Adverse reactions to thyroid hormones include

    • A.

      Heat intolerance

    • B.

      Palpitations

    • C.

      Alopecia

    • D.

      Diabetes mellitus

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Heat intolerance
    B. Palpitations
    C. Alopecia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is heat intolerance, palpitations, and alopecia. Adverse reactions to thyroid hormones can include heat intolerance, as the hormones can increase the body's metabolism and make it more sensitive to heat. Palpitations can also occur as a result of increased heart rate and irregular heart rhythm. Alopecia, or hair loss, can be a side effect of thyroid hormone medication. However, diabetes mellitus is not typically associated with adverse reactions to thyroid hormones.

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  • 41. 

    Symptoms of Addison's disease include weight loss, copper-colored skin, and anorexia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. Addison's disease is a rare condition that occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and sometimes aldosterone. Some common symptoms of Addison's disease include weight loss, fatigue, muscle weakness, low blood pressure, darkening of the skin, and loss of appetite (anorexia). Therefore, the statement is correct.

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  • 42. 

    Hyperemesis gravidarum is excessive vomiting during post pregnancy?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Hyperemesis gravidarum is not excessive vomiting during post pregnancy. It is a condition characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances during pregnancy. It is different from the normal morning sickness experienced by some pregnant women and usually requires medical intervention to manage the symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is a component of a well baby visit?

    • A.

      Immunizations

    • B.

      Diagnostic hearing evaluation

    • C.

      Treatments

    • D.

      Evaluation and management

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunizations
    Explanation
    A component of a well baby visit is immunizations. During a well baby visit, a healthcare provider typically administers vaccines to protect the baby from various diseases. Immunizations are an important aspect of preventive care for infants as they help build their immune system and prevent the occurrence of certain illnesses.

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  • 44. 

    ________ __________ are used to check the child's growth in relation to other children.

    Correct Answer
    Growth charts
    Explanation
    Growth charts are used to track and monitor a child's growth in comparison to other children of the same age and gender. These charts provide a visual representation of a child's height, weight, and other measurements over time, allowing healthcare professionals to assess their growth patterns and identify any potential issues or abnormalities. By comparing a child's measurements to the standardized growth curves on the chart, doctors can determine if the child is growing within a normal range or if further evaluation or intervention is needed.

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  • 45. 

    Connective tissue loss is the reason older person's skin becomes more fragile?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    As a person ages, their skin undergoes various changes, including a loss of connective tissue. Connective tissue provides structural support and elasticity to the skin. When this tissue is lost, the skin becomes thinner, weaker, and more prone to damage and injury. Therefore, it is true that connective tissue loss is the reason why an older person's skin becomes more fragile.

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  • 46. 

    Check all that apply.  Which of the following is a common cause of diminished mental capacity?

    • A.

      Hypothermia

    • B.

      Substance abuse

    • C.

      Malnutrition

    • D.

      Side effects of prescription medications

    • E.

      Side effects of OTC drugs

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Substance abuse
    C. Malnutrition
    D. Side effects of prescription medications
    E. Side effects of OTC drugs
    Explanation
    Diminished mental capacity can be caused by various factors, including substance abuse, malnutrition, and side effects of both prescription medications and over-the-counter drugs. Substance abuse can impair cognitive function and lead to mental health issues. Malnutrition can deprive the brain of essential nutrients, affecting its functioning. Certain prescription medications can have cognitive side effects, such as drowsiness or confusion. Similarly, some over-the-counter drugs can also cause cognitive impairment as a side effect.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following needles is the largest?

    • A.

      21 G

    • B.

      27 G

    • C.

      16 G

    • D.

      18 G

    Correct Answer
    C. 16 G
    Explanation
    The largest needle size is determined by the gauge number, where a higher gauge number indicates a smaller needle size. In this case, the largest needle is 16 G because it has the lowest gauge number compared to the other options (21 G, 27 G, and 18 G).

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  • 48. 

    Thick, oily medications require a needle with a lumen of

    • A.

      21-16 G

    • B.

      24-20 G

    • C.

      27-24 G

    • D.

      14-12G

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-16 G
    Explanation
    Thick, oily medications require a needle with a larger lumen size (gauge) to allow for the smooth flow of the medication. A larger gauge needle, such as 21-16 G, has a wider opening, which helps prevent clogging or blockage of the needle while administering the medication. This ensures that the medication is delivered accurately and efficiently without any complications.

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  • 49. 

    Check all that apply.  An accidental needle by a contaminated needle could transmit:

    • A.

      Malaria

    • B.

      Hepatitis

    • C.

      Purtussis

    • D.

      Syphilis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Malaria
    B. Hepatitis
    D. Syphilis
    Explanation
    An accidental needle contaminated with malaria, hepatitis, or syphilis could transmit these diseases to a person. Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease caused by parasites, but it can also be transmitted through blood transfusions or sharing needles. Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the liver, and it can be caused by several viruses, including hepatitis B and hepatitis C, which can be transmitted through contaminated needles. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, but it can also be transmitted through blood transfusions or sharing needles.

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  • 50. 

    Check all that apply.  If an injection into the deltoid is not in the proper location, which of the following may occur?

    • A.

      Damage to blood vessels

    • B.

      Damage to the brachial and axillary nerves

    • C.

      Damage to the radial nerve

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Damage to blood vessels
    B. Damage to the brachial and axillary nerves
    C. Damage to the radial nerve
    Explanation
    If an injection into the deltoid is not in the proper location, it may cause damage to blood vessels, damage to the brachial and axillary nerves, and damage to the radial nerve.

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