CCT ATC Cto 16008

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By 55mhaig
5
55mhaig
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 234
| Attempts: 234 | Questions: 80
Please wait...
Question 1 / 80
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the _______.

Explanation

A position relief briefing is a process where one person is being replaced by another in a particular position or role. During this briefing, there is a need for an ordered listing of the items that need to be covered to ensure a smooth transition. This ordered listing is called a checklist, as it helps to ensure that all necessary information and tasks are addressed and completed during the briefing.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Air Traffic Control Quizzes & Trivia

CCT ATC CTO 16008 quiz assesses knowledge of air traffic control procedures, focusing on mandatory practices, procedural agreements, and operational definitions. It highlights critical skills for aviation professionals, ensuring compliance with standards like JO 7110.65.

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. When issuing surface wind, state the indicated direction to the nearest _________ degrees.

Explanation

When issuing surface wind, it is important to state the indicated direction to the nearest 10 degrees. This level of specificity ensures that the information provided is accurate and precise, allowing pilots and other aviation personnel to make informed decisions based on the wind conditions.

Submit
3. To identify a civil aircraft, use the aircraft type, model, _______ name, or the prefix "NOVEMBER."

Explanation

To identify a civil aircraft, you can use the aircraft type, model, or the manufacturer's name. The manufacturer's name is an important identifier as it tells you which company built the aircraft. This information can be useful for various purposes such as maintenance, tracking, and safety. The pilot's name, operator's name, and owner's name may not necessarily provide information about the specific aircraft itself, but rather the individuals or organizations associated with it.

Submit
4. When flying on a federal airway, IFR aircraft must navigate ____________ of that airway.

Explanation

When flying on a federal airway, IFR aircraft must navigate along the centerline of that airway. This means that they must stay aligned with the designated path in the middle of the airway. This ensures that aircraft are separated from each other and helps to maintain order and safety in the airspace. Flying along the centerline also helps pilots to accurately follow the intended route and avoid any potential conflicts with other aircraft.

Submit
5. When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known), direction of flight, and __________.

Explanation

When issuing advisories on bird activity, it is important to include the altitude along with the position, species or size, and direction of flight. This information is crucial for pilots and air traffic controllers to be aware of the potential hazards posed by birds in the airspace. Knowing the altitude at which the birds are flying helps in determining the risk of collision and allows pilots to take appropriate measures to avoid them.

Submit
6. Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude a(n) ________ situation.

Explanation

A flight check aircraft should only deviate from the pilot's planned action in order to prevent an emergency situation. This means that if there is an immediate threat to safety or if there is a risk of a hazardous situation occurring, the flight check aircraft can request a deviation from the pilot's planned action. This ensures that safety is prioritized and that any potential emergencies are addressed promptly.

Submit
7. Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below _________ feet AGL.

Explanation

Aerobatic flight may not be conducted below 1,500 feet AGL because it requires a certain altitude to ensure safety. Performing aerobatic maneuvers at lower altitudes increases the risk of collision with the ground or obstacles. Additionally, higher altitudes provide more time and space for recovery in case of any issues or emergencies during the maneuvers. Therefore, a minimum altitude of 1,500 feet AGL is necessary for conducting aerobatic flight safely.

Submit
8. The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is _______ knots.

Explanation

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is 250 knots. This is a standard regulation enforced by aviation authorities to ensure the safety of aircraft operating at lower altitudes. The specific speed limit may vary depending on the country, aircraft type, and other factors, but 250 knots is a common limit. Exceeding this speed could increase the risk of accidents and make it more difficult for pilots to maintain control of the aircraft.

Submit
9. Who is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement runway?

Explanation

The pilot-in-command is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement runway. As the person responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft, the pilot-in-command has the authority to make decisions regarding the use of runways. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the situation and determine whether it is appropriate to use a noise abatement runway based on factors such as noise restrictions, safety, and operational requirements. The pilot-in-command's decision takes precedence over any other authority in this matter.

Submit
10. Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of _______ feet.

Explanation

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are not authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of 2,800 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure safe separation between the aircraft operating on the parallel runways. It allows for enough space for the aircraft to maneuver and maintain a safe distance from each other, reducing the risk of collision.

Submit
11. What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as "active" runways?

Explanation

When determining which runways should be designated as "active," one important factor to consider is severe weather activity. This is because severe weather conditions such as strong winds, heavy rain, or thunderstorms can affect the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. By designating runways that are less prone to severe weather as "active," it helps ensure the smooth flow of air traffic and minimizes the risk of accidents or disruptions caused by adverse weather conditions.

Submit
12. Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ______ knots

Explanation

Helicopters should not be issued a downwind takeoff if the tailwind exceeds 5 knots. This is because a tailwind can affect the helicopter's performance and stability during takeoff. A tailwind can increase the groundspeed of the helicopter, making it more difficult to control and potentially reducing its lift capability. Therefore, it is important to limit the tailwind to a maximum of 5 knots to ensure safe takeoff conditions for helicopters.

Submit
13. The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on whenever the associated _______ lights are on.

Explanation

The runway edge lights are turned on whenever the associated approach lights are on. This is because the approach lights provide guidance to aircraft during the final approach and landing phase, and the runway edge lights help to define the edges of the runway and provide visual cues for pilots. Therefore, it is important for both sets of lights to be operational simultaneously to ensure the safety and proper navigation of aircraft during landing.

Submit
14. Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the___________.

Explanation

When an aircraft is approaching to land, it should circle the airport to the left. This is because most airports have a standard traffic pattern for landing, which involves making left turns. By circling to the left, the aircraft can align itself with the runway and enter the traffic pattern in a safe and orderly manner. Additionally, circling to the left allows the pilot to have better visibility of the airport and other aircraft in the vicinity, reducing the risk of collisions.

Submit
15. The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ______.

Explanation

The correct answer is VASI. VASI stands for Visual Approach Slope Indicator, which is a light system that provides vertical guidance to pilots during the approach to a runway. It consists of a series of lights arranged in a row, with some lights being red and some being white. The pilot can determine their position relative to the desired glide path by observing the colors of the lights. If the pilot sees red lights, they are below the glide path and need to descend, while if they see white lights, they are above the glide path and need to climb.

Submit
16. Routes or altitudes specifically for helicopters are prescribed by ________.

Explanation

The Administrator, in this context, refers to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) which is responsible for regulating and overseeing aviation activities in the United States. As helicopters are considered aircraft, the FAA has the authority to prescribe specific routes or altitudes for their operations. This ensures the safe and efficient movement of helicopters and helps prevent conflicts with other aircraft or airspace users.

Submit
17. When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions in a particular area, the information is disseminated via a(n) ________.

Explanation

When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions in a particular area, the information is disseminated via a NOTAM. NOTAM stands for Notice to Airmen, which is a notice containing important information about the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard. It is used to alert pilots and other aviation personnel about any temporary restrictions or changes that may affect their flight operations in a specific area.

Submit
18. When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after _________.

Explanation

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after coordination with approach control. This means that the local controller will need to communicate with the approach control to ensure that the aircraft is properly integrated into the landing sequence. This coordination is necessary to maintain the flow of traffic and ensure safe and efficient operations.

Submit
19. What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?

Explanation

The correct answer is "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED". This answer follows the correct phraseology used to issue RVR (Runway Visual Range) information. The phraseology typically includes stating the runway number followed by the RVR visibility in feet. In this case, the phrase "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED" correctly indicates that the RVR visibility on runway 14 is 2400 feet.

Submit
20. Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of _______ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance.

Explanation

In order to ensure effective radar surveillance, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of radar identification must be accomplished in all areas, except where it is not operationally feasible. This means that the transfer of information regarding the identification of radar targets must be carried out between different facilities and within the same facility to maintain continuous monitoring and tracking of targets. This helps in maintaining situational awareness and coordination between different radar surveillance systems.

Submit
21. Local controllers must visually scan runways _______.

Explanation

Local controllers must visually scan runways to the maximum extent possible in order to ensure the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. By continuously monitoring the runways, controllers can quickly identify any potential hazards or obstructions that may affect aircraft movement. This allows them to take immediate action and make informed decisions to prevent accidents or delays. Regular visual scanning also helps controllers maintain situational awareness and stay alert to any changes or developments on the runways, enabling them to effectively manage traffic and maintain smooth operations.

Submit
22. In order to fly "VFR-on-top," an aircraft must be on a(n) _________ flight plan.

Explanation

In order to fly "VFR-on-top," an aircraft must be on an IFR flight plan. VFR-on-top is a special VFR clearance that allows pilots to operate in visual flight rules (VFR) while maintaining an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan. This means that the pilot can fly above the clouds or other weather obstructions while still adhering to IFR regulations and receiving guidance from air traffic control. Therefore, an IFR flight plan is necessary to fly VFR-on-top.

Submit
23. In a METAR report, the altimeter element follows the ________ group.

Explanation

In a METAR report, the altimeter element follows the temperature/dewpoint group. This is because the altimeter setting, which measures atmospheric pressure, is typically reported after the temperature and dewpoint values. The altimeter setting is an important piece of information for pilots as it helps them determine the correct altitude readings and make necessary adjustments during flight.

Submit
24. The position relief briefing process involves _______ separate and distinct steps.

Explanation

The position relief briefing process involves 4 separate and distinct steps.

Submit
25. Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ________ test.

Explanation

Operating positions in a control tower require individuals to have practical skills. This means that they need to demonstrate their ability to perform tasks and handle real-life situations effectively. A practical test would assess their competence in operating the equipment, following procedures, and making decisions in a controlled environment. Unlike an essay or oral test, a practical test would provide a more accurate evaluation of their hands-on skills and readiness to work in a control tower. Multiple choice tests are not suitable for assessing practical skills as they primarily test theoretical knowledge.

Submit
26. When both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a route segment, the MOCA may be used within _________ nautical miles of the VOR involved.

Explanation

When both an MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude) and a MOCA (Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude) are prescribed for a route segment, the MOCA may be used within 22 nautical miles of the VOR involved. This means that within this distance from the VOR, pilots can fly at the MOCA instead of the MEA. The MOCA provides a minimum altitude that ensures obstacle clearance, while the MEA provides a minimum altitude that ensures navigation signal reception.

Submit
27. NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ____________.

Explanation

This question is testing knowledge of regulations regarding flying in formation. According to aviation regulations, it is not allowed for any person to fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying passengers for hire. This means that if there are paying passengers on board, flying in formation is prohibited.

Submit
28. Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the _________ of an aircraft.

Explanation

Speed restrictions do not apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the minimum safe speed of an aircraft. This means that if the minimum safe speed is specified for a particular aircraft, any speed below that can be considered safe and there are no restrictions in terms of maximum speed. This could be because the aircraft may not be able to maintain stability or control at speeds below the minimum safe speed, so it is important to adhere to this limit for safe operation.

Submit
29. When combining positions in the tower, do NOT use ground control frequency for _________ communications.

Explanation

When combining positions in the tower, it is important to not use ground control frequency for airborne communications. This is because ground control frequency is specifically designated for communicating with vehicles on the ground, such as vehicles operating on the airport surface. Airborne communications, on the other hand, involve communication with aircraft that are already in the air. Using ground control frequency for airborne communications could lead to confusion and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is essential to use the appropriate frequency for each type of communication.

Submit
30. If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit to the ATC facility manager a detailed report of that emergency within _________ hours.

Explanation

In the event of an emergency, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC is required to submit a detailed report of the emergency within 48 hours to the ATC facility manager. This report allows for a thorough understanding of the emergency situation, helps identify any potential issues or improvements in the ATC system, and ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to prevent similar emergencies in the future.

Submit
31. An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ________.

Explanation

A facility rating is an endorsement that indicates that an applicant has fulfilled the necessary requirements to have control over air traffic at a particular facility. This rating certifies that the individual has the knowledge, skills, and qualifications to perform air traffic control duties at that specific location. It is a recognition of their competence and ability to handle the responsibilities associated with managing air traffic within the designated facility.

Submit
32. The term "high key" relates to a(n) ________ approach.

Explanation

The term "high key" refers to a simulated flameout approach. This approach is a training maneuver where the pilot intentionally shuts off the engine to simulate an engine failure. The pilot then glides the aircraft to a designated landing spot. This exercise helps pilots practice emergency procedures and develop skills in handling unexpected situations.

Submit
33. One of the factors to consider when recommending an airport for an emergency aircraft is __________.

Explanation

When recommending an airport for an emergency aircraft, one of the factors to consider is the aircraft type. Different types of aircraft have different requirements and capabilities, such as landing distance, runway length, and fuel capacity. It is important to choose an airport that can accommodate the specific aircraft type to ensure a safe landing and efficient operations during the emergency situation.

Submit
34. Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ______ degrees or more.

Explanation

A primary radar beacon target can be identified by observing the target make an identifying turn of 30 degrees or more. This means that when the target changes its heading by at least 30 degrees, it becomes easier to identify and track using radar. This turn is significant enough to differentiate the target from other objects or aircraft in the vicinity, allowing for better surveillance and monitoring.

Submit
35. Air is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to __________.

Explanation

The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This force is a result of the Earth's rotation, which causes moving objects, such as air, to appear to veer off their intended path. As air moves from high to low pressure areas, the Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion, causing the deflection. This phenomenon is known as the Coriolis effect and plays a crucial role in the formation of weather patterns and ocean currents.

Submit
36. Procedural Letters of Agreement are _______ to JO 7110.65.

Explanation

Procedural Letters of Agreement are supplemental to JO 7110.65. This means that they provide additional information or instructions that complement the content of JO 7110.65. These letters serve as an extension or addition to the main document and are used to address specific procedures or agreements that are not covered in the original JO 7110.65.

Submit
37. When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to ______ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.

Explanation

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to nautical miles; otherwise, "miles" means statute miles. Nautical miles are used in aviation and marine navigation, while statute miles are used in everyday land-based measurements.

Submit
38. To operate in controlled airspace under IFR, a pilot must be ____________ and receive clearance.

Explanation

To operate in controlled airspace under IFR, a pilot must be filed on an IFR flight plan and receive clearance. This means that the pilot must have submitted their flight plan to air traffic control (ATC) indicating their intended route and altitude. ATC will review the flight plan and provide the pilot with a clearance, which includes specific instructions and authorization to enter and operate within controlled airspace. This ensures that the pilot is aware of other aircraft in the area and can safely navigate through the airspace.

Submit
39. Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the _______.

Explanation

Special VFR aircraft are not assigned fixed altitudes because of the clearance-from-clouds requirement. This is because special VFR operations allow pilots to fly in controlled airspace with less than the standard visibility and cloud clearance requirements. By not assigning fixed altitudes, air traffic control can provide flexibility to special VFR aircraft to maneuver as necessary to maintain the required cloud clearance. Assigning fixed altitudes could restrict their ability to avoid clouds and maintain visual reference, which is crucial for safe operations in reduced visibility conditions.

Submit
40. The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with _______ unless modified by flow control restrictions.

Explanation

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with the initial call unless modified by flow control restrictions. This means that the order in which aircraft are allowed to depart from the gate is determined by the initial call made by the pilots or air traffic control. However, if there are flow control restrictions in place, the sequence may be modified.

Submit
41. Air Mobility Command aircraft are identified by the prefix _______.

Explanation

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is a major command of the United States Air Force responsible for providing rapid global mobility and sustainment for America's armed forces. The correct answer, "REACH," is the prefix used to identify AMC aircraft. This prefix signifies the command's mission of reaching and providing support to various locations around the world.

Submit
42. Which of the following is NOT a recognized method of orientating lost aircraft?

Explanation

Sightings by persons on the ground is not a recognized method of orientating lost aircraft. NAVAIDs, pilotage, and radar are all commonly used methods for determining the location and orientation of an aircraft. NAVAIDs refer to navigational aids such as radio beacons or GPS systems, while pilotage involves visually identifying landmarks and using charts or maps. Radar uses radio waves to detect and track aircraft. However, relying on sightings by persons on the ground may not be accurate or reliable, as their perspective and information may be limited.

Submit
43. When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the _________.

Explanation

When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, it is important to provide the azimuth and distance from the aircraft, as well as the direction of flight. This additional information helps the pilot to better understand the relative position and movement of other aircraft in their vicinity, enabling them to make informed decisions and avoid potential conflicts. Providing the direction of flight allows the pilot to anticipate the path of the other aircraft and adjust their own course accordingly.

Submit
44. Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than _____ mile(s) and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS.

Explanation

Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) are used in low visibility conditions when instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS. This helps to enhance the visual cues for pilots during approach and landing. The correct answer is 3, indicating that SFL shall be operated when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

Submit
45. What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
46. Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, coordinate with the appropriate _______.

Explanation

Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, it is important to coordinate with the appropriate nonapproach control tower. This is necessary to ensure the safe and efficient movement of the aircraft through the airspace and to avoid any conflicts or potential hazards. The nonapproach control tower is responsible for managing the movement of aircraft on the ground within their designated area, including taxiways, runways, and other surface areas. By coordinating with them, the issuing authority can ensure that all necessary precautions and instructions are given to the aircraft for a smooth and safe transit.

Submit
47. A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ______.

Explanation

In order to conduct a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways, it is necessary for both aircraft involved to be issued traffic information. This information ensures that both pilots are aware of the presence and location of other aircraft in the vicinity, allowing them to coordinate their movements and maintain safe separation. Without traffic information, the risk of collision or other hazardous situations would be significantly increased.

Submit
48. NO pilot may operate an aircraft on a Special VFR clearance between sunset and sunrise unless that person is ________.

Explanation

According to the given information, it is not allowed for a pilot to operate an aircraft on a Special VFR clearance between sunset and sunrise unless they are instrument-rated. This means that the pilot must have the necessary qualifications and training to operate an aircraft in low visibility conditions using instruments.

Submit
49. If an emergency aircraft is on a frequency other than 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz, change frequencies ____________.

Explanation

It is important to change frequencies only when there is a valid reason if an emergency aircraft is on a frequency other than 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz. This ensures that the communication remains focused and efficient, and unnecessary frequency changes are avoided. Changing frequencies without a valid reason can lead to confusion and potential loss of important information. Therefore, it is necessary to assess the situation and change frequencies only when it is necessary and justified.

Submit
50. Radar separation shall be applied between the _______ of beacon control slashes.

Explanation

Radar separation shall be applied between the ends of beacon control slashes. This means that there should be a certain distance maintained between the endpoints of the slashes on the radar display. This is important for ensuring the accuracy and effectiveness of radar navigation and avoiding any potential collisions or confusion.

Submit
51. Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted _________.

Explanation

Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) are a type of operation where an aircraft is allowed to land and hold short of an intersecting runway or taxiway. These operations can only be conducted in Visual Flight Rules (VFR) conditions. VFR conditions refer to weather conditions that allow pilots to navigate and operate an aircraft by visual reference to the ground and other landmarks. Since LAHSO requires clear visibility and good weather conditions for pilots to safely see and avoid other aircraft and obstacles, it is crucial that these operations are only conducted in VFR conditions.

Submit
52. A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) _______ area.

Explanation

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a surface area. This means that the control tower is responsible for ensuring that there is enough distance between the two aircraft to prevent any potential collisions. The surface area refers to the area of the airport where aircraft are taxiing, taking off, and landing.

Submit
53. Clouds formed by vertical currents of unstable air are called ________ clouds.

Explanation

Vertical currents of unstable air can cause clouds to form. These clouds are known as cumulus clouds. Cumulus clouds are characterized by their puffy, cotton-like appearance and are often associated with fair weather conditions. They form when warm air rises and cools, causing water vapor to condense into visible cloud droplets. Cumulus clouds are typically found at lower altitudes and can indicate the presence of convective activity in the atmosphere.

Submit
54. An aircraft can only be flight-tested in areas of light air traffic over _______ or sparsely populated areas.

Explanation

An aircraft can only be flight-tested in areas of light air traffic over open water or sparsely populated areas. This is because flight-testing involves maneuvers and tests that may pose risks to both the aircraft and people on the ground. Open water provides a safe and open space for conducting these tests without the risk of colliding with other aircraft or causing harm to populated areas. Additionally, the absence of obstacles such as buildings or mountains in flat terrain or open water allows for a clear and unobstructed flight path, making it suitable for flight-testing purposes.

Submit
55. Issue radar advisories to flight inspection aircraft where adequate coverage exists and to the extent permitted by ___________. 

Explanation

The correct answer is workload. The explanation for this is that radar advisories are issued to flight inspection aircraft based on the workload of the radar operators. If the workload is manageable and there is adequate coverage, the radar advisories can be issued to the aircraft. However, if the workload is too high or if there is insufficient coverage, the radar advisories may not be issued. Therefore, the extent to which radar advisories can be issued is determined by the workload of the operators.

Submit
56. A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a __________.

Explanation

A designated STOL (Short Takeoff and Landing) runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a Letter of Agreement with the aircraft operator. This means that the pilot or the aircraft operator must specifically request the use of a STOL runway, or it must be outlined in a formal agreement between the aircraft operator and the relevant parties. This ensures that the appropriate runway is available for STOL operations and that all parties involved are aware of and agree to the arrangement.

Submit
57. The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least _______ any conflicting IFR traffic.

Explanation

The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least 500 feet below any conflicting IFR traffic. This ensures that there is a safe distance between the two aircraft, reducing the risk of collision. By assigning the Special VFR aircraft an altitude lower than the IFR traffic, there is a clear separation in their flight paths, allowing them to operate safely in the same airspace.

Submit
58. When clouds are in the area, pilots operating Special VFR must remain ________.

Explanation

When clouds are in the area, pilots operating Special VFR must remain clear of clouds. This means that they should fly in conditions where they have a clear view of the sky and are not flying through or in close proximity to clouds. This is important for the safety of the flight, as flying in or near clouds can reduce visibility and increase the risk of a collision or loss of control. By staying clear of clouds, pilots can ensure that they have a clear visual reference and maintain situational awareness during the flight.

Submit
59. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is known as magnetic _________.

Explanation

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is known as magnetic variation. This term is used to describe the variance between the direction indicated by a magnetic compass and the true geographic north. It is caused by the Earth's magnetic field not aligning perfectly with its geographic axis. Magnetic variation is an important factor to consider when navigating using a compass, as it helps determine the correct heading to follow.

Submit
60. Unless required fro message content, the duration of an ATIS message should NOT exceed ________ seconds.

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 seconds. An ATIS message is an automatic weather information broadcast provided by airports to pilots. It contains crucial information about weather conditions, runway conditions, and other relevant details. It is important for the duration of the ATIS message to be concise and precise to ensure that pilots receive the necessary information quickly and efficiently. A duration of 30 seconds strikes a balance between providing sufficient information and minimizing the time pilots spend listening to the message.

Submit
61. Transmit only those messages necessary for air traffic control or otherwise contributing to __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is air safety because transmitting only necessary messages for air traffic control or other contributions to air safety helps ensure the safety of aircraft in the airspace. This means that unnecessary messages that do not pertain to air safety, such as those related to air traffic delays, aircraft movement, or vehicular movement, should not be transmitted. Prioritizing air safety is crucial for the efficient and secure operation of air traffic control systems.

Submit
62. If a pilot requests clearance to climb or descend, issue the appropriate clearance, taking into consideration MEA, MOCA, MRA, and __________.

Explanation

When a pilot requests clearance to climb or descend, the appropriate clearance should be issued, taking into consideration various factors such as Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA), Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA), and Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA). In addition to these factors, weather conditions should also be taken into account. Weather conditions play a crucial role in determining the safety and feasibility of the requested climb or descent. Therefore, considering the weather is essential in ensuring the pilot's safety and providing appropriate clearance.

Submit
63. What term describes the position that is in direct communication with aircraft and ensures the separation of aircraft in the area of jurisdiction?

Explanation

The term "Tower Position" describes the role that is responsible for direct communication with aircraft and ensuring the separation of aircraft in the designated area. This position is typically located in the control tower of an airport and plays a crucial role in coordinating the movements of aircraft to maintain safety and efficiency in the airspace.

Submit
64. What facility is responsible for the dissemination of NOTAM information?

Explanation

FSS, or Flight Service Station, is responsible for the dissemination of NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) information. FSSs provide a range of services to pilots, including weather briefings, flight planning, and the dissemination of important information such as NOTAMs. NOTAMs contain time-critical information about potential hazards or changes to aeronautical facilities, services, procedures, or hazards. FSSs play a crucial role in ensuring that pilots have access to the latest NOTAM information to ensure safe and efficient flight operations.

Submit
65. Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about ______ mile(s) beyond the end of the runway.

Explanation

Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about 1/2 mile beyond the end of the runway. This instruction ensures that the aircraft has climbed to a safe altitude and is clear of any obstacles in the immediate vicinity of the airport. Contacting departure control at this point allows for a smooth transition of control from the tower to the departure control facility.

Submit
66. The standard minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft is _________ minutes.

Explanation

The standard minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft is 10 minutes. This means that there should be at least 10 minutes of time difference between the departure of one aircraft and the arrival of another aircraft on the same route. This ensures that there is enough distance between the aircraft to maintain safety and avoid any potential collisions or conflicts in the airspace.

Submit
67. When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT" must be included on the ATIS broadcast for ______ minutes.

Explanation

When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT" must be included on the ATIS broadcast for 20 minutes.

Submit
68. Determining which runways are to be designated as "active" is a primary responsibility of the ________.

Explanation

The tower supervisor/CIC is responsible for determining which runways are to be designated as "active." They oversee the overall operations of the control tower and coordinate with air traffic controllers to ensure safe and efficient aircraft movement on the runways. This includes making decisions on which runways are suitable for use based on factors such as weather conditions, aircraft traffic volume, and runway maintenance requirements. The tower supervisor/CIC plays a crucial role in managing runway operations and ensuring the smooth flow of air traffic at the airport.

Submit
69. When issuing clearances or instructions, ensure ___________ from pilots.

Explanation

When issuing clearances or instructions, it is important to receive acknowledgement from pilots. This means that the pilots have understood the instructions and are confirming their receipt. Acknowledgement ensures effective communication and helps prevent misunderstandings or errors. It allows for a clear and mutual understanding between the controller and the pilots, promoting safety and efficiency in air traffic control operations.

Submit
70. If a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the _______ and the displayed field boundary wind.

Explanation

In the given scenario, when a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, it is necessary to issue the Airport Wind and the displayed field boundary wind. This is because the Airport Wind provides information about the current wind conditions at the airport, which is crucial for pilots to make informed decisions during takeoff and landing. The displayed field boundary wind helps pilots understand the wind conditions near the boundaries of the airport, which can also impact their approach and landing procedures.

Submit
71. Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC is called ________.

Explanation

Positive control refers to the separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control (ATC). This means that ATC is responsible for ensuring that aircraft maintain a safe distance from each other to prevent collisions. Positive control involves the use of radar, communication systems, and strict adherence to ATC instructions to ensure the safe and efficient flow of air traffic. This term is commonly used in aviation to emphasize the active role of ATC in maintaining separation between aircraft.

Submit
72. Pilots operating under IFR conditions must report any complete or partial loss of navigational or ________ capabilities.

Explanation

Pilots operating under IFR conditions must report any complete or partial loss of navigational or communication capabilities. This is because communication is crucial for pilots to effectively communicate with air traffic control and other aircraft in order to maintain safe operations. Without proper communication capabilities, pilots may not be able to receive important instructions or relay critical information, which can pose a significant risk to the flight. Therefore, it is essential for pilots to report any loss of communication capabilities to ensure the safety of the flight.

Submit
73. The word "shall" means a procedure is _______.

Explanation

The word "shall" indicates that a procedure is mandatory. It implies that the action or requirement must be followed or complied with, leaving no room for discretion or choice.

Submit
74. The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, _______, or both.

Explanation

The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, flight level, calibrated altitude, or both. However, the term "above ground level" is also used to describe altitude.

Submit
75. Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and __________.

Explanation

Simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs can be authorized if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and the courses to be flown do not conflict. This means that as long as the flight paths of the helicopters do not intersect or overlap, they can safely operate at the same time. The other options, such as approach lights, pilots having each other in sight, and a Letter of Agreement, may be important for other aspects of helicopter operations but are not directly related to authorizing simultaneous landings and takeoffs.

Submit
76. What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR aircraft?

Explanation

A Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA) provides sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport, as well as separation between all participating VFR aircraft. TRSAs are established in areas where there is a high volume of radar traffic and provide additional services beyond basic radar service. This helps to ensure the safe and efficient flow of air traffic in and out of the primary airport.

Submit
77. Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which ______ service will be provided.

Explanation

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are established to define airspace within which separation service will be provided. TRSAs are designed to provide additional radar services to VFR aircraft in high-density areas. While IFR and VFR are types of flight plans, and control is a broader concept that encompasses various aspects of air traffic management, separation specifically refers to the service provided to maintain a safe distance between aircraft to prevent collisions. Therefore, the correct answer is separation.

Submit
78. Air traffic controllers must NOT leave their ________ to locate an ELT signal.

Explanation

Air traffic controllers must NOT leave their required duty stations to locate an ELT signal. This is because their duty stations are the designated areas from where they are responsible for managing and controlling air traffic. Leaving their duty stations would mean abandoning their responsibilities, which could lead to potential risks and disruptions in the airspace. Therefore, it is crucial for air traffic controllers to stay at their required duty stations and coordinate the necessary actions to address any emergency situations.

Submit
79. An increase in temperature of the atmosphere with an increase of altitude height defines a(n) _________.

Explanation

An increase in temperature with an increase in altitude is characteristic of an inversion. Inversions occur when a layer of warm air is trapped above a layer of cooler air, preventing the normal decrease in temperature with increasing altitude. This can lead to stable atmospheric conditions and can have significant effects on weather patterns.

Submit
80. The purpose of an Approach Light System associated with ILS is to provide ___________ information.

Explanation

The purpose of an Approach Light System associated with ILS is to provide range information. This system helps pilots determine the distance from the runway during approach and landing by providing visual cues such as lights that indicate the distance remaining. The range information is crucial for pilots to accurately judge their position and make necessary adjustments for a safe landing.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    55mhaig
Cancel
  • All
    All (80)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief...
When issuing surface wind, state the indicated direction to the...
To identify a civil aircraft, use the aircraft type, model, _______...
When flying on a federal airway, IFR aircraft must navigate...
When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position,...
Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's...
Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below _________ feet AGL.
The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is...
Who is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement...
Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel...
What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to...
Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to...
The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on...
Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to...
The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope...
Routes or altitudes specifically for helicopters are prescribed by...
When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions...
When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the...
What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?
Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and...
Local controllers must visually scan runways _______.
In order to fly "VFR-on-top," an aircraft must be on a(n)...
In a METAR report, the altimeter element follows the ________ group.
The position relief briefing process involves _______ separate and...
Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include...
When both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a route segment, the...
NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying...
Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than...
When combining positions in the tower, do NOT use ground control...
If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency...
An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control...
The term "high key" relates to a(n) ________ approach.
One of the factors to consider when recommending an airport for an...
Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an...
Air is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the...
Procedural Letters of Agreement are _______ to JO 7110.65.
When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to...
To operate in controlled airspace under IFR, a pilot must be...
Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the...
The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be...
Air Mobility Command aircraft are identified by the prefix _______.
Which of the following is NOT a recognized method of orientating lost...
When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth...
Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility...
What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer...
Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another...
A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting...
NO pilot may operate an aircraft on a Special VFR clearance between...
If an emergency aircraft is on a frequency other than 121.5 MHz or...
Radar separation shall be applied between the _______ of beacon...
Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted _________.
A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual...
Clouds formed by vertical currents of unstable air are called ________...
An aircraft can only be flight-tested in areas of light air traffic...
Issue radar advisories to flight inspection aircraft where adequate...
A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the...
The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR...
When clouds are in the area, pilots operating Special VFR must remain...
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is known...
Unless required fro message content, the duration of an ATIS message...
Transmit only those messages necessary for air traffic control or...
If a pilot requests clearance to climb or descend, issue the...
What term describes the position that is in direct communication with...
What facility is responsible for the dissemination of NOTAM...
Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure...
The standard minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft is...
When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or...
Determining which runways are to be designated as "active"...
When issuing clearances or instructions, ensure ___________ from...
If a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the...
Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC is...
Pilots operating under IFR conditions must report any complete or...
The word "shall" means a procedure is _______.
The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude...
Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs if the...
What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar...
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define...
Air traffic controllers must NOT leave their ________ to locate an ELT...
An increase in temperature of the atmosphere with an increase of...
The purpose of an Approach Light System associated with ILS is to...
Alert!

Advertisement