Monthly Quiz - Sep 2016
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- 1.
The bone that protects the brain is called the:
- A.
Sternum
- B.
Cranium
- C.
Clavicle
- D.
Pelvis
Correct Answer
B. CraniumExplanation
The cranium is the correct answer because it is the bone that surrounds and protects the brain. It forms the top, back, and sides of the skull, providing a hard and sturdy structure to safeguard the delicate brain tissue from any external impact or injury. The sternum, clavicle, and pelvis are not directly involved in protecting the brain.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Bone is also known as:
- A.
Oestrogen
- B.
Cartilage
- C.
Osseous tissue
- D.
Sinew
Correct Answer
C. Osseous tissueExplanation
Bone is also known as osseous tissue. Osseous tissue refers to the specialized connective tissue that makes up the bones in the human body. It is a hard and rigid tissue that provides support, protection, and structure to the body. Osseous tissue is composed of cells called osteocytes, which are embedded in a matrix of collagen fibers and calcium salts. This tissue is responsible for the formation, growth, and repair of bones. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is osseous tissue.Rate this question:
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- 3.
If a word begins with the prefix hyper, it means:
- A.
Low or under
- B.
Enlarged.
- C.
Excessive, above normal
- D.
Stomach
Correct Answer
C. Excessive, above normalExplanation
The prefix "hyper-" is commonly used in medical terminology and indicates excess or above normal levels. Therefore, if a word begins with the prefix "hyper-", it means that it is excessive or above normal.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Ossicles refer to
- A.
Malleus, incus & stapes footplate.
- B.
Mastoid, incus & stapes.
- C.
An inflammation affecting middle ear structures.
- D.
The middle ear bones.
Correct Answer
D. The middle ear bones.Explanation
The term "ossicles" refers to the three small bones in the middle ear, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes. These bones are responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. They amplify and transmit the sound waves, allowing us to hear. Therefore, the correct answer is "The middle ear bones."Rate this question:
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- 5.
A tumor that starts in the tissues of the eardrum is:
- A.
Acoustic neuroma.
- B.
Mastoidectomy.
- C.
Cholesteatoma.
- D.
Otolyth.
Correct Answer
C. Cholesteatoma.Explanation
A cholesteatoma is a tumor that starts in the tissues of the eardrum. It is a non-cancerous growth that can cause hearing loss, ear pain, and recurrent ear infections. It is typically caused by chronic ear infections or a perforated eardrum. Treatment usually involves surgical removal of the cholesteatoma to prevent further complications and restore hearing.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which part of the kidney is responsible for urine production.
- A.
Pelvis
- B.
Capsule
- C.
Nephrons
- D.
Ureters
Correct Answer
C. NephronsExplanation
The nephrons are responsible for urine production in the kidney. Nephrons are the functional units of the kidney and they filter waste products from the blood, reabsorb necessary substances, and produce urine. They consist of a glomerulus, which filters the blood, and a tubule, which reabsorbs water and other substances. The nephrons play a vital role in maintaining the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body and eliminating waste products through the production of urine.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A diuretic is a substance which
- A.
Reduces the amount of water in the urine.
- B.
Stimulates a decrease in urine production.
- C.
Stimulates an increase in urine production.
- D.
Increases the amount of salt in the urine.
Correct Answer
C. Stimulates an increase in urine production.Explanation
A diuretic is a substance that stimulates an increase in urine production. This means that it helps the body get rid of excess fluid by increasing the amount of urine that is produced. Diuretics work by increasing the filtration of fluid through the kidneys, which leads to more urine being produced. This can be helpful in conditions such as high blood pressure or edema, where there is a buildup of fluid in the body that needs to be eliminated. By stimulating an increase in urine production, diuretics help to reduce fluid retention and promote the excretion of waste products.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following would tend to increase urine production.
- A.
Increased activity levels.
- B.
Decreased water consumption.
- C.
Increased water consumption.
- D.
Increased body temperature.
Correct Answer
C. Increased water consumption.Explanation
Increased water consumption would tend to increase urine production because when the body takes in more water, the kidneys have to work harder to filter and remove the excess water from the bloodstream. This leads to an increased production of urine as the kidneys try to maintain the body's water balance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following substances are all found in the urine of a healthy person.
- A.
Water, salt, toxins, erythrocytes.
- B.
Urea, uric acid, glucose, inorganic ions.
- C.
Water, urea, proteins, uric acid.
- D.
Urea, uric acid, inorganic ions.
Correct Answer
D. Urea, uric acid, inorganic ions.Explanation
The substances found in the urine of a healthy person are urea, uric acid, and inorganic ions. Urea is a waste product produced by the liver during protein metabolism and is excreted through urine. Uric acid is a byproduct of purine metabolism and is also excreted through urine. Inorganic ions, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, are filtered by the kidneys and excreted in urine to maintain electrolyte balance in the body. Water is also present in urine to help flush out these waste products.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Patient reported perceptions such as pain, nausea, and chills are known as:
- A.
Syndrome.
- B.
Signs.
- C.
Symptoms.
- D.
Suffering.
Correct Answer
C. Symptoms.Explanation
Patient reported perceptions such as pain, nausea, and chills are known as symptoms. Symptoms are subjective experiences reported by the patient, while signs are objective observations made by healthcare professionals. Suffering refers to the distress or emotional experience associated with illness or symptoms. Therefore, symptoms are the most appropriate term to describe the patient's reported perceptions in this context.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A disease that originates or is produced within the body is known as:
- A.
Endogenous
- B.
Exogenous
- C.
Ergogenic
- D.
Indigenous
Correct Answer
A. EndogenousExplanation
Endogenous refers to a disease that originates or is produced within the body. This means that the disease is caused by factors or processes that are internal to the body, such as genetic mutations, malfunctioning immune system, or metabolic disorders. Unlike exogenous diseases, which are caused by external factors like infections or toxins, endogenous diseases are intrinsic to the body and may have complex underlying causes. Ergogenic refers to substances or practices that enhance physical performance, while indigenous refers to native or native-born populations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When a disease emerges suddenly, but usually has a short duration, it is referred to as:
- A.
Chronic.
- B.
Acute.
- C.
Infectious.
- D.
Communicable.
Correct Answer
B. Acute.Explanation
When a disease emerges suddenly and has a short duration, it is referred to as acute. This term is used to describe illnesses that develop rapidly and are of short duration. Acute diseases often have distinct symptoms and can resolve quickly with appropriate treatment or on their own. Unlike chronic diseases, which last for a long time, acute diseases are temporary and typically do not have long-lasting effects on the body. Infectious and communicable are terms used to describe diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another, but they do not necessarily indicate the sudden onset or short duration of the illness.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A 68-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her godson. He explains that she unexpectedly began to have sudden movements of her left arm. The examination reveals a slender woman with hypertension and periodic, uncontrollable flailing movements of her left upper extremity suggestive of hemiballismus. Assuming this resulted from a vascular occlusion, MRI would most likely show an infarction in which of the following structures?
- A.
Left substantia nigra.
- B.
Left subthalamic nucleus.
- C.
Right substantia nigra.
- D.
Right subthalamic nucleus.
Correct Answer
D. Right subthalamic nucleus.Explanation
The patient's symptoms of sudden movements of her left arm and the examination findings of uncontrollable flailing movements suggest hemiballismus. Hemiballismus is commonly caused by a vascular occlusion, which leads to damage in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus. Therefore, MRI would most likely show an infarction in the right subthalamic nucleus, as it is contralateral to the affected arm. The other structures mentioned, such as the substantia nigra, are not typically associated with hemiballismus.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What type of tissue is the appendix made up of?
- A.
Fibrinous.
- B.
Intestinal mucosa.
- C.
Connective.
- D.
Lymphatic.
Correct Answer
D. Lymphatic.Explanation
The appendix is made up of lymphatic tissue. Lymphatic tissue is a type of connective tissue that contains a high concentration of lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell. The lymphatic tissue in the appendix helps to protect the body against infections by producing and storing lymphocytes. This is why the appendix is considered to be part of the lymphatic system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Situation: A 20-year-old college student was rushed to the ER after he fainted during their ROTC drill. Complained of severe right iliac pain. Upon palpation of his abdomen, Ernie jerks even on slight pressure. Blood test was ordered. Diagnosis is acute appendicitis. Stat appendectomy was indicated. Preop care would include all of the following except?
- A.
Skin prep of the area including the pubis.
- B.
Consent signed by the father.
- C.
Remove the jewelries.
- D.
Enema STAT
Correct Answer
D. Enema STATExplanation
Preoperative care for a patient with acute appendicitis includes skin preparation of the area including the pubis to minimize the risk of infection, obtaining consent for the surgery (which would typically be signed by the patient or their legal guardian if they are a minor), and removing any jewelry or other objects that could interfere with the surgery. However, an enema is not typically necessary for an appendectomy and would not be included in the preoperative care.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the treatment for appendicitis?
- A.
Pain control and antibiotics.
- B.
Antibiotics and observation.
- C.
Pain control.
- D.
Surgical removal of inflamed appendix before it ruptures.
Correct Answer
D. Surgical removal of inflamed appendix before it ruptures.Explanation
The correct answer is surgical removal of the inflamed appendix before it ruptures. This is because appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, and if left untreated, it can lead to the appendix rupturing. Rupture can cause serious complications such as infection and abscess formation. Therefore, the recommended treatment for appendicitis is to surgically remove the inflamed appendix to prevent rupture and further complications. Pain control and antibiotics may be used as part of the treatment plan, but the definitive treatment is the surgical removal of the appendix.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Fe is absorbed in the:
- A.
Stomach.
- B.
Duodenum.
- C.
Jejunum.
- D.
Ileum.
Correct Answer
B. Duodenum.Explanation
Fe (iron) is absorbed in the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine. The duodenum is responsible for receiving partially digested food from the stomach and further breaking it down with the help of digestive enzymes. It is in the duodenum where iron is released from food and binds to a protein called transferrin, which transports iron to the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body. The duodenum's specialized cells and its acidic environment facilitate the absorption of iron, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When should you practice hand hygiene?
- A.
Both before and after having contact with a patient.
- B.
Only when you think your hands are dirty.
- C.
All the time.
- D.
Only when you think the patient is contaminated or dirt
Correct Answer
C. All the time.Explanation
Hand hygiene should be practiced all the time to prevent the spread of germs and infections. It is important to maintain good hand hygiene not only before and after having contact with a patient, but also in various other situations such as before and after eating, after using the restroom, after coughing or sneezing, and after touching any potentially contaminated surfaces. Regular hand hygiene helps to reduce the risk of transmitting harmful bacteria and viruses and promotes overall cleanliness and hygiene.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) includes:
- A.
Gloves - when hand contamination is anticipated.
- B.
Masks and eye protection - when spashes may occur
- C.
Gowns - when soiling of clothes may occur
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) includes gloves, masks and eye protection, and gowns. Gloves are used when there is a risk of hand contamination, masks and eye protection are used when there is a possibility of splashes, and gowns are used when there is a chance of clothes getting soiled. Therefore, all of these items are part of PPE.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The five main factors that contribute to good health for a health care worker are:
- A.
Diet, Rest, Exercise, Good Posture, and Smoking.
- B.
Diet high in fat, Rest, Exercise, Good Posture, and Avoiding Tobacco/Alcohol/Drugs.
- C.
Well Balanced Diet, Exercise, Rest, Good Posture, and Avoiding Tobacco/Alcohol/Drugs.
- D.
Well Balanced Diet, Inadequate Rest, Exercise, Good Posture, and Avoiding Tobacco/Alcohol/Drugs
Correct Answer
C. Well Balanced Diet, Exercise, Rest, Good Posture, and Avoiding Tobacco/Alcohol/Drugs.Explanation
The correct answer is "Well Balanced Diet, Exercise, Rest, Good Posture, and Avoiding Tobacco/Alcohol/Drugs." This answer includes all the factors that contribute to good health for a health care worker. A well-balanced diet provides essential nutrients, exercise helps maintain physical fitness, adequate rest is important for recovery and overall well-being, good posture prevents musculoskeletal issues, and avoiding tobacco/alcohol/drugs promotes overall health and reduces the risk of addiction-related problems.Rate this question:
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May 01, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 04, 2016Quiz Created by
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