2A952 Volume 3 UREs (2016)

1. (413) Which errors must be corrected for an airspeed indicator to display true airspeed?

Altitude and instrument

Altitude and installation

Temperature and altitude

Temperature and installation

2. (410) The TTU–205 test set is capable of controlling and measuring

Time and distance

Power and ground

Altitude and airspeed

Commands and displays

3. (408) Static pressure is

Less at low radar altitudes and greater at higher radar altitudes

Less at low attack angles and greater at higher attack angles

Greater at low airspeeds and less at higher airspeeds

Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes

4. (410) The TTU–205 test set be disconnected from aircraft systems and instruments at

Ambient pressure

Impact pressure

High altitude

Full pressure

5. (408) The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is

29.92″ Hg and the temperature is +15° C

29.92″ Hg and the temperature is +40° C

30.92″ Hg and the temperature is +15° C

30.92″ Hg and the temperature is +40° C

6. (407) What records the Central Integrated Test System (CITS) fault?

Flight management system control display units

CITS control and display (CCD) panel

CITS maintenance recorder (CMR)

CITS maintenance codes (CMC)

7. (407) The Central Integrated Test System (CITS) illuminate lights on the instrument panel when the fault is

Transferred to the maintenance management system

Classified as a caution or warning

Detected on the ground

Not recorded

8. (411) When the aircraft levels off, the pressures in the vertical velocity indicator equalize, and the pointer returns to

Six

Three

One

Zero

9. (412) The ratio of the speed of the aircraft to the speed of sound is known as

True airspeed

Mach number

Indicated airspeed

Maximum safe Mach number

10. (406) What do fuel management systems such as the Fuel Savings Advisory System (FSAS) measure and process?

Ram air pressure

Tactical air navigation

Aircraft performance data

Ethernet local area network (LAN) data

11. (405) What provides the processing and interface functions for the flight management system (FMS)?

Flight display system

Navigation computer

Control display unit

Data transfer unit

12. (404) Which heads-up display (HUD) control mode has a considerably reduced brightness range?

OFF

DAY

AUTO

NIGHT

13. (404) The optically coated, transparent glass panes of a head-up display (HUD) that allow outside images to pass through are called a

Monitor

Combiner

Controller

Transmitter

14. (404) Which is not provided to the heads-up displays (HUD) by the mission computer?

Radar altitude

Auto-throttle speed

Display mode commands

Flight director commands

15. (402) At what rate does an Ethernet station sends data?

1 Mbps

10 Mbps

15 Mbps

25 Mbps

16. (401) When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a remote terminal (RT) on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller

Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus

Is disabled and the backup controller resumes transmission

Attempts to retransmit to the RT until contact is made

Establishes communications with a different RT

17. (401) Which type of data bus stub is used for stubs less than one foot in length on the Military Standard 1553B data bus?

Transformer-coupled

Direct-coupled

Basic-coupled

Fiber-optic

18. (415) What extinguishes caution advisory panel annunciations?

Depressing the master caution light

Reset by the associated system

Test switch activation

Audible warnings

19. (415) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate unsafe flight conditions and system failures?

Black

Green

White

Yellow

20. (414) How is the underwater locator beacon activated?

Flight recorder switch

Water immersion

Aircraft power

Gravity

21. (413) Each total air temperature probe contains

Two variable resistance-type sensing elements

Three variable resistance-type sensing elements

Two variable capacitance-type sensing elements

Three variable capacitance-type sensing elements

22. (403) Which multifunctional display (MFD) overlay uses altitude and direction trend arrows?

Weather radar (WXR) overlay

Enhanced traffic alert collision avoidance system (ETCAS) overlay

MAP arc overlay

Ground proximity warning system (GPWS) terrain overlay

23. (412) The primary difference between indicated airspeed and true airspeed is the

Density error

Instrument error

Installation error

Differential error

24. (412) What type of pressure enters the airspeed indicator diaphragm?

Pitot

Static

Barometric

Atmospheric

25. (414) If a fault condition exists, the fault indicators on the front of the flight data acquisition unit

Red

Black

White

Yellow

26. (413) The total air temperature is calibrated in

One-degree increments from –70° C to +80° C

One-degree increments from –50° C to +60° C

Two-degree increments from –70° C to +80° C

Two-degree increments from –50° C to +60° C

27. (415) The purpose of the caution/advisory panel test switch is to

Check for proper aircraft system operation

Check for proper light bulb operation

Extinguish the master caution light

Extinguish the audible warning

28. (411) What type of measurement is used for the altimeter barometric scale?

Inches of methyl chloride

Inches of mercury

Thousands of feet

Hundreds of feet

29. (416) At what altitudes is the ground proximity warning system active?

0 – 2,450 feet

50 – 2,450 feet

0 – 12,450 feet

50 – 12,450 feet

30. (410) How long must the TTU–205 test set be allowed to warm-up for system stabilization?

1 hour

8 hours

10 minutes

30 minutes

31. (416) Which ground proximity warning system mode becomes active when an instrument landing system frequency has been selected and the aircraft is below 1,000 feet?

Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate

Mode 3, Descent after Takeoff

Mode 4, Proximity to Terrain

Mode 5, Descent below Glideslope

32. (417) The control column shakers are prevented from operating continuously in phase with each other by

Physically interconnecting the two shakers

Allowing only one shaker to operate at a time

Having the copilot’s shaker run slower than the pilot’s

Alternating between the two shakers on a one-second interval

33. (401) Which element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of being used as a backup bus controller?

Remote terminal

Bus controller

Stub coupler

Bus monitor

34. (409) Which signal is not an input to the air data computer?

Pitot pressure

Mach number

Static pressure

Total air temperature

35. (401) What does a fiber optic data bus use as the controlling protocol?

MIL–STD–3910B

MIL–STD–1553B

Optic transceiver

Star coupler

36. (407) The Central Integrated Test System (CITS) dedicated processor (CDP) interfaces with the avionics multiplex (AMUX) data bus, allowing the CITS to receive parameter data from what subsystem(s)?

Navigation subsystem only

Navigation, flight controls, electronic warfare, and weapons subsystems

Navigation, electronic warfare, weapons, and avionics subsystems

Avionics subsystem only

37. (406) The air data computer (ADC) output data is provided to the Fuel Savings Advisory Computer for

Preflight initialization

Airspeed calculations

Total air temperature

Vertical navigation

38. (406) The fuel savings advisory data is transmitted from the Fuel Management Advisory Computer to the control display unit (CDU) on the

1553A Fuel Savings Advisory Bus (FSB)

1553B Fuel Savings Advisory System Bus (FSB)

1553A Flight Management Bus (FMB)

1553B Flight Management Bus (FMB)

39. (402) Data must be sent between two processors in the Ethernet local area network (LAN) must flow through the

Bus monitor

Data transfer unit

Digital switching module

Integrated processing center

40. (405) What provides the primary means of loading the operational flight program (OFP) software and saving fault history in the flight management system (FMS)?

Data transfer unit

Control display unit

Navigation computer

Flight display system

41. (403) What component of the flight display system (FDS) allows you to select the navigation source?

Multifunctional display (MFD) control panel

Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI)

Electronic attitude director indicator (EADI)

Multifunctional display

42. (417) The stall prevention computer produces a shaker signal if the aircraft angle-of-attack (AOA) and the permissible AOA are

Equal

Within two degrees of each other

Within five degrees of each other

Within 10 degrees of each other

43. (401) Each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is

20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and 1 parity bit

16 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 12 information bits, and 1 parity bit

10 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and 1 parity bit

8 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, 12 information bits, and 1 parity bit

44. (416) Which ground proximity warning system mode sounds the alert, "DON'T SINK"?

Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate

Mode 3, Descent after Takeoff

Mode 4, Proximity to Terrain

Mode 5, Descent below Glideslope

45. (416) Which ground proximity warning system warning is disabled when the control panel INHIBIT/ON switch is in the INHIBIT position?

“Glideslope.”

“Don’t Sink.”

“Too Low, Gear.”

“Too Low, Flaps.”

46. (415) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft equipment?

Red

Blue

Green

Yellow

47. (403) Which system's information is not capable of being displayed on the flight display system multifunctional displays (MFD)?

Weather radar (WXR)

Auto-detect timing data (ADTD)

Ground proximity warning system (GPWS)

Tactical collision avoidance system (TCAS)

48. (404) Selected mode and symbology requirements are passed to the heads-up displays (HUD) from the mission computers via the

1553A data bus

1553B data bus

Ethernet local area network (LAN)

Aeronautical Radio, incorporated (ARINC) 429

49. (406) Which is not a functional area of the Fuel Management Advisory Computer (FMAC) software?

Vertical navigation

Preflight initialization

Data bus management

Aircraft performance data

50. (410) What color code does the TTU–205 test set static hose assembly use?

Red

Blue

Green

White

51. (408) The purpose of the static pressure holes on a pitot-static tube is to allow

Atmospheric pressure to enter the static chamber

Atmospheric pressure to enter the pitot chamber

Impact pressure to enter the static chamber

Impact pressure to enter the pitot chamber

52. (409) When the failure annunciator on the front of the air data computer is reset, it shows

Solid black

Solid white

Three black wedges on a white background

Three white wedges on a black background

53. (403) What are the electronic attitude director indicator (EADI) and electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI) formats controlled by?

Multifunctional display control panels

Heads-up display control panels

Fuel management systems

Mission computers

54. (413) The sensing elements in the true airspeed indicator are surrounded by

Pitot pressure

Static pressure

Impact pressure

Methyl chloride gas

55. (409) Manual self-test of the air data computer is inhibited if airspeed is

Greater than 50 knots

Greater than 70 knots

Less than 50 knots

Less than 70 knots

56. (405) How many mission plans and waypoints is the flight management system (FMS) capable of loading?

20 mission plans and 500 waypoints

50 mission plans and 200 waypoints

200 mission plans and 50 waypoints

500 mission plans and 20 waypoints

57. (417) With the stall prevention system control panel test switch in the TEST position, the shaker can be activated by manually moving the

Angle-of-attack (AOA) vane

Autopilot pitch trim knob

AOA indicator bug

Control columns

58. (401) At what megabits per second (Mbps) does the fiber optic data bus operate?

50

30

10

1

59. (401) In a Military Standard 1553B data bus command word, the field that refers to a function or area within the remote terminal to which the command is being directed is the

Address field

Subaddress/mode field

Transmit/receive bit field

Word count/mode code field

60. (416) Which ground proximity warning system mode is always active when the aircraft is between 50 and 2,450 feet, regardless of aircraft configuration?

Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate

Mode 2, Excessive Closure Rate

Mode 4, Proximity to Terrain

Mode 5, Descent below Glideslope

61. (410) The TTU–205 test set AUTO EXERCISE must be performed when power has been

On for more than one hour

Off for more than one hour

On for more than a half hour

Off for more than a half hour

62. (401) Military Standard 1553B status words are only transmitted in response to a command from the

Remote terminal

Bus controller

Bus monitor

Fiber optic

63. (412) The altitude aneroid ensures accurate airspeed indicator operation regardless of

Mach

Temperature

Density error

True airspeed

64. (403) The multifunctional displays (MFD) are interconnected to each other through the

MIL-STD–1553A

MIL-STD–1553B

Ethernet local area network (LAN)

Aeronautical Radio, incorporated (ARINC) 429

65. (413) What condition causes an uncorrected airspeed indicator to read higher than it should?

Decreased temperature

Increased temperature

Decreased friction

Increased friction

2A952 Volume 3 UREs (2016)

1. (413) Which errors must be corrected for an airspeed indicator to display true airspeed?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. (410) The TTU–205 test set is capable of controlling and measuring

3. (408) Static pressure is

4. (410) The TTU–205 test set be disconnected from aircraft systems and instruments at

5. (408) The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is

6. (407) What records the Central Integrated Test System (CITS) fault?

7. (407) The Central Integrated Test System (CITS) illuminate lights on the instrument panel when the fault is

8. (411) When the aircraft levels off, the pressures in the vertical velocity indicator equalize, and the pointer returns to

9. (412) The ratio of the speed of the aircraft to the speed of sound is known as

10. (406) What do fuel management systems such as the Fuel Savings Advisory System (FSAS) measure and process?

11. (405) What provides the processing and interface functions for the flight management system (FMS)?

12. (404) Which heads-up display (HUD) control mode has a considerably reduced brightness range?

13. (404) The optically coated, transparent glass panes of a head-up display (HUD) that allow outside images to pass through are called a

14. (404) Which is not provided to the heads-up displays (HUD) by the mission computer?

15. (402) At what rate does an Ethernet station sends data?

16. (401) When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a remote terminal (RT) on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller

17. (401) Which type of data bus stub is used for stubs less than one foot in length on the Military Standard 1553B data bus?

18. (415) What extinguishes caution advisory panel annunciations?

19. (415) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate unsafe flight conditions and system failures?

20. (414) How is the underwater locator beacon activated?

21. (413) Each total air temperature probe contains

22. (403) Which multifunctional display (MFD) overlay uses altitude and direction trend arrows?

23. (412) The primary difference between indicated airspeed and true airspeed is the

24. (412) What type of pressure enters the airspeed indicator diaphragm?

25. (414) If a fault condition exists, the fault indicators on the front of the flight data acquisition unit

26. (413) The total air temperature is calibrated in

27. (415) The purpose of the caution/advisory panel test switch is to

28. (411) What type of measurement is used for the altimeter barometric scale?

29. (416) At what altitudes is the ground proximity warning system active?

30. (410) How long must the TTU–205 test set be allowed to warm-up for system stabilization?

31. (416) Which ground proximity warning system mode becomes active when an instrument landing system frequency has been selected and the aircraft is below 1,000 feet?

32. (417) The control column shakers are prevented from operating continuously in phase with each other by

33. (401) Which element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of being used as a backup bus controller?

34. (409) Which signal is not an input to the air data computer?

35. (401) What does a fiber optic data bus use as the controlling protocol?

36. (407) The Central Integrated Test System (CITS) dedicated processor (CDP) interfaces with the avionics multiplex (AMUX) data bus, allowing the CITS to receive parameter data from what subsystem(s)?

37. (406) The air data computer (ADC) output data is provided to the Fuel Savings Advisory Computer for

38. (406) The fuel savings advisory data is transmitted from the Fuel Management Advisory Computer to the control display unit (CDU) on the

39. (402) Data must be sent between two processors in the Ethernet local area network (LAN) must flow through the

40. (405) What provides the primary means of loading the operational flight program (OFP) software and saving fault history in the flight management system (FMS)?

41. (403) What component of the flight display system (FDS) allows you to select the navigation source?

42. (417) The stall prevention computer produces a shaker signal if the aircraft angle-of-attack (AOA) and the permissible AOA are

43. (401) Each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is

44. (416) Which ground proximity warning system mode sounds the alert, "DON'T SINK"?

45. (416) Which ground proximity warning system warning is disabled when the control panel INHIBIT/ON switch is in the INHIBIT position?

46. (415) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft equipment?

47. (403) Which system's information is not capable of being displayed on the flight display system multifunctional displays (MFD)?

48. (404) Selected mode and symbology requirements are passed to the heads-up displays (HUD) from the mission computers via the

49. (406) Which is not a functional area of the Fuel Management Advisory Computer (FMAC) software?

50. (410) What color code does the TTU–205 test set static hose assembly use?

51. (408) The purpose of the static pressure holes on a pitot-static tube is to allow

52. (409) When the failure annunciator on the front of the air data computer is reset, it shows

53. (403) What are the electronic attitude director indicator (EADI) and electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI) formats controlled by?

54. (413) The sensing elements in the true airspeed indicator are surrounded by

55. (409) Manual self-test of the air data computer is inhibited if airspeed is

56. (405) How many mission plans and waypoints is the flight management system (FMS) capable of loading?

57. (417) With the stall prevention system control panel test switch in the TEST position, the shaker can be activated by manually moving the

58. (401) At what megabits per second (Mbps) does the fiber optic data bus operate?

59. (401) In a Military Standard 1553B data bus command word, the field that refers to a function or area within the remote terminal to which the command is being directed is the

60. (416) Which ground proximity warning system mode is always active when the aircraft is between 50 and 2,450 feet, regardless of aircraft configuration?

61. (410) The TTU–205 test set AUTO EXERCISE must be performed when power has been

62. (401) Military Standard 1553B status words are only transmitted in response to a command from the

63. (412) The altitude aneroid ensures accurate airspeed indicator operation regardless of

64. (403) The multifunctional displays (MFD) are interconnected to each other through the

65. (413) What condition causes an uncorrected airspeed indicator to read higher than it should?