Microbiology Lab Exam #2

62 Questions | Total Attempts: 223

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Microbiology Lab Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    An enzyme that breaks down starch into smaller units 
    • A. 

      Decarboxylase

    • B. 

      Amalyse

    • C. 

      Lipase

    • D. 

      Proteinase

  • 2. 
    Caseinase (proteinase) breaks down
    • A. 

      Gelatin

    • B. 

      Starch

    • C. 

      Fats

    • D. 

      Milk protein

  • 3. 
    In the carbohydrate tests phenolred broth base was used with the appropriate carb if the indicator turned yellow 
    • A. 

      Gas is produced

    • B. 

      Acid is produced

    • C. 

      Base is produced

    • D. 

      Reduction has taken place

  • 4. 
    An enzyme breaks down fat into smaller units is 
    • A. 

      Lipase

    • B. 

      Decarbxylase

    • C. 

      Amylase

    • D. 

      Proteinase

  • 5. 
    The following equation indicate the enzyme  which facilitate the reaction2H2 O2----------------->   2H2O + O2hydrogen peroxide    water    free oxygen  
    • A. 

      Protease

    • B. 

      Lipase

    • C. 

      Catalase

    • D. 

      Urease

  • 6. 
    Trypanosoma gambiense belongs to class
    • A. 

      Sacodina

    • B. 

      Mastigophora

    • C. 

      Probobozoan

  • 7. 
    Medium best suitable for the cultivation of a wide variety of fungal types would be 
    • A. 

      Sab- Dex

    • B. 

      TSA

    • C. 

      TSE

    • D. 

      EMB

  • 8. 
    Fungi best grow at 
    • A. 

      37

    • B. 

      20- 25

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      4

  • 9. 
    Common black bread mold is 
    • A. 

      Penicillin

    • B. 

      Mucor

    • C. 

      Rhizopus

    • D. 

      Aspergillus

  • 10. 
    Which of the following stages of malarial parasite are found in mosquito?
    • A. 

      Merozoite

    • B. 

      Sporoite

    • C. 

      Ringworm

    • D. 

      Mature trophozoite

  • 11. 
    Which media is most suitable for detecting H2S production?
    • A. 

      TSA

    • B. 

      EMB

    • C. 

      SIM

    • D. 

      Sab- Dex

  • 12. 
    In the nitrate reduction test a negative test for nitrite indicates 
    • A. 

      The nitrite is present

    • B. 

      Nitrate has remained unchanged

    • C. 

      Nitrite has been converted to ammonia and free nitrogen

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 13. 
    The catalase test is particularly useful in distinguishing
    • A. 

      Bacillus & clostridium

    • B. 

      Salmonella & shiaella

    • C. 

      Streptococaceae & staphylococci

    • D. 

      Serratia & pseudomonas

  • 14. 
    Oxidase test aids in differentiation among membrane of the following genera 
    • A. 

      Pseudomonas

    • B. 

      Neisseria

    • C. 

      Salmonella

    • D. 

      A & b

  • 15. 
    African sleeping sickness is cause by 
    • A. 

      Bacterium

    • B. 

      Fungus

    • C. 

      Algae

    • D. 

      Protozoan

  • 16. 
    Which of the following are not closely related?
    • A. 

      Amoebic dysentery

    • B. 

      African sleeping sickness

    • C. 

      Giardiassis

    • D. 

      Dengue fever

  • 17. 
    Measurement of antibiotic resistance is done by measuring the diameter around a disc is called 
    • A. 

      Zone of alpha hemolysis

    • B. 

      Zone of beta hemolysis

    • C. 

      Zone of inhibition

    • D. 

      Zone of gamma hemolysis

  • 18. 
    When using a disinfectant or antiseptic its best to keep in mind that the efficiency influenced by several factors including 
    • A. 

      Concentration

    • B. 

      Length of exposure

    • C. 

      Environmental conditions

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 19. 
    Normal flora of the mouth or throat would include all BUT one of the following 
    • A. 

      Myobacterium tuberculosis

    • B. 

      Streptococcus mutants

    • C. 

      Lactobacillus acidphilus

    • D. 

      Neisseria sap

  • 20. 
    Which of the following conditions is not associated with staphylococcus aureus  
    • A. 

      Boils

    • B. 

      Carbuncles

    • C. 

      Impetigo

    • D. 

      Valley fever

  • 21. 
    Which of the following test would best distinguish between staphylococcus aureus and staphylococcus epidermis?
    • A. 

      Catalase test

    • B. 

      Imvic series

    • C. 

      Nitrate reduction

    • D. 

      Coagulase test

  • 22. 
    Which test will most effectively separate the hemolytic group a streptococci aureus from group b through n 
    • A. 

      Bactitracin

    • B. 

      Camp test

    • C. 

      Bile esculin test

    • D. 

      6.5 nacl medium

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 23. 
    Beta hemolysis of red blood cells is 
    • A. 

      Partial

    • B. 

      Complete

    • C. 

      Associated & pathogen-city

    • D. 

      A & c

  • 24. 
    Which of the following media is most suitable for the cultivation of gram positive cocci 
    • A. 

      Mcconkeys

    • B. 

      Blood or rose agar

    • C. 

      Sab-dex agar

    • D. 

      A & b

  • 25. 
    All of the following cause a form of dysentery: entamoeba histolyca, balantidivm coli, giardia lambdia and trypanosoma gambiense 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    Merozoites form in the liver and erythrocytes of humans infected with malaria 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    In the malarial parasite the process of fertilization takes place in the lumen of the mosquitos gut 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    The chills and fever symptoms of malaria are associated with the release of humerous merozoites into the bloodstream 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    The definitive host in the malarial parasite life cycle is man
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    The nutrients used by bacteria are determined by their genetics and the enzymes they can produce
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 31. 
    The term substrate can be defined as the molecule that an enzyme is able to act on 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    The red color always indicates a positive test for nitrate when the correct reagents are added 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    The IMVic series is a sense of tests used to identify enteric bacilli 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    Proteolysis means digestion of protein 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    A positive test for H2S production in the most media is manifested as a cerise or magenta colored precipitate  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    If a lactose non-fermenting gram-negative rod produces a positive test for urea hydrolysis it is most probably the genus proteus 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    TSI agar and SIM medium are used solely to detect H2S production 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    Barritts reagent is added to a culture to test for the presence of acetyl methyl carbinol 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    A color change of inoculated simmons citrate agar from green to blue constitutes a positive test for citrate utilization 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Enrichment media contain nutrients that greatly encourage the growth of some organisms
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    Some media such as mannitol salt agar can be both selective and differential 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    Intestinal pathogens in the family enterobacteriaceae are gram positive rods 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    Coagulase is an enzyme produced by staphylococcus epidermis 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    Staphylococcus aureus will ferment mannitol 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    When e coli acts as a pathogen it is most often in the respiratory tract 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    Entamobea histolytica is a true fungus that causes dysentery 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    The catalase test differentiates gram-negative rods 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    Oxidase enzyme plays a vital role in the electron transport system during aerobic respiration 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Lactose fermentation is very useful in the identification of gram-negative rods 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    Staphylococcus epidermis is gram negative pathogen 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    Neisseria sp can be found in the throat and upper respiratory tract
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    Lipases, proteases, and amalyses are examples of intracellular enzymes 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    Ureases, catalases, and oxidases are extra-cellular enzymes 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    What is the slide?
    • A. 

      Crytosporidium

    • B. 

      Plasmodium

    • C. 

      Aspergillis

  • 55. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Rhizopus

    • B. 

      Entamoeba

    • C. 

      Balantidium

  • 56. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Trypanosoma

    • B. 

      Penicillium

    • C. 

      Plasmodium

  • 57. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Trypanosoma

    • B. 

      Aspergillus

    • C. 

      Crytospordium

  • 58. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Ring stage

    • B. 

      Balantidium

    • C. 

      Rhizopus

  • 59. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Balantidium

    • B. 

      Trypanosoma

    • C. 

      Entamoeba

  • 60. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Penicillium

    • B. 

      Rhizopus

    • C. 

      Plasmodium

  • 61. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Aspergillus

    • B. 

      Balantidium

    • C. 

      Ring stage