MS II Practice Exam

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Jzeidenb
J
Jzeidenb
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 37
| Attempts: 37 | Questions: 65
Please wait...
Question 1 / 65
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. What is the regulatory role of inosine monophosphate (IMP)

Explanation

Inosine monophosphate (IMP) plays a regulatory role by inhibiting PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of purine nucleotides. By inhibiting this enzyme, IMP helps regulate the production of purine nucleotides, preventing their overproduction. This feedback mechanism ensures that purine nucleotide synthesis is balanced and controlled.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
MS II Practice Exam - Quiz

This practice exam is designed for medical students preparing for USMLE, focusing on nerves, macrophages, tissue types, and epithelia.

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. Which of the following nerves of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus is formed by the
most superior (rostral) segments:

Explanation

The femoral nerve is formed by the most superior (rostral) segments of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus. This nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves. It provides motor innervation to the muscles of the anterior thigh and sensory innervation to the skin of the anterior and medial thigh, as well as the medial leg and foot. Therefore, the femoral nerve is the correct answer to the question.

Submit
3. Which of the following nerves of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus is matched
correctly:

Explanation

The femoral nerve is correctly matched with the anterior thigh, patellar reflex, and leg extension. The femoral nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior thigh, including the quadriceps femoris muscle which is responsible for extending the leg. The patellar reflex is a reflex arc that involves the femoral nerve and causes contraction of the quadriceps muscle, leading to leg extension.

Submit
4. In which of the following tissues protein turnover has the fastest rate?

Explanation

The small intestine has the fastest rate of protein turnover compared to the other tissues listed. This is because the small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients from food, and therefore requires a high turnover rate of proteins to efficiently carry out this function. The constant breakdown and synthesis of proteins in the small intestine allows for the rapid turnover needed to process and absorb nutrients effectively.

Submit
5. Which of the following classifications would best describe the type of connective tissue in Curt
Schillings injury?

Explanation

tendon sheath is dense IRREGULAR

Submit
6. Collagen processing is tightly regulated at multiple “levels”in cells. Review the following list of statements and choose the one that is incorrect:

Explanation

Collagen fibers are not assembled in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, but rather in the extracellular space. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is where the synthesis of collagen occurs, but the assembly of collagen fibers happens outside of the cell.

Submit
7.  Which of the following statement concerning glutamine is INCORRECT?

Explanation

Glutamine is not only found in tissue proteins, but it is also an important amino acid that plays various roles in the body. It is responsible for the transport of ammonia in a non-toxic form, which helps in detoxification. Furthermore, ATP is indeed required for the synthesis of glutamine from glutamate and ammonia. In the liver, glutamine is hydrolyzed to glutamate and ammonia, but it also serves other functions in different tissues. Therefore, the statement that the only fate of glutamine is hydrolysis to glutamate and ammonia is incorrect.

Submit
8. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for brain metabolic deficits in
hyperammonemia?

Explanation

Glutamate dehydrogenase is responsible for brain metabolic deficits in hyperammonemia. In hyperammonemia, there is an excess of ammonia in the blood, leading to increased levels of glutamate in the brain. Glutamate dehydrogenase converts glutamate to alpha-ketoglutarate, which is an important step in the metabolism of glutamate. However, in hyperammonemia, the activity of glutamate dehydrogenase is impaired, leading to a buildup of glutamate and disruption of brain metabolism. This can result in neurological symptoms and deficits.

Submit
9. Which of the following is synthesized from an essential amino acid?

Explanation

Tyrosine is synthesized from an essential amino acid called phenylalanine. Phenylalanine is converted into tyrosine through a process called hydroxylation. This conversion is catalyzed by the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. Tyrosine is an important amino acid that plays a role in the production of neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. It is also a precursor for the synthesis of important molecules such as thyroid hormones and melanin.

Submit
10. Which of the following cofactors is important in the reactions involving one carbon transfer group

Explanation

Tetrahydrofolate is important in reactions involving one carbon transfer groups. It serves as a cofactor in the transfer of one-carbon units in various biochemical reactions, including the synthesis of nucleotides, amino acids, and certain neurotransmitters. Tetrahydrofolate plays a crucial role in the metabolism of folate, which is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. It acts as a carrier of one-carbon units, facilitating the transfer of methyl and formyl groups between different molecules. This makes tetrahydrofolate vital for various biological processes and makes it the correct answer in this case.

Submit
11. Which of the following blood vessel structures mediate plasma protein extravasation

Explanation

Post-capillary venules mediate plasma protein extravasation. These small blood vessels are located between capillaries and veins and play a crucial role in the movement of fluids and molecules between the bloodstream and surrounding tissues. Due to their unique structure and permeability, post-capillary venules allow for the leakage of plasma proteins, such as antibodies and clotting factors, into the surrounding tissues. This process is important for immune responses, inflammation, and wound healing. Arterioles, veins, capillary shunts, and the adventitial layer do not have the same capability to mediate plasma protein extravasation.

Submit
12. From the following list, which one is the most important reason that the epithelium must be restored promptly following injury?

Explanation

The most important reason that the epithelium must be restored promptly following injury is to protect the wound from infection. The intact epithelium acts as a physical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens into the body. When the epithelium is damaged, it exposes the underlying tissues to potential infection. Therefore, prompt restoration of the epithelium is crucial to minimize the risk of infection and promote proper wound healing.

Submit
13. Physiological functions of nitric oxide include:

Explanation

Nitric oxide is known to have various physiological functions. One of its functions is neurotransmission, which means it acts as a signaling molecule in the nervous system. It helps in the communication between nerve cells. Another function is vasodilation, which refers to the widening of blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow. Nitric oxide helps in relaxing the smooth muscles of blood vessels, leading to vasodilation. Therefore, the correct answer is neurotransmission and vasodilation.

Submit
14. Which of the following collagen biosynthetic processes occur outside fibroblasts?

Explanation

Cross-linking by lysyl oxidase occurs outside fibroblasts. Lysyl oxidase is an extracellular enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cross-links between collagen molecules, which contributes to the stability and strength of collagen fibers. Fibroblasts are responsible for synthesizing collagen, but the cross-linking process occurs outside of these cells in the extracellular matrix. This is an important step in collagen maturation and the formation of a functional collagen network in tissues.

Submit
15. Which enzyme catalyzes the committed step in de novo purine synthesis?

Explanation

PRPP Glutamyl amidotransferase is the correct answer because it catalyzes the committed step in de novo purine synthesis. This enzyme is responsible for transferring an amide group from glutamine to PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate), forming 5-phosphoribosylamine, which is a key intermediate in the synthesis of purine nucleotides. The other enzymes listed are also involved in purine synthesis but do not catalyze the committed step.

Submit
16. How many ATPs are consumed during the conversion of PRPP --> IMP?

Explanation

During the conversion of PRPP (Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate) to IMP (Inosine monophosphate), a total of 4 ATPs (Adenosine triphosphates) are consumed. This conversion involves multiple enzymatic steps, each requiring the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Submit
17. What additional biochemically relevant molecule is produced during the synthesis of AMP?

Explanation

During the synthesis of AMP (adenosine monophosphate), fumarate is produced as an additional biochemically relevant molecule. Fumarate is an intermediate in the citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, which is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria to generate energy. Fumarate is converted to malate, which then enters the next step of the cycle. Therefore, fumarate is an important molecule in cellular metabolism and energy production.

Submit
18. Uric acid levels increase in Lesch-nyhan patients because:

Explanation

In Lesch-Nyhan patients, uric acid levels increase due to several factors. Firstly, PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate) activates PRPP amidotransferase, an enzyme involved in the synthesis of purine bases. This activation leads to an increased production of purine bases, which are then converted into uric acid. Secondly, the patients have a deficiency in salvaging purine bases, resulting in an accumulation of these bases and their subsequent conversion to uric acid. Lastly, the increased concentration of PRPP in Lesch-Nyhan patients further enhances the production of uric acid. Therefore, all of the above factors contribute to the elevated uric acid levels in Lesch-Nyhan patients.

Submit
19. Which of the following IS NOT involved in the salvage and conversion pathway of thymine to dTTP

Explanation

PRPP phosphoribosyl transferase is not involved in the salvage and conversion pathway of thymine to dTTP. The salvage and conversion pathway is a process by which thymine, a nucleotide base, is recycled and converted into dTTP, a building block for DNA synthesis. Nucleoside phosphorylase is responsible for breaking down thymine into its nucleoside form. Thymidine kinase then phosphorylates the nucleoside to form thymidine monophosphate (TMP), which is further converted to dTMP by thymidylate kinase. Therefore, PRPP phosphoribosyl transferase is not part of this pathway.

Submit
20. Lower levels of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase activity would be expected to occur in:

Explanation

Allopurinol is a medication commonly used to treat gout by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is responsible for the production of uric acid. By reducing uric acid levels, allopurinol helps prevent gout attacks. Lower levels of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase activity would be expected in gout patients after treatment with allopurinol because allopurinol decreases the production of uric acid, which is synthesized from PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate). Therefore, when uric acid production is reduced, the activity of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase, which is involved in the synthesis of uric acid, would also be expected to decrease.

Submit
21. What is the prevalent cause of gout?

Explanation

The prevalent cause of gout is under-excretion of uric acid. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the body, leading to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Under-excretion of uric acid occurs when the kidneys are not able to effectively remove enough uric acid from the body. This can be due to various factors such as kidney disease, certain medications, or lifestyle factors. Over-production of uric acid and genetic defects in nucleotide metabolism can also contribute to gout, but under-excretion is the most common cause. Treatment with chemotherapeutic agents is not a prevalent cause of gout.

Submit
22. What is the definitive diagnosis for gout?

Explanation

The definitive diagnosis for gout is the presence of uric acid crystals at the site of inflammation. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the body, leading to the formation of sharp, needle-like crystals in the joints. These crystals cause inflammation and severe pain, commonly affecting the big toe. The presence of uric acid crystals can be confirmed by examining fluid aspirated from the affected joint under a microscope. Hyperuricemia, which is an elevated level of uric acid in the blood, is a risk factor for developing gout but is not sufficient for a definitive diagnosis. Bone deformities may occur in chronic gout but are not specific to the diagnosis.

Submit
23.  5-methyl tetrahydrofolate would be expected to accumulate in patients lacking or
deficient in:

Explanation

Patients lacking or deficient in Vitamin B12 would be expected to accumulate 5-methyl tetrahydrofolate. This is because Vitamin B12 is necessary for the conversion of 5-methyl tetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, which is a coenzyme involved in the synthesis of DNA, RNA, and certain amino acids. Without sufficient Vitamin B12, this conversion cannot occur, leading to the accumulation of 5-methyl tetrahydrofolate.

Submit
24. Which of the following is true concerning transfer of one carbon from
tetrahydrofolate derivates:

Explanation

5, 10 methylene-THF is used to transfer a one carbon group to dUMP and results in the formation of dihydrofolate and thymidylate. This is because 5, 10 methylene-THF is a key intermediate in the synthesis of thymidylate, which is necessary for DNA synthesis. The transfer of a one carbon group from 5, 10 methylene-THF to dUMP leads to the formation of thymidylate and dihydrofolate. Thymidylate is then used in DNA synthesis, while dihydrofolate can be converted back to tetrahydrofolate for further use in one carbon transfer reactions.

Submit
25. Which of the following nerves DOES NOT contain sensory fibers distal to the patella?

Explanation

The obturator nerve does not contain sensory fibers distal to the patella. The femoral nerve, sciatic nerve, deep peroneal nerve, and tibial nerve all contain sensory fibers that extend beyond the patella. The obturator nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the medial thigh and does not provide sensory innervation to the lower leg or foot.

Submit
26. Which of the following is NOT a major tissue type of connective tissue:

Explanation

Collagen IV is not a major tissue type of connective tissue because it is a specific type of collagen protein found in the basement membrane, which is a specialized form of extracellular matrix. Connective tissue is composed of cells and extracellular matrix, and the major tissue types include fibroblasts, mast cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes. Collagen IV, although an important component of connective tissue, is not considered a major tissue type itself.

Submit
27. Choose the one answer that correctly describes a feature of epithelia:

Explanation

Epithelia are a type of tissue that line the surfaces of organs and body cavities. The basal layer of epithelium adheres to the basement membrane, which is a thin layer of connective tissue that provides support and anchorage for the epithelial cells. This adherence helps to maintain the integrity and stability of the epithelial tissue.

Submit
28. Which function is NOT attributable to macrophages:

Explanation

Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are known for their ability to phagocytose (engulf and destroy) pathogens and cellular debris. Macrophages are also involved in antigen presentation, where they present antigens to activate other immune cells. Additionally, macrophages secrete cytokines, which are signaling molecules that help regulate the immune response. However, macrophages do not synthesize type I collagen, which is primarily produced by fibroblasts and osteoblasts. Therefore, type I collagen synthesis is not a function attributable to macrophages.

Submit
29. Which collagen is found within basement membranes but not connective tissues?

Explanation

Type IV collagen is found within basement membranes but not connective tissues. Basement membranes are thin, sheet-like structures that provide support and anchor cells in various tissues. Type IV collagen forms a network within the basement membrane, providing structural integrity and stability. In contrast, connective tissues contain Type I collagen, which is a fibrillar collagen and forms the main structural component of tendons, ligaments, and skin. Type III collagen is also found in connective tissues, specifically in the extracellular matrix. Fibril associated collagens, such as Type IX collagen, are associated with fibrillar collagens and contribute to the organization and stability of connective tissues.

Submit
30. Which of the following peptidases is the most important in protein digestion?

Explanation

Trypsin is the most important peptidase in protein digestion because it is responsible for the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in proteins. It is produced in the pancreas and released into the small intestine, where it acts on proteins to break them down into smaller peptides. Trypsin is able to cleave peptide bonds specifically at the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids, such as lysine and arginine, which makes it a crucial enzyme in protein digestion.

Submit
31. Which of the following transporters moves amino acids to the portal system?

Explanation

Facilitated Amino Acid Transporters are responsible for moving amino acids to the portal system. The other options mentioned, such as γ-glutamyltranspeptidase, Na+-dependent amino acid transporters, and Na+,K+-pump, do not specifically function in transporting amino acids to the portal system. Therefore, the correct answer is Facilitated Amino Acid Transporters.

Submit
32. Which of the following is NOT an endopeptidase?

Explanation

Carboxypeptidase is not an endopeptidase because it cleaves peptide bonds at the C-terminus of a polypeptide chain, while endopeptidases cleave peptide bonds within the chain. Chymotrypsin, trypsin, and pepsin are all endopeptidases as they cleave peptide bonds within the polypeptide chain.

Submit
33. Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder
with defects in the ocular, skeletal and
cardiovascular systems.  Cardiovascular
abnormalities are life-threatening and include
dilation of the ascending aorta.  What would you
suspect is the cause of this disorder?

Explanation

C is also technically right.

Submit
34. Which of the following plays the most critical role in the stability of the collagen triple helix?

Explanation

Hydroxyproline plays the most critical role in the stability of the collagen triple helix. Hydroxyproline is a modified form of proline that is essential for the proper folding and stability of collagen. The hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline allows for the formation of hydrogen bonds within the collagen molecule, which contributes to the stability and strength of the triple helix structure. Without hydroxyproline, collagen would not be able to maintain its structural integrity, leading to decreased stability and potential structural abnormalities.

Submit
35. Which of the following statements is correct?

Explanation

Urea is quantitatively the most important nitrogen-containing compound in urine because it is the primary waste product of protein metabolism in humans. It is produced in the liver through the breakdown of amino acids and is then excreted by the kidneys. Urea helps to remove excess nitrogen from the body, which is essential for maintaining nitrogen balance. Other nitrogen-containing compounds, such as ammonia and creatinine, are also present in urine but in smaller quantities compared to urea. Therefore, urea is considered the most important nitrogen-containing compound in urine.

Submit
36. Mutation in the which of the following enzymes of the urea cycle causes arginemia?

Explanation

Mutation in the arginase enzyme of the urea cycle causes arginemia. Arginase is responsible for the final step in the urea cycle, converting arginine into urea and ornithine. When there is a mutation in the arginase gene, the enzyme is not produced or is produced in a non-functional form, leading to a buildup of arginine in the blood and a deficiency of urea production. This can result in symptoms such as intellectual disability, developmental delay, and liver problems.

Submit
37. In which of the following tissues glucose-alanine cycle is a major route for
ammonia detoxification?

Explanation

The glucose-alanine cycle is a major route for ammonia detoxification in the skeletal muscle. This cycle involves the conversion of pyruvate into alanine, which can then be transported to the liver. In the liver, alanine is converted back into pyruvate, releasing ammonia in the process. The liver can then convert the ammonia into urea for excretion. Therefore, the skeletal muscle plays a crucial role in removing ammonia from the body through the glucose-alanine cycle.

Submit
38. Which of the following chemical reactions is the rate-limiting in the urea cycle?

Explanation

The correct answer is NH4+ + CO2 + 2 ATP --> carbomoyl phosphate. This reaction is the rate-limiting step in the urea cycle because it requires the input of energy in the form of ATP and the conversion of ammonia (NH4+) and carbon dioxide (CO2) into carbomoyl phosphate. This step is catalyzed by the enzyme carbomoyl phosphate synthetase I, which is regulated by the concentration of N-acetylglutamate. The other reactions listed in the options are important steps in the urea cycle, but they are not the rate-limiting step.

Submit
39. Select a correct answer.  Two exclusively ketogenic amino acids are:

Explanation

Leucine and lysine are considered exclusively ketogenic amino acids because they can only be converted into ketone bodies and cannot be used for glucose synthesis. This means that they are primarily metabolized to produce energy through ketogenesis rather than being used for other metabolic processes such as protein synthesis or glucose production.

Submit
40. Metabolism of which of the following amino acids is defective in maple syrup
urine disease?

Explanation

Maple syrup urine disease is a genetic disorder that affects the metabolism of branched chain amino acids (BCAAs) - leucine, isoleucine, and valine. In this condition, the body is unable to break down these amino acids properly, leading to a buildup of toxic byproducts. This results in a sweet-smelling urine, similar to the smell of maple syrup. Defective metabolism of tryptophan, tyrosine, aromatic amino acids, or phenylalanine is not associated with maple syrup urine disease.

Submit
41. Which of the following cofactors is important in reactions of transamination?

Explanation

Pyridoxal phosphate is an important cofactor in reactions of transamination. Transamination is a process where an amino group is transferred from an amino acid to a keto acid, forming a new amino acid and a new keto acid. Pyridoxal phosphate, the active form of vitamin B6, serves as a coenzyme in this reaction by acting as a carrier for the amino group. It forms a Schiff base with the amino acid, allowing the transfer of the amino group to the keto acid. Therefore, pyridoxal phosphate is essential for the proper functioning of transamination reactions.

Submit
42. Select the Tissue where glucose DOES NOT serve as a preferential energy substrate after the meal

Explanation

After a meal, glucose serves as the preferential energy substrate in most tissues, including the brain, skeletal muscle, kidney, and blood immune cells. However, the gut does not rely heavily on glucose as an energy source. Instead, the gut primarily utilizes other substrates such as fatty acids and amino acids for energy metabolism. This is because the gut is responsible for absorbing nutrients from the food, rather than utilizing them for energy production.

Submit
43. Select the tissue where glutamine is used for pH regulation

Explanation

The kidney is responsible for maintaining the body's acid-base balance, which includes regulating pH levels. Glutamine, an amino acid, plays a crucial role in this process. It acts as a buffer, helping to maintain the pH of bodily fluids within a normal range. Therefore, the kidney is the tissue where glutamine is used for pH regulation.

Submit
44. Select the tissue where glutamine is used as a preferential substrate for the energy need and nucleotide synthesis in sepsis.

Explanation

In sepsis, blood immune cells, such as white blood cells, play a crucial role in fighting off infections. Glutamine is used as a preferential substrate for energy production and nucleotide synthesis in these cells. Glutamine provides the necessary fuel for the immune cells to carry out their functions effectively during sepsis. The brain, skeletal muscle, gut, and kidney may also use glutamine for energy production, but in the context of sepsis, blood immune cells have a higher demand for glutamine due to their increased metabolic activity.

Submit
45. Select the tissue where branched chain amino acids serve as the major soure of energy substrates during fasting.

Explanation

During fasting, the body's primary source of energy is glucose. However, after a certain period of fasting, glucose levels start to decrease, and the body needs to find alternative sources of energy. In this case, branched chain amino acids (BCAAs) serve as a major source of energy substrates. Skeletal muscle is the tissue where BCAAs are broken down and used as an energy source during fasting. This is because skeletal muscle is the largest reservoir of amino acids in the body and can readily release BCAAs for energy production.

Submit
46. Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling?

Explanation

Paracrine signaling is a form of cell communication where a signaling molecule is released by a cell and acts on neighboring cells. In this case, the growth-promoting factor produced by fibroblasts that regulates epidermal cells fits the definition of paracrine signaling. The fibroblasts release the growth factor, which then acts on nearby epidermal cells to regulate their growth. This is a localized form of signaling that does not involve long-distance transmission of the signal. The other options do not fit the criteria for paracrine signaling as they either involve different types of signaling or do not involve neighboring cells.

Submit
47. Which of the following amino acid derivatives are stress hormones

Explanation

Norepinephrine and dopamine are both stress hormones. Norepinephrine is released in response to stress and is involved in the "fight or flight" response. It increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels. Dopamine is also involved in the stress response and plays a role in motivation, reward, and movement. Both norepinephrine and dopamine help the body cope with stress and prepare for action.

Submit
48. Which of the following is the precursor to developed bone tissue?

Explanation

Hyaline cartilage is the precursor to developed bone tissue. During bone development, hyaline cartilage serves as a template for bone formation. It provides a scaffold for bone cells to deposit new bone tissue. As the bone grows, the hyaline cartilage is gradually replaced by bone cells, resulting in the formation of mature bone tissue. The other options, fibrous cartilage, elastic cartilage, articular cartilage, and SOX9, are not directly involved in the precursor process of bone tissue development.

Submit
49. A mutation in the gene that encodes the protein Sox9 will cause all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

A mutation in the gene that encodes the protein Sox9 can cause various abnormalities in skeletal development, such as angulation of long bones, decrease in the number of ribs, craniofacial abnormalities, and abnormalities in the vertebral column. However, missing limb(s) is not typically associated with a mutation in the Sox9 gene.

Submit
50. Which of the following cells is NOT involved in modulation?

Explanation

Osteoclasts are not involved in modulation. Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, breaking down bone tissue. Modulation refers to the process of adjusting or regulating something. Osteocytes, osteoblasts, and progenitor cells are all involved in the modulation of bone tissue through various functions such as maintaining bone density, bone formation, and differentiation into bone cells. However, osteoclasts have a different role in bone remodeling, as they break down and remove old or damaged bone tissue.

Submit
51. Which of the following enzymes would most likely be mutated in a patient suffering from Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?

Explanation

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT). This enzyme plays a crucial role in the salvage pathway of purine nucleotide synthesis, converting hypoxanthine and guanine into their corresponding nucleotides. Without functional HGPRT, there is an accumulation of uric acid and a deficiency of purine nucleotides, leading to the neurological and behavioral symptoms seen in Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome. Therefore, a mutation in the HGPRT gene is most likely responsible for this disorder.

Submit
52. What region in the epiphyseal plate is most proximal to the epiphysis?

Explanation

The reserve zone in the epiphyseal plate is the most proximal region to the epiphysis. This zone contains resting chondrocytes, which are not actively involved in bone growth. These chondrocytes serve as a reserve for future growth and can differentiate into new cells when needed. The other zones, such as the proliferative zone, maturation zone, secondary spongiosa, and degeneration zone, are located further away from the epiphysis and have different functions in the process of bone growth.

Submit
53. Which of the following enzymes are not heavily regulated during pyrimidine synthesis?

Explanation

Aspartate transcarbamoylase is not heavily regulated during pyrimidine synthesis. This enzyme is involved in the first step of the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway, catalyzing the formation of carbamoyl aspartate. Unlike other enzymes in the pathway, aspartate transcarbamoylase does not undergo extensive regulation through feedback inhibition or allosteric regulation. Instead, its activity is primarily regulated by the availability of its substrates, aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate. This lack of heavy regulation allows for a more constant production of carbamoyl aspartate, ensuring a steady supply of intermediates for pyrimidine synthesis.

Submit
54. Salvage of all of the following involve PRPP transferase EXCEPT:

Explanation

PRPP transferase is an enzyme involved in the salvage pathway of nucleotide biosynthesis. It helps in the conversion of nucleotide precursors into their active forms by transferring a PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate) group. Thymine is not salvaged by PRPP transferase because it is not a nucleotide precursor. Thymine is synthesized de novo from precursor molecules. On the other hand, uridine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine are salvaged by PRPP transferase as they are nucleotide precursors and can be converted into their active forms through the salvage pathway.

Submit
55. Excess dATP inhibits the de novo synthesis of dTMP by:

Explanation

Excess dATP inhibits the de novo synthesis of dTMP by inhibiting the reduction of UDP to dUDP and of CDP to dCDP. This is because dATP competes with dUDP and dCDP for the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase, which is responsible for converting UDP and CDP to their deoxy forms. When dATP levels are high, it binds to ribonucleotide reductase and prevents the conversion of UDP and CDP, leading to a decrease in the production of dTMP.

Submit
56. Which of the following best describes uridine:

Explanation

Uridine is a nucleoside that is used to treat orotic aciduria, a rare genetic disorder. It is converted by kinases into the nucleoside mono-, di-, and triphosphate forms, which are essential for DNA and RNA synthesis. This conversion allows uridine to be incorporated into the growing nucleic acid chains and support normal cellular function. By providing the necessary building blocks for nucleic acid synthesis, uridine helps to alleviate the symptoms of orotic aciduria and promote healthy cell growth.

Submit
57. Which of the following best describes carbamoyl phosphate synthase II:

Explanation

Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II is part of a multifunctional polypeptide, meaning it is a component of a larger protein that performs multiple functions. It is activated by PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate), which is a molecule involved in nucleotide synthesis. This enzyme is not involved in de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis or the urea cycle, and it is not inhibited by CTP or orotate.

Submit
58. Which of the following describes the biochemical role or fate of dUDP:

Explanation

dUDP is converted to dUTP, which is an intermediate in the pathway for thymidylate synthesis. Thymidylate synthesis is a crucial step in DNA replication and repair, as it provides the necessary building blocks for the synthesis of thymine nucleotides. dUTP is further converted to dUMP by the enzyme dUTPase, and then dUMP is converted to dTMP by the enzyme thymidylate synthase. Therefore, the conversion of dUDP to dUTP plays a significant role in the production of thymidine nucleotides, which are essential for DNA synthesis.

Submit
59. Inhibition of dihrodrofolate reductase would lead to lower concentrations of all
the following except:

Explanation

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase would lead to lower concentrations of purine nucleotides, THF, and dTMP. However, CTP is not directly dependent on dihydrofolate reductase for its synthesis, so its concentration would not be affected by the inhibition of this enzyme.

Submit
60. What common chemical reaction is used in synthesis of GABA, histamine,
and serotonin?

Explanation

Decarboxylation is the common chemical reaction used in the synthesis of GABA, histamine, and serotonin. Decarboxylation involves the removal of a carboxyl group from a molecule, resulting in the formation of a new compound. In the synthesis of GABA, histamine, and serotonin, decarboxylation is responsible for the conversion of precursor molecules into their respective neurotransmitters. This reaction plays a crucial role in the regulation of various physiological processes in the body.

Submit
61. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase results in reducing the intracellular concentration of:

Explanation

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase prevents the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, which is an essential cofactor in many metabolic reactions involving one-carbon transfer. This inhibition leads to a decrease in the intracellular concentration of all three forms of tetrahydrofolate mentioned in the options: 10-formyltetrahydrofolate, 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate, and 5,10-methenyltetrahydrofolate. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

Submit
62. Which of the following correctly describes the differences between degradation pathways of AMP and dAMP

Explanation

The given correct answer explains that the degradation pathway of dAMP depends on adenosine deaminase, not adenylate deaminase. This means that dAMP is converted into another molecule through the action of adenosine deaminase. In contrast, the degradation pathway of AMP solely depends on adenylate deaminase. This difference in enzyme dependence leads to different products being produced during the degradation of AMP and dAMP.

Submit
63. Macrophages can have which of the following effects:

Explanation

MMPs are secreted by macrophages which can degrade the ECM

Submit
64. The cement layer of an osteon secretes which of the following proteins:

Explanation

The cement layer of an osteon secretes osteopontin. Osteopontin is a protein that plays a role in bone mineralization and remodeling. It is involved in the attachment of osteoclasts to the bone surface and the regulation of bone resorption. Osteopontin also helps in the formation of new bone tissue and the repair of damaged bone. It is an important component of the extracellular matrix in bone and is secreted by osteoblasts in the cement line of an osteon.

Submit
65. Excess Tryptophan in the diet will have all of the following effects EXCEPT:

Explanation

Excess tryptophan in the diet can have several effects, including the induction of tryptophan oxygenase, stabilization of tryptophan oxygenase, tyrosine transaminase, and ornithine aminotransferase, and an increase in gluconeogenesis by stabilizing PEP-carboxykinase. However, it does not have any allosteric effects on NAc-glutamate and urea formation.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 04, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Jzeidenb
Cancel
  • All
    All (65)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
What is the regulatory role of inosine monophosphate (IMP)
Which of the following nerves of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus is...
Which of the following nerves of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus is...
In which of the following tissues protein turnover has the fastest...
Which of the following classifications would best describe the type of...
Collagen processing is tightly regulated at multiple “levels”in...
 Which of the following statement concerning glutamine is...
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for brain metabolic...
Which of the following is synthesized from an essential amino acid?
Which of the following cofactors is important in the reactions...
Which of the following blood vessel structures mediate plasma protein...
From the following list, which one is the most important reason that...
Physiological functions of nitric oxide include:
Which of the following collagen biosynthetic processes occur outside...
Which enzyme catalyzes the committed step in de novo purine synthesis?
How many ATPs are consumed during the conversion of PRPP --> IMP?
What additional biochemically relevant molecule is produced during the...
Uric acid levels increase in Lesch-nyhan patients because:
Which of the following IS NOT involved in the salvage and conversion...
Lower levels of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase activity would be...
What is the prevalent cause of gout?
What is the definitive diagnosis for gout?
 5-methyl tetrahydrofolate would be expected to accumulate in...
Which of the following is true concerning transfer of one carbon from...
Which of the following nerves DOES NOT contain sensory fibers distal...
Which of the following is NOT a major tissue type of connective...
Choose the one answer that correctly describes a feature of epithelia:
Which function is NOT attributable to macrophages:
Which collagen is found within basement membranes but not connective...
Which of the following peptidases is the most important in protein...
Which of the following transporters moves amino acids to the portal...
Which of the following is NOT an endopeptidase?
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder with defects in the...
Which of the following plays the most critical role in the stability...
Which of the following statements is correct?
Mutation in the which of the following enzymes of the urea cycle...
In which of the following tissues glucose-alanine cycle is a major...
Which of the following chemical reactions is the rate-limiting in the...
Select a correct answer.  Two exclusively ketogenic amino acids...
Metabolism of which of the following amino acids is defective in maple...
Which of the following cofactors is important in reactions of...
Select the Tissue where glucose DOES NOT serve as a preferential...
Select the tissue where glutamine is used for pH regulation
Select the tissue where glutamine is used as a preferential substrate...
Select the tissue where branched chain amino acids serve as the major...
Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling?
Which of the following amino acid derivatives are stress hormones
Which of the following is the precursor to developed bone tissue?
A mutation in the gene that encodes the protein Sox9 will cause all of...
Which of the following cells is NOT involved in modulation?
Which of the following enzymes would most likely be mutated in a...
What region in the epiphyseal plate is most proximal to the epiphysis?
Which of the following enzymes are not heavily regulated during...
Salvage of all of the following involve PRPP transferase EXCEPT:
Excess dATP inhibits the de novo synthesis of dTMP by:
Which of the following best describes uridine:
Which of the following best describes carbamoyl phosphate synthase II:
Which of the following describes the biochemical role or fate of dUDP:
Inhibition of dihrodrofolate reductase would lead to lower...
What common chemical reaction is used in synthesis of GABA, histamine,...
Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase results in reducing the...
Which of the following correctly describes the differences between...
Macrophages can have which of the following effects:
The cement layer of an osteon secretes which of the following...
Excess Tryptophan in the diet will have all of the following effects...
Alert!

Advertisement