MS II Practice Exam

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MS II Practice Exam - Quiz


Practice for MS II exam


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following nerves of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus is formed by the most superior (rostral) segments:

    • A.

      Tibial

    • B.

      Femoral

    • C.

      Sciatic

    • D.

      Lumbrosacral Trunk

    • E.

      Pudendal

    Correct Answer
    B. Femoral
    Explanation
    The femoral nerve is formed by the most superior (rostral) segments of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus. This nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves. It provides motor innervation to the muscles of the anterior thigh and sensory innervation to the skin of the anterior and medial thigh, as well as the medial leg and foot. Therefore, the femoral nerve is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following nerves of the lumbar and lumbosacral plexus is matched correctly:

    • A.

      Obturator–lateral thigh –adduction –L3L4

    • B.

      Femoral –anterior thigh –patellar reflex –leg extension

    • C.

      Tibial –posterior leg (calf) –ankle reflex –plantar extension

    • D.

      Lateral femoral cutaneous–lateral thigh –abduction –L4L5

    • E.

      Deep peroneal –anterior leg –foot drop –L5

    Correct Answer
    B. Femoral –anterior thigh –patellar reflex –leg extension
    Explanation
    The femoral nerve is correctly matched with the anterior thigh, patellar reflex, and leg extension. The femoral nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior thigh, including the quadriceps femoris muscle which is responsible for extending the leg. The patellar reflex is a reflex arc that involves the femoral nerve and causes contraction of the quadriceps muscle, leading to leg extension.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following nerves DOES NOT contain sensory fibers distal to the patella?

    • A.

      Femoral Nerve

    • B.

      Sciatic Nerve

    • C.

      Deep Peroneal Nerve

    • D.

      Obturator Nerve

    • E.

      Tibial Nerve

    Correct Answer
    D. Obturator Nerve
    Explanation
    The obturator nerve does not contain sensory fibers distal to the patella. The femoral nerve, sciatic nerve, deep peroneal nerve, and tibial nerve all contain sensory fibers that extend beyond the patella. The obturator nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the medial thigh and does not provide sensory innervation to the lower leg or foot.

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  • 4. 

    Macrophages can have which of the following effects:

    • A.

      Release histamine in response to inflammation

    • B.

      Degrade extracellular matrix proteins

    • C.

      Responds to cytokines by activating transcription growth factors

    • D.

      Contains the largest ER of all connective tissue cells

    • E.

      Contain antigen presenting proteins

    Correct Answer
    B. Degrade extracellular matrix proteins
    Explanation
    MMPs are secreted by macrophages which can degrade the ECM

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is NOT a major tissue type of connective tissue:

    • A.

      Fibroblasts

    • B.

      Mast Cells

    • C.

      Macrophages

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Collagen IV

    Correct Answer
    E. Collagen IV
    Explanation
    Collagen IV is not a major tissue type of connective tissue because it is a specific type of collagen protein found in the basement membrane, which is a specialized form of extracellular matrix. Connective tissue is composed of cells and extracellular matrix, and the major tissue types include fibroblasts, mast cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes. Collagen IV, although an important component of connective tissue, is not considered a major tissue type itself.

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  • 6. 

    Choose the one answer that correctly describes a feature of epithelia:

    • A.

      Blood vessels and lymphatics are present within epithelia

    • B.

      Type I collagen is deposited between epithelial cells

    • C.

      The basal layer of epithelium adheres to the basement membrane

    • D.

      Fibrosis occurs within the epithelium.

    • E.

      Fibrosis occurs within the epithelium

    Correct Answer
    C. The basal layer of epithelium adheres to the basement membrane
    Explanation
    Epithelia are a type of tissue that line the surfaces of organs and body cavities. The basal layer of epithelium adheres to the basement membrane, which is a thin layer of connective tissue that provides support and anchorage for the epithelial cells. This adherence helps to maintain the integrity and stability of the epithelial tissue.

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  • 7. 

    Which function is NOT attributable to macrophages:

    • A.

      Phagocytosis

    • B.

      Type I collagen synthesis

    • C.

      Antigen presentation

    • D.

      Cytokine secretion

    Correct Answer
    B. Type I collagen synthesis
    Explanation
    Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are known for their ability to phagocytose (engulf and destroy) pathogens and cellular debris. Macrophages are also involved in antigen presentation, where they present antigens to activate other immune cells. Additionally, macrophages secrete cytokines, which are signaling molecules that help regulate the immune response. However, macrophages do not synthesize type I collagen, which is primarily produced by fibroblasts and osteoblasts. Therefore, type I collagen synthesis is not a function attributable to macrophages.

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  • 8. 

    Which collagen is found within basement membranes but not connective tissues?

    • A.

      Type I, a fibrillar collagen

    • B.

      Type III

    • C.

      Type IV, a network forming collagen

    • D.

      Fibril associated collagens (e.g. Type IX)

    Correct Answer
    C. Type IV, a network forming collagen
    Explanation
    Type IV collagen is found within basement membranes but not connective tissues. Basement membranes are thin, sheet-like structures that provide support and anchor cells in various tissues. Type IV collagen forms a network within the basement membrane, providing structural integrity and stability. In contrast, connective tissues contain Type I collagen, which is a fibrillar collagen and forms the main structural component of tendons, ligaments, and skin. Type III collagen is also found in connective tissues, specifically in the extracellular matrix. Fibril associated collagens, such as Type IX collagen, are associated with fibrillar collagens and contribute to the organization and stability of connective tissues.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following peptidases is the most important in protein digestion?

    • A.

      Carboxypeptidase

    • B.

      Trypsin

    • C.

      Chymotrypsin

    • D.

      Elastase

    • E.

      Aminopeptidase

    Correct Answer
    B. Trypsin
    Explanation
    Trypsin is the most important peptidase in protein digestion because it is responsible for the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in proteins. It is produced in the pancreas and released into the small intestine, where it acts on proteins to break them down into smaller peptides. Trypsin is able to cleave peptide bonds specifically at the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids, such as lysine and arginine, which makes it a crucial enzyme in protein digestion.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following transporters moves amino acids to the portal system?

    • A.

      Facilitated Amino Acid Transporters

    • B.

      γ-glutamyltranspeptidase

    • C.

      Na+-dependent amino acid transporters

    • D.

      Na+,K+-pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilitated Amino Acid Transporters
    Explanation
    Facilitated Amino Acid Transporters are responsible for moving amino acids to the portal system. The other options mentioned, such as γ-glutamyltranspeptidase, Na+-dependent amino acid transporters, and Na+,K+-pump, do not specifically function in transporting amino acids to the portal system. Therefore, the correct answer is Facilitated Amino Acid Transporters.

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  • 11. 

    In which of the following tissues protein turnover has the fastest rate?

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Kidney

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Small Intestine

    • E.

      Skeletal Muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Small Intestine
    Explanation
    The small intestine has the fastest rate of protein turnover compared to the other tissues listed. This is because the small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients from food, and therefore requires a high turnover rate of proteins to efficiently carry out this function. The constant breakdown and synthesis of proteins in the small intestine allows for the rapid turnover needed to process and absorb nutrients effectively.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is NOT an endopeptidase?

    • A.

      Carboxypeptidase

    • B.

      Chymotrypsin

    • C.

      Trypsin

    • D.

      Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    A. Carboxypeptidase
    Explanation
    Carboxypeptidase is not an endopeptidase because it cleaves peptide bonds at the C-terminus of a polypeptide chain, while endopeptidases cleave peptide bonds within the chain. Chymotrypsin, trypsin, and pepsin are all endopeptidases as they cleave peptide bonds within the polypeptide chain.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following classifications would best describe the type of connective tissue in Curt Schillings injury?

    • A.

      Loose connective tissue

    • B.

      Dense Irregular Connective Tissue

    • C.

      Dense Regular Connective tissue

    Correct Answer
    B. Dense Irregular Connective Tissue
    Explanation
    tendon sheath is dense IRREGULAR

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  • 14. 

    Collagen processing is tightly regulated at multiple “levels”in cells. Review the following list of statements and choose the one that is incorrect:

    • A.

      Collagen I expression is regulated in part by transcriptional controls.

    • B.

      Proper assembly ofprocollagen requires hydroxylation ofprolines.

    • C.

      Collagen fibers are assembled in the rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • D.

      One variant of EhlersDanlos Syndrome has two known lesions: one is dominant negative and involves the peptide sequence that is normally cleaved and resides in the N-terminal propeptide. The other, autosomal recessive, results from a defect in the enzyme that cleaves this peptide.

    • E.

      Fibrillar and fibril-associated collagens are two distinct groups of collagens

    Correct Answer
    C. Collagen fibers are assembled in the rough endoplasmic reticulum
    Explanation
    Collagen fibers are not assembled in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, but rather in the extracellular space. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is where the synthesis of collagen occurs, but the assembly of collagen fibers happens outside of the cell.

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  • 15. 

    Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder with defects in the ocular, skeletal and cardiovascular systems.  Cardiovascular abnormalities are life-threatening and include dilation of the ascending aorta.  What would you suspect is the cause of this disorder?

    • A.

      Overproduction of type I collagen.

    • B.

      Improper assembly of elastic fibers

    • C.

      Decreased elastin production.

    • D.

      Increased hyaluronan deposition

    Correct Answer
    B. Improper assembly of elastic fibers
    Explanation
    C is also technically right.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following plays the most critical role in the stability of the collagen triple helix?

    • A.

      Hydroxylation

    • B.

      Glycosylation

    • C.

      Hydroxyproline

    • D.

      Procollagen-N

    Correct Answer
    C. Hydroxyproline
    Explanation
    Hydroxyproline plays the most critical role in the stability of the collagen triple helix. Hydroxyproline is a modified form of proline that is essential for the proper folding and stability of collagen. The hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline allows for the formation of hydrogen bonds within the collagen molecule, which contributes to the stability and strength of the triple helix structure. Without hydroxyproline, collagen would not be able to maintain its structural integrity, leading to decreased stability and potential structural abnormalities.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following statements is correct?

    • A.

      Protein turnover leads to hydrolysis and resynthesis of approximately 56 g of body protein each day.

    • B.

      Amino acids in excess of biosynthetic needs are stored as proteins.

    • C.

      An aminotransferase reaction using alanine and alpha-ketoglutarate yields glutamate and oxaloacetateas products.

    • D.

      Urea is quantitatively the most important nitrogen-containing compound in urine.

    • E.

      Glutamine is not found in tissue proteins

    Correct Answer
    D. Urea is quantitatively the most important nitrogen-containing compound in urine.
    Explanation
    Urea is quantitatively the most important nitrogen-containing compound in urine because it is the primary waste product of protein metabolism in humans. It is produced in the liver through the breakdown of amino acids and is then excreted by the kidneys. Urea helps to remove excess nitrogen from the body, which is essential for maintaining nitrogen balance. Other nitrogen-containing compounds, such as ammonia and creatinine, are also present in urine but in smaller quantities compared to urea. Therefore, urea is considered the most important nitrogen-containing compound in urine.

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  • 18. 

     Which of the following statement concerning glutamine is INCORRECT?

    • A.

      Glutamine is found in tissue proteins.

    • B.

      The only fate of glutamine is hydrolysis to glutamate and ammonia.

    • C.

      Glutamine is responsible for the transport of ammonia in non-toxic form.

    • D.

      ATP is required for synthesis of glutamine from glutamate and ammonia

    • E.

      In liver glutamine is hydrolyzed to glutamate and ammonia.

    Correct Answer
    B. The only fate of glutamine is hydrolysis to glutamate and ammonia.
    Explanation
    Glutamine is not only found in tissue proteins, but it is also an important amino acid that plays various roles in the body. It is responsible for the transport of ammonia in a non-toxic form, which helps in detoxification. Furthermore, ATP is indeed required for the synthesis of glutamine from glutamate and ammonia. In the liver, glutamine is hydrolyzed to glutamate and ammonia, but it also serves other functions in different tissues. Therefore, the statement that the only fate of glutamine is hydrolysis to glutamate and ammonia is incorrect.

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  • 19. 

    Mutation in the which of the following enzymes of the urea cycle causes arginemia?

    • A.

      Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase

    • B.

      Ornithine transcarbomoylase

    • C.

      Arginase

    • D.

      Arginosuccinate synthetase

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Arginase
    Explanation
    Mutation in the arginase enzyme of the urea cycle causes arginemia. Arginase is responsible for the final step in the urea cycle, converting arginine into urea and ornithine. When there is a mutation in the arginase gene, the enzyme is not produced or is produced in a non-functional form, leading to a buildup of arginine in the blood and a deficiency of urea production. This can result in symptoms such as intellectual disability, developmental delay, and liver problems.

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  • 20. 

    In which of the following tissues glucose-alanine cycle is a major route for ammonia detoxification?

    • A.

      Kidney

    • B.

      Liver

    • C.

      Gut

    • D.

      Brain

    • E.

      Skeletal Muscle

    Correct Answer
    E. Skeletal Muscle
    Explanation
    The glucose-alanine cycle is a major route for ammonia detoxification in the skeletal muscle. This cycle involves the conversion of pyruvate into alanine, which can then be transported to the liver. In the liver, alanine is converted back into pyruvate, releasing ammonia in the process. The liver can then convert the ammonia into urea for excretion. Therefore, the skeletal muscle plays a crucial role in removing ammonia from the body through the glucose-alanine cycle.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following chemical reactions is the rate-limiting in the urea cycle?

    • A.

      NH++ CO+ 2 ATP --> carbomoyl phosphate

    • B.

      Ornithine + carbomoyl phosphate --> citrulline.

    • C.

      Citrulline+ aspartate --> arginocuccinate

    • D.

      Arginosuccinate --> arginine + fumarate.

    • E.

      Arginine --> urea + ornithine

    Correct Answer
    A. NH++ CO+ 2 ATP --> carbomoyl phosphate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NH4+ + CO2 + 2 ATP --> carbomoyl phosphate. This reaction is the rate-limiting step in the urea cycle because it requires the input of energy in the form of ATP and the conversion of ammonia (NH4+) and carbon dioxide (CO2) into carbomoyl phosphate. This step is catalyzed by the enzyme carbomoyl phosphate synthetase I, which is regulated by the concentration of N-acetylglutamate. The other reactions listed in the options are important steps in the urea cycle, but they are not the rate-limiting step.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following enzymes is responsible for brain metabolic deficits in hyperammonemia?

    • A.

      Arginosuccinate lyase

    • B.

      Aspartate Amino Transferase

    • C.

      Glutamate dehydrogenase

    • D.

      Alanine aminotransferase

    • E.

      Glutaminase

    Correct Answer
    C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
    Explanation
    Glutamate dehydrogenase is responsible for brain metabolic deficits in hyperammonemia. In hyperammonemia, there is an excess of ammonia in the blood, leading to increased levels of glutamate in the brain. Glutamate dehydrogenase converts glutamate to alpha-ketoglutarate, which is an important step in the metabolism of glutamate. However, in hyperammonemia, the activity of glutamate dehydrogenase is impaired, leading to a buildup of glutamate and disruption of brain metabolism. This can result in neurological symptoms and deficits.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is synthesized from an essential amino acid?

    • A.

      Alanine

    • B.

      Glutamate

    • C.

      Proline

    • D.

      Tyrosine

    • E.

      Aspartate

    Correct Answer
    D. Tyrosine
    Explanation
    Tyrosine is synthesized from an essential amino acid called phenylalanine. Phenylalanine is converted into tyrosine through a process called hydroxylation. This conversion is catalyzed by the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. Tyrosine is an important amino acid that plays a role in the production of neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. It is also a precursor for the synthesis of important molecules such as thyroid hormones and melanin.

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  • 24. 

    Select a correct answer.  Two exclusively ketogenic amino acids are:

    • A.

      Glutamine and glutamate

    • B.

      Leucine and lysine

    • C.

      Tyrosine and isoleucine

    • D.

      Leucine and isoleucine

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Leucine and lysine
    Explanation
    Leucine and lysine are considered exclusively ketogenic amino acids because they can only be converted into ketone bodies and cannot be used for glucose synthesis. This means that they are primarily metabolized to produce energy through ketogenesis rather than being used for other metabolic processes such as protein synthesis or glucose production.

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  • 25. 

    Metabolism of which of the following amino acids is defective in maple syrup urine disease?

    • A.

      Tryptophan

    • B.

      Tyrosine

    • C.

      Aromatic amino acids

    • D.

      Branched chain amino acids

    • E.

      Phenylalanine

    Correct Answer
    D. Branched chain amino acids
    Explanation
    Maple syrup urine disease is a genetic disorder that affects the metabolism of branched chain amino acids (BCAAs) - leucine, isoleucine, and valine. In this condition, the body is unable to break down these amino acids properly, leading to a buildup of toxic byproducts. This results in a sweet-smelling urine, similar to the smell of maple syrup. Defective metabolism of tryptophan, tyrosine, aromatic amino acids, or phenylalanine is not associated with maple syrup urine disease.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following cofactors is important in reactions of transamination?

    • A.

      Pyridoxal

    • B.

      Pryidoxine

    • C.

      Coblamine

    • D.

      Pryidoxal phosphate

    • E.

      Carbomoyl phosphate

    Correct Answer
    D. Pryidoxal phosphate
    Explanation
    Pyridoxal phosphate is an important cofactor in reactions of transamination. Transamination is a process where an amino group is transferred from an amino acid to a keto acid, forming a new amino acid and a new keto acid. Pyridoxal phosphate, the active form of vitamin B6, serves as a coenzyme in this reaction by acting as a carrier for the amino group. It forms a Schiff base with the amino acid, allowing the transfer of the amino group to the keto acid. Therefore, pyridoxal phosphate is essential for the proper functioning of transamination reactions.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following cofactors is important in the reactions involving one carbon transfer group

    • A.

      Tetrahydrobiopterin

    • B.

      Pyridoxal phosphate

    • C.

      Tetrahydrofolate

    • D.

      Acetyl-CoA

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Tetrahydrofolate
    Explanation
    Tetrahydrofolate is important in reactions involving one carbon transfer groups. It serves as a cofactor in the transfer of one-carbon units in various biochemical reactions, including the synthesis of nucleotides, amino acids, and certain neurotransmitters. Tetrahydrofolate plays a crucial role in the metabolism of folate, which is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. It acts as a carrier of one-carbon units, facilitating the transfer of methyl and formyl groups between different molecules. This makes tetrahydrofolate vital for various biological processes and makes it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 28. 

    Excess Tryptophan in the diet will have all of the following effects EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Induction of tryptophan oxygenase

    • B.

      Stabilization of tryptophan oxygenase, tyrosine transaminase, and ornithine aminotransferase

    • C.

      Allosteric effector on tryptophan oxygenase

    • D.

      Allosteric effects on NAc-glutamate and urea formation.

    • E.

      Increase in gluconeogenesis by stabilization of PEP-carboxykinase

    Correct Answer
    D. Allosteric effects on NAc-glutamate and urea formation.
    Explanation
    Excess tryptophan in the diet can have several effects, including the induction of tryptophan oxygenase, stabilization of tryptophan oxygenase, tyrosine transaminase, and ornithine aminotransferase, and an increase in gluconeogenesis by stabilizing PEP-carboxykinase. However, it does not have any allosteric effects on NAc-glutamate and urea formation.

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  • 29. 

    Select the Tissue where glucose DOES NOT serve as a preferential energy substrate after the meal

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Skeletal Muscle

    • C.

      Gut

    • D.

      Kidney

    • E.

      Blood immune cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Gut
    Explanation
    After a meal, glucose serves as the preferential energy substrate in most tissues, including the brain, skeletal muscle, kidney, and blood immune cells. However, the gut does not rely heavily on glucose as an energy source. Instead, the gut primarily utilizes other substrates such as fatty acids and amino acids for energy metabolism. This is because the gut is responsible for absorbing nutrients from the food, rather than utilizing them for energy production.

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  • 30. 

    Select the tissue where glutamine is used for pH regulation

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Skeletal Muscle

    • C.

      Gut

    • D.

      Blood immune cells

    • E.

      Kidney

    Correct Answer
    E. Kidney
    Explanation
    The kidney is responsible for maintaining the body's acid-base balance, which includes regulating pH levels. Glutamine, an amino acid, plays a crucial role in this process. It acts as a buffer, helping to maintain the pH of bodily fluids within a normal range. Therefore, the kidney is the tissue where glutamine is used for pH regulation.

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  • 31. 

    Select the tissue where glutamine is used as a preferential substrate for the energy need and nucleotide synthesis in sepsis.

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Skeletal Muscle

    • C.

      Gut

    • D.

      Kidney

    • E.

      Blood Immune Cells

    Correct Answer
    E. Blood Immune Cells
    Explanation
    In sepsis, blood immune cells, such as white blood cells, play a crucial role in fighting off infections. Glutamine is used as a preferential substrate for energy production and nucleotide synthesis in these cells. Glutamine provides the necessary fuel for the immune cells to carry out their functions effectively during sepsis. The brain, skeletal muscle, gut, and kidney may also use glutamine for energy production, but in the context of sepsis, blood immune cells have a higher demand for glutamine due to their increased metabolic activity.

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  • 32. 

    Select the tissue where branched chain amino acids serve as the major soure of energy substrates during fasting.

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Skeletal Muscle

    • C.

      Gut

    • D.

      Kidney

    • E.

      Blood Immune Cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Skeletal Muscle
    Explanation
    During fasting, the body's primary source of energy is glucose. However, after a certain period of fasting, glucose levels start to decrease, and the body needs to find alternative sources of energy. In this case, branched chain amino acids (BCAAs) serve as a major source of energy substrates. Skeletal muscle is the tissue where BCAAs are broken down and used as an energy source during fasting. This is because skeletal muscle is the largest reservoir of amino acids in the body and can readily release BCAAs for energy production.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling?

    • A.

      Growth factors produced by epidermis that stimulate keratinocytes

    • B.

      A growth-promoting factor produced by fibroblasts that regulates epidermal cells.

    • C.

      Mechanical signals affecting epidermal and connective tissue cells

    • D.

      A factor produced only by macrophages

    Correct Answer
    B. A growth-promoting factor produced by fibroblasts that regulates epidermal cells.
    Explanation
    Paracrine signaling is a form of cell communication where a signaling molecule is released by a cell and acts on neighboring cells. In this case, the growth-promoting factor produced by fibroblasts that regulates epidermal cells fits the definition of paracrine signaling. The fibroblasts release the growth factor, which then acts on nearby epidermal cells to regulate their growth. This is a localized form of signaling that does not involve long-distance transmission of the signal. The other options do not fit the criteria for paracrine signaling as they either involve different types of signaling or do not involve neighboring cells.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following blood vessel structures mediate plasma protein extravasation

    • A.

      Arterioles

    • B.

      Veins

    • C.

      Capillary shunts

    • D.

      Post-capillary venules

    • E.

      The adventitial layer

    Correct Answer
    D. Post-capillary venules
    Explanation
    Post-capillary venules mediate plasma protein extravasation. These small blood vessels are located between capillaries and veins and play a crucial role in the movement of fluids and molecules between the bloodstream and surrounding tissues. Due to their unique structure and permeability, post-capillary venules allow for the leakage of plasma proteins, such as antibodies and clotting factors, into the surrounding tissues. This process is important for immune responses, inflammation, and wound healing. Arterioles, veins, capillary shunts, and the adventitial layer do not have the same capability to mediate plasma protein extravasation.

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  • 35. 

    From the following list, which one is the most important reason that the epithelium must be restored promptly following injury?

    • A.

      It signals neutrophils to emigrate from vessels

    • B.

      It protects the wound from UV damage

    • C.

      The epidermis is solely responsible for regulating wound macrophage function

    • D.

      It protects the wound from infection

    Correct Answer
    D. It protects the wound from infection
    Explanation
    The most important reason that the epithelium must be restored promptly following injury is to protect the wound from infection. The intact epithelium acts as a physical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens into the body. When the epithelium is damaged, it exposes the underlying tissues to potential infection. Therefore, prompt restoration of the epithelium is crucial to minimize the risk of infection and promote proper wound healing.

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  • 36. 

    What common chemical reaction is used in synthesis of GABA, histamine, and serotonin?

    • A.

      Transamination

    • B.

      Oxidative deamination

    • C.

      Decarboxylation

    • D.

      Methylation

    • E.

      Hydroxylation

    Correct Answer
    C. Decarboxylation
    Explanation
    Decarboxylation is the common chemical reaction used in the synthesis of GABA, histamine, and serotonin. Decarboxylation involves the removal of a carboxyl group from a molecule, resulting in the formation of a new compound. In the synthesis of GABA, histamine, and serotonin, decarboxylation is responsible for the conversion of precursor molecules into their respective neurotransmitters. This reaction plays a crucial role in the regulation of various physiological processes in the body.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following amino acid derivatives are stress hormones

    • A.

      Melatonin and histamine

    • B.

      Dopamine and glutamate

    • C.

      Histamine and norepinephrine

    • D.

      Epinephrine and serotonin

    • E.

      Norepinephrine and dopamine

    Correct Answer
    E. Norepinephrine and dopamine
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine and dopamine are both stress hormones. Norepinephrine is released in response to stress and is involved in the "fight or flight" response. It increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels. Dopamine is also involved in the stress response and plays a role in motivation, reward, and movement. Both norepinephrine and dopamine help the body cope with stress and prepare for action.

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  • 38. 

    Physiological functions of nitric oxide include:

    • A.

      Vasodilation and stimulation of gastric acid release

    • B.

      Neurotransmission and regulation of liver metabolism

    • C.

      Stimulation of bile acid release and neuromodulation

    • D.

      Neurotransmission and vasodilation

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Neurotransmission and vasodilation
    Explanation
    Nitric oxide is known to have various physiological functions. One of its functions is neurotransmission, which means it acts as a signaling molecule in the nervous system. It helps in the communication between nerve cells. Another function is vasodilation, which refers to the widening of blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow. Nitric oxide helps in relaxing the smooth muscles of blood vessels, leading to vasodilation. Therefore, the correct answer is neurotransmission and vasodilation.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is the precursor to developed bone tissue?

    • A.

      Fibrous Cartilage

    • B.

      Elastic Cartilage

    • C.

      Hyaline Cartilage

    • D.

      Articular Cartilage

    • E.

      SOX9

    Correct Answer
    C. Hyaline Cartilage
    Explanation
    Hyaline cartilage is the precursor to developed bone tissue. During bone development, hyaline cartilage serves as a template for bone formation. It provides a scaffold for bone cells to deposit new bone tissue. As the bone grows, the hyaline cartilage is gradually replaced by bone cells, resulting in the formation of mature bone tissue. The other options, fibrous cartilage, elastic cartilage, articular cartilage, and SOX9, are not directly involved in the precursor process of bone tissue development.

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  • 40. 

    A mutation in the gene that encodes the protein Sox9 will cause all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Angulation of long bones

    • B.

      Decrease in the number of ribs

    • C.

      Craniofacial abnormalities

    • D.

      Abnormalities in the vertebral column

    • E.

      Missing limb(s)

    Correct Answer
    E. Missing limb(s)
    Explanation
    A mutation in the gene that encodes the protein Sox9 can cause various abnormalities in skeletal development, such as angulation of long bones, decrease in the number of ribs, craniofacial abnormalities, and abnormalities in the vertebral column. However, missing limb(s) is not typically associated with a mutation in the Sox9 gene.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following cells is NOT involved in modulation?

    • A.

      Osteoclasts

    • B.

      Osteocytes

    • C.

      Osteoblasts

    • D.

      Progenitor Cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteoclasts
    Explanation
    Osteoclasts are not involved in modulation. Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, breaking down bone tissue. Modulation refers to the process of adjusting or regulating something. Osteocytes, osteoblasts, and progenitor cells are all involved in the modulation of bone tissue through various functions such as maintaining bone density, bone formation, and differentiation into bone cells. However, osteoclasts have a different role in bone remodeling, as they break down and remove old or damaged bone tissue.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following collagen biosynthetic processes occur outside fibroblasts?

    • A.

      MRNA translation on ribosomes

    • B.

      Cross-linking by lysyl oxidase

    • C.

      Cleavage of N- and C- terminal propeptides

    • D.

      Hydroxylation of Pro- and Lys- residues

    Correct Answer
    B. Cross-linking by lysyl oxidase
    Explanation
    Cross-linking by lysyl oxidase occurs outside fibroblasts. Lysyl oxidase is an extracellular enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cross-links between collagen molecules, which contributes to the stability and strength of collagen fibers. Fibroblasts are responsible for synthesizing collagen, but the cross-linking process occurs outside of these cells in the extracellular matrix. This is an important step in collagen maturation and the formation of a functional collagen network in tissues.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following enzymes would most likely be mutated in a patient suffering from Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?

    • A.

      Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

    • B.

      Purine nuceoside phosphorylase

    • C.

      Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase

    • D.

      Adenosine deaminase

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
    Explanation
    Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT). This enzyme plays a crucial role in the salvage pathway of purine nucleotide synthesis, converting hypoxanthine and guanine into their corresponding nucleotides. Without functional HGPRT, there is an accumulation of uric acid and a deficiency of purine nucleotides, leading to the neurological and behavioral symptoms seen in Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome. Therefore, a mutation in the HGPRT gene is most likely responsible for this disorder.

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  • 44. 

    Which enzyme catalyzes the committed step in de novo purine synthesis?

    • A.

      GMP Synthase

    • B.

      PRPP Synthase

    • C.

      PRPP Glutamyl amidotransferase

    • D.

      Adenylosuccinate synthetase

    • E.

      IMP dehydrogenase

    Correct Answer
    C. PRPP Glutamyl amidotransferase
    Explanation
    PRPP Glutamyl amidotransferase is the correct answer because it catalyzes the committed step in de novo purine synthesis. This enzyme is responsible for transferring an amide group from glutamine to PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate), forming 5-phosphoribosylamine, which is a key intermediate in the synthesis of purine nucleotides. The other enzymes listed are also involved in purine synthesis but do not catalyze the committed step.

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  • 45. 

    How many ATPs are consumed during the conversion of PRPP --> IMP?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    During the conversion of PRPP (Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate) to IMP (Inosine monophosphate), a total of 4 ATPs (Adenosine triphosphates) are consumed. This conversion involves multiple enzymatic steps, each requiring the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 46. 

    What additional biochemically relevant molecule is produced during the synthesis of AMP?

    • A.

      Aspartate

    • B.

      Glutamate

    • C.

      Asparagine

    • D.

      Fumarate

    • E.

      Citrate

    Correct Answer
    D. Fumarate
    Explanation
    During the synthesis of AMP (adenosine monophosphate), fumarate is produced as an additional biochemically relevant molecule. Fumarate is an intermediate in the citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, which is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria to generate energy. Fumarate is converted to malate, which then enters the next step of the cycle. Therefore, fumarate is an important molecule in cellular metabolism and energy production.

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  • 47. 

    Uric acid levels increase in Lesch-nyhan patients because:

    • A.

      PRPP activates PRPP amidotransferase

    • B.

      Deficient salvage of purine bases

    • C.

      PRPP concentrations increase

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    In Lesch-Nyhan patients, uric acid levels increase due to several factors. Firstly, PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate) activates PRPP amidotransferase, an enzyme involved in the synthesis of purine bases. This activation leads to an increased production of purine bases, which are then converted into uric acid. Secondly, the patients have a deficiency in salvaging purine bases, resulting in an accumulation of these bases and their subsequent conversion to uric acid. Lastly, the increased concentration of PRPP in Lesch-Nyhan patients further enhances the production of uric acid. Therefore, all of the above factors contribute to the elevated uric acid levels in Lesch-Nyhan patients.

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  • 48. 

    The cement layer of an osteon secretes which of the following proteins:

    • A.

      Osteoprotegerin

    • B.

      Osteopontin

    • C.

      Osteocalcin

    • D.

      Osteonectin

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteopontin
    Explanation
    The cement layer of an osteon secretes osteopontin. Osteopontin is a protein that plays a role in bone mineralization and remodeling. It is involved in the attachment of osteoclasts to the bone surface and the regulation of bone resorption. Osteopontin also helps in the formation of new bone tissue and the repair of damaged bone. It is an important component of the extracellular matrix in bone and is secreted by osteoblasts in the cement line of an osteon.

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  • 49. 

    What region in the epiphyseal plate is most proximal to the epiphysis?

    • A.

      Proliferative Zone

    • B.

      Maturation Zone

    • C.

      Secondary Spongiosa

    • D.

      Degeneration Zone

    • E.

      Reserve Zone

    Correct Answer
    E. Reserve Zone
    Explanation
    The reserve zone in the epiphyseal plate is the most proximal region to the epiphysis. This zone contains resting chondrocytes, which are not actively involved in bone growth. These chondrocytes serve as a reserve for future growth and can differentiate into new cells when needed. The other zones, such as the proliferative zone, maturation zone, secondary spongiosa, and degeneration zone, are located further away from the epiphysis and have different functions in the process of bone growth.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following enzymes are not heavily regulated during pyrimidine synthesis?

    • A.

      PRPP Synthase

    • B.

      CPS II

    • C.

      Aspartate transcarbamoylase

    • D.

      CTP synthase

    Correct Answer
    C. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
    Explanation
    Aspartate transcarbamoylase is not heavily regulated during pyrimidine synthesis. This enzyme is involved in the first step of the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway, catalyzing the formation of carbamoyl aspartate. Unlike other enzymes in the pathway, aspartate transcarbamoylase does not undergo extensive regulation through feedback inhibition or allosteric regulation. Instead, its activity is primarily regulated by the availability of its substrates, aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate. This lack of heavy regulation allows for a more constant production of carbamoyl aspartate, ensuring a steady supply of intermediates for pyrimidine synthesis.

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