Microsoft Windows Basics Quiz

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1. Which command-line command displays the IP configuration of a computer’s interfaces?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Ping command is used to test connectivity. It does not display the IP configuration of a computer’s interfaces.
B. Incorrect: The Tracert command is used to test connectivity to a device on a remote network and return information about the intermediate hops. It does not display the IP configuration of a computer’s interfaces.
C. Correct: The Ipconfig command displays the IP configuration of a computer’s interfaces.
D. Incorrect: The Netstat tool displays protocol statistics. It does not display the IP configuration of a computer’s interfaces.

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About This Quiz
Microsoft Windows Basics Quiz - Quiz

Explore the essentials of Microsoft Windows through a focused quiz on installation and configuration. Assess skills in using tools like Diskpart, WDS, and understanding multi-boot setups with various... see moreWindows versions. Ideal for learners preparing for IT certifications. see less

2. What is the minimum number of volumes that a computer running Windows XP should have if you want to support dual-booting with Windows 7?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Two volumes are the minimum number required to support dual-booting between Windows XP and Windows 7.
B. Correct: Two volumes are the minimum number required to support dual- booting between Windows XP and Windows 7. The Windows 7 installation routine creates an extra 200-MB system volume on one of these volumes when you install Windows 7, but two volumes is the minimum number required on a Windows XP computer prior to attempting to install Windows 7 for dual-boot confi guration.
C. Incorrect: Two volumes are the minimum number required to support dual- booting between Windows XP and Windows 7.
D. Incorrect: Two volumes are the minimum number required to support dual- booting between Windows XP and Windows 7.

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3. You want to deploy a new computer for software compatibility testing. This computer needs to be able to boot into the Windows 7, Windows XP, and Windows Vista operating systems. In which order should you install the operating systems to meet this objective without having to edit boot entries using Bcdedit?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You need to install the operating systems in the order that they were released by Microsoft. Later operating systems are designed to detect existing installations of earlier operating systems, but earlier operating systems cannot detect the installation of
later operating systems.
B. Incorrect: You need to install the operating systems in the order in which they were released. Later operating systems are designed to detect existing installations of earlier operating systems, but earlier operating systems cannot detect the installation of later operating systems.
C. Incorrect: You need to install the operating systems in the order in which they were released. Later operating systems are designed to detect existing installations of earlier operating systems, but earlier operating systems cannot detect the installation of later operating systems.
D. Correct: You need to install Windows XP fi rst, Windows Vista, and then Windows 7 because that is the order that Microsoft released them. This allows you to boot among
the three operating systems.

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4. Which of the following tools can you use to determine if the applications installed on your computer running Windows Vista are known to have problems with Windows 7?

Explanation

A. Correct: The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor can examine the confi guration of a computer running Windows Vista to determine if any of the applications installed on that computer are known to have compatibility problems with Windows 7.
B. Incorrect: Sysprep is used to prepare a computer for imaging. It cannot report whether particular applications have compatibility problems with Windows 7.
C. Incorrect: The USMT is used to migrate user profi le data from one computer to another. It cannot report whether particular applications have compatibility problems with
Windows 7.
D. Incorrect: Windows PE is a minimal operating system that is used for maintenance tasks. It cannot report whether particular applications have compatibility problems with
Windows 7.

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5. You want to use WDS to perform a network installation of Windows 7. Which of the following hardware devices must the computer have, assuming that you are not booting the computer from a WDS discover image?

Explanation

To perform a network installation of Windows 7 using WDS (Windows Deployment Services), the computer must have a PXE-compliant network adapter. PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows the computer to boot from the network and receive the necessary installation files from the WDS server. A DVD-ROM drive, USB 2.0 slot, or HDMI port are not required for a network installation using WDS.

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6. A user has a home computer with a cable Internet connection and no other computers on his home network. Which of the following methods can this person use to upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate?  

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Sysprep cannot be used to upgrade between editions of Windows 7.
B. Incorrect: You cannot use Windows PE to upgrade between editions of Windows 7.
C. Incorrect: WDS requires a server with WDS installed. The question specifi es that there are no other computers on the home network.
D. Correct: A user can utilize Windows Anytime Upgrade with a home Internet connection to upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate.

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7. You want to prohibit read, write, and execute access to all types of external storage devices. What computer policy setting do you enable?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Enabling this policy permits remote users to access removable storage devices in remote sessions. It does not deny all access to all types of external storage devices.
B. Correct: Enabling this policy denies all access to all types of external storage devices. It overrides any access rights granted by other policies.
C. Incorrect: Enabling this policy denies read access to USB removable disks, portable media players, and cellular phones. It does not deny all access to all types of external
storage devices.
D. Incorrect: Enabling this policy denies write access to USB removable disks, portable media players, and cellular phones. It does not deny all access to all types of external
storage devices.

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8. Which utility can you use to prepare a USB storage device so that you can boot from it to install Windows 7 on a laptop computer that does not have a DVD-ROM drive?  

Explanation

A. Incorrect: LoadState.exe is part of the User State Migration Tool (USMT) utility and cannot be used to prepare a USB storage device as a Windows 7 installation source.
B. Incorrect: ScanState.exe is part of USMT and cannot be used to prepare a USB storage device as a Windows 7 installation source.
C. Correct: You can use the Diskpart utility to prepare a USB storage device so you can boot from it to install Windows 7.
D. Incorrect: Bcdedit is used to modify boot confi guration, but it cannot be used to prepare a USB storage device so that it is possible to boot from it to install Windows 7.

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9. Which XML file is used with ScanState to specify information about user profile data that should be migrated?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: MigDocs.xml contains rules about locating user documents.
B. Correct: MigUser.xml contains rules about migrating user profiles and user data.
C. Incorrect: MigApp.xml contains rules about the migration of application settings.
D. Incorrect: Config.xml contains information about what features to exclude from a migration.

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10. Which Windows Setup configuration pass applies settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts?

Explanation

A. Correct: The oobeSystem Windows Setup configuration pass applies settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts.
B. Incorrect: The auditSystem Windows Setup confi guration pass processes unattended Setup settings while Windows 7 is running in system context before a user logs on to
the computer in Audit mode. It does not apply settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts.
C. Incorrect: The specialize Windows Setup confi guration pass creates and applies system-specific information such as network settings, international settings, and domain
information. It does not apply settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts.
D. Incorrect: The offl ineServicing Windows Setup configuration pass applies updates to a Windows image. It also applies packages, including software fixes, language packs, and other security updates. During this pass, you can add drivers to a Windows 7 image before that image is installed. It does not apply settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts.

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11. You want to ensure that users of stand-alone clients running Windows 7 in your organization change their passwords every three weeks. Which of the following policies should you configure on each computer to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Enforce Password History policy ensures that a user is unable to use a recently used password when changing his password. It does not ensure that a user
must change his password after a certain amount of time.
B. Incorrect: The Minimum Password Length policy ensures that a user’s password meets a minimum length requirement. It does not ensure that a user must change his password
after a certain amount of time.
C. Incorrect: The Minimum Password Age policy stops a user changing his password for a minimum amount of time after the most recent password change. It does not ensure
that a user changes his password after a certain amount of time.
D. Correct: The Maximum Password Age policy ensures that a user must change his password after a certain amount of time has expired. In this case, you would set the policy to 21 days.

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12. To which of the following editions and versions of Windows 7 can you upgrade a computer running Windows 7 Home Premium (x86)? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You can upgrade Windows 7 Home Premium (x86) to Windows 7 Professional (x86).
B. Incorrect: You cannot upgrade an x86 version of Windows 7 to an x64 version of Windows 7.
C. Correct: You can upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium (x86) to Windows 7 Ultimate (x86).
D. Incorrect: You cannot upgrade an x86 version of Windows 7 to an x64 version of Windows 7.

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13. You are planning to migrate all the computers in your organization to Windows 7 Professional. Your organization has several applications that are installed on computers running Windows XP Professional. You are unable to install these applications on computers running Windows 7 due to compatibility problems. You are unable to configure a custom compatibility mode to support these applications using the ACT. Which of the following solutions could you implement to deploy these mission-critical applications on the computers running Windows 7?

Explanation

A. Correct: You should install the Windows XP Mode feature and install the application under Windows XP. Windows XP Mode runs a fully virtualized copy of Windows XP on a computer that has the Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate operating system installed. Applications that work on Windows XP and that have compatibility problems that cannot be resolved using the ACT function in Windows XP Mode.
B. Incorrect: You should not create a custom compatibility fix because the question already indicates that you have been unsuccessful in configuring a custom compatibility mode, which is a collection of such fixes.
C. Incorrect: A shim is the previous name for a custom compatibility fix. The question text already indicates that you have been unsuccessful in configuring a custom compatibility mode, which is a collection of these fixes.
D. Incorrect: You should not configure the application installer to run in Windows XP Professional SP2 mode because you have already found that you are unable to get

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14. What type of AppLocker rule should you create to block all applications that are created by a specific software vendor?

Explanation

A. Correct: Publisher rules allow you to block applications based on which software vendor wrote the application.
B. Incorrect: Path rules do not allow you to block applications based on which software vendor wrote the application, as the question stipulates; they allow you to block an executable fi le based on its location.
C. Incorrect: Hash rules do not allow you to block pplications based on which software vendor wrote the application, as the question stipulates; they allow you to block a specific executable file based on a hash value generated from that file.

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15. You are examining a DNS forward lookup zone to investigate problems with name resolution. What type of resource record enables DNS to resolve a host name to an IPv6 address?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: A PTR resource record performs a reverse lookup and resolves an IPv4 or IPv6 address (depending on the reverse lookup zone specified) to a host name.
B. Incorrect: An A (address) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.
C. Correct: An AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address.
D. Incorrect: A host resource record is another name for an A record. It resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.

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16. You want to create a 20-GB native VHD called Systemvhd in a folder called Windows 7 on an external USB hard disk with the drive designation G:. Which command do you use?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: A VHD is created as a file with a .vhd extension. You need to specify the file name Systemvhd.vhd.
B. Correct: This creates the VHD file as specified.
790 Answers C. Incorrect: The size (or maximum size) of the VHD is specified in megabytes, not gigabytes. Therefore it needs to be 20000, not 20.
D. Incorrect: A VHD is created as a file with a .vhd extension. You need to specify the file name Systemvhd.vhd. Also, the size (or maximum size) of the VHD is specified in
megabytes, not gigabytes. Therefore it needs to be 20000, not 20.

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17. Kim Akers has set the file Brisbane.doc (which is hosted on an office file server) to be available offline using her portable computer running Windows 7. Kim goes home for the weekend and works on Brisbane.doc. Same Abolrous comes into the office on the weekend and works on the copy of Brisbane.doc stored on the office file server. Which of the following tools can Kim use to resolve the conflict that occurs when she connects her computer to the office network?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Credential Manager is used to manage stored authentication credentials. You cannot use Credential Manager to resolve offl ine file sync conflicts.
B. Correct: The Sync Center control panel can be used to resolve offline fi le sync conflicts.
C. Incorrect: HomeGroup is used to manage HomeGroup settings. HomeGroup cannot be used to resolve offline file sync conflicts.
D. Incorrect: Network And Sharing Center cannot be used to resolve offline file sync conflicts. Network And Sharing Center is used to manage network configuration.

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18. Which of the following types of USMT migration store types minimizes hard disk space used when performing a
wipe-and-load migration?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Uncompressed migration stores use the most hard disk space as it creates a copy of the data being migrated in a separate directory structure.
B. Incorrect: Compressed migration stores create a compressed copy of the data being migrated in a separate directory structure.
C. Correct: Hard-link migration stores create a set of hard links to all data that will be migrated in a separate location but do not actually duplicate that data on the volume.

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19. You want to ensure that offline VHD files that contain installations of Windows 7 are kept up to date with service packs and software updates. Which tool should you use?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: MDT 2010 can add updates, applications, and language packs to a WIM system image that can then be installed on client computers and VHDs. However, it does
not update VHDs directly.
B. Correct: You can use the Offline Virtual Machine Servicing Tool to keep offl ine VHD files that contain installations of Windows 7 up to date with service packs and software updates.
C. Incorrect: You can use the BCDEdit command-line tool to add a boot entry for a VHD. The tool does not update VHDs.
D. Incorrect: You can use the Offline Virtual Machine Servicing Tool with VMM 2007 and either WSUS 3.0, SCCM 2007, or Configuration Manager 2007 R2. However, Configuration Manager 2007 R2 does not update VHDs directly.

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20. Which Diskpart command converts an MBR disk to a GPT disk?

Explanation

A. Correct: This Diskpart command converts the selected disk to a GPT disk.
B. Incorrect: This Diskpart command converts the selected disk to an MBR disk.
C. Incorrect: This Diskpart command converts a selected dynamic disk to a static disk.
D. Incorrect: This Diskpart command converts a selected static disk to a dynamic disk.

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21. Which of the following must you download from Microsoft’s Web site to obtain USMT 4.0?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Windows Anytime Upgrade is a tool used to upgrade from one edition of Windows 7 to another. It does not contain USMT 4.0
B. Incorrect: Windows Upgrade Advisor is a tool that advises you whether hardware and software used with a computer running Windows Vista is compatible with Windows 7.
C. Correct: The WAIK contains USMT 4.0.
D. Incorrect: The Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit does not include USMT 4.0.

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22. You administer a network in which all the client computers run Windows 7 Ultimate. You have created bootable VHDs on all your clients to provide failover protection. However, because the VHDs are normally offline, the images they hold do not receive all the latest security updates. You want to boot the clients from their VHDs automatically every Saturday at 11:30 P.M. just long enough for them to receive updates from your WSUS server. What tool do you use to do this?

Explanation

A. Correct: The Offline Virtual Machine Servicing Tool works with the SCVMM. Its main function is to create and implement a scheduled task that brings VHDs and virtual
machines online for just long enough for them to obtain updates to their system images, typically from a WSUS server.
B. Incorrect: The SCVMM is a prerequisite for installing and running the Offl ine Virtual Machine Servicing Tool. However, it is the latter tool that implements scheduled boots from VHDs that are normally offl ine.
C. Incorrect: The Windows Deployment Services MMC snap-in is a GUI tool that is available when you install the WDS server role. It enables you to create, modify, and export disk images. It cannot implement scheduled boots from VHDs that are normally offl ine.
D. Incorrect: WDSUTIL is a command-line tool that is available when you install the WDS server role. It enables you to create, modify, and export disk images and to pre-stage client
computers. It cannot implement scheduled boots from VHDs that are normally offl ine.

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23. Don Hall has set up a wireless network at home. He is pleased with the ease with which he set up her third-party WAP by clicking a single button in the Web interface. However, his next door neighbor tells him that she can access his network from her home computer. What should Don do?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Windows Firewall protects Don’s computer and is enabled by default. His neighbor is accessing his WAP, not his computer.
B. Correct: Don found the WAP setup easy because he accepted all the defaults and did not set up any security. He needs to change his SSID from its default value. He should also configure encryption and set up a passphrase. He should change the access password. He should consider restricting access by MAC address.
C. Incorrect: Changing the WAP channel can solve problems related to interference from mobile phones or microwave ovens (for example). It does not affect access to a network.
D. Incorrect: ICS enables other computers to obtain their IPv4 configuration from the ICS computer. Unless Don has non-wireless computers connected through a wired interface
to his wireless computer, he does not need to set up ICS. Additional wireless computers obtain their configurations directly from the WAP. This has no bearing on whether his
neighbor can access his network.

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24. Your computer is configured to dual-boot between Windows Vista Professional and Windows 7 Enterprise. Currently, it boots into Windows Vista by default. You want to specify Windows 7 as the startup default operating system and configure how Windows 7 reacts in the event of a system failure. You boot the computer into Windows 7. What tool do you use to accomplish your goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Services console lists the services available on a computer, provides information about each service, and offers service management options. For example,
the Services console tells you the service startup type and the logon details. It does not enable you to specify the startup operating system in a dual-boot configuration or to
confi gure how Windows 7 reacts to a system failure.
B. Incorrect: The Performance Options tool enables you to confi gure visual effects, to maximize performance for applications or background services, and to configure DEP
settings. It does not enable you to specify the startup operating system in a dual-boot configuration or to configure how Windows 7 reacts to a system failure.
C. Incorrect: Task Manager gives you a snapshot of resource usage and enables you to stop crashed applications, to stop and start services, and to set process priority and affi nity. It does not enable you to specify the startup operating system in a dual-boot configuration or to confi gure how Windows 7 reacts to a system failure.
D. Correct: System Confi guration (Msconfig) enables you to specify the startup operating system in a dual-boot configuration and confi gure how Windows 7 reacts to a system failure.

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25. Which of the following DISM options can you run against an online, running operating system?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The /set-syslocale option sets the language for non-Unicode programs (also called the system locale) and the font settings. You can do this only in an offline-mounted image.
B. Incorrect: The /set-userlocale option configures a per-user setting that determines the default sort order and the default settings for formatting dates, times, currency, and
numbers. You can do this only in an offline-mounted image.
C. Incorrect: The /set-inputlocale option sets the input locale and keyboard layout. You can do this only in an offline-mounted image.
D. Correct: In an online working operating system, you can query international settings but not configure them.

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26. An application used by the administrators in your organization is not configured to prompt for elevation when it is run. Which of the following compatibility options could you configure for the application to ensure that users with administrative privileges are always prompted when they execute the application?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the application to run in Windows XP (Service Pack 3) compatibility mode because the problem is that the application does not prompt
for elevation. The program will still be unable to prompt for elevation when running in this compatibility mode.
B. Incorrect: You should not configure the application to run in 256-color mode. This compatibility option should be used only when the application has display problems.
C. Correct: You should enable the Run This Program As An Administrator compatibility option if the application is not confi gured to prompt for elevation when administrative
800 Answers privileges are required. This will allow the program to run with administrative privileges once the user responds to a User Account Control prompt.
D. Incorrect: You should not enable the Disable Desktop Composition compatibility option. You should enable this option when you need the Aero interface disabled when the
application executes.

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27. You are troubleshooting instability problems on a computer running Windows 7 Ultimate and suspect that they might be related to hardware faults in RAM. You access the System Recovery options. Which option is most likely to help you diagnose the problem?

Explanation

A. Correct: Windows Memory Diagnostic analyses the computer memory (RAM) for hardware problems.
B. Incorrect: Startup Repair automatically fixes problems that prevent Windows from starting. It is unlikely to help you diagnose hardware problems associated with RAM.
C. Incorrect: System Restore restores system files and settings to the last restore point. It is used when a system change such as installing an application or a driver causes problems. It cannot help resolve hardware problems.
D. Incorrect: System Image Recovery restores your system confi guration from a System Image backup you made previously. You would typically choose this option if your hard disk failed or needed to be wiped. System Image Recovery cannot help resolve hardware problems.

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28. You need to find out the amount of writeable space available on a Windows PE system volume when booted in RAMdisk mode. The PE image is mounted in the folder D:\PEMount. What command would you use?

Explanation

A. Correct: The amount of writeable space available on a Windows PE system volume when booted in RAMdisk mode is known as the Windows PE system volume scratch space. You
can use the /get-scratchspace DISM option to obtain a value for this.
B. Incorrect: This command returns the path to the root of the Windows PE image at boot time, known as the target path.
C. Incorrect: This command determines whether the Windows PE profi ling tool is enabled or disabled.
D. Incorrect: Profiling (fi le logging) is disabled by default. This command enables it. However, the command does not return the amount of writeable space available on
a Windows PE system volume when booted in RAMdisk mode.

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29. Which of the following compatibility modes would you configure for an application that works on computers running Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional but does not work on computers running Windows XP?  

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Although the application may function in the Windows 98/Windows Me compatibility mode, you only have evidence that the application functions on the Windows 2000 operating system, so you should use this compatibility mode fi rst and try others only if the Windows 2000 mode is unsuccessful.
B. Incorrect: Although the application may function in the Windows NT 4.0 (Service Pack 5) compatibility mode, you only have evidence that the application functions on the
Windows 2000 operating system, so you should use this compatibility mode fi rst and try others only if the Windows 2000 mode is unsuccessful.
C. Incorrect: You should not configure the application to run under Windows XP (Service Pack 2) compatibility mode because you have evidence that the application does not
function on computers running Windows XP.
D. Correct: You should configure the application to run under the Windows 2000 compatibility mode because you know that the application functions on computers with Windows 2000 installed.

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30. Which of the following file types does the Windows 7 Program Compatibility troubleshooter application work with?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You cannot use the compatibility troubleshooter to troubleshoot .cab files. You must extract the contents of the .cab file to find the executable file that contains the application installer.
B. Correct: The Program Compatibility troubleshooter works only with executable files.
C. Incorrect: You cannot use the compatibility troubleshooter to troubleshoot .msi installer files. The Program Compatibility troubleshooter only works with executable files that have the .exe extension.
D. Incorrect: You cannot use the compatibility troubleshooter to troubleshoot .zip files. You
need to extract the contents of the .zip file to find the executable file that contains the application installer.

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31. Which of the following policy settings should you configure to ensure that users that are not members of the local Administrators group on a client running Windows 7 are prompted for credentials when they perform an action that requires the elevation of privileges?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the User Account Control: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Standard Users: Automatically Deny Elevation Requests policy. When this policy is configured, standard users receive no prompt when they perform a task that requires elevation, and the elevation attempt automatically fails.
B. Correct: You should configure the User Account Control: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Standard Users: Prompt For Credentials policy. This ensures that a standard
user is prompted for credentials when an attempt is made at elevation.
C. Incorrect: You should not configure the User Account Control: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Administrators In Admin Approval Mode: Prompt For Credentials because this policy relates to approval for administrator accounts rather than standard user accounts.
D. Incorrect: You should not configure the User Account Control: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Administrators In Admin Approval Mode: Prompt For Consent because this policy relates to approval for administrator accounts rather than standard user accounts. This policy also provides a prompt for consent rather than a prompt for credentials.

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32. What command-line utility can you use in Windows 7 to edit boot options?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Bootmgr.exe is the Windows Boot Manager. It runs the boot process, but you cannot use it to edit boot options.
B. Incorrect: Winload.exe is the Windows operating system loader. It loads the selected operating system, but you cannot use it to edit boot options.
C. Correct: You use Bcdedit.exe to edit boot options. You can also use the utility to manage BCD remotely and manage BCD when the system boots from media other than the
media on which the BCD store resides.
D. Incorrect: Windows 7 uses the Winresume.exe utility to resume from hibernation. You cannot use this utility to edit boot options.

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33. You want to ensure that only certain designated wireless laptops can connect to your network. What do you need to enable?

Explanation

A. Correct: The MAC address is unique to an interface and does not change. MAC ensures that only computers whose wireless interfaces have one of the listed MAC addresses can
access a wireless network. Be aware that if a new computer needs to access the network, or if you replace the wireless adapter in a computer, you need to register the new MAC
address in the WAP.
B. Incorrect: Most networks are confi gured by using DHCP so IPv4 addresses can change. Even in networks where IPv4 addresses are statically confi gured, it is unlikely that the WAP supports IPv4 address control. 806 Answers
C. Incorrect: WEP is an encryption method that ensures that third parties cannot read messages if they intercept them. It does not determine which computers can access a network.
D. Incorrect: Like WEP, WPA is an encryption method and does not determine which computers can access a network.

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34. You have used Runas with the /savecred option to save the credentials of an administrator account on a client running Windows 7. You have finished performing the tasks that you needed to and now want to remove those credentials from the computer. Which of the following tools could you use to do this?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You cannot remove saved Runas credentials using the Runas command. You must use the Credential Manager.
B. Correct: You can use the Credential Manager to remove credentials saved using the Runas command.
C. Incorrect: You cannot use the Certificates console to remove credentials saved using the Runas command. The Certifi cates console is used to manage certificates.
D. Incorrect: You cannot use UAC settings to remove credentials saved using the Runas command. The User Account Control settings dialog box is used to change which
situations trigger UAC prompts.

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35. You have upgraded the hardware on a computer so that it can run an application that requires a large amount of processor resource. You use the Windows Experience Index tool to generate a new base score. The subscores for each feature are as follows: ·       Processor 5.1 ·       Physical Memory (RAM) 3.3 ·       Graphics 3.6 ·       Gaming Graphics 2.3 ·       Primary Hard Disk 5.3 Based on these figures, what is the Windows Experience Index base score?

Explanation

A. Correct: The lowest subscore determines the base score, even though this computer is not primarily used for three-dimensional graphics and gaming.
B. Incorrect: 3.9 is the average of the subscores. However, the lowest subscore determines the base score, not the average.
C. Incorrect: 5.1 is a significant score because the computer is used for processor-intensive operations. However, the question asks for the base score, and the lowest subscore determines the base score.
D. Incorrect: 5.3 is the highest subscore. The lowest subscore determines the base score, not the highest.

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36. A user has forgotten the password to the stand-alone desktop computer running Windows 7 that she uses at your organization. The user does not have a reset disk. You have an account on this computer that is a member of the local Administrators group. Which of the following steps can you take to resolve this user’s authentication problem?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The question does not state that the account has been locked; it says that the user has forgotten her password. Unlocking an account works only if a user knows her password. It does not reset her password.
B. Correct: You need to reset her password. The user loses access to encrypted files if she has not backed up her EFS key. The user also loses access to any saved credentials stored in Windows Vault.
C. Incorrect: You can create a password reset disk for an account only if you know the account password. You cannot create a password reset disk for another user account or
for one where the user has forgotten her password.
D. Incorrect: You should not create a password reset disk for your own account because this does not help resolve the user’s problem.

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37. Your client running Windows 7 is connected to a hotel network, has an address on the 192.168.10.0 /24 network, and is located behind a Network Address Translation (NAT) device. The network blocks all outbound traffic except that on ports 80 and 443. You want the address of the DirectAccess IP-HTTPS server to be set correctly. Which of the following commands could you use?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The ipconfig command displays IP address confi guration. It does not display information about DirectAccess IP-HTTPS server confi guration.
B. Incorrect: The netsh interface 6to4 show relay command displays 6to4 information. 6to4 can be used when a computer is assigned a public address, rather than a private one, and
is not behind a NAT device.
C. Incorrect: The netsh interface ipv6 show teredo command displays Teredo information. Teredo cannot be used if a hotel network firewall blocks all traffi c except that on port 80 and 443.
D. Correct: The netsh interface httpstunnel show interfaces command shows information related to the DirectAccess IP-HTTPS configuration.

Submit
38. You are creating a WIM system image of a Windows 7 installation on a reference computer. What operating system should you boot to, and what Windows AIK tool should you use?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: To capture a Windows 7 WIM image, you need to boot to Windows PE 3.0 (Windows PE). Also, the Windows SIM tool opens Windows images, creates answer fi les, and manages distribution shares and configuration sets. It does not create WIM images.
B. Incorrect: To capture a Windows 7 WIM image, you need to boot to Windows PE 3.0 (Windows PE). Also, the DISM tool applies updates, drivers, and language packs to a Windows image. It does not create WIM images.
C. Correct: To capture a Windows 7 WIM image, you boot to Windows PE 3.0 (Windows PE) and use the ImageX tool.
D. Incorrect: The Windows SIM tool opens Windows images, creates answer files, and manages distribution shares and confi guration sets. It does not create WIM images.
E. Incorrect: The DISM tool applies updates, drivers, and language packs to a Windows image. It does not create WIM images.

Submit
39. You have used the ImageX tool to install a WIM system image on a VHD and added a boot entry for that VHD using the BCDEdit tool. The bootable VHD has been designated with the drive letter W:. The variable is replaced by the GUID of the VHD.

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This command forces Windows 7 to automatically detect the HAL when creating the boot entry.
B. Incorrect: This deletes a VHD entry from the Boot menu.
C. Correct: This tests if the boot entry has been created successfully.
D. Incorrect: This returns the GUID of the specified VHD.

Submit
40. What does the command netsh advfirewall firewall add rule name=”CustomRule” profile=domain protocol=TCP dir=in localport=80 action=allow do when executed from an elevated command prompt?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The rule in the question allows traffic rather than blocks traffic.
B. Incorrect: The rule in the question applies to inbound traffic rather than outbound traffic.
C. Correct: This rule, called CustomRule, applies in the domain profile and allows inbound TCP traffic on port 80. You can create WFAS rules using Netsh in the advfirewall context.
D. Incorrect: The rule in the question is an inbound rule rather than an outbound rule.

Submit
41. You want to have a record of which user accounts are used to access documents in a sensitive folder on a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: EFS can be used to limit which users can access a document by encrypting it only to certain user accounts, but it cannot be used to track which user accounts have been used to access files.
B. Correct: Auditing allows you to track which user accounts are used to access files and folders. You can confi gure auditing to track successful and failed attempts to use any of the special permissions.
C. Incorrect: You cannot use NTFS permissions to record which user accounts are used to access documents; you can only use NTFS permissions to restrict which user accounts are used to access documents.
D. Incorrect: BranchCache is used to speed up access to files across the wide area network (WAN); it cannot be used to record which user accounts access documents in a sensitive folder.

Submit
42. Which policy setting should you configure to ensure that the Windows 7 built-in Administrator account must respond to a UAC prompt before elevating privileges?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the policy UAC: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Administrators In Admin Approval Mode: Elevate Without Prompting. This policy
relates to all administrator accounts except the built-in administrator account, which must be managed with other policies.
B. Correct: You should configure the UAC: Admin Approval Mode For The Built-In Administrator Account policy to Enabled. This ensures that the built-in administrator
account must respond to a UAC prompt when performing a task that requires elevated privileges.
C. Incorrect: You should not configure the UAC: Admin Approval Mode For The Built-In Administrator account policy to Disabled. This policy setting disables the UAC prompt for
the built-in administrator account.
D. Incorrect: You should not configure the policy UAC: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Administrators In Admin Approval Mode: Prompt For Consent For Non-Windows
Binaries. This policy relates to all administrator accounts except the built-in administrator account, which must be managed with other policies.

Submit
43. Which of the following versions and editions of Windows 7 can you install to take advantage of the hardware resources on a computer that has 16 GB of RAM?
(Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: An x86 version of Windows 7 can utilize a maximum of 4 GB of RAM.
B. Correct: An x64 versions of Windows 7 can utilize more than 4 GB of RAM.
C. Incorrect: An x86 version of Windows 7 can utilize a maximum of 4 GB of RAM.
D. Correct: An x64 versions of Windows 7 can utilize more than 4 GB of RAM.

Submit
44. You are configuring static IPv4 addresses for two computers, Perth and Brisbane, on an isolated private wired subnet. You configure Perth with the IPv4 address 172.16.10. 140 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.0. You configure Brisbane with the IPv4 address 172.16.10. 210 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.0. You enter ping 172.16.10.140 on Brisbane, but the command times out. Similarly, entering ping 172.16.0.210 on Perth fails to locate the Brisbane computer’s IPv4 address. What is the likely reason for this lack of connectivity?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: DNS resolves computer names to IP addresses. You are pinging the computers by their IPv4 addresses, not their computer names, and a DNS service is not required for
the commands to succeed.
B. Incorrect: All computers on the same subnet must have the same subnet mask.
C. Incorrect: The subnet is isolated and no gateway is required to send traffic to other networks. You do not need to defi ne a gateway to implement connectivity between two computers within the same subnet.
D. Correct: By default Windows Firewall blocks the Ping command. You need to enable ICMPv4 traffi c at both firewalls. At an elevated command prompt on both computers,
enter netsh advfi rewall firewall add rule name=”ICMPv4”.

Submit
45. You are responsible for managing student laptops that have Windows 7 installed at a small community college. You want to prevent students from uploading files using FTP to FTP sites on the Internet but allow them to send outbound e-mail using the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Which of the following rules would you configure to accomplish that goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Inbound rules are used to block traffic from the network to the computer. You want to block a specific type of network traffic from the computer to the network, which necessitates the use of outbound rules.
B. Correct: Outbound rules allow you to block and allow traffic that originates on the computer from traveling out to the network. You should configure an outbound rule to
block students from using FTP to upload fi les to sites on the Internet and an outbound rule to allow students to use SMTP to send e-mail.
C. Incorrect: Isolation rules are used to limit the hosts that a computer can communicate with to those that meet a specific set of authentication criteria. They cannot be used to block an outbound specifi c protocol.
D. Incorrect: Authentication exemption rules are used in conjunction with Isolation rule to allow connections to be made without requiring that authentication occur.
Authentication exemption rules apply to inbound traffic rather than outbound.

Submit
46. You are spending several weeks working as a contractor at Contoso. You attempt to connect using Internet Explorer to the timesheet Web application hosted at https://timesheet.contoso.internal. You receive a message that the Web site certificate has not been issued by a trusted source. Which of the following steps can you take to resolve this problem?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the security level of the Intranet Zone. The security level manages how Internet Explorer deals with downloads and cookies. Configuring this setting does not enable Internet Explorer to trust the CA that issued the certifi cate to timesheet.contoso.internal.
B. Incorrect: Turning off the Pop-Up Blocker allows pop-ups, but does not allow Internet Explorer to trust this Web site certifi cate.
C. Incorrect: Browsing to the Web site using InPrivate Mode does not allow Internet Explorer to trust the certifi cate issued to the Web site. Using InPrivate Mode stops
Internet Explorer from recording browser navigation formation.
D. Correct: Because the Web site’s certificate has been issued by an internal CA and you do not work for the organization directly, Internet Explorer has not been confi gured totrust the internal CA. To trust the internal CA, navigate to its Web site and download and install the CA’s certificate.

Submit
47. You require fault tolerance for your operating system so that your computer running Windows 7 Home Premium can still boot up if a disk fails. You have two disks and unallocated space on your second disk. What do you do?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This is a valid strategy for Windows 7 Enterprise or Ultimate edition, but you cannot make a VHD bootable on a computer running Windows 7 Home Premium.
B. Incorrect: RAID-0 (disk striping) offers no fault tolerance and you cannot store operating system files on a RAID-0 volume.
C. Correct: You can use a RAID-1 volume to mirror the disk that holds your operating system and provide fault tolerance.
D. Incorrect: RAID-0 (disk striping) offers fault tolerance and failover protection. However, you cannot store operating system files on a RAID-5 volume.

Submit
48. You are examining transition technologies on a network and want to identify the IPv4-to-IPv6 compatibility addresses being used. Which of the following is a Teredo address?

Explanation

A. Correct: This is a Teredo compatibility address. Teredo addresses start with 2001.
B. Incorrect: This is a 6to4 compatibility address. 6to4 addresses start with 2002.
C. Incorrect: This is a link-local ISATAP address. Look for 5efe followed by the hexadecimal representation of an IPv4 address, in this case 10.0.2.143.
D. Incorrect: This is a site-local Ipv6 address. It is not an IPv4-to-IPv6 compatibility address.

Submit
49. You are logged on to a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise that you share with Jeff Phillips. You want to store some files on an NTFS-formatted USB flash drive that both you and Jeff can access. You want to encrypt these files but do not want to use BitLocker To Go. You are able to encrypt the files, but when you try to add Jeff, you do not see his certificate listed. Which of the following should you do to allow you to use EFS to encrypt files to both your and Jeff’s accounts?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Jeff needs an EFS certificate for you to be able to encrypt a file that he can access. Changing a password does not generate an EFS certifi cate.
B. Correct: If Jeff encrypts a file on the computer, it generates an EFS certificate. You can then use this EFS certifi cate to encrypt the file to his account.
C. Incorrect: Jeff does not need write access to the file for you to be able to use EFS to encrypt the file to his account. Jeff needs an encryption certificate, which can be
generated by having Jeff encrypt a file on the computer.
D. Incorrect: Letting Jeff take ownership of the files does not allow you to use EFS to encrypt the file to his account. Jeff needs an encryption certifi cate, which can be
generated by having Jeff encrypt a file on the computer.

Submit
50. A client running Windows 7 is experiencing intermittent performance problems. You suspect the problems might be caused by an application that you recently installed but you have forgotten exactly when you did this. Which tool or feature would you use to determine when the application was installed?

Explanation

A. Correct: Reliability Monitor tracks application installations. It enables you to determine whether what applications have been installed and exactly when the installations occurred.
B. Incorrect: Action Center can tell you if an application or device driver is not working properly. It cannot tell you when an application was installed.
C. Incorrect: DCSs capture current performance and confi guration data. They cannot tell you when in the past an application was installed.
D. Incorrect: You can use Performance Monitor to view performance counters in real time or analyze performance data in a DCS. However, Performance Monitor does not record
when an application was installed.

Submit
51. Which of the following tools can you use to migrate a custom power plan from one computer running Windows 7 to another?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You cannot use the Power Options control panel to migrate a custom power plan from one computer running Windows 7 to another.
B. Incorrect: Although you can use the Local Group Policy Editor (Gpedit.msc) to edit power plan settings, you cannot use the Local Group Policy Editor to migrate power plan settings. Only security-related settings can be migrated using the Local Group Policy Editor.
C. Correct: You can use Powercfg.exe to migrate a power plan from one computer running Windows 7 to another.
D. Incorrect: Bcdedit.exe is used to modify a computer’s boot configuration; it cannot be used to modify a power plan.

Submit
52. You have four devices connected to a USB hub and none of them are working satisfactorily. You suspect one of the devices requires more bandwidth and should not be connected through a hub. How do you discover the bandwidth requirements of the devices?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You use this procedure to determine the power requirements of each device, not the bandwidth requirements.
B. Correct: This procedure enables you to view the bandwidth requirements of each device in the Bandwidth-Consuming Devices list on the Advanced tab.
C. Incorrect: The Details tab can give you a great deal of information (for example, the device-type GUID) but does not indicate bandwidth requirements. Also, the devices listed are not necessarily those on the USB hub.
D. Incorrect: IEEE 1394 bus host controllers are not USB devices. Also, the Resources tab does not show bandwidth requirements.

Submit
53. Your organization’s internal Web site was designed several years ago, when all client computers were running Windows XP and Microsoft Internet Explorer 6. You want to verify that your organization’s internal Web site displays correctly when you migrate all users to computers running Windows 7. Which of the following tools can you use to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You can use the IEAK to configure Internet Explorer. You cannot use this toolkit to determine whether an existing Web site displays correctly for users of Internet Explorer 8, which is the default browser of Windows 7.
B. Correct: The ACT includes the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool. This tool can be used to evaluate whether a Web site is compatible with Internet Explorer 8, which is the default browser of Windows 7.
C. Incorrect: The Windows AIK includes tools that assist in deploying the Windows operating system. You cannot use this toolkit to determine whether an existing Web site displays
correctly for users of Internet Explorer 8, which is the default browser of Windows 7.
D. Incorrect: The MDT is a solution accelerator that assists in the planning and deployment of operating systems to client computers. You cannot use this toolkit to determine whether an existing Web site displays correctly for users of Internet Explorer 8, which is the default browser of Windows 7.

Submit
54. Jeff_Phillips’s user account is a member of four separate security groups that are each assigned different permissions to a folder on a client running Windows 7. Which of the following tools can you use to determine Jeff’s permissions to a file hosted in that folder?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Robocopy can be used to copy files and their associated NTFS permissions but cannot be used to calculate permissions.
B. Incorrect: Icacls can be used to display permissions but cannot be used to calculate the result of cumulative permissions.
C. Incorrect: Cipher is used to manage certificates and cannot be used to calculate the result of cumulative permissions.
D. Correct: The Effective Permissions tool can be used to calculate the result of cumulative permissions that accrue through multiple group memberships.

Submit
55. Which of the following policies should you configure if you want a client running Windows 7 to use a WSUS server located at updates.contoso.internal as a source of updates rather than the Microsoft Update servers?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the Turn Off Software Notification policy. This policy relates to user notification about available updates. You cannot use it to confi gure Windows Update to use a WSUS server rather than the Microsoft Update servers.
B. Incorrect: You should not configure the Automatic Updates Detection Frequency policy. This policy determines how often Windows Update checks for updates. You cannot use it to configure Windows Update to use a WSUS server rather than the Microsoft Update servers.
C. Incorrect: You should not configure the Configure Automatic Updates policy. This policy configures which updates should be installed and whether they should be downloaded or installed, or whether the logged-on user should be notified. You cannot use it to confi gure
Windows Update to use a WSUS server rather than the Microsoft Update servers.
D. Correct: You should configure the Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location policy because it allows you to specify a local WSUS server for updates.

Submit
56. What WIM tool do you use to view Windows Management–generated events and event information, such as the event’s date and time, class, point of origin, and description?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: WMI CIM Studio enables you to view and edit classes, properties, qualifiers, and instances in a CIM repository; run selected methods; and generate and compile MOF fi les. It does not enable to view Windows Management–generated events and event information, such as the event’s date and time, class, point of origin, and description.
B. Incorrect: WMI Object Browser enables you to view objects, edit property values and qualifiers, and run methods. It does not enable to view Windows Management–generated events and event information, such as the event’s date and time, class, point of origin, and description.
C. Incorrect: WMI Event Registration Tool enables you to confi gure permanent event consumers, and to create or view instances of event consumers, filters, bindings, and
timer system classes. It does not enable to view Windows Management–generatedevents and event information, such as the event’s date and time, class, point of origin,
and description.
D. Correct: WMI Event Viewer displays events for all instances of registered consumers. It enables to view Windows Management–generated events and event information, such as the event’s date and time, class, point of origin, and description.

Submit
57. To which of the following versions and editions of Windows 7 can you directly upgrade a computer running Windows Vista Enterprise (x86)?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You cannot upgrade Windows Vista Enterprise to Windows 7 Home Professional. Windows Vista Enterprise (x86) only can be upgraded to Windows 7 Enterprise (x86) or Ultimate (x86).
B. Correct: Windows Vista Enterprise (x86) only can be upgraded to Windows 7 Enterprise (x86) or Ultimate (x86).
C. Incorrect: You cannot upgrade an x86 version of Windows Vista to an x64 version of Windows 7.
D. Incorrect: You

Submit
58. Sam Abolrous hot-desks at the A. Datum Corporation. When he is working at a desk on the third floor, he wants all his print jobs to go to the printer LaserF3. When he is working at a desk on the second floor, he wants all his print jobs to go to the printer LaserF2. The third floor of the A. Datum building is covered by the wireless network Adatum3. The second floor of the A. Datum building is covered by the wireless network Adatum2. There is shielding between the floors, and the Adatum2 network cannot be accessed from the third floor. Similarly, the Adatum3 network cannot be accessed from the second floor. How do you configure location-aware printing on Sam’s laptop running Windows 7 Enterprise?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This specifies LaserF2 as the default printer whatever floor Sam is on and whatever network he is connected to. This causes problems because Sam cannot connect to LaserF2 when he is on the third floor.
B. Incorrect: This specifies LaserF3 as the default printer whatever floor Sam is on and whatever network he is connected to. This causes problems because Sam cannot connect to LaserF3 when he is on the second floor.
C. Incorrect: This specifies LaserF3 as the default printer when Sam is on the second floor and LaserF2 as the default printer when Sam is on the third floor. This causes problems because LaserF3 is on a network that is not accessible from the second floor and LaserF2 is on a network that is not accessible from the third floor.
D. Correct: This specifi es LaserF2 as the default printer when Sam is on the second floor and LaserF3 as the default printer when Sam is on the third floor, which is the required scenario.

Submit
59. Which of the following BitLocker policies should you configure to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices protected with BitLocker?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Configure Use Of Passwords For Removable Data Drives policy allows you to configure password policies for removable data drives. You cannot use this policy to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices protected with BitLocker.
B. Correct: The Allow Access To BitLocker-Protected Removable Data Drives From Earlier Versions Of Windows policy allows you to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices protected with BitLocker.
C. Incorrect: The Choose How BitLocker-Protected Removable Drives Can Be Recovered policy allows you to configure removable device recovery options. You cannot use this
policy to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices protected with BitLocker.
D. Incorrect: The Control Use Of BitLocker On Removable Drives policy determines whether you can use BitLocker with removable devices on the computer to which the policy
applies. You cannot use this policy to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader

Submit
60. A user telephones your help desk. She has just accidentally deleted a file she was working on earlier that day. You have configured her computer to carry out backups every evening, and you installed a new graphics driver two days ago. How should you advise the user to retrieve her file?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This action restores the file that existed on the previous evening. The user would lose the changes she made today.
B. Incorrect: Previous versions include the backup version created on the previous evening and shadow copies. Probably the last shadow copy was made two days ago when the
installation of a graphics driver generated a restore point. Previous versions would not include the version the user accidentally deleted.
C. Correct: The user deleted the file recently, so it is still in her Recycle Bin. It contains all the information that it contained when it was deleted.
D. Incorrect: A system restore does not restore a deleted user file.

Submit
61. Which of the following operating systems support an offline migration using USMT?
(Choose all that apply)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Windows 2000 does not support offl ine migration using the USMT.
B. Correct: Windows XP Professional supports offl ine migration using the USMT.
C. Correct: Windows Vista supports offl ine migration using the USMT.
D. Correct: Windows 7 support offl ine migration using the USMT.

Submit
62. You want to obtain detailed information about all the Windows Installer (.msi) applications installed in the WIM image mounted in the C:\Mount folder. What command do you use?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The /get-appinfo DISM option returns information about Windows Installer (.msi) applications. The /get-packageinfo option returns information about packages implemented as cabinet (.cab) files.
B. Incorrect: The /get-appinfo DISM option returns information about Windows Installer (.msi) applications. The /get-featureinfo option returns information about Windows Features.
C. Correct: The /get-appinfo DISM option returns information about Windows Installer (.msi) applications.
D. Incorrect: The /get-appinfo DISM option returns information about Windows Installer (.msi) applications. The /get-apppatchinfo option returns information about application patches (.msp files).

Submit
63. You have configured AppLocker policies to allow the execution of specific applications only. If an AppLocker policy hasn’t been created for it, an application cannot execute. After a recent software update, users are unable to execute one of the applications for which you have configured a rule. Other applications function normally. This application is not signed digitally by the software vendor. Which of the following strategies should you pursue to ensure that the application is able to execute on the computers running Windows 7?

Explanation

A. Correct: You need to create a new hash rule for the application. Hash rules need to be updated whenever you apply an update to an application. This is because the
update changes the characteristics of the file so that it no longer matches the hash rule generated for it originally.
B. Incorrect: Because the application is not signed digitally, you cannot use a publishing rule to manage it with AppLocker.
C. Incorrect: Because other AppLocker policies are functioning, you can infer that the Application Identity service is active and its status does not need to be modified.
D. Incorrect: The Application Management service is related to software installation, removal, and enumeration through Group Policy. This service does not affect AppLocker
policies directly.

Submit
64. One of the users whom you support uses a wireless laptop in the office and also takes it with her on business trips. She reports that when she uses the laptop in the lounge area of a hotel in which she frequently stays, she experiences delays and connection problems. She has no problems when using the laptop in her hotel room or when she returns to the office. What should you do to help solve the problem?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The user’s computer works fine in the office. There is no need to reconfigure the office network.
B. Incorrect: The order in which the user’s computer accesses networks is not the problem. The problem occurs when her computer is within range of two wireless networks and switches between them.
C. Correct: The likely cause of the reported behavior is that the lounge area of the hotel is within range of (and possibly equidistant between) two wireless networks and keeps switching between them. You can disable this feature or tell the user how to do so. You need to warn the user that if she moves to another part of the hotel, she might need to reconnect to a network.
D. Incorrect: The user’s laptop is working in the office
and hotel room. There is nothing wrong with her wireless adapter.

Submit
65. You have created a local group on a client running Windows 7 named Accounting. Which of the following share permissions should you assign to the accounting group to ensure that users are able to add, modify, and delete files located in the Accounting shared folder without giving members of the group the ability to modify shared folder permissions?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not assign the Read permission. If you assign this permission, users are unable to modify or delete files.
B. Correct: You should assign the Modify permission because this allows users to add, modify, and delete files located in the accounting shared folder.
C. Incorrect: You should not assign the Full Control permission because then users have the ability to modify shared folder permissions.
D. Incorrect: You cannot assign the Owner permission to groups. When you use basic sharing, Windows automatically assigns this permission to the user who shares the folder.

Submit
66. A client running Windows 7 is connecting to a hotel network. Clients on the hotel network are assigned IP addresses in the 10.0.10.0 /24 range. The hotel firewall blocks all traffic except that on ports 25, 80, and 443. Which DirectAccess connectivity method does the client use to make the connection?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Teredo is appropriate when a client has a private IPv4 address and when no firewall blocks traffic on UDP port 3544. Because this port is blocked, the client uses
IP-HTTPS.
B. Incorrect: To use 6to4, the client must have a public IPv4 address. The question states that the client has been assigned a private IPv4 address.
C. Incorrect: To use a globally routable IPv6 address, the client must be assigned a globally routable IPv6 address.
D. Correct: IP-HTTPS is used when the DirectAccess client is assigned a private IPv4 address on a network that allows Internet access but that has a firewall that restricts most forms of network traffic.

Submit
67. You want add an install image to the image store on a WDS server. You want to use the source image file Install.wim in the C:/Myimages folder. Which command do you use?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This command replaces an install image. Typically, you use this command when you have updated an install image and want to overwrite the old image file.
B. Incorrect: This command enables the Auto-Add policy on the WDS server.
C. Incorrect: This command creates a discover image.
D. Correct: This command adds an install image as specified.

Submit
68. You are moving a dynamic volume from the Canberra computer running Windows 7 to the Aberdeen computer running Windows 7. The disk had been allocated drive letter H: on Canberra. Drives C:, D:, and E: already exist on Aberdeen. You have not configured Aberdeen to prevent new volumes from being added to the system. What drive letter is allocated to the disk on Aberdeen?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: If you had used the mountvol /n or the diskpart automount command on Aberdeen to prevent new volumes from being added to the system, the volume would
not be mounted and would not receive a drive letter. However, the question explicitly states that you did not do this.
B. Incorrect: When you move a basic volume to another computer, it receives the next available drive letter on that computer. However, you are moving a dynamic volume.
C. Incorrect: The G: drive letter is neither the next available letter on Aberdeen nor the drive letter to which the volume had been allocated on Canberra. There is no reason for this drive letter to be allocated.
D. Correct: When moved to a new computer, dynamic volumes retain the drive letter they had on the previous computer, in this case H:.

Submit
69. You do consulting work for a small business. This small business has a single color laser printer. This printer is shared off the administrative assistant’s client running Windows 7. The administrative assistant is not a member of the local Administrators group. You want to allow the administrative assistant to reorder jobs in the print queue and delete them if necessary. The administrative assistant should be able to do this to any documents in the queue. The administrative assistant should not be able to  reconfigure printer permissions. Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Print permission allows a user to manage their documents but not the documents of others.
B. Incorrect: Users that you assign the Manage This Printer permission are able to reconfigure printer permissions. They are not able to manage the documents of other
users directly, though they can assign themselves the Manage Documents permission and accomplish this task indirectly.
C. Correct: When you assign a person the Manage Documents permission, she is able to reorder any documents in the queue and cancel them.
D. Incorrect: The Power Users group is included for backward compatibility with earlier versions of Windows. Assigning a user to the Power Users group does not confer any printer permissions.

Submit
70. You are using the Diskpart tool to create a RAID-0 volume from unallocated space on Disks 1, 2, and 3. You want the volume to be as large as possible. What command do you enter?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: To create the largest possible RAID-0 (striped) volume, you omit the size parameter. Specifying a size of zero does not do this.
B. Correct: This command creates the largest possible RAID-0 volume.
C. Incorrect: The create volume raid command creates a RAID-5 volume. Also, to specify the largest possible volume you omit the size parameter.
D. Incorrect: This command creates the largest possible RAID-5 volume.

Submit
71. You are logged on to a client running Windows 7 named Canberra. You want to determine the media access control (MAC) address of a client running Windows 7 named Aberdeen, which is located on another subnet. Both computers are members of the same domain and your domain user account is a member of the local administrator group on both computers. The command WinRM Quickconfi g has been executed on all clients running Windows 7 in your organization. Which of the following commands should you execute to accomplish your goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The command nslookup Aberdeen provides the computer’s IP address but does not provide the MAC address.
B. Correct: The command winrs –r:Aberdeen ipconfig /all runs the command ipconfi g /all on Aberdeen but displays the results on the computer that you are logged on to, which in this case is computer Canberra. Ipconfi g /all displays a computer’s MAC address.
C. Incorrect: You should not use the command winrs – :Canberra ipconfig /all because this displays computer Canberra’s IP address information, not the IP address information of computer Aberdeen.
D. Incorrect: The command arp –a displays information about IP addresses and MAC addresses on the same subnet but does not display MAC address information about computers on remote subnets. To use this command to determine another computer’s MAC address, you also have to know that computer’s IP address.

Submit
72. Which of the following computers can you configure as a DirectAccess server?

Explanation

A. Correct: The DirectAccess server needs to have two network adapters and needs to be assigned two consecutive public IPv4 addresses.
B. Incorrect: The DirectAccess server needs to have two network adapters. One network adapter must be assigned to the internal network, and the other must be accessible to
the Internet.
C. Incorrect: The DirectAccess server needs to be assigned two consecutive public IPv4 addresses.
D. Incorrect: The DirectAccess server needs to have two network adapters. One network adapter must be assigned to the internal network and the other must be accessible to the
Internet.

Submit
73. Which of the following commands can you use to generate a list of devices on a computer running Windows 7 that are currently configured to wake the computer from any sleep state?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The command powercfg.exe –devicequery all_devices lists all devices. It does not provide information about which devices are configured to wake the computer from any sleep state.
B. Incorrect: The command powercfg.exe –hibernate enables the hibernate option. You cannot use this command to provide a list of devices that are confi gured to wake the
computer from any sleep state.
C. Correct: The command powercfg.exe –devicequery wake_armed displays a list of devices on a computer running Windows 7 that are configured to wake the computer from any
sleep state.
D. Incorrect: The command powercfg.exe –list displays a list of all power schemes in the current user’s environment. It does not display a list of devices that are confi gured to wake the computer from a sleep state.

Submit
74. Your company’s chief accountant consults you with a question about a financial spreadsheet. She needs to recover the version of this particular spreadsheet that existed six months ago because it is needed for a financial audit. Using Restore Previous Versions, you find that the oldest version stored is dated three months ago. How can you recover the required file?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: System protection settings are not retrospective. The previous versions of this file older than three months have already been deleted, and increasing the disk space that is allocated to system protection does not bring them back.
B. Incorrect: System restore does not restore user files.
C. Incorrect: System protection settings are not retrospective. This setting prevents system settings for the relevant volume being stored when a restore point is created and therefore leaves more space for previous versions. However, it does not bring back a file
that has already been deleted because of lack of disk space.
D. Correct: You should use the Backup And Restore console to recover the file. This is the only way you can recover a file that is six months old.

Submit
75. Which of the following policies should you enable to ensure that clients running Windows 7 are able to cache files on shared folders if the round-trip latency to the remote file server exceeds a specific value in milliseconds without having to specify that a file is available offline?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Configure Slow Link Speed policy allows you to configure a threshold value for transitioning to Slow Link mode. Slow Link mode works with fi les configured
to be available offline. The question states that it is not necessary to specify that a file is available offline.
B. Incorrect: The Configure Slow Link Mode policy allows you to configure the computer to be able to use Slow Link mode, which is the default setting for clients running Windows 7.
Slow Link mode works with files configured to be available offline. The question states that it is not necessary to specify that a file is available offline.
C. Incorrect: The Exclude Files From Being Cached policy is used to block certain file types from being available offl ine. This policy cannot be used to configure a client running Windows 7 to cache files.
D. Correct: Transparent caching allows Windows 7 to cache files locally when the round-trip latency to the remote file server exceeds a specific value in milliseconds

Submit
76. You want to ensure that Internet Explorer does not display any pop-up windows except those from the site https://www.wingtiptoys.com. Which of the following Pop-Up Blocker settings should you configure on the Pop-Up Blocker Settings dialog box? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You should configure the www.wingtiptoys.com site as an exception so that pop-up windows on this site are displayed by Internet Explorer.
B. Incorrect: You should not set the blocking level to Medium because this lets pop-ups through from sites other than those that are on the exception list.
C. Correct: You should confi gure the blocking level to High because this blocks all pop-up windows except those from sites on the exceptions list.
D. Incorrect: You should not set the blocking level to Low because this lets pop-ups through from sites other than those that are on the exception list.

Submit
77. You want to centralize backups by backing up all client computers in your company’s production network to a network share on a file server running Windows Server 2008 R2. All your client computers run Windows 7, but because your company has grown through a series of mergers, some run Windows 7 Professional, some run Windows 7 Enterprise, and some run Windows 7 Ultimate. Which computers can you back up to a network share?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Computers running Windows 7 Ultimate offer all Windows 7 features. However, they are not the only computers running Windows 7 that can be backed up to
a network share.
B. Incorrect: Computers running Windows 7 Enterprise are installed with a bulk license and are intended for use in large numbers in the enterprise environment. However, they are not the only computers running Windows 7 that can be backed up to a network share.
C. Incorrect: Some features, such as booting from a VHD, require either Windows 7 Ultimate or Windows 7 Enterprise. However, the ability to back up to a network share is
not one of these features.
D. Correct: You can save backups to a network share on computers running Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Ultimate, and Windows 7 Enterprise.

Submit
78. You want to configure clients running Windows 7 Enterprise in a branch office to use BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode. A server running Windows Server 2008 R2 named branch-1.contoso.internal functions as the host on the LAN. Which of the following commands, issued from an elevated command prompt, should you use to configure the clients running Windows 7?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The command netsh branchcache set service mode=distributed configures Distributed Cache mode rather than Hosted Cache mode. The question specifies that the
clients use Hosted Cache mode.
B. Incorrect: The command netsh branchcache set service mode=local sets the client to use local caching only. The question specifies that the clients use Hosted Cache mode.
C. Incorrect: The command netsh branchcache set service mode=hostedserver clientauthentication=domain is used to confi gure the host server and cannot be used to configure a Hosted Cache mode client.
D. Correct: To configure a BranchCache client to use a particular server in Hosted Cache mode, issue the command netsh branchcache set service mode=hostedclient location=servername.
You must specify the name of the local server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that
functions as the BranchCache host when confi guring Hosted Cache mode.

Submit
79. When Windows 7 is configured according to its default settings, which of the following tasks can a standard user perform with respect to Windows Update?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Uninstalling installed updates requires elevated privileges and cannot be performed with a standard user account.
B. Correct: The default Windows 7 Windows Update settings allow standard users to install updates.
C. Incorrect: The default Windows 7 Windows Update settings do not allow standard users to change when updates are installed. It is necessary to use elevated privileges to
perform these tasks.
D. Incorrect: The default Windows 7 Windows Update settings do not allow standard users to change update download and installation behavior. It is necessary to use elevated
privileges to perform these tasks.
E. Incorrect: The default Windows 7 Windows Update settings do not allow standard users to hide updates. It is necessary to use elevated privileges to perform this task.

Submit
80. You suspect that a device listed under Non-Plug And Play Drivers in Device Manager is causing problems. How do you immediately stop the device to investigate?

Explanation

A. Correct: This stops the device driver and immediately disables the device.
B. Incorrect: This ensures the device is disabled the next time the computer restarts. You would likely do this if you discovered the device was giving problems. However, it does
not stop the device immediately to allow you to investigate.
C. Incorrect: The Disable control is available for PnP devices but not for devices listed under Non-Plug And Play Drivers. You should use the Stop control instead.
D. Incorrect: The Uninstall control is available for PnP devices but not for devices listed under Non-Plug And Play Drivers. In any case, you want to stop the driver, not
uninstall it.

Submit
81. What type of unicast IPv6 address would you typically use on the subnets of a private network to implement IPv6 connectivity over the subnet?

Explanation

A. Correct: Typically you would use a site-local address. If every device on the subnet had a global address, you could also use global addresses, but this option is not given in the question.
B. Incorrect: If you use link-local addresses, you need to specify their interface IDs. Also, link-local addresses are not dynamically registered in Windows DDNS. It is therefore
much easier to use site-local addresses and typically they are used for this purpose.
C. Incorrect: Only two special addresses exist, :: and ::1. Neither can implement IPv6 connectivity over a private network.
D. Incorrect: An anycast address is configured only on a router and cannot implement IPv6 connectivity over a private network. Also, it is not a unicast address.

Submit
82. Your organization has 50 computers running Windows Vista Enterprise and 40 computers running Windows 7 Professional. You want to stop users from accessing the Solitaire game application. Which of the following strategies should you pursue to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: AppLocker cannot be used to block the execution of applications on computers running Windows Vista or Windows 7 Professional.
B. Incorrect: AppLocker cannot be used to block the execution of applications on computers running Windows Vista or Windows 7 Professional.
C. Incorrect: AppLocker cannot be used to block the execution of applications on computers running Windows Vista or Windows 7 Professional.
D. Correct: Because you cannot use AppLocker to block the execution of applications on Windows Vista or Windows 7 Professional, you should use Software Restriction Policies to accomplish the same objective.

Submit
83. You want to user Windows PowerShell on a client running Windows 7 named Alpha to manage a client running Windows 7 named Beta. Which of the following steps do you need to take to do this?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You need to configure client Beta rather than client Alpha using the WinRM Quickconfig command.
B. Correct: You need to run the command WinRM Quickconfig on client Beta before you can manage it remotely from client Alpha using Windows PowerShell. This command
starts the WinRM service, configures a listener for the ports that send and receive WS-Management protocol messages, and configures firewall exceptions.
C. Incorrect: It is not necessary to create a firewall
rule on client Alpha.
D. Incorrect: Although it is necessary to create a fi rewall rule on client Beta, it is also necessary to configure a listener for WS-Management protocol messages and to start the WinRM service. All these tasks can be accomplished by running the WinRM quickconfig

Submit
84. A user on your company network creates a new file and works on it during the day. He saves the file but decides he no longer needs it and deletes it just before the office closes. Overnight, a file and folder backup takes place. The next morning, the user decides he needs the file after all. He calls you for help. What action can you take?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The file was created on the previous day and was deleted before the overnight backup occurred, so it was not backed up.
B. Incorrect: The Recycle Bin is not backed up during a file and folder backup.
C. Incorrect: The file was created during the previous day and deleted before it could be backed up. If there is a file of the same name in a previous backup, it will not be the same file.
D. Correct: The overnight backup makes no changes to the Recycle Bin. The file was deleted the previous evening, so it is in the Recycle Bin.

Submit
85. You have created an answer file called Unattend.xml in the C:\Textfi les\Answer folder. You want to apply it to an image mounted in the C:\Mount folder. What command would you use?

Explanation

. Incorrect: The mounted image is in C:\Mount, not C:\Textfiles\Answer. The answer file is in :\Textfiles\Answer, not C:\Mount.
B. Correct: This command applies the file Unattend.xml in the folder C:\Textfi les\Answer to an image mounted in the C:\Mount folder.
C. Incorrect: The DISM option that applies an answer file a mounted image is /apply-unattend, not /apply.
D. Incorrect: The DISM option that applies

Submit
86. You are configuring firewall rules on a client running Windows 7. You want to allow incoming traffic to the application named Application.exe, but only if it is authenticated. Which of the following steps should you perform to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Although you can create rules based on applications using Windows Firewall, you cannot use this tool to create rules that require that incoming connections be authenticated.
B. Correct: WFAS allows you to create detailed rules that include the ability to allow incoming traffic only if it is authenticated.
C. Incorrect: Credential Manager stores authentication credentials. It cannot be used to create firewall rules that require authentication.
D. Incorrect: Authorization Manager allows you to configure roles for the delegation of administrative privileges. You cannot use Authorization Manager to create firewall rules
that require authentication.

Submit
87. You need to manage a computer running Windows 7 from a computer running Windows XP with SP2 when no user is logged on to the computer running Windows 7. You want connections to be as secure as possible. Which of the following settings on the Remote tab of the System Properties dialog box should you configure?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not enable Remote Assistance. Remote Assistance requires that someone is logged on to the computer that you wish to manage remotely.
B. Incorrect: You should not enable the Remote Desktop: Don’t Allow Connections To This Computer option because that blocks the ability to make Remote Desktop connections.
C. Correct: You should enable the Remote Desktop: Allow Connections From Computer Running Any Version Of Remote Desktop setting because this allows you to connect to
a computer running Windows 7 from a computer running Windows XP with SP2.
D. Incorrect: You should not enable the Remote Desktop: Allow Connections Only From Computers With Network Level Authentication as clients running Windows XP with SP2 are unable to connect to clients running Windows 7 when this option is enabled. Windows XP requires SP3 and special configuration to use Network-Level Authentication.

Submit
88. Which of the following VPN types support the VPN Reconnect feature of Windows 7?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: PPTP VPNs do not support the VPN Reconnect feature in Windows 7.
B. Incorrect: L2TP/IPsec VPNs do not support the VPN Reconnect feature in Windows 7.
C. Incorrect: SSTP VPNs do not support the VPN Reconnect feature in Windows 7.
D. Correct: The IKEv2 VPN type is the only VPN type that supports the VPN Reconnect feature in Windows 7.

Submit
89. Clients running Windows 7 Enterprise on your employer’s production network are all configured to perform a file and folder backup to a second internal hard disk every Sunday at 7:00 P.M. Company policy dictates the same setting for each computer. This is to let Windows decide what is backed up. A user has created a folder on her computer called C:\Contracts. She wants to ensure that the folder and its contents are backed up. What do you ask her to do?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This is against company policy, which stipulates that Windows chooses the files and folders to back up. Also, there is no indication in the question that the user is a local administrator or backup operator on her computer, so she probably does not have the permissions required to change backup settings.
B. Incorrect: Changing the backup destination does not affect what fi les and folders are backed up. Also, the user probably does not have the appropriate permissions for
this task.
C. Correct: When Windows chooses what to back up, it always backs up the Documents library.
D. Incorrect: Performing an immediate backup does not affect what fi les and folders are backed up. Also, the user probably does not have the appropriate permissions to do this.

Submit
90. WDS creates install, boot, discover, and capture images. Which of these do you need to install on bootable removable media?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: WDS deploys install images across the network. You do not need to install them on removable bootable media.
B. Incorrect: When you boot a target computer from the network, WDS presents you with a boot menu on the target machine that enables you to boot from a boot image. This
is delivered over the network and you do not need to install this image from bootable removable media. Note that the choice specifies a standard boot image. Discover and
capture images are special types of boot image.
C. Correct: If your target computers are not PXE-compliant, they cannot boot from the network. Therefore, you need to boot them from a discover image on removable, bootable media.
D. Incorrect: If you want to capture the image of a reference computer, you boot it from a capture image. Capture images appear on the boot menu in the same way as standard boot images and you do not need to install them on bootable removable media.

Submit
91. Which of the following are required if WDS is to be installed and to deploy images? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: The WDS server role needs to be installed on a server in an AD DS domain.
B. Incorrect: WDS can work with MDT 2010 to implement LTI, but it does not require MDT 2010 to deploy images.
C. Incorrect: SCCM 2007 is required with SQL Server and MDT 2010 to implement ZTI. However, SCCM 2007 is not a WDS requirement.
D. Correct: WDS typically deploys to PXE-compliant target client computers that rely on DHCP for their IP configuration.
E. Correct: The WDS server role needs to be installed on a server in a network that contains at least one DNS server.

Submit
92. You are using Network Monitor to analyze traffi c on an IPv6 network. You want to examine the protocol that uses ICMPv6 messages to manage the interaction of neighboring nodes and resolves IPv6 addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. What protocol do you examine?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: ARP is a broadcast-based protocol used by IPv4 to resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses. It does not manage the interaction of neighboring nodes and resolve
IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses.
B. Incorrect: DNS is a service rather than a protocol. It resolves computer names to IP addresses. It does not manage the interaction of neighboring nodes and resolve IPv6
addresses to MAC addresses.
C. Incorrect: DHCPv6 assigns stateful IPv6 configurations. It does not manage the interaction of neighboring nodes and resolve IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses.
D. Correct: ND uses ICMPv6 messages to manage the interaction of neighboring nodes and resolve IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses.

Submit
93. You want to use BranchCache’s hosted cache mode in your organization’s branch offices. You have enabled BranchCache on your organization’s head office servers. Which of the following steps must you take to accomplish this goal? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: If you are going to use hosted cache mode, it is necessary to deploy at least one server running Windows Server 2008 R2 with the BranchCache feature enabled in each
branch office.
B. Correct: Windows 7 Enterprise and Ultimate editions support BranchCache. You must upgrade clients to one of these operating systems if they are going to utilize
BranchCache.
C. Incorrect: Windows 7 Professional does not support the BranchCache feature.
D. Incorrect: A Windows Server 2008 RODC is not necessary to support BranchCache.

Submit
94. You have 10 stand-alone laptop computers running Windows 7 Professional. You want to configure these computers so that they can use DirectAccess to access the internal network when users connect to remote networks. Your internal network has a Windows Server 2008 R2 functional level domain. Which of the following steps must you take before you can accomplish this goal?   (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: Only Windows 7 Ultimate and Enterprise editions support the DirectAccess feature.
B. Correct: Only domain-joined clients running Windows 7 are able to use DirectAccess.
C. Incorrect: AppLocker policies control which applications can execute on a client running Windows 7. AppLocker policies do not relate to DirectAccess.
D. Incorrect: BranchCache policies allow clients in branch offi ces to cache WAN content locally. BranchCache policies do not relate to DirectAccess.

Submit
95. Which of the following tools can you use to determine the identification string assigned to a BitLocker-protected volume?

Explanation

A. Correct: You can use the Manage-bde.exe command-line utility to determine the identification string assigned to a BitLocker-protected volume.
B. Incorrect: The Cipher.exe utility allows you to manage EFS rather than BitLocker encryption. You cannot use Cipher.exe to determine the identification string associated
with a BitLocker-protected volume.
C. Incorrect: The Bcdedit.exe utility allows you to manage boot confi guration. You cannot use Bcdedit.exe to determine the identification string associated with a BitLocker-protected volume.
D. Incorrect: The Sigverif.exe utility allows you to verify the digital signatures of files. You cannot use Sigverif.exe to determine the identification string associated with a BitLocker-protected volume.

Submit
96. You have created a bootable DVD-ROM containing a Windows PE image, the ImageX tool, and a Windows 7 Ultimate Edition WIM image that you have captured from a workstation on your SOHO network. You have used ImageX to install the image on another computer. What tool do you use to configure that computer to boot from the image?

Explanation

A. Correct: To make the image bootable, you use BCDboot from Windows PE to initialize the BCD store and copy boot environment fi les to the system partition. On restart, the
target computer boots into Windows 7 Ultimate.
B. Incorrect: DISM enables you to manage and manipulate a WIM image. It does not make an image bootable when you have installed it on a target computer.
C. Incorrect: You use BCDEdit to make media such as VHD and USB flash memory bootable. However, it does not make an image bootable when you have installed it on a target
computer.
D. Incorrect: You used ImageX to create the WIM image on the source computer and install it on the target computer. However, ImageX cannot make the installed image bootable.

Submit
97. You are analyzing the configuration of an IPv6 network. Which of the following addresses can be used across the IPv6 Internet and is the equivalent of an IPv4 unicast public address?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The address fec0:0:0:0:fffe::1 is a site-local unicast IPv6 address that identifies a node in a site or intranet. This type of address is the equivalent of an IPv6 private address (for example, 10.0.0.1), and is not globally routable and reachable on the IPv6 Internet.
B. Correct: The address 21cd:53::3ad:3f:af37:8d62 is a global unicast address. This type of address is the IPv6 equivalent of an IPv4 public unicast addresses and is globally routable and reachable on the IPv6 Internet.
C. Incorrect: The address fe80:d1ff:d166:7888:2fd6 is a link-local unicast IPv6 address and is autoconfigured on a local subnet. It is the equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address
(for example, 169.254.10.123), and it is not globally routable or reachable on the IPv6 Internet.
D. Incorrect: The loopback address ::1 identifies a loopback interface and is equivalent to the IPv4 loopback address 127.0.0.1. It is not globally routable or reachable on the IPv6 Internet.

Submit
98. Which of the following policies should you configure to allow a computer with out a TPM chip that is running Windows 7 Enterprise to utilize BitLocker to protect its hard disk drive?

Explanation

A. Correct: By configuring the Require Additional Authentication At Startup policy, it is possible to disable the BitLocker requirement that a computer have a compatible TPM chip.
B. Incorrect: The Allow Enhanced PINs for Startup policy allows you to use an enhanced PIN with startup. Configuring this policy does not allow you to bypass the BitLocker requirement for a TPM chip.
C. Incorrect: The Configure TPM Platform Validation Profile policy configures how the TPM chip secures the BitLocker encryption key. Configuring this policy does not allow you to bypass the BitLocker requirement requirement for a TPM chip.
D. Incorrect: The Configure Minimum PIN Length For Startup policy allows you to configurea minimum PIN length for the startup PIN. Confi guring this policy does not allow you to bypass the BitLocker requirement for a TPM chip.nt for a TPM chip.

Submit
99. You want to ensure that third-party Web sites that provide content to a variety of sites that you visit are not able to track you across those sites during a browsing session. Which of the following actions should you take, after starting Internet Explorer, to ensure that this does not occur?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Starting an InPrivate Browsing session does not stop third-party Web sites from tracking you if they provide content to multiple sites that you visit. InPrivate
Browsing sessions still accept cookies and transmit data.
B. Correct: Enabling InPrivate Filtering allows Internet Explorer to locate and block content from third-party Web sites that appear across multiple separate sites during a browsing session.
C. Incorrect: Disabling the Pop-Up Blocker does not block third-party Web sites that provide content to a number of sites that you visit from tracking your browsing session
across those sites. Disabling the Pop-Up Blocker means that you are presented with pop-up Web pages that normally would be blocked.
D. Incorrect: You should not disable SmartScreen Filter. SmartScreen Filter protects you from phishing attacks. If you disable SmartScreen Filter, Internet Explorer does not warn you when you visit a Web site that contains malicious software or is suspected of being involved in phishing.

Submit
100. Which tool provided by Windows 7 helps you determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk, including which files and folders are being accessed?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Process Explorer helps you determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk, including which files and folders are being accessed. However it is a downloadable tool and is not provided by Windows 7.
B. Correct: The Resource Monitor tool, provided as part of Windows 7, helps you determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk, including which files and folders are being accessed.
C. Incorrect: Task Manager tells you what applications, services, and processes are running on your computer. It gives system details, such as the numbers of handles and threads in use, and it provides a snapshot of processor usage. However, it does not help you determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk.
D. Incorrect: The Windows Experience Index measures the ability of your computer to run resource-intensive applications, such as games and business graphics. It does not help you determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk.

Submit
101. Which of the following utilities can you use to transfer user encryption certificates from a computer running Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Professional? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: File Settings and Transfer Wizard is a Windows XP utility; it cannot be used to migrate data to Windows 7.
B. Correct: USMT can be used to transfer user encryption certifi cates from a computer running Windows XP Professional to a computer running Windows 7 Professional.
C. Correct: Windows Easy Transfer can be used to transfer user encryption certifi cates from a computer running Windows XP Professional to a computer running Windows 7
Professional.
D. Incorrect: Robocopy.exe cannot be used to transfer user encryption certificates from a computer running Windows XP Professional to a computer running Windows 7 Professional.

Submit
102. You want to prevent Windows 7 from searching Windows Update for a device driver when no driver is available in the device driver store. How do you do this?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This prevents automatic installation of drivers downloaded from Windows Update but does not remove the Web site from the search path.
B. Correct: This prevents Windows 7 from searching for device drivers in Windows Update.
C. Incorrect: The DevicePath registry entry does not list the Windows Update Web site specifically.
D. Incorrect: This installs drivers from Windows Update if Windows 7 judges they are the best drivers based on inbuilt criteria. It does not prevent Windows 7 from searching for
device drivers in Windows Update.

Submit
103. You want to configure clients running Windows 7 Enterprise in a branch office to use BranchCache only if the round-trip network latency when attempting to access files hosted over the WAN exceeds 120 ms. Which of the following policies should you configure to accomplish your goal?

Explanation

A. Correct: The Configure BranchCache For Network Files policy allows you to set the latency value above which network files are cached by client computers in the branch office.
B. Incorrect: The Set Percentage Of Disk Space Used For Client Computer Cache policy configures the cache size, it cannot be used to configure latency settings.
C. Incorrect: Configuring the Set BranchCache Distributed Cache Mode policy sets the client to use Distributed Cache Mode. You cannot configure latency settings using this policy.
D. Incorrect: Configuring the Set BranchCache Hosted Cache Mode policy sets the client to use Hosted Cache Mode. You cannot configure latency settings using this policy.

Submit
104. A number of processor-intensive applications have been performing slowly on your computer. As a result, you add a second processor. This does not solve your problem, however, and you examine processor usage with Task Manager and Performance Monitor. You deduce that several key processes are using only the original processor. How do you ensure that these processes use whatever processor is available?

Explanation

A. Correct: Process affinity determines whether a process uses a specified processor or whether it can use whatever processor is available. From the symptoms described,
a number of significant processes are tied to the original processor and need to be configured so they can use the second processor. You configure process affinity in Task
Manager.
B. Incorrect: Process priority determines how fast a process works and what access it has to resources compared to other processes. It does not determine which processor or
processors that it can use.
C. Incorrect: You can use the Performance Options tool to adjust for best performance of programs or background services. In a client computer you would normally specify
the best performance of programs. This does not affect which processor that running processes can use.
D. Incorrect: Virtual memory settings specify the amount of disk space that can be used as paged memory. This does not affect which processor that running processes can use.

Submit
105. You have created the statically configured wired subnet 10.0.10.128/25. Currently the only device on the subnet is a router with the IPv4 address 10.0.10.129. You plug a computer into an Ethernet port on the subnet. What command configures the computer correctly on the subnet?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This sets a /24 subnet mask. The question specifies a /25 subnet mask (255.255.255.128).
B. Correct: This confi gures a static IPv4 address 10.0.10.162 on the 10.0.10.128/25 subnet.
C. Incorrect: This specifi es dynamic configuration.
D. Incorrect: The 10.0.10.128/25 subnet has an IPv4 address range 10.0.10.129 through 10.0.10.254. The IPv4 address 10.0.10.16 is not on this subnet.

Submit
106. Kim Akers, who uses the Kim_Akers user account, has been using a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise named laptop-122 with DirectAccess to access the internal corporate network when working remotely. Laptop-122 is a member of the Direct_Access domain security group. Laptop-122 has developed a fault and Kim has been given Laptop-123, which also runs Windows 7 Enterprise and is joined to the ontoso.internal domain. When Kim is working remotely, she is unable to connect to the internal network. Which of the following steps should you take to resolve this problem?

Explanation

A. Correct: DirectAccess configures special GPOs that contain the DirectAccess configuration settings. These GPOs are applied to specific security groups that contain
computer accounts. A computer must be a member of these specific security groups for it to be configured to use DirectAccess.
B. Incorrect: DirectAccess configuration occurs through the application of Group Policy based on computer account domain group membership. It does not rely on local group
membership.
C. Incorrect: The computer account must be a member of the domain security group, not the user account.
D. Incorrect: The computer account must be a member of the domain security group, not a user account that is a member of a local group.

Submit
107. Which Windows Performance Analysis tool captures user and kernel traces and can merge them to form a combined trace?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Performance Analyzer tool (Xperfview.exe) can display captured traces. It cannot capture images.
B. Incorrect: The On/Off Transition Trace Capture tool (Xbootmgr.exe) collects information during the on/off transition phases of Windows 7. It does not capture user and kernel traces, and it does not merge traces.
C. Correct: The Trace Capture, Processing, and Command-Line Analysis tool (Xperf.exe) captures user and kernel traces and can merge them to form a combined trace.
D. Incorrect: Visual Trace Analysis is another name for the Performance Analyzer tool (Xperfview.exe). It displays captured images, but it does not capture images.

Submit
108. You are creating an unattend answer file for automatic Windows 7 installation. What can you use to do this?
(Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: The Windows SIM tool in Windows AIK automates the creation of an unattend answer fi le. In the Windows SIM Answer File pane, under Settings, you can select the
appropriate setting and enter the required value in the right column.
B. Incorrect: DISM applies updates, drivers, and language packs to a Windows image. You cannot use it to create an answer file.
C. Incorrect: The Deployment Workbench tool lets you access MDT 2010 documentation, gives you a checklist of tasks you need to perform before you can deploy an operating system, enables you to create and configure a task sequence, and lets you view deployment points and create a deployment share. However, you cannot use it to create an answer file.
D. Incorrect: Sysprep.exe prepares a computer for image deployment. You can use and answer file to automate the Sysprep process, but you cannot use Sysprep.exe to create an
answer file.
E. Correct: Although Windows SIM automates the process, some experienced administrators prefer to generate an unattend answer file directly by using a text editor
such as Microsoft Notepad.

Submit
109. Your organization has a mix of computers running Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 7 Professional. Each group of computers is located in a separate organizational unit (OU) in your Windows Server 2008 R2 Active Directory Domain Services environment. You have configured AppLocker policies to block application execution to the OU hosting the Windows 7 Ultimate computer accounts. You have configured Software Restriction Policy rules and applied them to the OU hosting the Windows 7 Professional accounts. The Software Restriction Policy rules block the required applications. The applications blocked by the AppLocker policies function normally that is, they are not blocked. Which of the following steps should you take to ensure that the AppLocker policies function properly?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure Group Policy to set the Application Management service to start automatically. The Application Management service is used to process
installation, removal, and enumeration requests for software deployed through Group Policy. The service that you want to configure to start automatically is the Application Identity service.
B. Incorrect: As the Software Restriction Policies are functioning properly, you do not need to modify the settings of services related to the computers running Windows 7 Professional.
C. Correct: For AppLocker policies to function properly, you need to have the Application Identity service functioning. The default setting on Windows 7 is to have this service disabled. Through Group Policy, you can force this service to start automatically, which allows AppLocker policies to be enforced.
D. Incorrect: Because the Software Restriction Policies are functioning properly, you do not need to modify the settings of services related to the computers running Windows 7 Professional.

Submit
110. Even though you have configured scheduled updates to occur during the lunch hour, you have found that a significant percentage of the computers are not turned on at this time. You want to ensure that any updates scheduled for installation install soon after these computers start up again. Which of the following policies should you configure to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the Re-Prompt For Restart With Scheduled Installations policy because it sets the amount of time that a user can postpone a scheduled restart. It does not ensure that updates scheduled for installation when the computer was switched off are installed the next time the computer is switched on.
B. Incorrect: You should not configure the Delay Restart For Scheduled Installations policy because it determines how long Windows waits before automatically restarting after
a scheduled installation. It does not ensure that updates scheduled for installation when the computer was switched off are installed the next time the computer is switched on.
C. Correct: You should configure the Reschedule Automatic Updates Scheduled Installations policy because it allows you to confi gure a computer that is switched off during the
scheduled update period to install updates after it is turned on.
D. Incorrect: You should not confi gure the No Auto-Restart With Logged On Users For Scheduled Automatic Updates Installation policy because it allows a user to remain
logged on when installed updates require a restart. It does not ensure that updates scheduled for installation when the computer was switched off are installed the next time the computer is switched on.

Submit
111. Your organization has recently acquired several subsidiaries. Each subsidiary has their own separate Internet site and these sites have unique fully qualified domain names (FQDNs). All clients use Windows 7 Enterprise with the default settings. Several subsidiary intranet Web sites do not display properly in Internet Explorer on Windows 7, but they display without problems in Internet Explorer on clients running Windows XP and Windows Vista. All clients running Windows 7 are members of the same AD DS domain. Which of the following configuration changes should you make to Group Policy to resolve this problem?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The problem is not related to InPrivate Browsing; the problem is related to Compatibility View as indicated by the statement in the question that the Web sites display without problems on Windows XP and Vista clients running Internet Explorer. Although Windows XP and Vista clients can run Internet Explorer 8, this hint suggests that compatibility is the issue.
B. Incorrect: The problem is not related to InPrivate Filtering; the problem is related to Compatibility View as indicated by the statement in the question that the Web sites display without problems on Windows XP and Vista clients running Internet Explorer. Although Windows XP and Vista clients can run Internet Explorer 8, this hint suggests that compatibility is the issue.
C. Incorrect: The question states that the Web sites display without problems on Windows XP and Vista clients running Internet Explorer. Although Windows XP and Vista clients can run Internet Explorer 8, this hint suggests that compatibility is the issue. Disabling Compatibility View does not resolve the problem.
D. Correct: You should confi gure the list of intranet sites that do not display properly through the Use Policy List Of Internet Explorer 7 Sites policy. Internet Explorer displays these sites using Compatibility View.

Submit
112. You want Windows 7 to send you a message when the firewall blocks a new program when you are connected to your organization’s domain network. Windows 7 should not send you a message when the firewall blocks a new program when you are connected to a public network. Which of the following settings should you configure? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You should configure Windows Firewall to notify you when it blocks a program in the Home Or Work (Private) Network Location Settings area. This ensures that you receive a message when a new program is blocked when connected to this network profile.
B. Incorrect: You should not disable the setting related to receiving a message when a new program is blocked in the Home Or Work (Private) Network Location Settings area
because this means that you do not receive a message when a program is blocked.
C. Incorrect: You should not enable the setting related to receiving a message when a new program is blocked in the Public Network Location Settings area because this notifies you when a new program is blocked. The question text states that you should not be notified when this occurs.
D. Incorrect: You should disable the setting related to receiving a message when a new program is blocked in the Public Network Location Settings area because this ensures
that you are not notified when a program is blocked.

Submit
113. You are configuring a client running Windows 7 named Canberra to retrieve events from a computer running Windows 7 named Aberdeen. Both computers are on the same workgroup. Which of the following commands would you run on the collector computer to configure the Event Collector service?

Explanation

A. Correct: You can use the Wecutil utility to configure the Event Collector service.
B. Incorrect: The Winrm command configures WinRM. Typically, you run it on a source computer. You can run it on the collector computer if you are configuring a source-initiated conscription, but this is not relevant to this scenario because Canberra is retrieving events from Aberdeen. In any case, this command does not configure the Event Collector service.
C. Incorrect: The Winrm command configures WinRM. Here, you are running it in quiet mode. Whether you use the -q switch or not, the command does not configure the Event Collector service.
D. Incorrect: This command starts the Group Policy MMC snap-in. You can use Group Policy to add source computers to a source-initiated conscription, but this is not relevant
to this scenario. In any case, the command does not configure the Event Collector service.

Submit
114. You want to use Performance Monitor to display performance data captured in a DCS. You open the tool and access the Performance Monitor Properties dialog box. On which tab can you choose whether to display current activity in real time or log files that you have saved using a DCS?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: On the General tab, you can specify how frequently the graph updates and how much data is displayed in the graph before Performance Monitor begins overwriting
the graph on the left portion of the chart. You can also specify whether Legend, Value Bar, and Toolbar are displayed and whether the Report and Histogram views show
Default, Maximum, Minimum, Average, or Current values. You cannot choose whether to display current activity in real time or show log files saved using a DCS.
B. Correct: On the Source tab, you can choose whether to display current activity in real time or log fi les saved using a DCS. If you display a log file, you can use this tab to control the time range that is displayed in the Performance Monitor window.
C. Incorrect: You can use the Data tab to configure the display of specific counters. In the Counters list, you can select the counter that you want to configure and adjust Color, Width, and Style. You can increase or decrease the Scale value. You cannot choose whether to display current activity in real time or log files saved using a DCS.
D. Incorrect: You can use the Graph tab to select the scroll style and the type of graph to display. You cannot choose whether to display current activity in real time or log files saved using a DCS.
E. Incorrect: If you keep multiple Performance Monitor windows open simultaneously you can use the Appearance tab to change the color of the background or other elements. This makes it easier to distinguish between the windows. You cannot choose whether to display current activity in real time or log files saved using a DCS.

Submit
115. In which of the following scenarios must you perform a migration rather than an upgrade? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: It is not possible to perform a direct upgrade from Windows XP to Windows 7, so a migration is necessary.
B. Correct: It is not possible to perform a direct upgrade between an x86 version of Vista and an x64 version of Windows 7.
C. Incorrect: You can perform a direct upgrade from Windows Vista Enterprise (x64) to Windows 7 Enterprise (x64).
D. Correct: It is not possible to upgrade from an (x64) version of Windows Vista to an (x86) version of Windows 7.

Submit
116. You have copied the system image Install.wim file from your Windows 7 installation media to the folder C:\Images. You have mounted the image with index value 5 (Windows 7 Ultimate) to the folder D:\Mount. You want to add third-party drivers that you have stored in C:\Drivers\Printer and C:\Drivers\Scanner to the mounted image. Which of the following DISM commands would you use? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The DISM /image option specifies the folder that contains the mounted 0image, not the source image.
B. Correct: The /recurse parameter causes all the drivers in the folder C:\drivers and its subfolders to be added to the mounted image.
C. Incorrect: The DISM /image option specifi es the folder that contains the mounted image, not the source image.
D. Correct: This command would work, although Answer B would be the preferred solution. Typically, you would use the /driver parameter multiple times if the drivers were not in the same fi le structure (for example, C:\Printerdriver and C:\Scannerdriver).

Submit
117. Which of the following reasons might explain why a helper is unable to connect to a Remote Assistance session when two stand-alone clients running Windows 7 are located on the same LAN?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The WinRM service is required for remote use of Windows PowerShell and Remote Shell. The WinRM service is not required for Remote Assistance.
B. Incorrect: A client does not have to be configured to accept Remote Desktop sessions to use Remote Assistance, so this setting does not explain why the connection cannot be
made. Clients running Windows 7 always support Network Level Authentication.
C. Incorrect: The helper does not need to log on to the target computer when participating in a Remote Assistance session, so it does not matter what groups her user account is a member of. A Remote Assistance session allows the helper to see the desktop of the currently logged-on user, so everything that is done within that session is done with the currently logged-on user’s privileges.
D. Correct: If the Remote Assistance panel is closed, it stops any possible Remote Assistance connection.

Submit
118. Which of the following Advanced Sharing Settings options should you configure to ensure that shared resources on a client running Windows 7 are visible to all other computers in the HomeGroup?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Enabling this option does not ensure that shared resources are visible to other computers in the HomeGroup. This option allows HomeGroup readers to read and write files in the public folder.
B. Incorrect: Enabling this option does not ensure that shared resources are visible to other computers in the HomeGroup. This option controls the encryption level of file sharing connections.
C. Incorrect: Password Protected Sharing restricts access to shared resources hosted on the client. Only users with local accounts on the client are able to access shared resources when Password Protected Sharing is enabled. Enabling this option does not ensure that shared resources are visible to other computers in the HomeGroup.
D. Correct: Network Discovery allows the client to find other computers on the network. It also allows other computers on the network to view resources shared by the client.

Submit
119. You are investigating instability and boot problems on a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. You boot using the Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced) option and perform a system restore. This does not solve your problems, and you want to undo the system restore. Can you do this, and what is the reason for your answer?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You can undo a system restore if you perform it after booting using Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced). You cannot undo a system restore if you initiate
it from the System Recovery tools.
B. Incorrect: You can undo a system restore that you perform after either booting normally or booting using Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced).
C. Incorrect: You can undo the system restore in this instance because you performed it after booting using Last Known Good Confi guration (Advanced). It is incorrect to say that you can always undo a system restore no matter how you booted the computer or how you initiated the restore.
D. Correct: If you perform a system restore after either booting normally or booting using Last Known Good Confi guration (Advanced), this creates a restore point that enables you to undo the system restore.

Submit
120. An employee who works from home telephones your help desk. A virus attack has deleted his computer’s single internal hard disk. He carried out a System Image backup on his computer three months ago and automatically backs up his personal files every night. He uses an external USB hard drive formatted with the NTFS file system to hold his backups. All his personal files are in his Documents library. What do you advise? (Choose all that apply; the answers form a complete solution.) Carry out a System Image restore.

Explanation

A. Correct: A System Image restore restores the computer to the way it was three months ago.
B. Incorrect: All restore points were deleted when the hard disk was wiped, so a system restore would not help. The user needs to reinstall any software he installed in the last three months, install (or allow Windows Update to install) three months of updates, and ensure that his virus and spyware defi nitions are up to date, but these options were not given in the question.
C. Incorrect: All shadow copies were deleted when the hard disk was wiped. Also, a Documents library is a virtual folder, not a physical folder.
D. Correct: A System Image restore ensures that the user has a working computer. However, the contents of his Documents library is three months out of date. He needs to restore his Documents library from backup.

Submit
121. A user telephones your help desk. Her Favorites list is corrupt and she is having problems accessing the Web sites she visits regularly. All the computers in your organization are backed up every night with a file and folder backup that uses default settings. A restore point was created on all the company’s client computers 24 hours ago because a new device driver was installed. You performed a System Image backup on all the computers in your organization three weeks ago. The user is not computer-literate and you need to fix the problem for her. What is the most efficient way to do so?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: A system restore does not restore a corrupted Favorites folder.
B. Incorrect: A System Image restore restores the computer to the way it was three weeks ago. This restores the user’s Favorites folder, but it would not include any Web sites
added in the last three weeks. All the user’s other files will also be three weeks old and would need to be restored from backup or previous versions.
C. Correct: This restores the user’s Favorites folder to the way it was 24 hours ago. Any Web sites added since can be added again manually.
D. Incorrect: The browser history tells you the sites that the user browsed to recently. This is not the same as the contents of the Favorites folder.

Submit
122. You want to examine the contents of both the IPv4 and the IPv6 route table. What command do you use? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The command netsh interface ipv4 show route shows route table entries, but it does not display IPv6 routes.
B. Incorrect: The command tracert –d traces the route of an IP packet through an internetwork. It lists the path the packet took and the delays encountered at each hop.
The –d flag prevents the tool from resolving IPv4 addresses to host names. The command does not display a route table.
C. Correct: The command route print displays both the IPv4 and IPv6 route tables. D. Correct: The command netstat –r displays the same output as the route print command.
E. Incorrect: The command netstat –a displays all active connections and the TCP and UDP ports on which the computer is listening. It does not display a route table.

Submit
123. You want users that are members of the local Administrators group to be prompted for credentials when performing a task that requires elevation, but you do not want them to have to respond to this prompt on the Secure Desktop. You have configured the User Account Control: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Administrators In Admin Approval mode to Prompt for Credentials. Users that are members of the local administrators group are being forced onto the Secure Desktop during the UAC process. Which of the following policy settings should you configure to resolve this problem?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the UAC: Admin Approval Mode For The Built-In Administrator account. This policy relates to how UAC works for the built-in administrator account. To accomplish your goal, you need to disable the switch to Secure Desktop policy.
B. Incorrect: You should not configure the UAC: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Administrators In Admin Approval Mode policy. This policy is already properly configured.
To accomplish your goal, you need to disable the switch to Secure Desktop policy.
C. Correct: You need to disable the UAC: Switch To The Secure Desktop When Prompting For Elevation. If this policy is enabled, UAC prompts always appear on the SecureDesktop. If this policy is disabled, whether a UAC prompt appears on the Secure Desktop depends on the setting in the UAC: Behavior of the elevation prompt for administrators in
Admin Approval Mode policy.
D. Incorrect: You should not configure the UAC: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Standard Users policy. This policy relates to standard users and does nothing to disable
Secure Desktop for administrators. To accomplish your goal, you need to disable the switch to Secure Desktop policy.

Submit
124. You have connected to a free Wi-Fi access point at the local library with your computer running Windows 7 Professional. You want to connect to the server remote-desktop. contoso.internal so that you can run some special line-of-business applications. Your organization has a remote desktop gateway server at the address rdgateway.contoso.com. There are currently no VPN connections configured on your computer. How can you connect to remote-desktop.contoso.internal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: DirectAccess is not available on computers running Windows 7 Professional. If DirectAccess were available, this solution would work.
B. Incorrect: You should not configure Remote Desktop Connection to use the Remote Desktop Gateway at remote-desktop.contoso.internal and then connect to rdgateway.
contoso.com as the remote desktop gateway is located at rdgateway.contoso.com. In this answer, the positions of the RD gateway server and the remote desktop services server
are switched.
C. Correct: You should configure Remote Desktop Connection to use the Remote Desktop Gateway at rdgateway.contoso.com and then connect to remote-desktop.contoso.internal.
D. Incorrect: DirectAccess is not available on computers running Windows 7 Professional. If it were, you would want to connect to remote-desktop.contoso.internal rather than to
the Remote Desktop Gateway server.

Submit
125. You are deciding on which storage devices you want to configure system protection. System protection is enabled by default on your C: drive, which holds your system files. No other storage device on your computer has system protection enabled. On which of the following storage devices can you enable system protection? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You can enable system protection on internal hard disks, which are typically formatted with NTFS.
B. Incorrect: You can enable system protection on external hard disks, but only if they are formatted with NTFS.
C. Incorrect: You cannot enable system protection on USB flash drives.
D. Incorrect: You cannot enable system protection on optical drives.
E. Correct: System protection can be enabled on mounted VHDs.

Submit
126. A user without administrator privileges attaches a device to a computer running Windows 7. Which of the following needs to be true for the device to be installed? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: The device must be signed with a valid digital certificate that is recognized by Windows 7 and is in the Trusted Publishers store. Otherwise, administrator privileges are required to install the device.
B. Incorrect: Digital certificates are stored in the Trusted Publisher store, not device drivers.
C. Correct: The device driver must be stored in the device driver store. Otherwise, administrator privileges are required to copy the driver to that store.
D. Incorrect: The device does not need to connect through a USB port. It could, for example, be a PS/2 keyboard.
E. Incorrect: Although Microsoft signs many drivers, a Microsoft signature is not essential. The digital certificate needs to be from a trusted CA. For example, in the domain environment, it could be a self-signed certificate.

Submit
127. You want ordinary users to install a device. The device driver has a valid digital signature that uses a certificate that is in the Trusted Publishers store. How do you ensure that non-administrators can install the device? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of the solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: This permits non-administrators to install any device in the device setup class,provided that the device driver is in the driver store.
B. Incorrect: This instructs Windows 7 to search for a device driver in any folder and subfolder on the C: drive. However, administrator privileges are required to copy the
driver to the driver store and install it.
C. Incorrect: The Trusted Publisher store holds digital certifi cates that authenticate driver signatures. It does not hold device drivers.
D. Correct: When a driver is staged, it is placed in the device driver store and non-administrators can install the device, provided they have permission to install devices
in the appropriate device setup class.

Submit
128. You work as a consultant for a small business that has a Windows Server 2008 network infrastructure. Each person that works at this business has a laptop computer running Windows 7 Professional. Several of the employees regularly stay at small motels around the country, and some have complained that they are unable to establish VPN connections to the office even though they are able to browse the Web using the motel Internet connection. Which of the following VPN protocols should you configure to resolve this problem?

Explanation

A. Correct: SSTP VPN connections work using the same ports as secure Web browsing connections. This allows users who can browse the Web using a motel Internet connection to connect through VPN.
B. Incorrect: IKEv2 uses UDP port 500, which is likely to be blocked by firewalls that block other forms of traffic except common protocols used by Web browsers.
C. Incorrect: PPTP uses port 1723, which is likely to be blocked by fi rewalls that block other forms of traffic except common protocols used by Web browsers.
D. Incorrect: L2TP/IPsec uses UDP port 1701, which is likely to be blocked by firewalls that block other forms of traffic except common protocols used by Web browsers.

Submit
129. Developers at your organization have come up with a custom blogging tool and accelerator that allows blogs to be posted directly to the corporate intranet. You want users to be able to highlight interesting text that they find on Web pages and blog it directly to the intranet server. You want to ensure that users do not accidentally blog using the default Blog With Windows Live accelerator. Which of the following steps should you take on each computer to accomplish this goal? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: To ensure that users do not accidentally blog using the default Blog With Windows Live accelerator, you should disable it.
B. Correct: To ensure that users are able to use the custom blog accelerator, it is necessary to install the accelerator.
C. Incorrect: You should not set the Blog With Windows Live accelerator as the default Blog accelerator for Internet Explorer. Because you do not want users to use this accelerator accidentally, you should disable it.
D. Incorrect: You should not disable the custom blog accelerator because you want users to use this accelerator to blog to the intranet site.

Submit
130. You want to deploy a WIM image file captured from a reference computer running Windows 7. You need to specify the source directory in which the WIM file resides, specify whether Setup or Sysprep files are required, and then move the file to the distribution share. What tool lets you do this?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: When you boot a reference client computer from a WDS capture image, the Windows Deployment Services Image Capture Wizard enables you to capture a system
image from that computer and export it to the WDS server. It does not directly specify the source directory in which the WIM file resides, specify whether setup or Sysprep files
are required, or move the file to the distribution share.
B. Incorrect: The SCCM 2007 Task Sequence Editor creates and modifi es task sequences. In the New Task Sequence Wizard, you can select Install An Existing Image, Build A
Reference Operating System Image, or Create A New Custom Task Sequence. However the wizard creates task sequences. It does not directly specify the source directory in
which the WIM file resides, specify whether setup or Sysprep files are required, or move the file to the distribution share.
C. Incorrect: You access the Create Distribution Share Wizard from the MDT 2010 Deployment Workbench console. This wizard lets you create a distribution share that will hold the WIM file, but it does not specify the source directory in which the WIM file resides, specify whether setup or Sysprep files are required, or move the file to the distribution share.
D. Correct: You access the New OS Wizard from the MDT 2010 Deployment Workbench console. This wizard lets you specify the source directory in which the WIM file resides,
specify whether setup or Sysprep fi les are required, and then move the fi le to the distribution share.

Submit
131. Which of the following methods can you use to display the properties of a LAN connection? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: This accesses the Local Area Network (LAN Settings) dialog box. You can select automatic configuration, specify an automatic confi guration script, or specify a proxy server. The dialog box does not display connection properties.
B. Correct: This procedure accesses the Local Area Connections Properties dialog box.
C. Correct: This is an alternative method of accessing the Local Area Connections Properties dialog box.
D. Correct: Double-clicking the LAN connection opens the Local Area Connection Status dialog box. Clicking Properties accesses the Local Area Connections Properties
dialog box.

Submit
132. Which of the following Windows PowerShell commands can you issue on a client running Windows 7 named Canberra to get a list of processes, including CPU and memory usage, on a client running Windows 7 named Aberdeen?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Windows PowerShell command icm Canberra {Get-Process} displays process information from computer Canberra, not computer Aberdeen.
B. Correct: The Windows PowerShell command icm Aberdeen {Get-Process} opens a remote Windows PowerShell session to computer Aberdeen and runs the Get-Process cmdlet, which displays process information, including listing data about CPU and memory usage.
C. Incorrect: You cannot use WinRS to invoke a Windows PowerShell cmdlet. You must use Windows PowerShell with the syntax icm remotehost {PowerShell Cmdlet} to use Windows
PowerShell remotely.
D. Incorrect: You cannot use WinRS to invoke a Windows PowerShell cmdlet. You must use Windows PowerShell with the syntax icm remotehost {PowerShell Cmdlet} to use Windows
PowerShell remotely. In this example, WinRS targets computer Canberra rather than computer Aberdeen.

Submit
133. You want to ensure that users are forcibly logged off from their computers running Windows 7 if they remove their smart cards. Which of the following policies and settings should you configure to accomplish this goal? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not configure the Interactive Logon: Smart Card Removal Behavior Properties: No Action policy because this allows users to remove their smart cards but still remain logged on.
B. Incorrect: You should not configure the Interactive Logon: Smart Card Removal Behavior Properties: Lock Workstation because this locks the workstation rather than forcibly logging off the user that removed the smart card.
C. Correct: You should configure the Interactive Logon: Smart Card Removal Behavior Properties: Force Logoff policy setting because you want users logged off when they
remove their smart cards.
D. Correct: You should configure the Interactive Logon: Require Smart Card: Enabled policy because this requires users to log on using a smart card.

Submit
134. You manage 30 separate clients running Windows 7 in an organization that does not use a WSUS server. All clients are members of a Windows Server 2008 Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. Which of the following tools can you use to determine if a particular software update is missing from these computers?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Microsoft Update does not provide centralized reports for organizations telling them which clients in the organization are missing specific updates. Microsoft Update
serves as the source for updates in organizations that do not use solutions like WSUS, System Center Essentials 2007, and SCCM 2007.
B. Incorrect: Because a WSUS server is not deployed in the organization, you cannot use a WSUS server to determine if updates are missing.
C. Incorrect: You cannot use the Group Policy Management Console to determine whether updates are missing. The Group Policy Management Console is used to manage Group
Policy in a domain environment.
D. Correct: You can use the MBSA to scan computers that you have administrative privileges to as a way of determining if they are missing software updates.

Submit
135. You have just discovered that an update rated as Important and published through Windows Update last week causes a conflict with a custom software package that is critical to your organization’s business process when installed on clients running Windows 7. This conflict stops the custom software package from running. You have talked to the custom software package’s vendor and you have been assured that it will have a fix ready within two months. All clients running Windows 7 are configured with the default Windows Update settings. What steps should you take to allow the custom software package to run while also ensuring that normal users do not install the update at any time before the fix from the vendor becomes available but do not miss out on other important updates published through Windows Update? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not change the update settings. Changing the update settings to stop updates being installed does not ensure that other important updates published through Windows Update are deployed to clients running Windows 7.
B. Correct: You should uninstall the update. This allows the custom software package to run.
C. Correct: You should hide the update after uninstalling the update. If you do not hide the update, the update becomes available for installation. Because standard users are able to install updates by default, this could lead to the problematic update being reinstalled. Once the fix for the custom software application becomes available, you can unhide the update and then reinstall it.
D. Incorrect: You should not install the update. This causes problems with the custom software application.

Submit
136. Which of the following tools can you use to configure a group of clients running Windows 7 to use BranchCache in peer caching mode? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You can use Net share to manage shared folders on a client running Windows 7, but you cannot use it to enable and confi gure BranchCache. You can use it
to enable BranchCache on a computer that hosts a shared folder, but BranchCache needs to be enabled and configured before you can do this.
B. Correct: You can use Netsh in the BranchCache context and the Local Group Policy Editor to configure BranchCache on a client running Windows 7.
C. Incorrect: Ipconfig provides IP address configuration information. You cannot use Ipconfig to configure BranchCache on a client running Windows 7.
D. Correct: You can use Netsh in the BranchCache context and the Local Group Policy Editor to configure BranchCache on a client running Windows 7.

Submit
137. You are in the process of phasing out older applications at your organization. You want to ensure that older applications that attempt to write data to protected locations such as the \Windows\System32 folder fail and are not redirected by Windows into writing data elsewhere. Which of the following policies should you configure to accomplish this goal?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The UAC: Only Elevate Uiaccess Applications That Are Installed In Secure Locations policy does not deal with the writing of data to protected locations. This policy
deals with a special class of applications that interact with the operating system in an unusual way and restricts their execution based on location within the file system.
B. Incorrect: The UAC: Only Elevate Executables That Are Signed And Validated policy does not deal with the writing of data to protected locations. It is used to restrict privilege elevation requests to applications that are digitally signed.
C. Incorrect: The UAC: Behavior Of The Elevation Prompt For Standard Users policy does not deal with the writing of data to protected locations; instead, it is used to configure Windows to provide UAC prompts for standard users.
D. Correct: The UAC: Virtualize File And Registry Write Failures To Per-User Locations policy determines whether application writes to protected locations are redirected
elsewhere. Disabling this policy ensures that an application that attempts to write data to a protected location fails.

Submit
138. You are responsible for maintaining a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise that is used in a university laboratory and is hooked up to four different scientific instruments. Each of these instruments outputs its data to a directory named Data. Each instrument’s data directory is located on a different volume on the computer’s hard disk drive. You want to share this data with other computers in the laboratory through the common HomeGroup. Which of the following should you do? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You do not need to share each data folder; you can add them to a common library and then share the library using HomeGroups.
B. Correct: You should create a new library named Sci_Data, add each instrument’s separate data folder to the library, and then share it using the HomeGroup control panel.
C. Correct: You should create a new library named Sci_Data, add each instrument’s separate data folder to the library, and then share it using the HomeGroup control panel.
D. Correct: You should create a new library named Sci_Data, add each instrument’s separate data folder to the library, and then share it using the HomeGroup control panel.

Submit
139. You have recently installed Windows 7 Ultimate on a laptop computer, installed applications such as Office, and downloaded and installed all outstanding updates. The computer has two internal hard disks, both formatted with the NTFS file system. You also have an external USB hard disk that you have plugged into the laptop. You used the convert fs/ntfs command to convert the external hard drive to the NTFS file system. You have an 8-GB USB fl ash memory device and the laptop contains a DVD-ROM writer. In your workplace, you can plug in to the corporate network and connect to a network share on a file server running Windows Server 2008 R2. On what devices can you create a full System Image backup of the laptop’s system volume? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You can use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to an internal hard disk.
B. Correct: You can use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to an external hard disk (if formatted with the NTFS file system).
C. Incorrect: You cannot use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to an 8-GB USB flash drive, although you can use this media for file and folder backups.
D. Incorrect: You cannot use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to an optical drive, although you can use this media for file and folder backups.
E. Correct: You can use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to a network share provided the computer is running Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Ultimate, or Windows 7 Enterprise.

Submit
140. You want to create a firewall rule that allows inbound communications on port 80 when your laptop computer with Windows 7 installed is connected to your office network, but blocks inbound communication on TCP port 80 when you are connected to your home network. Which of the following tools could you use to create this rule? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Windows Firewall does not allow you to create fi rewall rules for specific network locations on the basis of port address. Windows Firewall does not allow you to
create rules that differentiate between the home and work network locations. You can only create rules that differentiate on the basis of home and work or public network locations.
B. Correct: You can use WFAS to create firewall rules on the basis of port address and on the basis of network location.
C. Correct: You can use the Netsh command-line utility to create WFAS rules. WFAS rules allow you to create firewall rules on the basis of port address and on the basis of network location.
D. Incorrect: Netstat is a tool used to provide information about network traffic. You cannot use Netstat to create firewall rules.

Submit
141. You are testing unsigned device drivers on a computer on an isolated test network. You install a display driver and find that the computer boots to a blank screen. You restart the computer and press F8. What Advanced Boot Options could you choose to help remedy the situation? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: Safe Mode loads a minimal set of drivers. The computer will boot successfully and you can roll back the unsigned driver.
B. Incorrect: Enable Boot Logging creates a file named Ntbtlog.txt, which lists all drivers that load during startup, including the last fi le to load before a failure occurs. This does not help in this situation, where you want to boot without loading the problem driver.
C. Correct: Enable Low Resolution Video loads the default, low-resolution display driver.
The problem driver does not load, and you can boot the computer and roll back this driver.
D. Correct: You have not logged on since the problem driver was installed. Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced) loads the previously installed driver and is the preferred option in this situation because it involves the least administrative effort.
E. Incorrect: Disable Driver Signal Enforcement lets you install unsigned drivers. Presumably you have already configured the computer to do this. This option does not
enable you to roll back the problem driver.

Submit
142. You are having problems with a connection and want to run the Windows Network Diagnostics tool. How can you access this tool? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You run the Windows Network Diagnostic tool when you have a problem. It is not a tool that you schedule to run on a regular basis and it is not in the task scheduler library.
B. Correct: You can run the Network Diagnostic tool from the Network And Sharing Center.
C. Incorrect: You cannot access the Windows Network Diagnostic tool from the Adapter Properties dialog box. This dialog box is used for configuration, not diagnosis.
D. Correct: You can run the Windows Network Diagnostic tool when you fail to connect to a Web page.
E. Correct: You can run the Windows Network Diagnostic tool for a specific connection by accessing the Network Connections dialog box.

Submit
143. Which of the following permissions are also set when you apply the Read & Execute (Deny) NTFS permission?
(Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: When you apply the Read & Execute (Deny) permission, Windows also automatically applies the List Folder Contents (Deny) and Read (Deny) permissions.
B. Correct: When you apply the Read & Execute (Deny) permission, Windows also automatically applies the List Folder Contents (Deny) and Read (Deny) permissions.
C. Incorrect: Windows does not apply the Modify (Deny) permission when you apply the Read & Execute (Deny) permission.
D. Incorrect: Windows does not apply the Write (Deny) permission when you apply the Read & Execute (Deny) permission.

Submit
144. Your computer running Windows 7 Enterprise has two internal hard disks. System protection is configured by default on the C: drive, which holds the operating system and installed applications. The D: drive is a 500-GB hard disk formatted with the NTFS filing system, and you use it to store your personal files. You want to store previous versions going back several months and therefore intend to reserve 200 GB of this disk for system protection. You are not using either of your internal disks for backup; instead, you store your backups on a 1-TB external USB hard disk. How do you configure system protection on your D: drive? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of the complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The D: drive does not hold system files, so you do not need to store system settings.
B. Correct: This creates previous versions of the files and folders on the D: drive whenever a restore point is created.
C. Correct: This allocates 200 GB of the 500-GB disk capacity for system protection.
D. Incorrect: This allocates only 20 GB of the 500-GB disk capacity for system protection. You want to allocate 200 GB.

Submit
145. The contents of the directory C:\Source are encrypted using EFS. The directory D:\Destination is compressed. Volumes C and D are both NTFS volumes. Which of the following happens when you use Windows Explorer to move a file named Example. txt from C:\Source to D:\Destination?
(Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: Encrypted files remain encrypted when copied or moved to compressed folders.
B. Incorrect: Encrypted files remain encrypted when copied or moved to compressed folders. Only unencrypted files become compressed when moved to compressed folders.
C. Incorrect: Files retain their original NTFS permissions only when they are moved between folders on the same volume. If you move them between volumes, they inherit
the permissions of the destination folder. You can use Robocopy to move files and retain their NTFS permissions, but Robocopy was not mentioned in the question text.
D. Correct: Files that are moved using Windows Explorer inherit the NTFS permissions assigned to their destination folder.

Submit
146. You have two computers running Windows 7 Ultimate at one of your organization’s branch office locations. All servers in this branch office use Windows Server 2003 R2. You want to configure one of these computers to cache content that it retrieves from a file server running Windows Server 2008 R2 located on the head office network. This file server has the name fs-alpha.contoso.internal. The data hosted on this file server is sensitive. The computer you are configuring should not provide cached content to the other computer running Windows 7 Ultimate on the network. Which of the following commands would you use to configure this computer?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: If you use the command netsh branchcache set service disabled, the content accessed over the WAN link is not cached locally.
B. Incorrect: If you use the command netsh branchcache set service mode=distributed, it is possible that the content will be shared with the other computer running Windows 7
Ultimate, although in a properly configured environment, file and folder permissions would restrict access.
C. Correct: You should use the command netsh branchcache set service mode=local, because this allows the computer running Windows 7 Ultimate to satisfy requests from
its local cache without allowing that cache to be accessible to other computers on the network.
D. Incorrect: You should not use the command netsh branchcache set service mode=hostedclient location=fs-alpha.contoso.internal. You can use the hostedclient mode
only if there is a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that has BranchCache enabled on your LAN.

Submit
147. You want to configure a set of AppLocker rules to block the execution of application software that is not digitally signed by the software vendor. You want to test that these rules work before enforcing them. Which of the following settings should you configure to accomplish this goal? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: You should not create AppLocker publisher rules. Publisher rules can be used only when the fi le that is the subject of the rule has been signed digitally by the
publisher.
B. Correct: You should create an AppLocker hash rule because it is not possible to create a publisher rule due to the lack of digital signature.
C. Correct: You should confi gure AppLocker enforcement to audit executable rules. This allows you to ensure that the rules relating to applications function before you enforce
them in a production environment.
D. Incorrect: You should not configure AppLocker enforcement to audit Windows Installer rules because you are interested in the functionality of executable rules.

Submit
148. You are responsible for managing a student lab that has 30 stand-alone clients running Windows 7. These clients are not members of a domain, though are members of the same HomeGroup. You have configured a set of UAC policies on a reference computer. You want to apply these policies to each of the 30 client computers in the lab. Which of the following tools could you use to do this? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You can use the Local Group Policy Editor console to import and export security-related policies. You could export the policies from the reference computer and
then import them on each of the 30 client computers in the lab.
B. Incorrect: You cannot use the Computer Management console to import or export UAC policies.
C. Incorrect: You cannot use the User Account Control settings control panel item to import and export UAC policies.
D. Correct: You can use the Local Security Policy console to import and export security-related policies. You could export the policies from the reference computer and
then import them on each of the 30 client computers in the lab.

Submit
149. Which of the following tools can you use to determine which shared folders a client running Windows 7 hosts and the local folders that are associated with those shares? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You can use the net share command to view share names and the folders with which those folders are associated.
B. Correct: You can use the Computer Management console to view share names and the folders with which those shares are associated.
C. Incorrect: Libraries allows you to confi gure libraries. You cannot use Libraries to determine which shared folders a client running Windows 7 hosts because it is possible to
host shared folders that are not libraries.
D. Incorrect: You can use Network And Sharing Center to confi gure sharing options, but you cannot use Network And Sharing Center to determine which shared folders a client
running Windows 7 hosts.

Submit
150. Sam Abolrous has a user account on a client running Windows 7. This user account is not a member of the local Administrators group. Which of the following power settings tasks can Sam perform? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: A user account that is not a member of the local administrators group can be used to select a different power plan.
B. Correct: A user account that is not a member of the local administrators group can be used to create a new power plan.
C. Correct: A user account that is not a member of the local administrators group can be used to change what the power buttons do.
D. Incorrect: A user account that is not a member of the local administrators group cannot be used to change the Require A Password On Wakeup setting.

Submit
151. Your organization’s Routing and Remote Access server has Windows Server 2003 R2 installed. Which of the following protocols can you use to connect to the VPN server?

Explanation

A. Incorrect: SSTP is supported only on Routing and Remote Access servers running Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Incorrect: IKEv2 is supported only on Routing and Remote Access servers running Windows Server 2008 R2.
C. Correct: PPTP is supported by Routing and Remote Access servers running Windows Server 2003 R2.
D. Correct: L2TP/IPsec is supported by Routing and Remote Access servers running Windows Server 2003 R2.

Submit
152. You want to block users from writing data to removable drives if those drives are not BitLocker-protected. Users should not be able to write data to drives configured with BitLocker by organizations other than your own. Which of the following policies ust you configure to accomplish this goal?
(Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: The Control Use Of BitLocker On Removable Drives policy allows BitLocker to be used on removable drives. You cannot use this policy to restrict usage of removable drives only to those confi gured with BitLocker.
B. Incorrect: The Store BitLocker Recovery Information In Active Directory Domain Services policy, which applies to clients running Windows Vista rather than Windows 7, allows for BitLocker recovery keys to be stored within AD DS. You cannot use this policy to restrict usage of removable drives only to those confi gured with BitLocker.
C. Correct: You need to configure the Deny Write Access To Removable Drives Not Protected By BitLocker policy. This policy allows you to deny write access to drives not protected by BitLocker and to specify which BitLocker identifiers are associated with your organization.
D. Correct: The Provide The Unique Identifiers For Your Organization policy allows you to specify which BitLocker identifiers are associated with your organization. If the BitLocker identifier that is used with a removable device does not match one of the identifiers configured in this policy and the Deny Write Access To Removable Drives Not Protected By BitLocker policy is configured appropriately, users are unable to write data to these removable devices.

Submit
153. Which of the following types of information are stored in Reliability Monitor? (Choose all that apply; each correct answer presents part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: Application failures are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
B. Correct: Windows errors are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
C. Correct: Application installs and uninstalls are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
D. Incorrect: A service starting or stopping is typically recorded in the event log, not Reliability Monitor.
E. Correct: Device driver failures are recorded in Reliability Monitor.

Submit
154. Which of the following authentication protocols can you use to connect to an IKEv2 VPN? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: You can use the PEAP authentication protocol with an IKEv2 VPN.
B. Correct: You can use the EAP-MSCHAP v2 authentication protocol with an IKEv2 VPN.
C. Correct: You can use Microsoft Smart Card or Other Certificate to authenticate an IKEv2 VPN.
D. Incorrect: You cannot use the CHAP protocol with an IKEv2

Submit
155. Which of the following tools can users use to back up EFS certificates created when they encrypt a file on a stand-alone computer running Windows 7? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Incorrect: Credential Manager can back up Web site credentials, user names and passwords, and some forms of digital certifi cates, but it cannot back up self-signed EFS
certifi cates generated by Windows 7 when you first encrypt a file.
B. Correct: You can use the Manage File Encryption Certificates tool to back up EFS certificates to a password-protected PFX file.
C. Correct: You can use the Certificate Manager console to export an EFS certificate to a password-protected PFX file.
D. Correct: Cipher.exe is a command-line tool that you can use to back up an EFS certifi cate to a password-protected PFX file.

Submit
156. Kim Akers has an administrator account on a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. Don Hall has a standard account on the same computer. Both users have Microsoft Office Word and Microsoft Office Excel files saved in their Documents library. Don stores Microsoft Office PowerPoint presentations in a subfolder of his Documents library named Presentations. He also stores digital photographs in his Pictures library. Don has created a folder called Secret in his Documents library and has encrypted the folder and its contents. He stores confidential files in that folder. When Don last logged on, he deleted some personal files but did not empty his Recycle Bin. Kim is logged on to the computer. She has plugged in a USB fl ash memory device that holds personal files but has not yet copied any of these files to the computer. She has never formatted the flash memory device. The computer is configured to let Windows decide what files and folders to back up. Kim opens the Backup And Restore console but does not change any settings. She clicks Backup Now. Which files are backed up? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Correct: Don’s Word and Excel files in his Documents library are backed up by default. Don does not need to be logged into the computer.
B. Correct: Kim’s Word and Excel files in her Documents library are backed up by default.
C. Correct: Don’s Presentation folder is in his Documents library and is backed up by default.
D. Correct: Don’s Picture library is backed up by default.
E. Incorrect: Encrypted files and folders are not backed up (even if they are in a Documents library).

Submit
157. Which of the following policies must you configure when setting up a DRA to recover the operating system volume for BitLocker? (Choose all that apply; each answer forms part of a complete solution.)

Explanation

A. Correct: A BitLocker-encrypted volume must be configured with a unique identifier to be used with a DRA. You must configure the Prove The Unique Identifiers For Your Organization policy to assign this identifier.
B. Incorrect: The Choose Default Folder For Recovery Password policy allows the recovery password to be saved in a particular location. A recovery password is different for a DRA, which involves a special certificate that can be used to recover all BitLocker-encrypted volumes in an organization.
C. Incorrect: The Choose How Users Can Recover BitLocker Protected Drivers policy specifies whether recovery occurs via a password or a USB fl ash drive and key. This is
separate from a DRA, which involves a special certificate that can be used to recover all BitLocker-encrypted volumes in an organization.
D. Correct: You need to specify the DRA to be used in the Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Public Key Policies\BitLocker Drive Encryption policy to configure BitLocker to support DRAs.
E. Correct: You need to configure the Choose How BitLocker-Protected Operating System Drives Can Be Recovered policy and specify that a DRA can be used to recover protected operating system drives.

Submit
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