MS 3 Practice Test- Diabetes, Shock, Mods, ACLS, Burns And Cancer

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Krispen

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 770

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 157 | Updated: Jan 18, 2013

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Jan 18, 2013

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Oct 23, 2010

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MS 3 Practice Test- Diabetes, Shock, Mods, ACLS, Burns And Cancer

Which signs and symptoms are typical of Hyperglycemic hypermolar non-ketonic coma

What is the purpose of Kussmal Respirations in a patient with DKA?

A patient recently diagnosed with DM I asks why she can't just take oral anti-diabetic medications instead of insulin injections. You tell her:

What set of ABG's would be reflective of DKA?

Pick 2 insulins that should be given together to offer 24hour coverage (in one dose) AND coverage for meals (multiple doses) - Choose all options that could apply:

What would you advise your DM patient in respect to exercise? (Choose all that apply)

Metformin (Glucophage) works by:

When teaching about oral anti-diabetics, you should tell the patient to: (choose all that apply)

One serving of Carbs equals _____grams (enter just the number, not the grams!)

Your patient is on a daily dose of NPH insulin BID and Humalog SQ before meals. When would you expect to see your patient suffer from symptoms of hypoglycemia? Choose all that apply

When teaching your diabetic patient about preventing diabetic retinopathy, you advise them to: (choose all that apply)

What drug is always associated with Diabetic Nephropathy?

The most common and effective treatment options for patients with Diabetic Neuropathies are:

What diabetic complication accounts for 50% of diabetic deaths?

Which of the following complications can contribute to Foot and leg problems/amputations? (check all that apply)

You have just admitted a burn patient who drove through McDonald's and spilled scalding hot coffee on his lap. His left hand, groin and the tops of both of his thighs have 2nd degree burns. What would his TBSA be?

A burn victim with 32% TBSA and a weight of 200lbs is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland Formla, how many mL of fluids should this patient receive in the first 8 hours of fluid resuscitation?

The gut should be used within the first 6 hours after a burn patient arrives at the hospital- "use it or lose it" In what circumstances would this be contraindicated?

What type of shock is a burn patient prone to?

A burn patient has singed nasal hairs and sooty sputum. They are put on 02 via NC 6 liters but their sats continue to fall. They are intubated and put on what % of oxygen?

An escharotomy would be used to treat:

Which of the following would be used to prevent Hypertrophic scarring?

What indicators let the burn team know that skin has a better chance of re-growth? (choose all that apply)

What would indicate a risk of Restrictive Pulmonary system alterations?

The destruction of RBC's and muscle from heat injuries can cause free hemoglobin and myoglobin to build up in the blood. What organ system would this affect most?

What are the s/s of hypovolemic shock? (Choose all that apply)

A patient with a known infection begins to experience persistent hypotension. This patient is suffering from:

A patient with pneumonia is on the vent. Their PaO2 is 90 and their FiO2 is set at 35%. This patient is experiencing pulmonary shunting

The following lab values are indicative for Septic Shock (Choose all that apply)

What is the first step in the Septic Bundle?

What is the cause of hypotension in Septic Shock?

Why would lactate levels be monitored in a patient with Septic Shock?

Xigris is an antibiotic used as a last resort to treat septic shock d/t it's toxic side effects

MODS or MSOF is defined by the failure of 1 or more organs

Unexplained fevers with negative cultures could indicate the failure of this organ

How can DIC lead to MODS?

When the lungs suffer from an extreme inflammatory response, the pulmonary vascular and alveolar endothelium are damaged; the causes a decrease in surfactant, increased capillary permeability and refractory hypoxemia. What is another name for this pathology?

What can cause kidney failure in sepsis patients? (Choose all that apply)

Your patient arrives at the ER complaining he doesn't "feel well"- His Vitals are: T- 99.0, P-51, R-18, BP- 110/65 and 02 98%. He is alert x3 and denies any pain. You should:

Your ER patient is being monitored by EKG- you notice her HR has gone from 85 to 120. Her QRS measures .16. When you assess her she says she isn't having any pain but feels like her heart is beating out of her chest. Your first intervention is:

Your patient who has a hx of CAD complains of chest pain. You put him on the EKG and his HR is 160 BPM. The treatment for this patient would be:

You go in to check on your patient and they do not have a pulse. This first thing you do is:

Your patient has 2nd degree heart block and his body has compensated for it keeping him perfused with a good blood pressure. Today after your initial assessment, you notice your patient is not themself- they seem confused, are pale and clammy. Your first intervention would be:

Shock, CPR,epi; shock, CPR, epi; shock, CPR, epi- what type of patient would receive this treatment?

For a patient with an adequate BP and anaphylactic shock, you would administer between _____mg and ____mg of epinepherine at ______________ concentration (enter answers without mg and following each other with a comma and a space: x, y, x

Which type of skin cancer has the best prognosis?

What populations would you find Kaposi's Sarcoma in? (choose all that apply)

Your patient has a skin lesion that is rough, scaly ad thickened in appearance. It is most likely a:

What stage of hypovolemic shock involves the begining of anaeobic metabolism and subsequent respiatory and metabolic acidosis?

What stage of hypovolemic shock involves the onset of reduced urine output?

For a patient with an adequate BP and anaphylactic shock, you would administer between _mg and mg of epinepherine at __________ concentration (enter answers without mg and following each other with a comma and a space: x, y, x