ACLS Practice Quiz I

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| By Adam Wilkes
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Adam Wilkes
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 14,895
Questions: 14 | Attempts: 4,798

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ACLS Practice Quiz I - Quiz

This pretest is designed to prepare you for the ACLS certification and re-certification exams.
After you have answered the questions and read the comments on each, you will be more than prepared to take and pass the ACLS exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is most likely the result of an untreated arrhythmia?

    • A.

      Embolic CVA

    • B.

      Thrombotic CVA

    • C.

      Hemorrhagic CVA

    • D.

      Pulmonary Embolus

    Correct Answer
    A. Embolic CVA
    Explanation
    The patient with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk
    of an embolic stroke unless they are appropriately
    anticoagulated.

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  • 2. 

    Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm.  What would be the next appropriate intervention?

    • A.

      Synchronized Cardioversion

    • B.

      Unsynchronized Defibrillation

    Correct Answer
    B. Unsynchronized Defibrillation
    Explanation
    In an unstable patient in whom you are not sure if the Ventricular Tachycardia
    is monomorphic or polymorphic, assume it is polymorphic and defibrillate.

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  • 3. 

    A patient presents to an Emergency Department unable to speak or to move her right arm.  Her symptoms began approximately 6 hours ago.   This patient is an appropriate candidate for tPA.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    tPA should be given as treatment for an acute CVA when the
    patient presents within 3 hours of the onset of symptoms,
    and there are no contraindications. In some circumstances,
    with input from neurology, the window may be pushed back
    to 4.5 hours.
    Outside of this 4.5 hour window, there is no literature to show
    that the benefits outweigh the risks of treating a CVA with
    tPA and it should not be done.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

    • A.

      Facial Droop (Is the face symmetrical? Have the patient smile)

    • B.

      Arm Weakness (Have the patient close his eyes and hold out both hands, palms up)

    • C.

      Abnormal Speech (Have the patient say, "You can't teach an old dog new tricks")

    • D.

      Poor Balance (Have the patient stand on one foot.)

    Correct Answer
    D. Poor Balance (Have the patient stand on one foot.)
    Explanation
    The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is a tool to detect stroke
    in the prehospital setting. If any one of its three components are
    positive, the pt has a 72% likelihood of having an acute CVA.
    If all three are positive, there is an 85% likelihood of the patient
    having an acute CVA.

    Remember, Face/Arm/Speech. Balance is not tested.

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  • 5. 

    An advanced airways is imperative, as per most recent ACLS guidelines.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An advanced airway, i.e. and ET tube, is NOT necessary, as per ACLS
    guidelines. As long as the patient is being ventilated adequately, any method
    is acceptable.

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  • 6. 

    Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause and increase in intrathorasic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output. When a person hyperventilates, they breathe rapidly and shallowly, leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This causes a decrease in blood carbon dioxide levels, leading to vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood flow to vital organs, including the heart. Additionally, the increased intrathoracic pressure can impede venous return to the heart, further reducing cardiac output. Therefore, it is true that hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output.

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  • 7. 

    The oro-pharyngeal airway (OPA) does trigger the gag reflex.  Is it more appropriately using in conscious or unconscious patients.

    • A.

      Conscious and semi-conscious patients

    • B.

      Unconscious

    Correct Answer
    B. Unconscious
    Explanation
    The OPA sits in the posterior oropharynx, excites and gag reflex,
    and if used in an conscious patient will likely lead to vomiting and aspiration.

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  • 8. 

    In defibrillating VT/VF, in a biphasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be between 120 J and 200 J, each subsequent shock at the same or greater energy. In an monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be ______.

    • A.

      100 J

    • B.

      200 J

    • C.

      300 J

    • D.

      360 J

    Correct Answer
    D. 360 J
    Explanation
    In a monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be 360 J. This is because monophasic defibrillators deliver a single pulse of electrical current during each shock. The higher energy level of 360 J is necessary to effectively restore normal heart rhythm in cases of ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF).

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  • 9. 

    Identify this rhythm.

    • A.

      First Degree Heart Block

    • B.

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)

    • C.

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2

    • D.

      Third Degree Heart Block

    Correct Answer
    A. First Degree Heart Block
    Explanation
    This is first degree heart block.
    Conduction has been slowed through the AV node so the
    PR interval>0.2 seconds (one large box).

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  • 10. 

    Identify this rhythm.

    • A.

      First Degree Heart Block

    • B.

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)

    • C.

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2

    • D.

      Third Degree Heart Block

    Correct Answer
    D. Third Degree Heart Block
    Explanation
    This is Third Degree Heart Block.
    Notice the complete dissociation between the
    P-waves and the QRS complexes.
    If you measure the distance between each
    P-wave it will be fixed.
    If you measure the distance between each QRS
    complex it will be fixed.
    Since there is no relationship between the P-Wave and
    the QRS complex, the PR interval will be entirely varied.

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  • 11. 

    Identify this ryhthm.

    • A.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B.

      Atrial Flutter

    • C.

      SVT

    • D.

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

    Correct Answer
    C. SVT
    Explanation
    This is SVT.
    Notice that this is a narrow-complex, rapid, regular rhythm.
    There are no discernible P-waves.

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  • 12. 

    Identify this ryhthm.

    • A.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B.

      Atrial Flutter

    • C.

      SVT

    • D.

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

    Correct Answer
    F. Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)
    Explanation
    This is VVentricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points).
    Notice the sinusoidal nature of this rhythm. This is generated
    as the axis of depolarization revolves around a point.
    This rhythm needs to be recognized because treatment is
    Magnesium Sulfate.

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  • 13. 

    Your patient is very lightheaded.  Her Blood pressure = 62/40 mmHg.  HR=38 BPM Her rhythm is below: While awaiting cardiology to place a pacemaker, appropriate interventions include

    • A.

      Transcutaneous Pacing

    • B.

      Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/minute

    • C.

      Epinephrine 2-10 mcg/minute

    • D.

      Atropine 1 mg

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Transcutaneous Pacing
    B. Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/minute
    C. EpinepHrine 2-10 mcg/minute
    Explanation
    Atropine does not have a role in complete heart block.

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  • 14. 

    A patient arrests near a pool and is partially submerged in water, the AED may be safely and effectively discharged with moving the patient.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    If a patient is in a puddle or in the snow, he does not need to
    be moved. If he is submerged, he should be moved to drier ground.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 12, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Adam Wilkes
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