Mock GATE Exam 2019 - Civil Engineering

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Mock GATE Exam 2019 - Civil Engineering - Quiz

Paper Specific Instructions

CE: Civil EngineeringDuration : 180 minutes Read moreTotal Marks : 100Read the following instructions carefully
Go through various question palette symbols and understand their meanings before starting the examination. After the start of the examination, you can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button on the screen. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) section for 15 marks and the subject specific section (CE) for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The subject


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair : Medicine : Health

    • A.

      Science : Experiment

    • B.

      Wealth: Peace

    • C.

      Education :Knowledge

    • D.

      Money : Happiness

    Correct Answer
    C. Education :Knowledge
  • 2. 

    Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Despite several ________________ the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.

    • A.

      Attempts

    • B.

      Setbacks

    • C.

      Meetings

    • D.

      Delegations

    Correct Answer
    B. Setbacks
  • 3. 

    Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence:

    • A.

      They gave us the money back less the service charges of three hundred rupees

    • B.

      This country's expenditure is not less than that of Bangladesh.

    • C.

      The committee initially asked for a funding of Fifty lakh rupees , but later settled for a lesser sum .

    • D.

      This country's expenditure on educational reforms is very less.

    Correct Answer
    D. This country's expenditure on educational reforms is very less.
  • 4. 

    Choose the most appropriate word from following options to complete the given sentence. ______________ is the key to their happiness ; they are satisfied with what they have.

    • A.

      Contentment

    • B.

      Ambition

    • C.

      Perseverance

    • D.

      Hunger

    Correct Answer
    A. Contentment
  • 5. 

    Archimedes said ," Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it , and I will move the world." The sentence above is an example of a _______________ statement.

    • A.

      Figurative

    • B.

      Collateral

    • C.

      Literal

    • D.

      Figurine

    Correct Answer
    A. Figurative
  • 6. 

    Hari(H) ,Gita(G), Irfan(I), Saira(S) are siblings . All were born on 1st january. The age difference between any two successive siblings is less than 3 years .Given the following facts : 1. Hari age + Gita age > Irfan age + Saira age 2.The age difference between Gita and Saira is 1 year.However Gita is not the oldest and Saira is not the youngest. 3. There are no twins. In which order were they born ( oldest first )?

    • A.

      HSIG

    • B.

      SGHI

    • C.

      IGSH

    • D.

      IHSG

    Correct Answer
    B. SGHI
  • 7. 

    A container originally contains 10 litres of pure spirit.From this container 1 litre of spirit is replaced with 1 litre of water .Subsequently 1 liter of mixture is again replaced with 1 litre of water and this process is repeated one more time. How much spirit is now left in the container?

    • A.

      7.58 lit

    • B.

      7.84 lit

    • C.

       7 lit

    • D.

      7.29 lit

    Correct Answer
    D. 7.29 lit
  • 8. 

    Given the sequence of terms ,AD CG FK JP , the next term is 

    • A.

      OV

    • B.

      OW

    • C.

      PV

    • D.

      PW

    Correct Answer
    A. OV
  • 9. 

    A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is :

    • A.

      91

    • B.

      93

    • C.

      89

    • D.

      96

    Correct Answer
    D. 96
  • 10. 

    The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of quadrilateral are 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle .What is sum , in degrees , of the second largest angle of triangle and the largest angle of quadrilateral? ________

    Correct Answer
    180
  • 11. 

    1. The rank of the matrix                                                              1 -2  -1                                                     A =    -3  3   0                 is                                                              2   2  4           

    • A.

      One 

    • B.

      Two 

    • C.

      Three 

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Two 
  • 12. 

    4. If A and B are square matrixes of sizes n x n, then which of the following statement is not true.

    • A.

      Det(AB)=detA.detB

    • B.

      Det(kA)=k^n. det(A)

    • C.

      Det(A+B)=detA+detB

    • D.

      Det A^T =1/det(A^-1)

    Correct Answer
    C. Det(A+B)=detA+detB
  • 13. 

    The curve given by the equation (x^2)+ (y^2) = 3axy  is

    • A.

      Symmetric about x-axis

    • B.

      Symmetric about y-axis

    • C.

      Symmetric about line y=x

    • D.

      Tangential to x = y = a/3 

    Correct Answer
    C. Symmetric about line y=x
  • 14. 

    Three values of x & y are to be fitted in a straight line in the form y = a + bx by the method of least squares. Given ∑x=6 , ∑y=21, ∑x^2 =14 &  ∑xy =46, the values of a & b are respectively 

    • A.

      2 & 3

    • B.

      1 & 2

    • C.

      2 & 1

    • D.

      3 & 2

    Correct Answer
    D. 3 & 2
  • 15. 

    The series ∑( n^3/3^n )                                    ( n raised to power 3 divided by 3 raised to power n )

    • A.

      Converges

    • B.

      Diverges

    • C.

      Oscillatory

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Converges
  • 16. 

    The function f(x) = sin | x | is 

    • A.

      Continuous for all x

    • B.

      Continuous only at certain points

    • C.

      Differentiable at all points

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous for all x
  • 17. 

    The directional derivative of    f(x,y,z)=(x^2 * y * z ) + ( 4* x * z ^2  )  at the  point  ( 1, -2 , -1 ) in the direction of PQ where P( 1 , 2 , -1 ) and Q ( -1 , 2 ,3 )  is

    • A.

      -28/√5

    • B.

      28/5

    • C.

      -28/5

    • D.

      28/√5

    Correct Answer
    A. -28/√5
  • 18. 

    A person on a trip has a choice between private car and public transport. The probability of using a private car and transport. The probability of using a private car is 0.45. While using the public transport, further choices available are bus and metro, out of which the probability of commuting by a bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the probability (rounded up to two decimals) of using a car, bus and metro. Respectively would be 

    • A.

      0.45, 0.30 and 0.25

    • B.

      0.45, 0.25 and 0.30

    • C.

      0.45, 0.55 and 0.00

    • D.

      0.45, 0.35 and 0.20

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
  • 19. 

    A man and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The probability of husband’s selection is   1/7  and the probability of wife’s selection is  1/5  . What is the probability that only one of them is selected?

    • A.

      4/5

    • B.

      2/7

    • C.

      8/15

    • D.

      4/7

    Correct Answer
    B. 2/7
  • 20. 

    Starting from x0 =1 , one step of Newton – Raphson method in solving the equation   x^3 + 3x – 7=0  gives the next value  of (x1 ) as

    • A.

      0.5

    • B.

      1.406

    • C.

      1.5

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    C. 1.5
  • 21. 

    A plate in equilibrium is subjected to uniform stresses along its edges with magnitude  σxx=30 MPa and σyy=50 MPa as shown in the figure. The Young’s modulus of the material is 2×1011 N/m2  and the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3. If σzz is negligibly small and assumed to be zero, then the strain εzz is

    • A.

      -120×10-6

    • B.

      -60 × 10-6

    • C.

      0.0

    • D.

      120 ×10-6

    Correct Answer
    A. -120×10-6
  • 22. 

    Consider the three prismatic beams with the clamped supports P, Q and R as shown in the figures. Given that the modulus of elasticity, E is 2.5 × 10MPa; and the moment of interta I is 8 × 108 mm4, the correct comparison of the magnitude of the shear force S and the bending moment M developed at the support is

    • A.

      SP< SQ< SR ; MP=MQ=MR

    • B.

      SP=SQ>SR;  MP=MQ>MR

    • C.

      S< S> SR ;  M=MQ=MR

    • D.

      SP < SQ<SR ; MP< MQ <MR

    Correct Answer
    C. S< S> SR ;  M=MQ=MR
  • 23. 

    The beam of an overall depth 250 mm (shown below) is used in a building subjected to two different thermal environments. The temperatures at the top and bottom surfaces of the beam are 36°C and 72°C respectively. Considering coefficient of thermal expansion (α) as 1.50×10−5 per °C, the vertical deflection of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due to temperature gradient is ________

    Correct Answer
    2.38,2.39,2.40,2.41,2.42,2.43,2.44,2.45
  • 24. 

    The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigidly jointed frame in a horizontal plane and subjected to vertical loads only, as shown in figure below is

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
  • 25. 

    The portal frame shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical load w (per unit length). The bending moment in the beam at the joint ‘Q’ is

    • A.

      Zero

    • B.

      Wl^2/12  hogging 

    • C.

      Wl^2/24  hogging

    • D.

      Wl^2/12  sagging

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero
  • 26. 

    Beam PQRS has internal hinges in spans PQ and RS as shown. The beam may be subjected to a moving distributed vertical load of maximum intensity 4 kN/m of any length anywhere on the beam. The maximum absolute value of the shear force (in KN) that can occur due to this loading just to the right of support Q shall be:

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 45
  • 27. 

    The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary Portland Cement is

    • A.

      C3A

    • B.

      C3S

    • C.

      C2S

    • D.

      NONE

    Correct Answer
    B. C3S
  • 28. 

    The activity details of a project are given below: Activity Depends on Duration (in days) P -- 6 Q P 15 R Q,T 12 S R 16 T P 10 U Q,T 14 V U 16 The estimated minimum time (in days) for the completion of the project will be________

    Correct Answer
    51
  • 29. 

    A reinforced-concrete slab with effective depth of 80 mm is simply supported at two opposite ends on 230 mm thick masonry walls. The centre-to-centre distance between the walls is 3.3 m. As per IS 456 : 2000, the effective span of the slab (in m, up to two decimal places) is________

    Correct Answer
    3.15
  • 30. 

    Consider the singly reinforced beam section given below(left figure). The stress block parameters for the cross- section from IS: 456-2000 are also given below (right figure). The moment of resistance for the given section by the limit state method is ______ kN-m. ________

    Correct Answer
    42,43
  • 31. 

    Column I gives a list of test methods for evaluating properties of concrete and Column II gives the list of properties Column I Column II P. Resonant frequency test 1. Tensile strength Q. Rebound hammer test 2. Dynamic modulus of elasticity R. Split cylinder test 3. Workability S. Compacting factor test 4. Compressive strength

    • A.

      P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3

    • B.

      P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3

    • C.

      P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1

    • D.

       P-4,Q-3,R-1,S-2

    Correct Answer
    A. P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
  • 32. 

    Four bolts P, Q, R and S of equal diameter are used for a bracket subjected to a load of 130 kN as shown in the figure. The force in bolt P is

    • A.

      32.5 KN

    • B.

      69.32 KN

    • C.

      82.5

    • D.

      119.32

    Correct Answer
    A. 32.5 KN
  • 33. 

    The dimensions of a symmetrical welded I-section are shown in the figure. The plastic section modulus about the weaker axis (in cm3, up to one decimal place) is

    • A.

      78 to 85 

    • B.

      88 to 92

    • C.

      95-100

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. 88 to 92
  • 34. 

    The laboratory tests on a soil sample yields the following results: natural moisture content = 18%, liquid limit =60%, plastic limit = 25%, percentage of clay sized fraction =25%. The liquidity index and activity (as per the expression proposed by Skempton) of the soil, respectively, are

    • A.

      -0.2 and 1.4

    • B.

      0.2 and 1.4

    • C.

      -1.2 and 0.714

    • D.

      1.2 and 0.714

    Correct Answer
    A. -0.2 and 1.4
  • 35. 

    A 4 m thick layer of normally consolidated clay has an average void ratio of 1.30. Its compression index is 0.6 and coefficient of consolidation is 1 m2/yr. If the increase in vertical pressure due to foundation load on the clay layer is equal to the existing effective overburden pressure, the change in the thickness of the clay layer is________ mm.

    Correct Answer
    313,314,315,316
  • 36. 

    The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the sketch. The properties of the soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09 m/day (isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall and the bottom of the soil are impermeable. The seepage loss (in m3 per day per unit length of the wall) of water is

    • A.

      0.33

    • B.

      0.38

    • C.

      0.44

    • D.

      0.48

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.38
  • 37. 

    Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when

    • A.

      Clay particles settle on sea bed

    • B.

      Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed

    • C.

      Sand particles settle on river bed

    • D.

      Sand particles settle on sea bed

    Correct Answer
    B. Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
  • 38. 

    Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g of soil pass through 4.75 mm and 0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits of the soil fraction passing through 425μμ sieves are 40% and 18% respectively. The soil may be classified as

    • A.

      SC

    • B.

      MI

    • C.

      CI

    • D.

      SM

    Correct Answer
    A. SC
  • 39. 

    The soil profile above the rock surface for a 25infinite slope is shown in the figure, where su is the undrained shear strength and γt is total unit weight. The slip will occur at a depth of

    • A.

      6.83

    • B.

      7.83

    • C.

      8.83

    • D.

      9.83

    Correct Answer
    C. 8.83
  • 40. 

    A pile of diameter 0.4 m is fully embedded in a clay stratum having 5 layers, each 5 m thick as shown in the figure below. Assume a constant unit weight of soil as 18 kN/m3 for all the layers. Using λ-method (λ = 0.15 for 25 m embedment length) and neglecting the end bearing component, the ultimate pile capacity (in kN) is ________

    Correct Answer
    1620,1621,1622,1623,1624,1625,1626,1627,1628,1629,1630
  • 41. 

    The figure shows a U-tube having a 5 mm × 5 mm square cross-section filled with mercury (specific gravity=13.6) up to a height of 20 cm in each limb (open to the atmosphere). If 5 cm^3 of water is added to the right limb, the new height (in cm, up to two decimal places) of mercury in LEFT limb will be ________

    Correct Answer
    20.7,20.71,20.72,20.73,20.74,20.75,20.76
  • 42. 

    Water flows through a 100 mm diameter pipe with a velocity of 0.015 m/sec. If the kinematic viscosity of water is 1.13 × 10-6 m2/sec, the friction factor of the pipe material is

    • A.

       0.0015

    • B.

       0.032

    • C.

      0.037

    • D.

      0.048

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.048
  • 43. 

    An automobile with projected area 2.6 m2 is running on a road with speed of 120 km per hour. The mass density and the kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.5 × 10-5 m2/s, respectively. The drag coefficient is 0.30. The metric horse power required to overcome the drag force is

    • A.

      33.23

    • B.

      19.23

    • C.

      23.23

    • D.

      20.23

    Correct Answer
    C. 23.23
  • 44. 

    The pre-jump Froude Number for a particular flow in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The ratio of sequent depth (i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth) is ________

    Correct Answer
    13.6:13.7
  • 45. 

    A circular pipe has a diameter of 1 m, bed slope of 1 in 1000, and Manning’s roughness coefficient equal to 0.01. It may be treated as an open channel flow when it is flowing just full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest. The discharge in this condition is denoted by Qfull. Similarly, the discharge when the pipe is flowing half-full, i.e., with a flow depth of 0.5m, is denoted by Qhalf. The ratio Qfull/Qhalf  is:

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      0.5

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
  • 46. 

    A 1: 50 scale model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in the prototype is 1000 m3/s. The discharge to be maintained in the model test is

    • A.

      0.08 m3/s

    • B.

      0.57 m3/s

    • C.

      0.057 m3/s

    • D.

      5.7 m3/s

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.057 m3/s
  • 47. 

    A spillway discharges flood at a rate of 9 m3/s per metre width. If the depth of flow on the horizontal apron at the toe of the spillway is 46 cm, the tail water depth needed to form a hydraulic jump is approximately given by which of the following?

    • A.

      2.54 m

    • B.

      4.90 m

    • C.

      5.77 m

    • D.

      6.23 m

    Correct Answer
    C. 5.77 m
  • 48. 

    The two columns below show some parameters and their possible values. Parameter Value P – Gross Command Area     I –100 hectares/cumec Q – Permanent Wilting Point    II – 6o C R – Duty of canal water   III – 1000 hectares S – Delta of wheat      IV – 1000 cm                                                  V – 40 cm    VI – 0.12 Which of the following options matches the parameters and the values correctly ?

    • A.

      P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-IV

    • B.

      P-III, Q-VI, R-I, S-V

    • C.

      P-I, Q-V, R-VI, S-II

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. P-III, Q-VI, R-I, S-V
  • 49. 

    The ratio Nf/Nd is known as shape factor, where Nf is the number of flow lines and Nd is the number of equipotential drops. Flow net is always drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b and a are distances between two consecutive flow lines and equipotential lines, respectively. Assuming that b/a ratio remains the same, the shape factor of a flow net will change if the 

    • A.

      Upstream and downstream heads are interchanged

    • B.

      Soil in the flow space is changed

    • C.

      Dimensions of the flow space are changed

    • D.

      Head difference causing the flow is changed

    Correct Answer
    C. Dimensions of the flow space are changed
  • 50. 

    A 1-h rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a station has a return period of 50 years. The probability that a 1-h rainfall of magnitude 10 cm or more will occur in each of two successive years is:

    • A.

      0.04

    • B.

      0.4

    • C.

      0.0004

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.0004

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  • Mar 20, 2022
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