Final Exam Pcol2 Mw 8:30-10am

50 Questions | Attempts: 37
Share
Quiz Flashcard
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/50 Questions

    Can Heparin be used for pregnant patients?

    • Yes
    • No
    • Option 3
    • Option 4
Please wait...
Final Exam Pcol2 Mw 8:30-10am - Quiz
About This Quiz

.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    This drug inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase.

    • Warfarin

    • Heparin

    • Xarelto

    • Eliquis

    Correct Answer
    A. Warfarin
  • 3. 

    Which statement is TRUE on the diagnosis of MI?

    • Diagnosis of MI is confirmed with detection of rise and/or fall of cardiac biomarkers, mainly Troponin T or I.

    • Checking patient symptoms, PMH and ECG.

    • STE, ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion.

    • All of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the answers
  • 4. 

    What are the standard secondary prevention treatment drugs to be initiated following an acute MI?

    • Beta blockers

    • Statins

    • ACE inhibitors

    • All of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the answers
  • 5. 

    It is a monoclonal antibody

    • Abciximab

    • Clopidogrel

    • Xarelto

    • Warfarin

    Correct Answer
    A. Abciximab
  • 6. 

    Clinical uses of Heparin

    • DVT

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Acute MI

    • All of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the answers
  • 7. 

    Antidote for Heparin toxicity or overdose

    • Protamine for unfractionated heparin

    • Vitamin K

    • Plasma

    • Prothrombin complex concentrates

    Correct Answer
    A. Protamine for unfractionated heparin
  • 8. 

    The following are glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors EXCEPT:

    • Abciximab

    • Tirofiban

    • Eptifibatide

    • Clopidogrel

    Correct Answer
    A. Clopidogrel
  • 9. 

    The following are ADP receptor antagonists EXCEPT:

    • Aspirin

    • Clopidogrel

    • Plavix

    • Ticlopidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin
  • 10. 

    If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of this woman’s acute myocardial infarction, which of the following adverse drug effects is most likely to occur?

    • Acute renal failure

    • Development of antiplatelet antibodies

    • Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction

    • Hemorrhagic stroke

    • Neutropenia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemorrhagic stroke
  • 11. 

    Fractionated preparations of heparin of molecular weight 2000-6000

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    • Antithrombin III

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    • LMW heparins

    Correct Answer
    A. LMW heparins
  • 12. 

    A protein complex on the surface of platelets

    • Clotting cascade

    • LMW heparins

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
  • 13. 

    MOA of Heparin

    • Activates antithrombin III

    • Impairs post-translational modification factors II, VII, IX and X

    • Both

    • None of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. Activates antithrombin III
  • 14. 

    Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin which is prolonged when drug effect is adequate.

    • Activated Partial Thromboplastin time (aPTT) test

    • Antithrombin III

    • Prothrombin time (PT) test

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombin time (PT) test
  • 15. 

    Unfractionated heparin has a molecular weight range of 5000-30000

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    • Clotting cascade

    • Prothrombin time (PT) test

    • LMW heparins

    Correct Answer
    A. LMW heparins
  • 16. 

    System of serine proteases and substrates in the blood that provides rapid generation of clotting factors in response to blood vessel damage

    • Clotting cascade

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    • LMW heparins

    • Prothrombin time (PT) test

    Correct Answer
    A. Clotting cascade
  • 17. 

    Site of Action for Heparin

    • Small Intestines

    • Skin

    • Blood

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
  • 18. 

    Which clotting factor/s is/are inhibited by Oral Anticoagulant drugs?

    • XIa

    • VIIIa

    • X

    • Va

    Correct Answer
    A. X
  • 19. 

    Which of the following drugs accelerates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin?

    • Aminocaproic acid

    • Heparin

    • Lepirudin

    • Reteplase

    • Warfarin

    Correct Answer
    A. Reteplase
  • 20. 

    Choose the correct statement about ADP receptor antagonists

    • Clopidogrel, prasugrel and the older drug Ticlopidine are converted in the liver to active metabolites that irreversibly inhibit the platelet ADP receptor and thereby prevent ADP-mediated platelet aggregation.

    • Clopidogrel, prasugrel and the older drug Ticlopidine are converted in the liver to inactive metabolites that irreversibly inhibit the platelet ADP receptor and thereby prevent ADP-mediated platelet aggregation.

    • Clopidogrel, prasugrel and the older drug Ticlopidine are converted in the blood to inactive metabolites that irreversibly inhibit the platelet ADP receptor and thereby prevent ADP-mediated platelet aggregation.

    • Clopidogrel, prasugrel and the older drug Ticlopidine are converted in the liver to active metabolites that reversibly inhibit the platelet ADP receptor and thereby prevent ADP-mediated platelet aggregation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clopidogrel, prasugrel and the older drug Ticlopidine are converted in the liver to active metabolites that irreversibly inhibit the platelet ADP receptor and thereby prevent ADP-mediated platelet aggregation.
  • 21. 

    A hypercoagulable state plus thrombocytopenia that occurs in a small number of individuals treated with unfractionated heparin

    • Prothrombin time (PT) test

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    • LMW heparins

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia
  • 22. 

    It is a phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor

    • Cilostazol

    • Clopidogrel

    • Aspirin

    • None of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilostazol
  • 23. 

    If this patient undergoes a percutaneous coronary angiography procedure and placement of a stent in a coronary blood vessel, she may be given eptifibatide. Which of the following most accurately describes the mechanism of eptifibatide anticlotting action?

    • Activation of antithrombin III

    • Blockade of post-translational modification of clotting factors

    • Inhibition of thromboxane production

    • Irreversible inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

    • Reversible inhibition of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Reversible inhibition of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
  • 24. 

    An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa.

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    • Antithrombin III

    • Clotting cascade

    • LMW heparins

    Correct Answer
    A. Antithrombin III
  • 25. 

    When activated, it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin

    • LMW heparins

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    • Clotting cascade

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
  • 26. 

    Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins

    • Clotting cascade

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    • Antithrombin III

    • Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

    Correct Answer
    A. Antithrombin III
  • 27. 

    Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors which is prolonged when drug effect is adequate

    • Clotting cascade

    • Activated Partial Thromboplastin time (aPTT) test

    • Prothrombin time (PT) test

    • FTIR

    Correct Answer
    A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin time (aPTT) test
  • 28. 

    Which statement is TRUE on the clinical use of Thrombolytics?

    • Cerebral hemorrhage must be positively ruled out before each use.

    • It is not indicated for sever pulmonary embolism.

    • Under ideal conditions such as treatment within 24hrs, these agents can promptly recanalize the occluded coronary vessel.

    • Very prompt use of tPA, such as within 6hrs of the 1st symptoms of ischemic stroke, is associated with a significantly better clinical outcome.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cerebral hemorrhage must be positively ruled out before each use.
  • 29. 

    Choose the correct statement on Inhibitors of Phosphodiesterase 3.

    • Dipyridamole and Cilostazol can prolong the platelet-inhibiting action of intracellular cAMP by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase enzymes that degrade cyclic nucleotides and they also inhibit the uptake of Adenosine – it acts through platelet adenosine A2 receptors to increase cAMP and inhibit aggregation.

    • Dipyridamole and Cilostazol can prolong the platelet-inhibiting action of intracellular cAMP by inducing the phosphodiesterase enzymes that degrade cyclic nucleotides and they also inhibit the uptake of Adenosine – it acts through platelet adenosine A2 receptors to increase cAMP and inhibit aggregation.

    • Dipyridamole and Cilostazol can prolong the platelet-inhibiting action of intracellular cAMP by inducing the phosphodiesterase enzymes that degrade cyclic nucleotides and they also induce the uptake of Adenosine – it acts through platelet adenosine A2 receptors to increase cAMP and inhibit aggregation.

    • Dipyridamole and Cilostazol can prolong the platelet-inhibiting action of intracellular cAMP by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase enzymes that degrade cyclic nucleotides and they also inhibit the uptake of Adenosine – it acts through platelet adenosine A3 receptors to increase cAMP and inhibit aggregation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dipyridamole and Cilostazol can prolong the platelet-inhibiting action of intracellular cAMP by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase enzymes that degrade cyclic nucleotides and they also inhibit the uptake of Adenosine – it acts through platelet adenosine A2 receptors to increase cAMP and inhibit aggregation.
  • 30. 

    CASE JR is an 87-year-old man with a chief complaint of shortness of breath, productive cough, and fever. This is his second admission to the hospital in the last month for a similar complaint. His past medical history includes BpH, congestive heart failure (CHF), and hypertension. His home medications are fluconazole, citalopram, furosemide, metoprolol, aspirin, and lisinopril. JR is admitted with nasal cannula oxygen. His diagnosis is pneumonia. Labs are pertinent for creatinine clearance of 41 mL/min and sputum culture positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Bacterial sensitivities are not back yet. JR is ready for discharge from the hospital when he develops multiple episodes of diarrhea. Stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The optimal initial treatment of choice is

    • Vancomycin

    • Clofazimine

    • Clindamycin

    • Metronidazole

    • Moxifloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. Metronidazole
  • 31. 

    Site of Action for Warfarin

    • Small Intestines

    • Blood

    • Skin

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
  • 32. 

    Which statement is TRUE? (You can tick more than once)

    • Heparin is the drug of choice when an anticoagulant must be used in pregnancy.

    • Heparin does not cross the placental barrier.

    • The action of Heparin is monitored by PT.

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Heparin is the drug of choice when an anticoagulant must be used in pregnancy.
    A. Heparin does not cross the placental barrier.
  • 33. 

    Substances that increase intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate –cAMP- inhibit ______.

    • Platelet dissolution

    • Platelet lysis

    • Platelet aggregation

    • All of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelet aggregation
  • 34. 

    A cell surface protein involved in platelet cross-linking.

    • Alpha receptors

    • 5HT receptors

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

    • All of the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
  • 35. 

    It is activated by endogenous factors such as thromboxane A2, ADP and serotonin which initiates a signaling cascade

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

    • Antithrombin III

    • LMW heparins

    • Glycoprotein IIb/IVa

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
  • 36. 

    Which drug may be a problem given that the patient has DM?

    • Atenolol

    • Atorvastatin

    • Amlodipine

    • Captopril

    Correct Answer
    A. Atenolol
  • 37. 

    Case: A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 min after the onset of right-sided weakness and aphasia (difficulty speaking). Imaging studies ruled out cerebral hemorrhage as the cause of his acute symptoms of stroke.   Over the next 2 d, the patient’s symptoms resolved completely. To prevent a recurrence of this disease, the patient is most likely to be treated indefinitely with which of the following?

    • Aminocaproic acid

    • Aspirin

    • Lepirudin

    • Warfarin

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin
  • 38. 

    Which clotting factor/s is/are inhibited by Heparin?

    • IX

    • XIa

    • II

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. XIa
  • 39. 

    Case:  A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 min after the onset of right-sided weakness and aphasia (difficulty speaking). Imaging studies ruled out cerebral hemorrhage as the cause of his acute symptoms of stroke. Prompt administration of which of the following drugs is most likely to improve this patient’s clinical outcome?

    • Abciximab

    • Alteplase

    • Factor VIII

    • Streptokinase

    • Vitamin K

    Correct Answer
    A. Alteplase
  • 40. 

    Which statement is true about Warfarin?

    • Has a narrow therapeutic window

    • Antidote is Protamine

    • Can inhibit Xa Factors

    • The effect of warfarin is monitored by aPTT test

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a narrow therapeutic window
  • 41. 

    CASE JR is an 87-year-old man with a chief complaint of shortness of breath, productive cough, and fever. This is his second admission to the hospital in the last month for a similar complaint. His past medical history includes BpH, congestive heart failure (CHF), and hypertension. His home medications are fluconazole, citalopram, furosemide, metoprolol, aspirin, and lisinopril. JR is admitted with nasal cannula oxygen. His diagnosis is pneumonia. Labs are pertinent for creatinine clearance of 41 mL/min and sputum culture positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Bacterial sensitivities are not back yet. JR is not responding to your choice of antibiotics and the physician adds tobramycin to the regimen. Using the ODA method, his tobramycin peak at steady state is 17.2 ug/mL and trough of 1.4 ug/mL. Based on these levels, the best recommendation would be to

    • Hold tobramycin and restart at a lower dose/ frequency.

    • Increase tobramycin frequency but keep dose the same.

    • Continue tobramycin at the same dose and frequency.

    • Discontinue tobramycin and start amikacin.

    • Discontinue tobramycin and start ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue tobramycin at the same dose and frequency.
  • 42. 

    Goals of Treatment for MI (you can tick more than once)

    • Early restoration of blood flow to infarct-related artery to prevent infarct expansion.

    • Prevention of death and other complications

    • Prevention of coronary artery reocclusion

    • Relief of ischemic chest discomfort

    • Resolution of ST-segment and T-wave changes on ECG

    • Control of Cardiovascular risk factors

    • Prevention of additional CV events and Improvement in quality of life.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Early restoration of blood flow to infarct-related artery to prevent infarct expansion.
    A. Prevention of death and other complications
    A. Prevention of coronary artery reocclusion
    A. Relief of ischemic chest discomfort
    A. Resolution of ST-segment and T-wave changes on ECG
    A. Control of Cardiovascular risk factors
    A. Prevention of additional CV events and Improvement in quality of life.
  • 43. 

    The following are Antiplatelet drugs EXCEPT:

    • Aspirin

    • NSAIDs

    • Abciximab

    • Warfarin

    Correct Answer
    A. Warfarin
  • 44. 

    CASE JR is an 87-year-old man with a chief complaint of shortness of breath, productive cough, and fever. This is his second admission to the hospital in the last month for a similar complaint. His past medical history includes BpH, congestive heart failure (CHF), and hypertension. His home medications are fluconazole, citalopram, furosemide, metoprolol, aspirin, and lisinopril. JR is admitted with nasal cannula oxygen. His diagnosis is pneumonia. Labs are pertinent for creatinine clearance of 41 mL/min and sputum culture positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Bacterial sensitivities are not back yet.   The optimal choice of antibiotic(s) for the treatment of JR’s pneumonia is (are)

    • Cefuroxime

    • Sulfamethoxazole

    • Ceftaroline

    • Doxycycline

    • Doripenem

    Correct Answer
    A. Doripenem
  • 45. 

    CASE JR is an 87-year-old man with a chief complaint of shortness of breath, productive cough, and fever. This is his second admission to the hospital in the last month for a similar complaint. His past medical history includes BpH, congestive heart failure (CHF), and hypertension. His home medications are fluconazole, citalopram, furosemide, metoprolol, aspirin, and lisinopril. JR is admitted with nasal cannula oxygen. His diagnosis is pneumonia. Labs are pertinent for creatinine clearance of 41 mL/min and sputum culture positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Bacterial sensitivities are not back yet. After 2 days on his new antibiotic, JR has developed a major drug interaction. Which of the following is the major sign/symptom of this drug interaction?

    • Thrombocytopenia

    • Serotonin syndrome

    • Torsades de pointe

    • Hypertensive crisis

    •  jaundice

    Correct Answer
    A. Serotonin syndrome
  • 46. 

    CASE JR is an 87-year-old man with a chief complaint of shortness of breath, productive cough, and fever. This is his second admission to the hospital in the last month for a similar complaint. His past medical history includes BpH, congestive heart failure (CHF), and hypertension. His home medications are fluconazole, citalopram, furosemide, metoprolol, aspirin, and lisinopril. JR is admitted with nasal cannula oxygen. His diagnosis is pneumonia. Labs are pertinent for creatinine clearance of 41 mL/min and sputum culture positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Bacterial sensitivities are not back yet. Five days later, JR complains of flank pain and pain on urination. His urine culture is positive for Enterococcus faecium. The best choice to treat his urinary tract infection is

    • Cefepime

    • Azithromycin

    • Piperacillin/tazobactam

    • Linezolid

    Correct Answer
    A. Linezolid
  • 47. 

    Which statement/s is/are TRUE about Rivaroxaban and Apixaban? (you can tick more than once)

    • They are oral Xa Inhibitors

    • Have a rapid onset of action and shorter half-lives than warfarin

    • They require monitoring

    • They undergo cytochrome P450-dependent and cytochrome P450-independent elimination.

    • Their MOA is to directly bind to and inhibit both free factor Xa and factor Xa bound in the clotting complex

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They are oral Xa Inhibitors
    A. Have a rapid onset of action and shorter half-lives than warfarin
    A. They undergo cytochrome P450-dependent and cytochrome P450-independent elimination.
    A. Their MOA is to directly bind to and inhibit both free factor Xa and factor Xa bound in the clotting complex
  • 48. 

    Choose the General Approaches in the treatment and management of MI? (you can tick more than once)

    • Hospital admission – oxygen if saturation is low, frequent measurement of vital signs, bed rest for 12 hours in hemodynamically stable patients and pain relief.

    • Assess kidney function – serum creatinine and creatinine clearance – to identify patient who may need dosing adjustments and those at high risk of morbidity and mortality.

    • CBC

    • APTT and INR

    • CT Scan and MRI

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hospital admission – oxygen if saturation is low, frequent measurement of vital signs, bed rest for 12 hours in hemodynamically stable patients and pain relief.
    A. Assess kidney function – serum creatinine and creatinine clearance – to identify patient who may need dosing adjustments and those at high risk of morbidity and mortality.
    A. CBC
    A. APTT and INR
  • 49. 

    Which statement/s is/are TRUE about Thrombolytic Agents? (you can tick more than once)

    • It either comes in the form of tPA or a protein synthesized by streptococci.

    • All are given in IV

    • TPA is an enzyme that directly converts plasmin to plasminogen

    • Alteplase is normal human plasminogen activator while Reteplase is a mutated form of human tPA with similar effects but a slightly slower onset of action and longer duration of action.

    • The major application of Thrombolytic agents is an alternative to percutaneous coronary angioplasty in the emergency treatment of coronary artery thrombosis.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. It either comes in the form of tPA or a protein synthesized by streptococci.
    A. All are given in IV
    A. The major application of Thrombolytic agents is an alternative to percutaneous coronary angioplasty in the emergency treatment of coronary artery thrombosis.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 14, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 22, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Jacky
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement