Skill Enhancement Test - Quarter 1

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Skill Enhancement Test - Quarter 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What does the name "The Vimana" signify in terms of your goals and aspirations?

  • 2. 

    What do you think are some of the reasons why projects fail? Give your answer as a series of statements. 

  • 3. 

    Find the speed of the boat in still water, if a boat covers a certain distance upstream in 2 hours, while it comes back in 1`1/2` hours. If the speed of the stream be 3 kmph.

    • A.

      18 kmph

    • B.

      12 kmph

    • C.

      24 kmph

    • D.

      21 kmph

    Correct Answer
    D. 21 kmph
    Explanation
    Let the speed of the boat in still water be x kmph. The speed of the stream is given as 3 kmph.
    When the boat is going upstream, its effective speed is reduced by the speed of the stream, so the boat's speed is (x - 3) kmph.
    When the boat is coming back downstream, its effective speed is increased by the speed of the stream, so the boat's speed is (x + 3) kmph.
    We are given that the boat covers a certain distance upstream in 2 hours, so the distance is (x - 3) * 2.
    Similarly, the distance covered downstream is (x + 3) * 1.5.
    Since the distances covered are the same, we can equate the two expressions: (x - 3) * 2 = (x + 3) * 1.5.
    Simplifying this equation, we get 2x - 6 = 1.5x + 4.5.
    Solving for x, we find x = 21 kmph. Therefore, the speed of the boat in still water is 21 kmph.

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  • 4. 

    The rate at which a sum becomes four times of itself in 25 years at S.I.,will be:

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      29

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12. This can be calculated using the formula for compound interest: A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt), where A is the final amount, P is the principal amount, r is the rate of interest, n is the number of times interest is compounded per year, and t is the number of years. In this case, we want the sum to become four times itself in 25 years, so we can set up the equation 4P = P(1 + r/n)^(nt). Simplifying this equation, we find that (1 + r/n)^(nt) = 4. Since we are dealing with simple interest, we can assume that n = 1. Plugging in the values, we get (1 + r)^(25) = 4. Solving for r, we find that r = 0.12 or 12%. Therefore, the rate at which the sum becomes four times itself in 25 years is 12%.

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  • 5. 

    In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is:

    • A.

      5 kmph

    • B.

      5.25 kmph

    • C.

      6 kmph

    • D.

      6.25 kmph

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 kmph
    Explanation
    Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer to cover a distance of 30 km. This means that Abhay's speed is slower than Sameer's. If Abhay doubles his speed, he would take 1 hour less than Sameer, indicating that Abhay's speed is still slower than Sameer's. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 kmph, the lowest speed option given.

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  • 6. 

    A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

    • A.

      14 days

    • B.

      16 days

    • C.

      17 days

    • D.

      15 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 days
    Explanation
    A can do the work alone in 20 days. On every third day, A is assisted by B and C. So, on every third day, the combined work done by A, B, and C is equal to the work done by A alone in 20 days. Therefore, in 3 days, the combined work done is equal to the work done by A alone in 20 days. Hence, in 15 days (3 times 5), A will be able to complete the entire work with the assistance of B and C on every third day. Therefore, the correct answer is 15 days.

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  • 7. 

    The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:

    • A.

      14

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    B. 16
    Explanation
    If the cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles, it means that the profit made is equal to the cost price of x articles. Since the profit is 25%, it can be calculated as 25% of the cost price of x articles. Therefore, the equation can be written as 0.25 * (cost price of x articles) = cost price of x articles. Solving this equation, we find that the value of x is 16.

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  • 8. 

    In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

    • A.

      360

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      720

    • D.

      5040

    Correct Answer
    C. 720
    Explanation
    The word 'LEADING' has 7 letters, including 3 vowels (E, A, I). To find the number of ways the letters can be arranged such that the vowels always come together, we can treat the group of vowels (EAI) as a single entity. This reduces the problem to arranging the 5 entities (L, D, N, G, and the group of vowels) in a linear manner. The number of ways to arrange these entities is 5!, which is equal to 120. However, within the group of vowels, the vowels can be arranged in 3! ways. Therefore, the total number of arrangements is 5! * 3!, which is equal to 720.

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  • 9. 

    What number comes next 10, 9, 60, 90, 70 and 66?

    • A.

      96

    • B.

      99

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      77

    Correct Answer
    A. 96
    Explanation
    The sequence appears to be alternating between decreasing numbers and increasing numbers. The first two numbers, 10 and 9, are decreasing by 1. The next two numbers, 60 and 90, are increasing by 30. The next two numbers, 70 and 66, are decreasing by 4. Based on this pattern, the next set of numbers should be increasing by 30. Therefore, the next number in the sequence is 96.

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  • 10. 

    3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?

    • A.

      9

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      11

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    D. 12
    Explanation
    If 3 pumps working 8 hours a day can empty the tank in 2 days, it means that each pump can empty 1/16th of the tank in 1 hour. To empty the tank in 1 day, we need to increase the number of pumps. Since we have 4 pumps now, each pump needs to work for 1/16th of the tank in 1 hour. Therefore, each pump needs to work for 1/16 * 4 = 1/4th of the tank in 1 hour. Since each pump can empty 1/16th of the tank in 1 hour, it means that each pump needs to work for 4 hours. Therefore, 4 pumps need to work for 4 * 4 = 16 hours in total. Since we need to empty the tank in 1 day, each pump needs to work for 16/24 = 2/3rd of the day. In hours, it is 2/3 * 24 = 16 hours. Therefore, 4 pumps need to work for 16 hours in a day to empty the tank.

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  • 11. 

    Nine cricket fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in one row, they are are J , K , L , M , N , O , P , Q and R. L is at the right of M and at third place at the right of N. K is at one end of of the row. Q is seated adjacent to both O and P. O is at the third place at the left of K. J is right next to left of O. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

    • A.

      N is two seats away from J.

    • B.

      M is at extreme end.

    • C.

      R and P are neighbors.

    • D.

      There is one person between L and O

    Correct Answer
    D. There is one person between L and O
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, we can determine the seating arrangement as follows:

    K _ _ _ _ _ _ _
    J O _ _ _ _ _ _
    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ N
    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ M
    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ L
    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ P
    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Q
    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ R

    From the arrangement, we can see that there is one person between L and O, making the statement "There is one person between L and O" true.

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  • 12. 

    In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?

    • A.

      3:7

    • B.

      5:7

    • C.

      7:3

    • D.

      7:5

    Correct Answer
    C. 7:3
    Explanation
    To find the ratio in which the two varieties of pulses should be mixed, we can set up a proportion based on their prices per kg. Let the ratio be x:y. The cost of the first variety of pulses is 15x and the cost of the second variety is 20y. The total cost of the mixture is 16.50. Therefore, we can write the equation: (15x + 20y) / (x + y) = 16.50. Simplifying this equation, we get 15x + 20y = 16.50x + 16.50y. Rearranging terms, we get 0.50x = 3.50y. Dividing both sides by 0.50, we get x/y = 7/3. Hence, the correct answer is 7:3.

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  • 13. 

    Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

    • A.

      Brother

    • B.

      Father

    • C.

      Cousin

    • D.

      Uncle

    Correct Answer
    B. Father
    Explanation
    Suresh is the father of the boy in the photograph. This is because Suresh states that the boy is the son of the only son of his mother, which means that the boy is Suresh's son.

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  • 14. 

    What is the value of c , If 8 is 4% of a, and 4 is 8% of b. c equals b/a.

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      0.25

    • C.

      0.155

    • D.

      64

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.25
    Explanation
    The value of c is 0.25 because c is equal to b/a. Given that 8 is 4% of a and 4 is 8% of b, we can set up the equations 8 = 0.04a and 4 = 0.08b. Solving these equations, we find that a = 200 and b = 50. Therefore, c = b/a = 50/200 = 0.25.

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  • 15. 

    I forgot the last digit of a 7 digit telephone number. If one randomly dial the final three digits after correctly dialling the four, then what is the chance of dialling the correct number?

    • A.

      1/1000

    • B.

      1/1001

    • C.

      1/900

    • D.

      1/901

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/1000
    Explanation
    If the last digit of the telephone number is forgotten, there are 10 possible digits that it could be (0-9). Since only one of these digits is correct, the chance of randomly dialing the correct number is 1 out of 10. However, the question specifically asks for the chance of dialing the correct number after correctly dialing the first four digits. This means that the first four digits are already correct and the only uncertainty lies in the last three digits. Since there are 10 possible digits for each of the three positions, the total number of possible combinations is 10^3 = 1000. Therefore, the chance of dialing the correct number is 1 out of 1000.

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  • 16. 

    Find the remainder when 6799 is divided by 7.

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    D. 1
    Explanation
    When a number is divided by 7, the remainder can be found by subtracting multiples of 7 from the number until the result is less than 7. In this case, starting with 6799, we subtract 7 repeatedly until we get a result less than 7. Subtracting 7 from 6799 gives us 6792, which is still divisible by 7. Continuing this process, we subtract 7 again to get 6785, which is still divisible by 7. Subtracting 7 again gives us 6778, which is still divisible by 7. Subtracting 7 again gives us 6771, which is still divisible by 7. Subtracting 7 again gives us 6764, which is still divisible by 7. Finally, subtracting 7 gives us 6757, which is not divisible by 7. Therefore, the remainder when 6799 is divided by 7 is 1.

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  • 17. 

    A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 8 times?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      27

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    If the sum of money doubles itself in 4 years, it means that the interest rate is 100% per year. To find out how many years it will take for the sum of money to amount to 8 times, we need to calculate the number of years it takes for the sum of money to increase by a factor of 8. Since the interest rate is 100% per year, it will take 4 years to double the sum of money, and another 4 years to double it again. Therefore, it will take a total of 8 years for the sum of money to amount to 8 times.

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  • 18. 

    The average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was 40oC. The average for Thursday, Friday and Saturday was 41oC. If temperature on Saturday was 42oC, what was the temperature on Wednesday?

    • A.

      44

    • B.

      41

    • C.

      39

    • D.

      37

    Correct Answer
    C. 39
    Explanation
    The average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday is 40oC. The average temperature for Thursday, Friday, and Saturday is 41oC. Since the temperature on Saturday is 42oC, the total temperature for Thursday, Friday, and Saturday is 123oC. Subtracting the temperature on Saturday from the total gives us 81oC, which is the total temperature for Wednesday and Thursday. Therefore, the temperature on Wednesday must be 39oC.

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  • 19. 

    Find the H.C.F, if the numbers are in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 and their L.C.M. is 2400.

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      80

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    A. 40
    Explanation
    The H.C.F (Highest Common Factor) is the largest number that divides all the given numbers without leaving any remainder. In this question, the given numbers are in the ratio of 4:5:6. The H.C.F can be found by dividing the L.C.M (Least Common Multiple) by the product of the common prime factors raised to their lowest powers. Since the L.C.M is given as 2400, we can divide it by the product of the common prime factors, which are 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, and 5. Simplifying this, we get 2^4 * 3 * 5 = 40. Therefore, the correct answer is 40.

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  • 20. 

    P and Q take part in 100 m race. P runs at 6kmph. P gives Q a start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds. The speed of Q is:

    • A.

      6.14

    • B.

      15.2

    • C.

      5.68

    • D.

      4.86

    Correct Answer
    D. 4.86
    Explanation
    Since P gives Q a start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds, we can calculate the time taken by P and Q to cover the 100 m distance.
    P's speed is given as 6 km/hr, which is equivalent to 6 * (5/18) m/s.
    Let's assume Q's speed is x m/s.
    So, the time taken by P to cover 100 m is 100 / (6 * (5/18)) = 30 seconds.
    Since P gives Q a start of 8 m, Q needs to cover 100 - 8 = 92 m.
    The time taken by Q to cover 92 m is 30 + 8 = 38 seconds.
    Therefore, Q's speed is 92 / 38 = 2.42 m/s, which is equivalent to 2.42 * (18/5) km/hr = 8.712 km/hr.
    Rounding off to two decimal places, Q's speed is 8.71 km/hr, which is approximately equal to 4.86 m/s.
    Therefore, the correct answer is 4.86.

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  • 21. 

      Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

    • A.

      Wednesday

    • B.

      Thursday

    • C.

      Friday

    • D.

      Saturday

    Correct Answer
    D. Saturday
    Explanation
    Today is Monday. There are 7 days in a week. After 61 days, we can divide 61 by 7 to find the remainder. 61 divided by 7 equals 8 with a remainder of 5. This means that after 61 days, we will be 5 days ahead of Monday. Counting forward from Monday, the fifth day is Saturday. Therefore, after 61 days, it will be Saturday.

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  • 22. 

    Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is:

    • A.

      44

    • B.

      46

    • C.

      50

    • D.

      42

    Correct Answer
    C. 50
    Explanation
    The faster train is overtaking the slower train, so the relative speed between the two trains is the difference in their speeds, which is 46 km/hr - 36 km/hr = 10 km/hr. In 36 seconds, the faster train covers a distance equal to the length of both trains. To find the length of each train, we need to convert the relative speed from km/hr to m/s. 10 km/hr = 10 * (1000/3600) m/s = 100/36 m/s. In 36 seconds, the faster train covers a distance of (100/36) * 36 = 100 meters, which is the combined length of both trains. Therefore, the length of each train is 100/2 = 50 meters.

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  • 23. 

    To catch a tartar means:

    • A.

      To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty

    • B.

      To catch a dangerous person

    • C.

      To meet with disaster

    • D.

      To deal with a person who is more than one's match

    Correct Answer
    B. To catch a dangerous person
    Explanation
    "To catch a tartar" means to catch a dangerous person. The term "tartar" refers to someone who is fierce, formidable, or difficult to deal with. Therefore, the correct answer suggests that catching a tartar implies capturing a person who poses a significant threat or danger.

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  • 24. 

    SYMpHONY:COMPOSER as

    • A.

      Leonardo:music

    • B.

      Fresco:painter

    • C.

      Colours:pallet

    • D.

      Art:appreciation

    Correct Answer
    B. Fresco:painter
    Explanation
    The analogy "SYMPHONY:COMPOSER" implies that a symphony is created by a composer. Similarly, "Fresco:painter" suggests that a fresco is created by a painter. Both analogies involve the relationship between a form of art and the person who creates it. Therefore, the answer "Fresco:painter" is the most appropriate choice.

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  • 25. 

    S1: When a satellite is launched, the rocket begins by going slowly upwards through the air. P : However, the higher it goes, the less air it meets. Q : As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster. R : For the atmosphere becomes thinner. S : As a result there is less friction. S6: Consequently, the rocket still does not become too hot. The proper sequence should be:

    • A.

      PQRS

    • B.

      PQSR

    • C.

      QSPR

    • D.

      QPRS

    Correct Answer
    D. QPRS
    Explanation
    As the rocket goes higher (Q), it travels faster (P) because the atmosphere becomes thinner (R) and there is less friction (S). Consequently, the rocket still does not become too hot (S6). Therefore, the correct sequence is QPRS.

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  • 26. 

    When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.

    • A.

      Into crushing

    • B.

      In crushing

    • C.

      For crushing

    • D.

      Without crushing

    Correct Answer
    B. In crushing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "in crushing". This preposition is used to show the involvement of the Protestant leaders in the act of crushing the serfs' attempt to gain freedom from serfdom. It implies that the Protestant leaders actively participated in the process of suppressing the serfs' movement.

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  • 27. 

    The Hubble Space Telescope will search for planets around the stars, a key to the ...... of extraterrestrial life, and will examine interstellar dust and gases out of which stars are born.

    • A.

      Perception

    • B.

      Discovery

    • C.

      Quest

    • D.

      Enquiry

    Correct Answer
    C. Quest
    Explanation
    The Hubble Space Telescope's mission to search for planets around stars indicates a purposeful and determined effort to find evidence of extraterrestrial life. The word "quest" accurately captures this sense of exploration and pursuit, making it the correct answer.

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  • 28. 

    Comprehension: Q26-Q35 No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex.  By changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning.  We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning.  Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language.  All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components.  The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'.  In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'.  Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.  So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar? At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer.  To find out how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence.  Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch.  Amazingly, however, this is possible. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade.  At that time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule.  Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin.  Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner.  They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom.  [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood.  [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue.  [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language.  [D] It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers. Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children. Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf.  Sign languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages.  Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf.  Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at home.  It was basically a pidgin.  Each child used the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar.  However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language.  Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning.  What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way.  A new creole was born. Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first.  The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'.  'It ended' may once have been 'It end-did'.  Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children.  Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them.  Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?

    • A.

      To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures

    • B.

      To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar

    • C.

      To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.

    • D.

      To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language

    Correct Answer
    A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
    Explanation
    The writer includes information about the Cherokee language to support the idea that complex grammar structures exist in all languages, including those of so-called "primitive" tribes. This example highlights that even in a simple, traditional culture, such as the Cherokee tribe, there is a sophisticated pronoun system that distinguishes between different meanings. This demonstrates that complex grammar can exist in any language, regardless of its level of development or complexity.

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  • 29. 

    What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?

    • A.

      It contained complex grammar.

    • B.

      It was based on many different languages.

    • C.

      It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.

    • D.

      It was created by the land-owners

    Correct Answer
    C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the slaves' pidgin language was challenging to comprehend, even for the slaves themselves. This implies that the language was not easily understandable, possibly due to its unique grammar or vocabulary. It indicates that the pidgin language was not a simple or straightforward form of communication among the slaves.

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  • 30. 

    All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT:

    • A.

      The language has been created since 1979

    • B.

      The language is based on speech and lip reading.

    • C.

      The language incorporates signs which children used at home.

    • D.

      The language was perfected by younger children

    Correct Answer
    B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The language is based on speech and lip reading." This sentence is not true because Nicaraguan sign language is not based on speech and lip reading. It is a distinct and unique language that developed naturally among deaf individuals in Nicaragua. It was created since 1979, incorporates signs used by children at home, and was perfected by younger children as they added more complexity to the language over time.

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  • 31. 

    In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed? It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    D. D
    Explanation
    The sentence "It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers" can be placed in paragraph 3 to provide additional information about the characteristics of the creole language being discussed. The sentence fits well in paragraph 3 because it adds to the description of the language's features and highlights its unique aspects that differentiate it from both the pidgin language and the language of the colonizers.

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  • 32. 

     'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:

    • A.

      From the very beginning

    • B.

      in simple cultures

    • C.

      By copying something else

    • D.

      by using written information

    Correct Answer
    A. From the very beginning
    Explanation
    The phrase "from scratch" means starting something from the very beginning, without any pre-existing materials or knowledge. It implies starting with the most basic or fundamental elements and building up from there. In the context of the paragraph, it suggests that the author is advocating for starting a project or process from its initial stages, without relying on any existing resources or information.

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  • 33. 

    'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:

    • A.

      Complicated and expressive

    • B.

      Simple and temporary

    • C.

      Extensive and diverse

    • D.

      Private and personal

    Correct Answer
    B. Simple and temporary
    Explanation
    The word "make-shift" suggests something that is created quickly and temporarily to serve a specific purpose. It implies a solution that is not meant to be permanent or elaborate, but rather a simple and temporary fix. Therefore, the closest meaning to "make-shift" in this context would be "simple and temporary".

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  • 34. 

    Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence? Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.:

    • A.

      All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar

    • B.

      Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.

    • C.

      Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little

    • D.

      The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.

    Correct Answer
    A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar
    Explanation
    This sentence conveys the same meaning as the highlighted sentence by emphasizing that all languages, regardless of their popularity or number of speakers, have grammar.

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  • 35. 

    All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:

    • A.

      All children used the same gestures to show meaning.

    • B.

      The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.

    • C.

      The hand movements were smoother and smaller

    • D.

      New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities

    Correct Answer
    D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities." This means that the new Nicaraguan sign language did not involve the creation of new gestures specifically for everyday objects and activities.

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  • 36. 

    Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?

    • A.

      English was probably once a creole.

    • B.

      The English past tense system is inaccurate.

    • C.

      Linguists have proven that English was created by children.

    • D.

      Children say English past tenses differently from adults.

    Correct Answer
    A. English was probably once a creole.
    Explanation
    The idea presented in the final paragraph is that English was probably once a creole.

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  • 37. 

    Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the following?

    • A.

      Natural

    • B.

      Predictable

    • C.

      Imaginable

    • D.

      Uniform

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniform
    Explanation
    The word "consistent" in paragraph 4 refers to something that is steady, regular, or unchanging. The word "uniform" has a similar meaning and can be used interchangeably with "consistent" in this context. Both words convey the idea of something being the same or constant, making "uniform" the best replacement for "consistent" in the given paragraph.

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  • 38. 

    Which among the following is the SYNONYMS of to the word “argot”?

    • A.

      Emulous

    • B.

      Associates

    • C.

      Dialect

    • D.

      Supports

    Correct Answer
    C. Dialect
    Explanation
    The word "argot" refers to a specialized vocabulary or language used by a particular group or subculture. The synonym for "argot" is "dialect," as both terms refer to a specific form of language that is distinct from the standard or mainstream language.

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  • 39. 

    Upon visiting the Middle East in 1850, Gustave Flaubert was so         belly dancing that he wrote, in a letter to his mother, that the dancers alone made his trip worthwhile.

    • A.

      Overwhelmed by

    • B.

      Enamored by

    • C.

      Beseeched by

    • D.

      Flustered by

    Correct Answer
    B. Enamored by
    Explanation
    Gustave Flaubert was so enamored by belly dancing during his visit to the Middle East in 1850 that he wrote to his mother, expressing that the dancers alone made his trip worthwhile.

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  • 40. 

    Possessed of an insatiable sweet tooth, Jim enjoyed all kinds of candy, but he had a special         for gumdrops, his absolute favorite.

    • A.

      Odium

    • B.

      Nature

    • C.

      Disregard

    • D.

      Predilection

    Correct Answer
    D. Predilection
    Explanation
    Jim enjoyed all kinds of candy, but he had a special preference for gumdrops. "Predilection" means a strong liking or preference for something, which perfectly fits the context of Jim's insatiable sweet tooth and his absolute favorite candy being gumdrops.

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  • 41. 

    What is the antonym of "beckon"?

    • A.

      Guess

    • B.

      Ignore

    • C.

      Support

    • D.

      Understand

    Correct Answer
    B. Ignore
    Explanation
    The antonym of "beckon" is "ignore" because "beckon" means to make a gesture with the hand, arm, or head to encourage someone to come nearer or follow, while "ignore" means to pay no attention to or disregard something or someone.

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  • 42. 

    Many organisations find it beneficial to employ students over the summer. Permanent staff often wish to take their own holidays over this period. Furthermore, it is not uncommon for companies to experience peak workloads in the summer and so require extra staff. Summer employment also attracts students who may return as well-qualified recruits to an organisation when they have completed their education. Ensuring that the students learn as much as possible about the organisation encourages interest in working on a permanent basis. Organisations pay students on a fixed rate without the usual entitlement to paid holidays or bonus schemes. This sentence is : "Students are subject to the organisation’s standard disciplinary and grievance procedures."

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Cannot Say

    Correct Answer
    C. Cannot Say
    Explanation
    The given passage does not provide any information about the organization's standard disciplinary and grievance procedures for students. Therefore, it cannot be determined whether students are subject to these procedures or not.

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  • 43. 

    Which ones of the following are key components to the success of any Project?

    • A.

      Scope

    • B.

      Cost

    • C.

      Schedule/Time

    • D.

      Resources

    • E.

      Risk

    • F.

      Stakeholders' Satisfaction (Quality)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Scope
    B. Cost
    C. Schedule/Time
    D. Resources
    E. Risk
    F. Stakeholders' Satisfaction (Quality)
    Explanation
    The key components to the success of any project include scope, cost, schedule/time, resources, risk, and stakeholders' satisfaction (quality). These components are crucial for ensuring that the project is well-defined, stays within budget and timeline, has the necessary resources, addresses potential risks, and meets the expectations and needs of the stakeholders. By effectively managing these components, a project can be successfully executed and achieve its objectives.

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  • 44. 

    When targeting a large existing market for your new product/service, it is correct to say that since the market is so large, capturing even 1% of it will be completely profitable. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because capturing 1% of a large market does not necessarily guarantee profitability. The profitability of capturing a percentage of a market depends on various factors such as the cost of production, marketing expenses, competition, and pricing strategy. Even if the market is large, if the cost of acquiring customers and producing the product/service outweighs the revenue generated from capturing 1% of the market, it may not be profitable. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.

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  • 45. 

    Why can I not print the Nike swoosh on stickers and sell them with no affirmation from Nike?

    • A.

      Patent Issues

    • B.

      Trademark Issues

    • C.

      Copyright Issues

    Correct Answer
    B. Trademark Issues
    Explanation
    The correct answer is trademark issues. Trademarks are used to protect brand names, logos, and symbols that distinguish a company's goods or services from others. The Nike swoosh is a registered trademark owned by Nike, and printing it on stickers and selling them without permission would infringe on Nike's exclusive right to use the trademark. This could lead to legal consequences, as it would be a violation of trademark law.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 13, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Thevimana.hr
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