CDC 3D151 Vol 2 Ure

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| By Dakota.lindberg
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Dakota.lindberg
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 1,006
| Attempts: 799 | Questions: 100
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1. Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restriced areas?

Explanation

The AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas.

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CDC 3D151 Vol 2 Ure - Quiz

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2. Which of these statements pertain to configuration management?

Explanation

All of the statements mentioned pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, and controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all of the given statements are relevant to configuration management.

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3. What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the users domain account is deleted?

Explanation

When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This is because the email account is tied to the user's domain account, and deleting the domain account automatically removes access to the email account as well.

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4. Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?

Explanation

The two types of forms used in Remedy are software and hardware. Remedy is a software application used for IT service management and issue tracking. The software forms are used to capture and organize information related to IT incidents, problems, and changes. On the other hand, hardware forms are used to track and manage physical assets such as computers, servers, and network devices. By using both software and hardware forms, Remedy provides a comprehensive solution for managing IT service requests and assets.

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5. In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

Explanation

In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician to fix problems. This allows for flexibility in assigning tickets based on the expertise and availability of technicians.

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6. What area is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

Explanation

A Controlled Access Area (CAA) is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control. In this area, unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This means that only authorized individuals are allowed entry into the CAA, ensuring that the area is secure and protected from unauthorized access.

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7. What are the two different types of current used for power?

Explanation

The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v because these are the standard voltages used for power in most countries. The voltage of 110 v is commonly used in North America, while 220 v is used in many other parts of the world. These voltages are suitable for powering various electrical devices and appliances.

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8. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage Air Force assets?

Explanation

AIMS is used to track and manage Air Force assets, and one of the key assets that need to be tracked and managed in the Air Force is the communications equipment. This includes radios, satellites, and other communication devices that are crucial for effective communication within the Air Force. Therefore, the correct answer is Communications.

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9. Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." The unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for completing all of the tasks mentioned. They brief users on the proper use of PWCS equipment, implement a unit-level customer education program, and turn in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager.

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10. How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

Explanation

In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can only perform actions on one object at a time, such as modifying its properties or permissions. This limitation ensures that changes made to objects are accurate and avoids any potential conflicts or errors that may arise from manipulating multiple objects simultaneously.

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11. What is the purpose of the Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. TEMPEST aims to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic emanations that can be captured and exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information. By implementing measures to minimize these emissions, the program helps to enhance the security and confidentiality of electronic communications and equipment.

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12. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro is packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

Explanation

The correct answer is version 4 and version 6. The TACLANE-Micro is a packet encryption device that is capable of encrypting Internet Protocol (IP) packets. It supports both version 4 and version 6 of the IP protocol, allowing for secure communication over both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

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13. What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

Explanation

The only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets is the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).

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14. What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

Explanation

To create a new ticket, the tool that must be used is "Remedy user". This tool is specifically designed for users to create and manage tickets in the Remedy system. It allows users to input all the necessary details and information for the ticket, such as the issue, priority, and contact information. By using the "Remedy user" tool, users can efficiently create new tickets and ensure that all the required information is captured accurately.

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15. The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question asks what system the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces throughout the maintenance complex. The IMDS interface with ES-S replaces the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) throughout the maintenance complex.

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16. Each cell in a service area has a central tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Central" because the question is asking about the location of the central tower and transceiver assembly in a service area. The central tower is responsible for transmitting and receiving signals to and from cell phones in that area.

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17. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Encrypted classified or unclassified." In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted or unencrypted, and it can be classified or unclassified. This means that any type of traffic, regardless of its encryption status or classification level, can be carried by the BLACK lines.

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18. Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

Explanation

Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the communication lines. These inspections can be done either by following the line route or through visual inspections. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually examining the system, any potential issues or vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the continued protection and functionality of the PDS.

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19. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) devices original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

Explanation

The Family Radio Service (FRS) is a personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device that was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. It is a low-power radio service that allows for short-range communication, typically within a range of 1-2 miles. FRS devices are commonly used for activities such as camping, hiking, and other outdoor adventures where individuals need to stay in touch with each other.

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20. What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Mailbox rights." This tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account. These special permissions include rights such as full access, send as, and receive as permissions for a mailbox. By managing mailbox rights, administrators can control who has access to a mailbox and what actions they can perform on it.

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21. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) includes what type of database and is located where?

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is located at Wright-Patterson AFB and uses an Oracle database.

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22. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

Explanation

The computer-decoder (CODEC) component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system is responsible for converting analog signals to digital signals. CODEC stands for "coder-decoder" and it is used to compress and decompress audio and video data. In the context of a VTC system, the CODEC converts the analog audio and video signals captured by the camera into digital format so that they can be transmitted over the network and displayed on the receiving end.

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23. What is the Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Emission security." The Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called emission security. Emission security focuses on preventing the unintentional release of electromagnetic signals from electronic equipment that could be intercepted and used to gather sensitive information. This program aims to protect against electromagnetic eavesdropping and ensure that classified information remains secure.

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24. What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

Explanation

Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, which allows for faster processing compared to asymmetric encryption. This is because symmetric encryption algorithms are generally simpler and require less computational power. As a result, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making symmetric cryptology a preferred choice for applications that require high-speed processing, such as secure communication systems or data storage.

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25. Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a system that is used to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems and provides status and inventory data. However, it does not roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not aggregate or consolidate logistics data from lower levels to the Air Force level.

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26. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

Explanation

The correct answer is AFEMS because the question is asking for the online database program that is a part of the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

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27. Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

Explanation

The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical delivery service for classified and sensitive materials, rather than a method for transmitting information electronically. The other options, such as the protected distribution system, communications security equipment, and intrusion detection optical communications system, are all methods that provide secure telecommunications by encrypting, protecting, or detecting unauthorized access to data during transmission.

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28. Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

Explanation

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption, namely, encrypt-decrypt-encrypt. This process involves encrypting the plaintext, decrypting the resulting ciphertext, and encrypting the decrypted result again. To perform these operations, Triple DES uses three individual keys. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

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29. A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

Explanation

The correct answer is "total surface". In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. The visible area refers to the parts of the system that are easily seen or accessible, while the concealed area refers to the parts that are hidden or not easily visible. Therefore, the inspection must encompass the total surface of the PDS to ensure a thorough assessment.

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30. Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

Explanation

Reciprocating generators are typically powered by diesel or gasoline engines, as they are more efficient and reliable for continuous use. Fossil fuel is a broader category that includes both diesel and gasoline, so it is not a specific fuel that is not used for reciprocating generators. Liquid petroleum is also a type of fossil fuel, so it is not the correct answer either. Therefore, the correct answer is fossil fuel.

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31. What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?

Explanation

The correct answer is T-568A and T-568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. These standards define the pin assignments for the individual wires within the cable, ensuring that the cables are terminated consistently and correctly. T-568A and T-568B are both widely used standards in the industry and are compatible with each other.

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32. Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

Explanation

Secure terminal equipment (STE) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide secure voice communication over the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN). It incorporates encryption and decryption capabilities to protect the confidentiality of the conversation. STUs, CTs, and PGPfones are not specifically designed for ISDN and may not have the necessary encryption capabilities to ensure secure communication over this network.

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33. Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

Explanation

When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options listed are all important factors to consider. The office power requirements are important to ensure that the batteries can meet the power needs of the office. The amount of floor space available is important to determine if there is enough space to accommodate the batteries. Future subscriber growth and reserve time required are important to ensure that the batteries can handle the anticipated increase in demand and provide sufficient backup power.

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34. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or

Explanation

The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be powered by either a reciprocating engine or a turbine engine. A turbine engine is a type of internal combustion engine that uses a continuous flow of air to generate power. It is commonly used in power plants and other large-scale electrical generation systems due to its efficiency and reliability.

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35. Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric cryptology involves the use of two different keys, one for encryption and one for decryption, which requires more computational resources and time. In contrast, symmetric cryptology uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, making it more efficient in terms of processing power and time. Diametric is not a recognized cryptology system, and the statement "None of the above, they are all the same" is incorrect as symmetric and asymmetric cryptology systems have distinct differences.

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36. Which encryption standard is not a telecommunications encryption type?

Explanation

The other options (Narrowband, Network, and Bulk) are all related to telecommunications, whereas "Open" does not refer to a specific encryption standard used in telecommunications.

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37. Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?

Explanation

Bulk encryption is the encryption method that handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one. This type of encryption is used to secure large amounts of data and is often used in telecommunications and network security to protect multiple lines of communication at once. It ensures that all the data and voice lines are encrypted together, providing a higher level of security for the combined lines.

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38. Which uniterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

Explanation

Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Unlike storage batteries, which require regular maintenance and replacement, flywheel UPS systems use a spinning flywheel to store kinetic energy that can be converted into electrical energy during power outages. This makes them more efficient and reliable for larger loads and currents. Power wheels and batteries are not typically used for larger loads and currents in UPS systems.

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39. In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser

Explanation

Before an encrypted transaction takes place in SSL, the web server gives the browser its public key. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser to the server, ensuring that only the server can decrypt and read the data. This helps to establish a secure and encrypted communication channel between the browser and the server, protecting the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data.

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40. Which does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

Explanation

The "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system implies that the system should be used for non-military purposes and activities that promote peace. Military use involving armed conflict goes against the peaceful purposes clause as it involves the use of force and violence, which is contradictory to the concept of peace. Therefore, military use involving armed conflict does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the Inmarsat system.

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41. How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called

Explanation

The correct answer is bit rate. The bit rate refers to the number of bits that are processed per unit of time in a digital audio signal. It determines the quality and fidelity of the audio signal. The higher the bit rate, the more accurately the original analog audio signal can be reproduced in digital form.

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42. Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

Explanation

Cell sites are structures that house antennas and other equipment used for wireless communication. They are typically designed to provide coverage over a specific area. The shape of a cell site can vary, but hexagons are commonly used because they allow for efficient coverage distribution. The hexagonal shape allows for equal distance between each cell site and minimizes interference between adjacent cells. This shape also allows for better signal propagation and helps to optimize network performance. Therefore, the correct answer is hexagon.

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43. What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), the voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP breaks down the voice data into small packets and sends them over the internet to the recipient. These packets contain the encoded voice data along with other information such as source and destination addresses. At the receiving end, the packets are reassembled and decoded to recreate the voice message. This packetization process allows for efficient transmission of voice data over the internet.

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44. The approval or disaproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

Explanation

Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing, evaluating, and approving or disapproving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly assessed and authorized before implementation. This helps to maintain the integrity and consistency of the configuration and ensures that any changes are properly managed and controlled.

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45. Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?

Explanation

Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods.

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46. Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?

Explanation

Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because there is a possibility of deleting the wrong account. This can lead to the loss of important emails and data associated with that account. Therefore, it is important to double-check and verify the account before proceeding with the deletion process.

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47. What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

Explanation

TDMA is a channel access method that assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency. This means that multiple calls can share the same frequency by taking turns transmitting in different time slots. This allows for efficient use of the available frequency spectrum and enables multiple users to access the channel simultaneously without interference.

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48. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

Explanation

The correct answer is unencrypted classified. In the RED/BLACK concept, RED lines carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted over the RED lines is classified but is not encrypted.

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49. Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts: physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to physically isolating networks or components to prevent unauthorized access or interference. Electrical separation involves using different power sources or isolating electrical circuits to prevent the spread of electrical disturbances.

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50. Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?

Explanation

Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or the contractor. This means that either the production work center within the organization or an external contractor hired for the job will be responsible for maintaining and servicing the equipment throughout its life cycle.

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51. What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

Explanation

Signal-to-noise ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise. This ratio indicates how much stronger the desired signal is compared to the noise level, and it is an important measure in various fields such as telecommunications, audio engineering, and signal processing. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a clearer and more reliable signal, while a lower ratio indicates a higher level of noise interference.

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52. Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

Explanation

The RS-232 port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine. RS-232 is a standard for serial communication that allows for the transmission of data between devices. It is commonly used for connecting peripherals such as modems, printers, and fax machines to computers. Therefore, the RS-232 port is the correct choice for connecting a fax machine to the STE.

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53. What is the Maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-E100?

Explanation

The maximum throughput for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-E100 is 165 Mbps for full-duplex and 100 Mbps for half-duplex. This means that the device can transmit data at a rate of up to 165 Mbps in both directions simultaneously in full-duplex mode, and up to 100 Mbps in one direction at a time in half-duplex mode.

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54. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro can aquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address by DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted (ciphertext) or not (plaintext).

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55. Which encryption handles software encryption?

Explanation

The question is asking which encryption handles software encryption. Out of the given options, "Network" is the most appropriate answer because network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data that is being transmitted over a network. This can be achieved through software encryption techniques such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). Narrowband, wideband, and bulk are not directly related to software encryption.

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56. Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Explanation

The unit commander is responsible for appointing the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager. This individual is in charge of overseeing the PWCS within the unit and ensuring its proper functioning. The unit commander has the authority to select a qualified individual for this role based on their knowledge and experience in managing wireless communications systems.

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57. What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), a network should expect a packet loss of less than 1 percent. This is because VoIP requires real-time transmission of voice data, and any significant packet loss can result in poor call quality or dropped calls. Therefore, to ensure a smooth and uninterrupted VoIP experience, it is important to minimize packet loss as much as possible.

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58. What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

Explanation

Encryption and decryption both involve the use of an algorithm and a key. The algorithm is the mathematical process used to transform the data, while the key is the secret value used to control the transformation. Without the algorithm, the data cannot be encrypted or decrypted, and without the key, the encrypted data cannot be decrypted. Therefore, both components are essential in both encryption and decryption processes.

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59. How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host?

Explanation

When a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host, two channels are used. One channel is used for transmitting data from the PBX to the IP host, and the other channel is used for transmitting data from the IP host to the PBX. This allows for bidirectional communication between the two devices.

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60. Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure

Explanation

COMSEC refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee its authenticity. It ensures that the information being communicated is genuine and has not been tampered with or altered in any way. This helps to protect the integrity and validity of the information being transmitted.

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61. What are the two major types of encryption algorothms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunck of data at a time?

Explanation

Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and encrypt or decrypt each block independently. Stream ciphers, on the other hand, encrypt or decrypt the data one bit or byte at a time, continuously generating a stream of key-dependent random bits. Both types of algorithms have their own advantages and are used in various applications depending on the specific requirements of the system.

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62. How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?

Explanation

The Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses 64 bits for its key. DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that was widely used in the past for securing data. The 64-bit key size provides a large number of possible key combinations, making it difficult for attackers to guess the correct key and decrypt the encrypted data. However, due to advancements in technology and increased computing power, DES is now considered to have a relatively weak key size and is no longer recommended for secure encryption.

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63. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro may be equipped to handle all types of networks except

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is capable of handling various types of networks such as gigabit Ethernet, fast Ethernet, and asynchronous transfer mode (ATM). However, it is not equipped to handle wireless networks.

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64. Protected distribution system (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?

Explanation

The correct answer is Protected distribution system (PDS) because the question asks about where events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded. The PDS is a system that ensures the secure transmission of sensitive information, so it makes sense that these events would be recorded within this system. The other options, such as EMSEC and TEMPEST, are related to electromagnetic security and standards, but they do not specifically mention recording events. Inspection is a general term and does not specify where the events are recorded. Therefore, PDS is the most appropriate answer.

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65. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?

Explanation

The Land Mobile Radio (LMR) device can be used for command and control in personal wireless communications systems (PWCS). LMR systems are commonly used by public safety and emergency response agencies for communication and coordination during critical situations. They provide reliable and secure communication channels for command and control purposes, allowing users to effectively manage and direct operations in real-time.

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66. What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?

Explanation

A gateway is a component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) that serves as an endpoint on the network. It provides real-time, bi-directional communication between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN). Gateways are responsible for converting voice signals from analog to digital and vice versa, allowing communication between different types of networks. They also handle protocol conversion and can connect different types of networks, such as PSTN and IP networks, enabling seamless communication between them. Therefore, a gateway is the correct component that fulfills the described functionality.

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67. How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

The one-way delay for implementing voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) should be less than 150 milliseconds. This is because any delay greater than this threshold can cause noticeable delays and disruptions in the conversation, leading to a poor user experience. VoIP relies on real-time communication, and a delay of more than 150 milliseconds can result in noticeable gaps and lags in the conversation, making it difficult for users to have a natural and smooth conversation. Therefore, a delay of less than 150 milliseconds is preferred for VoIP implementation.

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68. Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provide secure voice communications?

Explanation

The Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provides secure voice communications up to the level of top secret classification.

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69. What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management

Explanation

The correct answer is 17-210. This Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management.

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70. Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Configuration item" because the latest technical order (TO) information is required to properly identify and manage the configuration of individual items within a larger system or project. This ensures that the configuration is accurately documented and controlled, and any changes or updates can be implemented correctly.

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71. What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?

Explanation

The correct answer is symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system. Cryptology is the study of techniques for secure communication in the presence of adversaries. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same secret key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that the sender and receiver must both have a copy of the same key. In an asymmetric-public key system, there are two different keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely distributed, while the private key must be kept secret.

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72. Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Unit." In military communications, each unit is responsible for their own air time charges and must budget accordingly. This means that the unit is responsible for managing and paying for their own communication expenses, including air time charges. The other options, such as ISM, CSO, and PWCS manager, may have roles related to communications but they are not specifically responsible for air time charges and budgeting.

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73. Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

Explanation

Physical security refers to the measures taken to protect physical assets, such as buildings, equipment, and personnel, from unauthorized access or damage. In the context of communications security (COMSEC), physical security plays a crucial role in deterring, detecting, and defeating hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources. It involves implementing physical barriers, access controls, surveillance systems, and other protective measures to prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive information or disrupting critical communication systems. By ensuring the physical protection of resources, physical security helps to safeguard the integrity and confidentiality of communications within the US Air Force.

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74. What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can recieve as or send as for the account?

Explanation

Mailbox security is the correct answer because it is the exchange tab that allows for the addition, deletion, or modification of user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account. This tab provides the necessary controls and permissions to manage the security settings for user mailboxes, including the ability to grant or revoke access to other users for sending and receiving emails on behalf of the account.

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75. What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal that responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

Explanation

A phase locked loop (PLL) is a control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal. It responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals. This means that it can track and lock onto the phase of a reference signal, ensuring that the output signal is in sync with the input signal. It is commonly used in applications such as frequency synthesis, clock recovery, and demodulation.

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76. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 153, COMSEC Material Report. This form is used to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package. It is specifically designed for reporting the transfer of COMSEC material, ensuring proper documentation and accountability.

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77. Which commercial satellite communication system can offer true pole-to-pole global coverage?

Explanation

Iridium is the correct answer because it is the only commercial satellite communication system that can offer true pole-to-pole global coverage. The other options mentioned, such as the European Telecommunications Satellite Organization and the International Telecommunications Satellite Organization, do not provide global coverage. The International Mobile Satellite Organization also does not offer pole-to-pole coverage. Only Iridium has a network of satellites that can provide communication services in all areas of the world, including the polar regions.

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78. What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messasges, allowing the reciever to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additonal data?

Explanation

Forward error correction (FEC) is a system of error control for data transmission that involves the sender adding redundant data to its messages. This redundancy allows the receiver to detect and correct errors without needing to ask the sender for additional data. FEC is commonly used in communication systems to ensure reliable data transmission, particularly in situations where retransmission of lost or corrupted data is not feasible or efficient.

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79. When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

Explanation

When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital signal, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. Encrypting the digital signal helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the communication, making it more secure.

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80. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports what speeds in kilobits per second (Kbps)?

Explanation

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports a speed of 128 kilobits per second (Kbps).

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81. What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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82. Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weighs 30 to 40 pounds?

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

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83. The Secure terminal equipment (STE) cannot commincate securely with what device?

Explanation

The Secure terminal equipment (STE) is designed to provide secure communication. It can communicate securely with devices such as the Secure telephone unit (STU)-III, satellite telephone, and cellular telephone. However, it cannot communicate securely with a land mobile radio. This could be due to the fact that land mobile radios may not have the necessary encryption capabilities or security protocols to ensure secure communication.

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84. The Secure terminal equipment (STE) consists of a

Explanation

The correct answer is host terminal and removable security core. This means that the Secure terminal equipment (STE) is made up of a host terminal and a removable security core. The host terminal is the main device that the user interacts with, while the security core is a separate component that provides the necessary security features for the STE. This configuration allows for the security core to be easily replaced or upgraded without having to replace the entire STE.

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85. What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?

Explanation

Increasing the bit rate will improve the audio quality. Bit rate refers to the number of bits that are processed per unit of time in an audio file. A higher bit rate means that more information is being processed and transmitted, resulting in better audio quality with more detail and clarity.

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86. Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Base communications and information systems officer (CSO). This individual is responsible for coordinating the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander. They oversee the implementation, maintenance, and security of the PWCS and ensure that it meets the needs of the installation. As the CSO, they have the authority and knowledge to effectively manage and coordinate the PWCS assets.

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87. What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?

Explanation

The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Storage batteries are a common choice for UPS systems as they can store a large amount of energy and provide a reliable power source during outages. Flywheels, on the other hand, store energy in the form of rotational kinetic energy and can quickly release it when needed. Both options serve the purpose of providing backup power in case of a power outage.

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88. What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets.

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets. This system is responsible for managing and tracking the inventory of assets within the PWCS, including equipment and devices. It allows for the identification of assets that may require upgrades or replacements, and provides a centralized platform for suggesting and planning these upgrades. By utilizing AIMS, organizations can efficiently manage and prioritize upgrades to ensure the optimal performance and functionality of their PWCS assets.

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89. What mode of operation do cell phones use?

Explanation

Cell phones use duplex mode of operation, which allows for simultaneous two-way communication. In duplex mode, both parties can speak and listen at the same time, enabling real-time conversation. This is different from simplex mode, where communication can only occur in one direction at a time. Half-duplex mode allows for two-way communication, but only one party can speak at a time. Hybrid mode refers to a combination of different modes of operation, and is not specific to cell phones.

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90. What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

Explanation

The correct combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) to use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) is AFI 17-210, AFI 17-220, AFSSI 7702, and AFMAN 17-1302-O.

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91. What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated?

Explanation

Inmarsat coverage is separated into different types of areas based on geographical locations. These areas include oceans, continents, and regions. Since the question specifically asks about the type of areas that Inmarsat coverage is separated into, the correct answer is "ocean." This suggests that Inmarsat provides satellite coverage primarily for oceanic areas.

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92. Which set of electrical standards does the KIV-7 not support?

Explanation

The KIV-7 does not support the RS-422 electrical standard.

Submit
93. Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?

Explanation

Wideband encryption is designed to handle data that can come from equipment such as computers. Wideband encryption refers to the encryption of a broad range of frequencies, allowing it to handle various types of data transmission. This type of encryption is commonly used in computer networks to secure data and protect it from unauthorized access or interception.

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94. How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?

Explanation

The correct answer is 14. This means that the intra-squad radios operate on 14 different channels.

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95. Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Classic and TACLANE-E100 are high speed encrytption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for

Explanation

TACLANE encryption devices are designed to provide security services for Internet Protocol (IP) networks. This means that they are specifically designed to encrypt and secure data transmitted over IP networks, ensuring confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication. While TACLANE devices may also be used for serial networks, tactical networks, and point-to-point connections, the primary focus is on securing data transmitted over IP networks. Therefore, the correct answer is Internet Protocol Networks.

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96. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro can be used to overlay what type of networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can be used to overlay Secure Virtual Networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures. This means that it can provide additional security and encryption to these networks, allowing for secure communication and data transfer.

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97. What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data?

Explanation

ISDN uses the H.320 protocol to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data. H.320 is a standard protocol that is specifically designed for video conferencing over ISDN networks. It defines the necessary protocols and procedures for establishing and maintaining video calls, as well as for encoding, decoding, and transmitting video and audio data over the ISDN network. H.320 supports both point-to-point and multipoint video conferencing, making it a suitable choice for transmitting VTC data over ISDN.

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98. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Network termination (NT) 1. The NT1 component in the video teleconferencing system converts incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions.

Submit
99. Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications system (PWCS) managers duties?

Explanation

The correct answer is technical reviews. The personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for maintaining the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) database, managing technical solutions, and performing maintenance tasks. However, conducting technical reviews is not listed as one of their duties.

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100. In response to disater relif operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of mobile satellite services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use additional MSS providers for

Explanation

The correct answer is unclassified purposes within CONUS. The amendment to the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of mobile satellite services (MSS) in 2006 allowed the DOD to use additional MSS providers for unclassified purposes within the continental United States (CONUS). This means that the DOD can now utilize mobile satellite services for non-sensitive purposes within the United States.

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The Secure terminal equipment (STE) consists of a
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