CDC 3D151 Vol 2 Ure
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Remedy new
- C.
Remedy user
- D.
Remedy ticket
Correct Answer
C. Remedy userExplanation
To create a new ticket, the tool that must be used is "Remedy user". This tool is specifically designed for users to create and manage tickets in the Remedy system. It allows users to input all the necessary details and information for the ticket, such as the issue, priority, and contact information. By using the "Remedy user" tool, users can efficiently create new tickets and ensure that all the required information is captured accurately.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?
- A.
Software or hardware
- B.
Software and equipment
- C.
Application or hardware
- D.
Application and equipment
Correct Answer
A. Software or hardwareExplanation
The two types of forms used in Remedy are software and hardware. Remedy is a software application used for IT service management and issue tracking. The software forms are used to capture and organize information related to IT incidents, problems, and changes. On the other hand, hardware forms are used to track and manage physical assets such as computers, servers, and network devices. By using both software and hardware forms, Remedy provides a comprehensive solution for managing IT service requests and assets.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
- A.
A resolution group only
- B.
A specific technician only
- C.
Remedy automatically assigns tickets
- D.
A resolution group or specific technician
Correct Answer
D. A resolution group or specific technicianExplanation
In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician to fix problems. This allows for flexibility in assigning tickets based on the expertise and availability of technicians.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?
- A.
Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS)
- B.
Telephone Management System
- C.
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)
- D.
Remedy
Correct Answer
C. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question asks what system the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces throughout the maintenance complex. The IMDS interface with ES-S replaces the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) throughout the maintenance complex.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
- A.
Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes
- B.
Function as a common interactive interface for other systems
- C.
Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level
- D.
Provide status and invetory data
Correct Answer
C. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force levelExplanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a system that is used to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems and provides status and inventory data. However, it does not roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not aggregate or consolidate logistics data from lower levels to the Air Force level.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the
- A.
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)
- B.
Telecommunications Management System (TMS)
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
- D.
Automated Information System (AIS)
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)Explanation
The correct answer is AFEMS because the question is asking for the online database program that is a part of the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).Rate this question:
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- 7.
Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage Air Force assets?
- A.
Weapons
- B.
Support
- C.
Telephone
- D.
Communications
Correct Answer
D. CommunicationsExplanation
AIMS is used to track and manage Air Force assets, and one of the key assets that need to be tracked and managed in the Air Force is the communications equipment. This includes radios, satellites, and other communication devices that are crucial for effective communication within the Air Force. Therefore, the correct answer is Communications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) includes what type of database and is located where?
- A.
Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB)
- B.
Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB
- C.
Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB
- D.
Oracle database at Randolph AFB
Correct Answer
C. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFBExplanation
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is located at Wright-Patterson AFB and uses an Oracle database.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
- A.
Defense Courier Service
- B.
Protected distribution system
- C.
Communications security equipment
- D.
Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System
Correct Answer
A. Defense Courier ServiceExplanation
The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical delivery service for classified and sensitive materials, rather than a method for transmitting information electronically. The other options, such as the protected distribution system, communications security equipment, and intrusion detection optical communications system, are all methods that provide secure telecommunications by encrypting, protecting, or detecting unauthorized access to data during transmission.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified
- B.
Encrypted unclassified
- C.
Unencrypted classified
- D.
Unecrypted unclassified
Correct Answer
C. Unencrypted classifiedExplanation
The correct answer is unencrypted classified. In the RED/BLACK concept, RED lines carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted over the RED lines is classified but is not encrypted.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified or unclassified
- B.
Encrypted classified only
- C.
Unencrypted classified
- D.
Unclassified only
Correct Answer
A. Encrypted classified or unclassifiedExplanation
The correct answer is "Encrypted classified or unclassified." In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted or unencrypted, and it can be classified or unclassified. This means that any type of traffic, regardless of its encryption status or classification level, can be carried by the BLACK lines.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
- A.
Physical seperation and electromagnetic seperation
- B.
Electromagnetic seperation and electrical seperation
- C.
Physical seperation and electrical seperation
- D.
Physical seperation and emission seperation
Correct Answer
C. Physical seperation and electrical seperationExplanation
The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts: physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to physically isolating networks or components to prevent unauthorized access or interference. Electrical separation involves using different power sources or isolating electrical circuits to prevent the spread of electrical disturbances.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the purpose of the Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?
- A.
Elimante all instances of radiation of electrical impulses
- B.
Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses
- C.
Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses
- D.
Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses
Correct Answer
B. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulsesExplanation
The purpose of the Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. TEMPEST aims to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic emanations that can be captured and exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information. By implementing measures to minimize these emissions, the program helps to enhance the security and confidentiality of electronic communications and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?
- A.
Communication security
- B.
Tramsmission security
- C.
Emission security
- D.
Computer security
Correct Answer
C. Emission securityExplanation
The correct answer is "Emission security." The Transient Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called emission security. Emission security focuses on preventing the unintentional release of electromagnetic signals from electronic equipment that could be intercepted and used to gather sensitive information. This program aims to protect against electromagnetic eavesdropping and ensure that classified information remains secure.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What area is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?
- A.
Controlled Access Area (CAA)
- B.
Restricted Access Area (RAA)
- C.
Limited-Control Area (LCA)
- D.
Uncontrolled Access Area (UAA)
Correct Answer
A. Controlled Access Area (CAA)Explanation
A Controlled Access Area (CAA) is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control. In this area, unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This means that only authorized individuals are allowed entry into the CAA, ensuring that the area is secure and protected from unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?
- A.
Communications security
- B.
Line route or visual
- C.
Seperation
- D.
Electrical
Correct Answer
B. Line route or visualExplanation
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the communication lines. These inspections can be done either by following the line route or through visual inspections. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually examining the system, any potential issues or vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the continued protection and functionality of the PDS.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Protected distribution system (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?
- A.
Emission security (EMSEC)
- B.
Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST)
- C.
Inspection
- D.
Protected distribution system (PDS)
Correct Answer
D. Protected distribution system (PDS)Explanation
The correct answer is Protected distribution system (PDS) because the question asks about where events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded. The PDS is a system that ensures the secure transmission of sensitive information, so it makes sense that these events would be recorded within this system. The other options, such as EMSEC and TEMPEST, are related to electromagnetic security and standards, but they do not specifically mention recording events. Inspection is a general term and does not specify where the events are recorded. Therefore, PDS is the most appropriate answer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the
- A.
total surface
- B.
visible area
- C.
concealed area
- D.
observable area
Correct Answer
A. total surfaceExplanation
The correct answer is "total surface". In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. The visible area refers to the parts of the system that are easily seen or accessible, while the concealed area refers to the parts that are hidden or not easily visible. Therefore, the inspection must encompass the total surface of the PDS to ensure a thorough assessment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What are the two different types of current used for power?
- A.
100 v (volts) and 210 v
- B.
105 v and 215 v
- C.
110 v and 220 v
- D.
115 v and 225 v
Correct Answer
C. 110 v and 220 vExplanation
The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v because these are the standard voltages used for power in most countries. The voltage of 110 v is commonly used in North America, while 220 v is used in many other parts of the world. These voltages are suitable for powering various electrical devices and appliances.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?
- A.
Storage batteries or a power wheel
- B.
Storage batteries or a flywheel
- C.
Batteries or a power wheel
- D.
Batteries or a flywheel
Correct Answer
D. Batteries or a flywheelExplanation
The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Storage batteries are a common choice for UPS systems as they can store a large amount of energy and provide a reliable power source during outages. Flywheels, on the other hand, store energy in the form of rotational kinetic energy and can quickly release it when needed. Both options serve the purpose of providing backup power in case of a power outage.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which uniterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?
- A.
Storage batteries
- B.
Power wheels
- C.
Flywheel
- D.
Batteries
Correct Answer
C. FlywheelExplanation
Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Unlike storage batteries, which require regular maintenance and replacement, flywheel UPS systems use a spinning flywheel to store kinetic energy that can be converted into electrical energy during power outages. This makes them more efficient and reliable for larger loads and currents. Power wheels and batteries are not typically used for larger loads and currents in UPS systems.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?
- A.
The office power requirements
- B.
The amount of floor space available
- C.
Future subscriber growth and reserve time required
- D.
The number of alternating current converters in the office
Correct Answer
D. The number of alternating current converters in the officeExplanation
When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options listed are all important factors to consider. The office power requirements are important to ensure that the batteries can meet the power needs of the office. The amount of floor space available is important to determine if there is enough space to accommodate the batteries. Future subscriber growth and reserve time required are important to ensure that the batteries can handle the anticipated increase in demand and provide sufficient backup power.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or
- A.
turbine batteries
- B.
a turbine engine
- C.
an engine
- D.
batteries
Correct Answer
B. a turbine engineExplanation
The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be powered by either a reciprocating engine or a turbine engine. A turbine engine is a type of internal combustion engine that uses a continuous flow of air to generate power. It is commonly used in power plants and other large-scale electrical generation systems due to its efficiency and reliability.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
- A.
Diesel
- B.
Gasoline
- C.
Fossil fuel
- D.
Liquid petroleum
Correct Answer
C. Fossil fuelExplanation
Reciprocating generators are typically powered by diesel or gasoline engines, as they are more efficient and reliable for continuous use. Fossil fuel is a broader category that includes both diesel and gasoline, so it is not a specific fuel that is not used for reciprocating generators. Liquid petroleum is also a type of fossil fuel, so it is not the correct answer either. Therefore, the correct answer is fossil fuel.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?
- A.
Production work center or communication squadron
- B.
Production work center or contractor
- C.
Communications squadron
- D.
Production work center
Correct Answer
B. Production work center or contractorExplanation
Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or the contractor. This means that either the production work center within the organization or an external contractor hired for the job will be responsible for maintaining and servicing the equipment throughout its life cycle.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The approval or disaproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as
- A.
configuration
- B.
configuration item
- C.
configuration control
- D.
configuration identification
Correct Answer
C. configuration controlExplanation
Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing, evaluating, and approving or disapproving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly assessed and authorized before implementation. This helps to maintain the integrity and consistency of the configuration and ensures that any changes are properly managed and controlled.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of these statements pertain to configuration management?
- A.
Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI
- B.
Record and report change processing and implementation status
- C.
Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the statements mentioned pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, and controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all of the given statements are relevant to configuration management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?
- A.
Configuration
- B.
Configuration item
- C.
Configuration control
- D.
Configuration identification
Correct Answer
B. Configuration itemExplanation
The correct answer is "Configuration item" because the latest technical order (TO) information is required to properly identify and manage the configuration of individual items within a larger system or project. This ensures that the configuration is accurately documented and controlled, and any changes or updates can be implemented correctly.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?
- A.
T-586 and T-586A
- B.
T-586A and T-586B
- C.
T-568 and T-568A
- D.
T-568A and T-568B
Correct Answer
D. T-568A and T-568BExplanation
The correct answer is T-568A and T-568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. These standards define the pin assignments for the individual wires within the cable, ensuring that the cables are terminated consistently and correctly. T-568A and T-568B are both widely used standards in the industry and are compatible with each other.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?
- A.
Air Force Systems Security Insturction (AFSSI) 8502, Organizational Computer Security
- B.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17-130, Cybersecurity Program Management
- C.
AFI 33-201, Communications Security (COMSEC)
- D.
AFSSI 7700, Emission Security
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17-130, Cybersecurity Program Management -
- 32.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can recieve as or send as for the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings
- B.
Mailbox rights
- C.
Mailbox security
- D.
Custom attributes
Correct Answer
C. Mailbox securityExplanation
Mailbox security is the correct answer because it is the exchange tab that allows for the addition, deletion, or modification of user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account. This tab provides the necessary controls and permissions to manage the security settings for user mailboxes, including the ability to grant or revoke access to other users for sending and receiving emails on behalf of the account.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings
- B.
Mailbox rights
- C.
Mailbox security
- D.
Custom attributes
Correct Answer
B. Mailbox rightsExplanation
The correct answer is "Mailbox rights." This tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account. These special permissions include rights such as full access, send as, and receive as permissions for a mailbox. By managing mailbox rights, administrators can control who has access to a mailbox and what actions they can perform on it.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?
- A.
The users e-mail will be deleted from the exchange server
- B.
Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification
- C.
The wrong account could be deleted
- D.
Restoring e-mail is difficult
Correct Answer
C. The wrong account could be deletedExplanation
Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because there is a possibility of deleting the wrong account. This can lead to the loss of important emails and data associated with that account. Therefore, it is important to double-check and verify the account before proceeding with the deletion process.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the users domain account is deleted?
- A.
Changed
- B.
Deleted
- C.
Updated
- D.
Reviewed
Correct Answer
B. DeletedExplanation
When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This is because the email account is tied to the user's domain account, and deleting the domain account automatically removes access to the email account as well.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can only perform actions on one object at a time, such as modifying its properties or permissions. This limitation ensures that changes made to objects are accurate and avoids any potential conflicts or errors that may arise from manipulating multiple objects simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
- A.
The analog signal
- B.
The digital signal
- C.
The multiplexed signal
- D.
The senders private key
Correct Answer
B. The digital signalExplanation
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital signal, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. Encrypting the digital signal helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the communication, making it more secure.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
- A.
Algorithm and key
- B.
Certificate and key
- C.
Telephone and reciever
- D.
Algorithm and certificate
Correct Answer
A. Algorithm and keyExplanation
Encryption and decryption both involve the use of an algorithm and a key. The algorithm is the mathematical process used to transform the data, while the key is the secret value used to control the transformation. Without the algorithm, the data cannot be encrypted or decrypted, and without the key, the encrypted data cannot be decrypted. Therefore, both components are essential in both encryption and decryption processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
- A.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system
- B.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system
- C.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system
- D.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system
Correct Answer
C. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key systemExplanation
The correct answer is symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system. Cryptology is the study of techniques for secure communication in the presence of adversaries. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same secret key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that the sender and receiver must both have a copy of the same key. In an asymmetric-public key system, there are two different keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely distributed, while the private key must be kept secret.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
- A.
Speed
- B.
Storage
- C.
Security
- D.
Standards
Correct Answer
A. SpeedExplanation
Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, which allows for faster processing compared to asymmetric encryption. This is because symmetric encryption algorithms are generally simpler and require less computational power. As a result, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making symmetric cryptology a preferred choice for applications that require high-speed processing, such as secure communication systems or data storage.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?
- A.
Symmetric
- B.
Asymmetric
- C.
Diametric
- D.
None of the above, they are all the same
Correct Answer
B. AsymmetricExplanation
Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric cryptology involves the use of two different keys, one for encryption and one for decryption, which requires more computational resources and time. In contrast, symmetric cryptology uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, making it more efficient in terms of processing power and time. Diametric is not a recognized cryptology system, and the statement "None of the above, they are all the same" is incorrect as symmetric and asymmetric cryptology systems have distinct differences.Rate this question:
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- 42.
In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser
- A.
Its public key
- B.
Its private key
- C.
Its public certificate
- D.
Its private certificate
Correct Answer
A. Its public keyExplanation
Before an encrypted transaction takes place in SSL, the web server gives the browser its public key. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser to the server, ensuring that only the server can decrypt and read the data. This helps to establish a secure and encrypted communication channel between the browser and the server, protecting the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the two major types of encryption algorothms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunck of data at a time?
- A.
Stream algorithm and block ciphers
- B.
Secure algorithms and block ciphers
- C.
Block algorithms and stream ciphers
- D.
Block algorithms and secure ciphers
Correct Answer
C. Block algorithms and stream ciphersExplanation
Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and encrypt or decrypt each block independently. Stream ciphers, on the other hand, encrypt or decrypt the data one bit or byte at a time, continuously generating a stream of key-dependent random bits. Both types of algorithms have their own advantages and are used in various applications depending on the specific requirements of the system.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
- A.
64
- B.
128
- C.
192
- D.
256
Correct Answer
A. 64Explanation
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses 64 bits for its key. DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that was widely used in the past for securing data. The 64-bit key size provides a large number of possible key combinations, making it difficult for attackers to guess the correct key and decrypt the encrypted data. However, due to advancements in technology and increased computing power, DES is now considered to have a relatively weak key size and is no longer recommended for secure encryption.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption, namely, encrypt-decrypt-encrypt. This process involves encrypting the plaintext, decrypting the resulting ciphertext, and encrypting the decrypted result again. To perform these operations, Triple DES uses three individual keys. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which encryption standard is not a telecommunications encryption type?
- A.
Narrowband
- B.
Network
- C.
Bulk
- D.
Open
Correct Answer
D. OpenExplanation
The other options (Narrowband, Network, and Bulk) are all related to telecommunications, whereas "Open" does not refer to a specific encryption standard used in telecommunications.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?
- A.
Wideband
- B.
Narrowband
- C.
Network
- D.
Bulk
Correct Answer
A. WidebandExplanation
Wideband encryption is designed to handle data that can come from equipment such as computers. Wideband encryption refers to the encryption of a broad range of frequencies, allowing it to handle various types of data transmission. This type of encryption is commonly used in computer networks to secure data and protect it from unauthorized access or interception.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?
- A.
Bulk
- B.
Network
- C.
Wideband
- D.
Narrowband
Correct Answer
A. BulkExplanation
Bulk encryption is the encryption method that handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one. This type of encryption is used to secure large amounts of data and is often used in telecommunications and network security to protect multiple lines of communication at once. It ensures that all the data and voice lines are encrypted together, providing a higher level of security for the combined lines.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which encryption handles software encryption?
- A.
Narrowband
- B.
Wideband
- C.
Network
- D.
Bulk
Correct Answer
C. NetworkExplanation
The question is asking which encryption handles software encryption. Out of the given options, "Network" is the most appropriate answer because network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data that is being transmitted over a network. This can be achieved through software encryption techniques such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). Narrowband, wideband, and bulk are not directly related to software encryption.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure
- A.
authenticity
- B.
compliance
- C.
integrity
- D.
validity
Correct Answer
A. authenticityExplanation
COMSEC refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee its authenticity. It ensures that the information being communicated is genuine and has not been tampered with or altered in any way. This helps to protect the integrity and validity of the information being transmitted.Rate this question:
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