HVAC Quiz: Heating, Ventilation And Air Conditioning! Toughest Trivia Questions
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This is the toughest HVAC Quiz based on Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning. Do you think that you have done adequate revision to tackle it or might you be in need of some practice? If you are not so sure all you need to do is take up this quiz and keep an eye out for others on the topic so as to perfect your understanding. All the best!
- 1.
What is the purpose of air conditioning?
- A.
To control the humidity in a building
- B.
To clean the air in a building
- C.
To control the temperature in a building
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The purpose of air conditioning is to control the humidity, clean the air, and control the temperature in a building. Air conditioning systems are designed to remove excess moisture from the air, making the environment more comfortable and preventing the growth of mold and bacteria. They also filter the air, removing dust, allergens, and pollutants, thereby improving indoor air quality. Additionally, air conditioning systems are used to regulate the temperature, providing cooling in hot weather and heating in cold weather. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who developed the first modern air conditioning system?
- A.
Willis Carrier
- B.
James Trane
- C.
Harold Goodman
- D.
Dave Lennox
Correct Answer
A. Willis CarrierExplanation
Willis Carrier is credited with developing the first modern air conditioning system. He invented the system in 1902 and it was designed to control the temperature and humidity of a printing plant. Carrier's invention revolutionized the way buildings are cooled and made it possible to create comfortable indoor environments in hot and humid climates. His pioneering work laid the foundation for the modern air conditioning industry.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Air conditioning window units for homes were first available in
- A.
1950s
- B.
1960s
- C.
1940s
- D.
1970s
Correct Answer
A. 1950sExplanation
Air conditioning window units for homes were first available in the 1950s. This means that during this decade, people were able to install air conditioning units in their windows to cool their homes. Prior to this, other forms of cooling systems were used, such as fans or central air conditioning systems. The availability of window units in the 1950s revolutionized home cooling, making it more accessible and convenient for homeowners.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What classification would a 100,000 Btuh furnace most likely be?
- A.
Commercial
- B.
Residential
- C.
Industrial
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. ResidentialExplanation
A 100,000 Btuh furnace would most likely be classified as residential because it is a common size for heating systems in homes. Commercial furnaces are typically larger and used in commercial buildings, while industrial furnaces are even larger and used in industrial settings. Therefore, the most likely classification for a 100,000 Btuh furnace would be residential.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the ICE exam?
- A.
Industry Competency Exam given to students to test their knowledge of fundamentals
- B.
Instantaneous Calibration Exam used to check the accuracy of test instruments
- C.
A performance test all the ice machines must pass to become EPA certified
- D.
Industrial cooling Efficiency is a test performed to check industrial cooling equipment
Correct Answer
A. Industry Competency Exam given to students to test their knowledge of fundamentalsExplanation
The ICE exam refers to the Industry Competency Exam, which is given to students to test their knowledge of fundamentals. This exam assesses the understanding and competency of individuals in a specific industry, evaluating their knowledge and skills in the fundamental aspects of that industry.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the purpose of the Refrigeration Service Engineer's Society, RSES?
- A.
To regulate who can work in the refrigeration service field
- B.
To establish standards and codes for good refrigeration engineering practices
- C.
To educate refrigeration service technicians and service managers
- D.
To train engineers who design refrigeration systems
Correct Answer
C. To educate refrigeration service technicians and service managersExplanation
The purpose of the Refrigeration Service Engineer's Society (RSES) is to educate refrigeration service technicians and service managers. RSES aims to provide training and knowledge to individuals working in the refrigeration service field, helping them improve their skills and stay updated with the latest practices. By offering educational programs, resources, and certifications, RSES ensures that technicians and managers have the necessary expertise to effectively maintain and repair refrigeration systems.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which type of ladders are safest to use in any working conditions?
- A.
Aluminum ladders
- B.
Any ladder that is structurally sound is safe as long as the power tool is properly gounded
- C.
Fiberglass ladders
- D.
All steel folding ladders
Correct Answer
C. Fiberglass laddersExplanation
Fiberglass ladders are considered the safest to use in any working conditions because they are non-conductive, lightweight, and durable. Unlike aluminum or steel ladders, fiberglass ladders do not conduct electricity, making them ideal for working near power sources or electrical equipment. Additionally, fiberglass ladders are resistant to weather conditions, chemicals, and corrosion, ensuring their stability and longevity. Therefore, using fiberglass ladders minimizes the risk of electrical accidents and provides a secure and reliable platform for various tasks.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Explain how a non-toxic, nonflammable refrigerant can be dangerous.
- A.
Most common refrigerants decompose on contact with air to form toxic substances
- B.
Most common refrigerants decompose on contact with air to form flammable substances
- C.
Concentrated refrigerant can cause euphoric highs that lead to irrational and dangerous behavior
- D.
The refrigerant can replace all the air in a space, depriving you of oxygen
Correct Answer
D. The refrigerant can replace all the air in a space, depriving you of oxygen -
- 9.
What is the purpose of SDS sheets?
- A.
To provide information on what types of material a product is compatible with
- B.
To communicate the substance's hazards and how they can be avoided
- C.
To provide instructions on possible uses of a product
- D.
To prevent lawsuits by including injury disclaimers and liability waivers
Correct Answer
B. To communicate the substance's hazards and how they can be avoidedExplanation
SDS sheets, also known as Safety Data Sheets, serve the purpose of communicating the hazards associated with a substance and providing instructions on how to avoid them. These sheets contain detailed information about the physical and chemical properties of the substance, as well as its potential health and environmental hazards. They also provide guidance on proper storage, handling, and emergency procedures. By providing this information, SDS sheets help ensure the safety of individuals working with or around the substance, allowing them to take necessary precautions and prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 10.
When should you reqd a product's safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
- A.
Whenever an OSHA inspector is on the job site
- B.
After completing the job so you can file all the required safety reports
- C.
Whenever you accidentally contact the material to find out what treatment is recommended
- D.
Before using the material so you are aware of its hazards
Correct Answer
D. Before using the material so you are aware of its hazardsExplanation
It is important to read a product's Safety Data Sheet (SDS) before using the material so that you are aware of its hazards. The SDS provides detailed information about the potential hazards of the product, including any health effects, precautions for safe handling, and emergency procedures. By reading the SDS beforehand, you can take necessary precautions and ensure your safety while using the material.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What gases are safe to use for refrigerant system pressure testing?
- A.
Compressed air
- B.
Acetylene
- C.
Oxygen
- D.
Dry nitrogen
Correct Answer
D. Dry nitrogenExplanation
Dry nitrogen is safe to use for refrigerant system pressure testing because it is an inert gas that does not react with other substances or support combustion. It is also non-toxic and non-flammable, making it a suitable choice for pressurizing the system without the risk of explosion or contamination. Additionally, dry nitrogen is readily available and affordable, making it a practical option for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What equipment should always be used when using nitrogen?
- A.
An expansion valve to insure that no liquid nitrogen enters the compressor
- B.
A fire extinguisher in case the nitrogen catches on fire
- C.
A pressure regulator and relief valve
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. A pressure regulator and relief valveExplanation
When using nitrogen, it is essential to always use a pressure regulator and relief valve. This is because nitrogen can be highly pressurized, and without regulating the pressure, it can lead to dangerous situations. The pressure regulator helps control the flow of nitrogen and ensures that it remains at a safe level. The relief valve, on the other hand, is a safety measure that releases excess pressure if it builds up beyond the set limit. Therefore, using a pressure regulator and relief valve is crucial for safe and proper handling of nitrogen.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Matter is defined as
- A.
Anything that has mass and takes up space
- B.
Physical objects that can be seen
- C.
Anything that has weight, can be seen, and emits energy
- D.
Physical objects that emit energy
Correct Answer
A. Anything that has mass and takes up spaceExplanation
The correct answer is "Anything that has mass and takes up space." This definition of matter encompasses all physical objects and substances that exist in the universe. Matter can be solid, liquid, or gas, and it includes everything from tiny particles to massive celestial bodies. The key characteristics of matter are its mass, which is a measure of the amount of material it contains, and its volume, which is the amount of space it occupies. This definition excludes non-physical entities such as energy or abstract concepts.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the relationship between atoms and molecules?
- A.
Atoms are made up of molecules
- B.
Molecules are made up of atoms
- C.
They are both weightless
- D.
They are two words for the same thing
Correct Answer
B. Molecules are made up of atomsExplanation
Molecules are made up of atoms. This is because molecules are formed when two or more atoms chemically bond together. Atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, while molecules are the result of the combination of atoms. Therefore, molecules cannot exist without atoms.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The three common states of matter are
- A.
Radiant, conductive, and convective
- B.
Sensible, latent, and specific
- C.
Solid, liquid, and gas
- D.
Sub-atomic, atomic, and molecular
Correct Answer
C. Solid, liquid, and gasExplanation
The three common states of matter are solid, liquid, and gas. These states are based on the arrangement and movement of particles. In a solid, particles are tightly packed and have a fixed shape and volume. In a liquid, particles are close together but can move and flow, taking the shape of the container they are in. In a gas, particles are far apart and move freely, filling the entire space available to them. These three states represent the most common and observable forms of matter in our everyday lives.Rate this question:
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- 16.
If a gas with a specific gravity of 1.3 is released in a room, will it be more likely to be found near the ceiling or near the floor?
- A.
It would be found at both the ceiling and the floor because a gas with a high specific gravity would fill up the room
- B.
The specific gravity of a gas does not affect its position in a room relative to other gases
- C.
Near the floor because it's specific gravity is greater than 1
- D.
Near the ceiling because it's specific gravity is greater than 1
Correct Answer
C. Near the floor because it's specific gravity is greater than 1Explanation
A gas with a specific gravity greater than 1 is denser than air. This means that it will tend to sink and accumulate near the floor rather than rise to the ceiling. Therefore, it is more likely to be found near the floor.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the AHRI "A" performance testing condition for air cooled air conditioning equipment?
- A.
90 degrees F outside ambient, 85 degrees F indoor dry bulb, 70 degrees F indoor wet bulb
- B.
100 degree outside ambient, 75 degree F indoor dry bulb, 72 degree F indoor wet bulb
- C.
95 degrees F outside ambient, 75 degrees indoor dry bulb, 75 degrees indoor wet bulb
- D.
95 degrees outside ambient, 80 degree F indoor dry bulb, 67 degree F indoor wet bulb
Correct Answer
D. 95 degrees outside ambient, 80 degree F indoor dry bulb, 67 degree F indoor wet bulb -
- 18.
How does pressure affect the boiling temperature of a liquid
- A.
The pressure cannot change once a liquid begins to boil.
- B.
Increasing the pressure increases the boiling point.
- C.
Decreasing the pressure increases the boiling point.
- D.
Pressure has no effect on the boiling temperature of a liquid.
Correct Answer
B. Increasing the pressure increases the boiling point.Explanation
When the pressure on a liquid is increased, it raises the boiling point of the liquid. This is because increasing the pressure makes it harder for the liquid molecules to escape into the gas phase, requiring more energy to overcome the increased pressure. As a result, the liquid needs to be heated to a higher temperature in order to reach its boiling point and convert into a gas. Therefore, increasing the pressure increases the boiling point of a liquid.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The temperature of the water formed by melting ice is
- A.
32 F
- B.
33 F
- C.
31 F
- D.
It can be any temperature above 32 F
Correct Answer
A. 32 FExplanation
When ice melts, it undergoes a phase change from a solid to a liquid. This phase change occurs at a specific temperature called the melting point, which for water is 32 degrees Fahrenheit (0 degrees Celsius). Therefore, the temperature of the water formed by melting ice is 32 F.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The law of conservation of matter states that
- A.
Matter should not be wasted.
- B.
Matter cannot be created or destroyed.
- C.
Only "green" matter should be used for installing HVACR systems.
- D.
An equal amount of matter is always created somewhere whenever matter is destroyed.
Correct Answer
B. Matter cannot be created or destroyed.Explanation
The law of conservation of matter states that matter cannot be created or destroyed. This means that in any physical or chemical process, the total amount of matter remains constant. Matter can change forms or be rearranged, but the total quantity of matter remains the same. This principle is a fundamental concept in chemistry and physics and is supported by numerous experimental observations. It is also known as the law of conservation of mass.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What physical change of state is the opposite of evaporation?
- A.
Melting
- B.
Sublimation
- C.
Freezing
- D.
Condensation
Correct Answer
D. CondensationExplanation
Condensation is the opposite of evaporation because while evaporation is the process of a liquid turning into a gas, condensation is the process of a gas turning into a liquid. When water vapor in the air cools down, it loses energy and transforms into liquid water droplets, which is known as condensation. This process is commonly observed when warm air comes into contact with a cold surface, such as when steam from a shower condenses on a mirror.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Three forms of energy used in heating and air conditioning include
- A.
Electrical, Magnetic, Mechanical
- B.
Solid, liquid, and gass
- C.
Preheat, setpoint, postheat
- D.
Saturation, subcooling, superheat
Correct Answer
A. Electrical, Magnetic, MechanicalExplanation
The correct answer is Electrical, Magnetic, Mechanical. In heating and air conditioning systems, electrical energy is used to power the equipment and control the various components. Magnetic energy is utilized in systems that rely on magnetic fields for heat transfer, such as induction heating. Mechanical energy is involved in the movement of air or fluids through the system, such as fans or pumps. These three forms of energy are essential in the functioning of heating and air conditioning systems.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What units are most commonly used to measure heat quantity in the United States?
- A.
BTUs
- B.
Degrees Fahrenheit
- C.
Joules
- D.
Kilocalories
Correct Answer
A. BTUsExplanation
BTUs (British Thermal Units) are the most commonly used units to measure heat quantity in the United States. BTUs are a standard unit for measuring the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit. This unit is widely used in various industries, including heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC), as well as in energy production and consumption calculations. Degrees Fahrenheit, joules, and kilocalories are also used to measure heat, but BTUs are the most prevalent unit in the United States.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What units are most commonly used to measure heat intensity in the United States?
- A.
Kilocalories
- B.
Joules
- C.
BTUs
- D.
Degrees Fahrenheit
Correct Answer
D. Degrees FahrenheitExplanation
The correct answer is Degrees Fahrenheit. In the United States, heat intensity is commonly measured using the Fahrenheit scale. This scale is used to measure temperature and is widely used in the country for everyday purposes such as weather forecasts and setting indoor temperatures. Kilocalories, joules, and BTUs are units commonly used to measure energy, but they are not specifically used to measure heat intensity in the United States.Rate this question:
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- 25.
How many BTUs will a 10-kilowatt heater produce if operated for an hour?
- A.
10 kw/3410 BTUs = 2.93 BTUs
- B.
10 kw x 1000w/kw x 1 hour x 3.410 BTUs = 34100 BTUs
- C.
10 kw 1 hour = 10,000 BTUs
- D.
(10 kw / 3410) x 60 = 176 BTUs
Correct Answer
B. 10 kw x 1000w/kw x 1 hour x 3.410 BTUs = 34100 BTUsExplanation
The correct answer is 10 kw x 1000w/kw x 1 hour x 3.410 BTUs = 34100 BTUs. This calculation takes into account the power output of the heater (10 kilowatts) and converts it to watts (10,000 watts). Then, it multiplies the power in watts by the number of hours the heater is operated for (1 hour), and multiplies that by the conversion factor of 3.410 BTUs per watt. The result is 34,100 BTUs.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many BTUs are required to raise the temperature of 15 pounds of water from 100o F to 130o F?
- A.
15 lbs x (130oF - 100oF) = 450 BTUs
- B.
15 lbs x (130oF + 100oF) = 3450 BTUs
- C.
(130oF/15lbs) - (100oF/15lbs) = 2 BTUs
- D.
The BTUs required cannot be determined using the information given.
Correct Answer
A. 15 lbs x (130oF - 100oF) = 450 BTUsExplanation
The correct answer is 15 lbs x (130oF - 100oF) = 450 BTUs. This is the correct calculation for finding the amount of BTUs required to raise the temperature of 15 pounds of water from 100oF to 130oF. It is calculated by subtracting the initial temperature from the final temperature and multiplying it by the weight of the water.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In the United States, the cooling capacity of air conditioning equipment is expressed in?
- A.
Calories
- B.
Tons
- C.
Joules
- D.
Therms
Correct Answer
B. TonsExplanation
The correct answer is "Tons". In the United States, the cooling capacity of air conditioning equipment is commonly expressed in "Tons". This unit refers to the amount of heat that the air conditioner can remove from a space in one hour. It is based on the cooling effect of one ton of ice melting in 24 hours, which is equivalent to 12,000 BTUs (British Thermal Units) per hour. This measurement allows for a standardized way to compare and specify the cooling capacity of different air conditioning systems.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How many watts equal one horsepower of work?
- A.
746 watts = 1 horsepower
- B.
1 watt = 1 horsepower
- C.
1000 watts = 1 horsepower
- D.
3410 watts = 1 horsepower
Correct Answer
A. 746 watts = 1 horsepowerExplanation
One horsepower is equal to 746 watts of work. This means that if you want to convert horsepower to watts or vice versa, you can use the conversion factor of 746.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The pointer on a dial type thermometer is moved by a
- A.
Lever which is moved by a column of mercury
- B.
Bi-metal element
- C.
Volatile fluid
- D.
Heat motor and gears
Correct Answer
B. Bi-metal elementExplanation
A bi-metal element is a type of temperature-sensitive device made up of two different metals that are bonded together. When the temperature changes, the metals expand or contract at different rates, causing the bi-metal element to bend. This bending motion is then transferred to the lever, which moves the pointer on the dial type thermometer. Therefore, the correct answer is bi-metal element as it explains how the pointer on a dial type thermometer is moved.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What temperature scale uses 0o as the freezing point of water and 100o as the boiling point of water?
- A.
Fahrenheit
- B.
Kelvin
- C.
Rankine
- D.
Celsius
Correct Answer
D. CelsiusExplanation
The Celsius temperature scale uses 0o as the freezing point of water and 100o as the boiling point of water. This scale is commonly used in most countries around the world for everyday temperature measurements.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is an absolute temperature scale?
- A.
A temperature scale with no negative temperatures and 0o equal to absolute 0
- B.
A temperature scale that uses sensitive wireless sensors to detect the vibrational frequency of the molecules in a substance to determine its temperature to a high degree of accuracy
- C.
A theoretical temperature scale that only applies to quantum physics
- D.
A thermometer that has been NIST calibrated to be absolutely correct
Correct Answer
A. A temperature scale with no negative temperatures and 0o equal to absolute 0Explanation
An absolute temperature scale is a temperature scale that does not have any negative temperatures and where 0 degrees is equal to absolute zero. Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature, at which all molecular motion stops. This means that on an absolute temperature scale, temperatures can only be positive or zero, and the temperature increases as the value increases.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The absolute temperature scale for Fahrenheit is
- A.
Fahrenheit absolute
- B.
Rankine
- C.
Celsius
- D.
Kelvin
Correct Answer
B. RankineExplanation
The absolute temperature scale for Fahrenheit is Rankine. Rankine is a unit of absolute temperature and is based on the Fahrenheit scale. It is similar to the Kelvin scale, which is based on the Celsius scale, but with a different zero point. In Rankine, absolute zero is defined as 0 Rankine, which is equivalent to -459.67 degrees Fahrenheit. Therefore, Rankine is the correct answer for the absolute temperature scale for Fahrenheit.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The absolute temperature scale for Celsius is
- A.
Kelvin
- B.
Rankine
- C.
Celsius absolute
- D.
Fahrenheit
Correct Answer
A. KelvinExplanation
The correct answer is Kelvin because the Kelvin scale is an absolute temperature scale that is used in scientific and engineering calculations. It is based on the concept of absolute zero, which is the lowest possible temperature that can be reached. The Kelvin scale is used in many scientific fields, including physics and chemistry, and is commonly used in calculations involving gas laws and thermodynamics.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is absolute 0?
- A.
The coldest temperature possible where all molecular motion stops
- B.
The freezing point of water on an absolute temperature scale
- C.
The theoretical starting temperature for quantum physics experiments which is derived by measuring the average rotational velocity of the molecules
- D.
The hottest possible temperature where matter is indistinguishable from energy
Correct Answer
A. The coldest temperature possible where all molecular motion stopsExplanation
Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature where all molecular motion ceases. At this temperature, atoms and molecules have minimal energy, and their motion slows down to the point of complete stillness. It is considered the baseline for temperature measurement and is equivalent to -273.15 degrees Celsius or -459.67 degrees Fahrenheit. At absolute zero, matter behaves differently, and various phenomena, such as superconductivity and superfluidity, can occur.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The first law of thermodynamics states that
- A.
Energy cannot be created or destroyed
- B.
The molecular energy band is directly proportional to the thermal activity of the molecule
- C.
Whenever energy is created, an equal quantity of energy must be destroyed to maintain thermal equilibrium
- D.
All objects contain some energy
Correct Answer
A. Energy cannot be created or destroyedExplanation
The first law of thermodynamics, also known as the law of conservation of energy, states that energy cannot be created or destroyed. This means that the total amount of energy in a closed system remains constant. Energy can only be converted from one form to another or transferred between objects. This law is based on the principle of conservation of energy, which is a fundamental concept in physics. It implies that energy is a conserved quantity and plays a crucial role in understanding various phenomena and processes in the universe.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The second law of thermodynamics states that
- A.
Heat travels from higher temperature to lower temperature
- B.
The molecular energy band is directly proportional to the thermal activity of the molecule
- C.
All objects contain some energy
- D.
Heat travels from the higher specific heat capacity to lower specific heat capacity
Correct Answer
A. Heat travels from higher temperature to lower temperatureExplanation
The second law of thermodynamics states that heat naturally flows from an object with a higher temperature to an object with a lower temperature. This is because heat is a form of energy and energy tends to spread out or disperse. When two objects are in contact, the molecules with higher kinetic energy (higher temperature) collide with the molecules with lower kinetic energy (lower temperature), transferring energy and causing the lower temperature object to heat up. This process continues until both objects reach thermal equilibrium, where their temperatures are equal.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The rate of heat transfer is faster if
- A.
The molecular energy bands are in synchronous alignment
- B.
The temperature of the two objects are very close to the same
- C.
The two objects are exactly the same temperature
- D.
There is a large difference between the two objects
Correct Answer
D. There is a large difference between the two objectsExplanation
When there is a large difference between the temperatures of two objects, the rate of heat transfer is faster. This is because heat naturally flows from a higher temperature region to a lower temperature region. The greater the temperature difference between the objects, the faster the heat will transfer between them.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The three basic methods of heat transfer are
- A.
Specific, sensible, and latent
- B.
Endothermal, exothermal, and isothermal
- C.
Anterior, inferior, and superior
- D.
Conduction, convection, and radiation
Correct Answer
D. Conduction, convection, and radiationExplanation
The correct answer is conduction, convection, and radiation. These three methods are the fundamental ways in which heat is transferred from one object to another. Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects or particles. Convection involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids, such as air or water. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as infrared radiation. These methods play a crucial role in various everyday phenomena, such as cooking, weather patterns, and thermal insulation.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A metal rod is heated on one end and heat travels from that end to the cooler end through the rod. This is an example of
- A.
Conduction
- B.
Radiation
- C.
Convection
- D.
Sublimation
Correct Answer
A. ConductionExplanation
Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact between particles of a substance. In this scenario, the metal rod is heated on one end, causing the particles at that end to gain energy and vibrate more rapidly. These vibrating particles then collide with neighboring particles, transferring their energy and heat to them. This process continues along the rod until the heat reaches the cooler end, resulting in the transfer of heat through conduction.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The air circulating inside a refrigerator is an example of
- A.
Convection
- B.
Radiation
- C.
Sublimation
- D.
Conduction
Correct Answer
A. ConvectionExplanation
The air circulating inside a refrigerator is an example of convection because convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of a fluid (in this case, air). In a refrigerator, the air inside is cooled by the refrigeration system, causing it to become denser and sink to the bottom. As it sinks, warmer air from the surroundings is drawn in and the process continues, creating a convection current that helps to evenly distribute the cool air throughout the refrigerator.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Campers being heated by a fire outside is an example of
- A.
Radiation
- B.
Sublimation
- C.
Convectin
- D.
Conduction
Correct Answer
A. RadiationExplanation
Campers being heated by a fire outside is an example of radiation. Radiation is the transfer of heat energy through electromagnetic waves. In this scenario, the heat energy from the fire is transferred to the campers through radiation. There is no direct contact between the fire and the campers, but the heat energy is able to travel through space and reach the campers, warming them up.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Most materials that are good electrical conductors
- A.
Will transfer heat by convection, but not by conduction
- B.
Also tend to make good thermal conductors
- C.
Will transfer heat by radiation, but not by conduction
- D.
Are poor thermal conductors
Correct Answer
B. Also tend to make good thermal conductorsExplanation
Most materials that are good electrical conductors also tend to make good thermal conductors. This is because the properties that allow a material to efficiently conduct electricity, such as a high number of free electrons, also allow it to efficiently conduct heat. These materials have a high thermal conductivity, meaning they can easily transfer heat energy from one point to another. Therefore, they are not only good at conducting electricity but also good at conducting heat.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Two materials that are considered good thermal conductors are
- A.
Thermoplastic and rubber
- B.
Copper and aluminum
- C.
Glass and ceramic
- D.
Paper and wood
Correct Answer
B. Copper and aluminumExplanation
Copper and aluminum are considered good thermal conductors because they have high thermal conductivity. This means that they can efficiently transfer heat and energy. Copper and aluminum are commonly used in various applications where heat needs to be conducted, such as in electrical wiring, heat sinks, and cooking utensils. Their high thermal conductivity allows for effective heat transfer, making them ideal choices for these purposes.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is the purpose of adding fins on the tubing used for heat transfer?
- A.
Fins protect the coils from dirt.
- B.
Fins straighten the air flowing over the coils so that it flows more easily.
- C.
Fins increase heat transfer by increasing the surface area.
- D.
Fins keep small animals out of the unit by closing the gaps between the coils.
Correct Answer
C. Fins increase heat transfer by increasing the surface area.Explanation
Fins increase heat transfer by increasing the surface area. This is because the additional surface area provided by the fins allows for more contact between the tubing and the surrounding air. As a result, heat can be transferred more efficiently from the tubing to the air. This is particularly important in heat transfer applications, as it helps to enhance the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the system.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What happens to the temperature of boiling water once it starts to boil?
- A.
It increases above the boiling point in proportion to the amount of heat added during the boiling process.
- B.
The water temperature decreases after the water begins to boil.
- C.
The water temperature stays the same once the water begins boil.
- D.
It increases to 1o F above the boiling point.
Correct Answer
C. The water temperature stays the same once the water begins boil. -
- 46.
A heat process that causes a change in a substance's temperature is called
- A.
Latent heat
- B.
Sensible heat
- C.
Total heat
- D.
Specific heat capacity
Correct Answer
B. Sensible heatExplanation
Sensible heat refers to the heat process that causes a change in a substance's temperature. It is the heat that can be sensed or measured directly using a thermometer. Sensible heat does not involve any phase change or latent heat transfer, but rather it increases or decreases the temperature of a substance without changing its state.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A heat process that causes a substance to change state is called
- A.
Latent heat
- B.
Total heat
- C.
Sensible heat
- D.
Specific heat capacity
Correct Answer
A. Latent heatExplanation
Latent heat refers to the heat energy absorbed or released during a phase change of a substance, such as melting or vaporization, without changing its temperature. This process causes the substance to change state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas, and vice versa. Total heat refers to the sum of sensible heat and latent heat. Sensible heat refers to the heat energy that causes a change in temperature of a substance without changing its state. Specific heat capacity refers to the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by a certain amount.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Calculate the amount of heat required to change 5 pounds of 212o water to steam.
- A.
No extra heat is required because the water is already at the boiling point.
- B.
5lbs x 212oF x 1 BTU/lb = 1060 BTUs
- C.
5 lbs x 970 BTUs/lb = 4850 BTUs
- D.
The amount of heat required cannot be calculated without knowing the starting temperature of the water.
Correct Answer
C. 5 lbs x 970 BTUs/lb = 4850 BTUsExplanation
The given correct answer states that the amount of heat required to change 5 pounds of 212o water to steam is 4850 BTUs. This is calculated by multiplying the mass of water (5 lbs) by the specific heat of water in the liquid state (970 BTUs/lb). This calculation assumes that the water is already at its boiling point, so no extra heat is required to reach the boiling point.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Calculate the amount of heat required to change 5 lbs of 32o ice to water.
- A.
No extra heat is required because the ice is already at the melting temperature.
- B.
5 lbs x 144 BTUs/lb = 720 BTUs
- C.
5 lbs x 32oF x 0.5 BTU/lb = 80 BTUs
- D.
The amount of heat required cannot be calculated without knowing the ending temperature of the water.
Correct Answer
B. 5 lbs x 144 BTUs/lb = 720 BTUsExplanation
The correct answer is 720 BTUs. This is because the question states that no extra heat is required since the ice is already at the melting temperature. Therefore, we can calculate the amount of heat required using the given conversion factor of 144 BTUs per pound. Multiplying 5 pounds by 144 BTUs per pound gives us a total of 720 BTUs.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When can a saturation pressure-temperature chart be used to accurately predict the temperature of a refrigerant if its pressure is known?
- A.
Only when both vapor and liquid are present
- B.
Only when liquid is present
- C.
Only when vapor is present
- D.
Always
Correct Answer
A. Only when both vapor and liquid are presentExplanation
A saturation pressure-temperature chart can accurately predict the temperature of a refrigerant when both vapor and liquid are present because it provides the saturation temperature corresponding to a given pressure. The chart shows the relationship between pressure and temperature at which a refrigerant exists as a mixture of vapor and liquid. By knowing the pressure, one can determine the saturation temperature, which represents the temperature at which both vapor and liquid phases coexist. Therefore, the chart can only be used accurately when both vapor and liquid are present.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 24, 2019Quiz Created by
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