Oral Surgery Exam: Trivia Quiz!

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Quizzes Created: 9 | Total Attempts: 23,725
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Oral Surgery Exam: Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The maximum strength of the surgical wound obtained after 3 months?

    • A.

      100%

    • B.

      30%

    • C.

      70%

    • D.

      50%

    Correct Answer
    C. 70%
    Explanation
    The answer of 70% suggests that the maximum strength of the surgical wound obtained after 3 months is 70% of its original strength. This implies that the wound has healed significantly but is not completely healed yet. It indicates that there is still room for improvement in terms of wound strength, but it has made considerable progress in the healing process.

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  • 2. 

    Pederson index is used to assess?

    • A.

      Assess fracture

    • B.

      Assess impaction difficulty

    • C.

      Assess surgical repair in cleft lip

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Assess impaction difficulty
    Explanation
    The Pederson index is a tool used to assess the difficulty of impaction in dentistry. It helps to determine the level of difficulty in removing impacted teeth and assesses the complexity of the surgical procedure. This index is commonly used by oral and maxillofacial surgeons to plan and evaluate the surgical management of impacted teeth. It takes into account factors such as the position, angulation, and depth of impaction to provide a comprehensive assessment of the difficulty level.

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  • 3. 

    A patient who is under threat to life comes under which ASA classification?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    ASA classification is a system used by anesthesiologists to assess the physical health of a patient before surgery. It ranges from 1 to 6, with 1 being a healthy patient and 6 being a brain-dead patient. ASA classification 4 indicates a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Therefore, a patient who is under threat to life would come under ASA classification 4.

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  • 4. 

    For 100 cc of blood loss how many infusions of crystalloid are required?

    • A.

      400 cc

    • B.

      300 cc

    • C.

      200 cc

    • D.

      100 cc

    Correct Answer
    B. 300 cc
    Explanation
    For 100 cc of blood loss, 300 cc of crystalloid infusion is required. This is because the general rule of thumb is to replace blood loss with crystalloid fluids at a ratio of 3:1. Therefore, for every 100 cc of blood loss, 300 cc of crystalloid fluid should be infused to maintain fluid balance and prevent hypovolemia.

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  • 5. 

    Antibiotic prophylaxis is mandatory in which case?

    • A.

      Ischaemic heart disease

    • B.

      Congenital heart disease

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital heart disease
    Explanation
    Antibiotic prophylaxis is mandatory in the case of congenital heart disease. This is because individuals with congenital heart disease have a higher risk of developing infective endocarditis, an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Antibiotic prophylaxis is used to prevent this infection from occurring during certain medical procedures that can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream. Therefore, individuals with congenital heart disease are advised to take antibiotics before undergoing dental procedures, surgeries, or other invasive medical interventions to reduce the risk of infective endocarditis.

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  • 6. 

    Healing afte flap surgery is?

    • A.

      By primary intention

    • B.

      By secondary intention

    • C.

      By tertiary intention

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. By primary intention
    Explanation
    Healing after flap surgery is by primary intention. This means that the wound edges are brought together and closed with sutures or staples, allowing for faster healing and minimal scarring. Primary intention healing is typically used for clean surgical incisions where the wound edges can be easily approximated. Secondary intention healing occurs when the wound is left open to heal from the bottom up, and tertiary intention healing involves delayed closure of a wound.

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  • 7. 

    Color code for a patient who is in medium emergency need?

    • A.

      Red

    • B.

      Black

    • C.

      Yellow

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Yellow
    Explanation
    Yellow is the color code for a patient who is in medium emergency need. This indicates that the patient requires urgent medical attention, but their condition is not immediately life-threatening. Yellow is often used to prioritize patients who need prompt care, but can wait for a short period of time without their condition worsening. This allows medical professionals to efficiently allocate resources and prioritize patients based on the urgency of their needs.

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  • 8. 

    Needle preferred for irrigation?

    • A.

      27

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      21

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    The preferred needle for irrigation is 30. This is because a needle with a higher gauge number indicates a smaller diameter, which allows for a higher flow rate of the irrigation solution. A smaller diameter needle also reduces the risk of tissue damage during the irrigation procedure. Therefore, a 30-gauge needle is the most suitable choice for irrigation purposes.

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  • 9. 

    Fibers that are most sensitive to local anesthesia?

    • A.

      A delta fibers

    • B.

      C fibers

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. C fibers
    Explanation
    C fibers are the fibers that are most sensitive to local anesthesia. Local anesthesia works by blocking nerve signals in a specific area, and C fibers are the smallest and slowest conducting nerve fibers in the body. They are responsible for transmitting dull, aching, and burning pain sensations. By targeting C fibers with local anesthesia, these pain signals can be temporarily blocked, providing relief to the patient. A delta fibers, on the other hand, are larger and transmit sharp, fast pain signals. Therefore, they are less sensitive to local anesthesia.

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  • 10. 

    Local anesthetic which causes cutaneous vasoconstriction?

    • A.

      Ropivacaine

    • B.

      Procaine

    • C.

      Prilocaibe

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Ropivacaine
    Explanation
    Ropivacaine is a local anesthetic that causes cutaneous vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which reduces blood flow to the area. This property of ropivacaine helps in reducing bleeding during surgical procedures and prolongs the duration of anesthesia. Procaine and prilocaine are also local anesthetics, but they do not have the same vasoconstrictive effect as ropivacaine. Therefore, the correct answer is ropivacaine.

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  • 11. 

    Adrenaline is contraindicated in patients taking?

    • A.

      Anti coagulants

    • B.

      Tricyclic antidepressants

    • C.

      Anti hypertensives

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Tricyclic antidepressants
    Explanation
    Tricyclic antidepressants are contraindicated with adrenaline. This is because tricyclic antidepressants can potentiate the effects of adrenaline, leading to an increased risk of hypertension, arrhythmias, and other cardiovascular complications. Therefore, it is important to avoid the concomitant use of these medications to prevent adverse reactions.

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  • 12. 

    Hematoma formation is most common in?

    • A.

      Posterior superior alveolar nerve black

    • B.

      Inferior alveolar nerve block

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior superior alveolar nerve black
    Explanation
    Hematoma formation is most common in the posterior superior alveolar nerve block. This is because the posterior superior alveolar nerve block involves the injection of anesthetic near the posterior superior alveolar artery, which can cause bleeding and subsequent hematoma formation. In contrast, the inferior alveolar nerve block does not typically result in hematoma formation.

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  • 13. 

    The needle is advanced towards the neck of the condyle in?

    • A.

      Inferior alveolar block

    • B.

      Akinosi method

    • C.

      Gowgates technique

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    C. Gowgates technique
    Explanation
    Gowgates technique is a method used to administer local anesthesia in dentistry. It involves advancing the needle towards the neck of the condyle, which is the correct answer to the question. This technique provides profound anesthesia to the mandibular teeth, lower lip, and tongue by depositing the anesthetic solution near the mandibular nerve. It is commonly used for procedures such as extractions and root canals in the lower jaw.

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  • 14. 

    Closed mouth technique for mandibular nerve block?

    • A.

      Gow gates technique

    • B.

      Akinosi method

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Akinosi method
    Explanation
    The Akinosi method is a closed mouth technique for mandibular nerve block. This technique involves injecting the anesthetic solution into the pterygomandibular space through the mucobuccal fold, without the need for the patient to open their mouth. The Akinosi method is an alternative to the Gow Gates technique, which also achieves mandibular nerve block but requires the patient to open their mouth wide. Therefore, the correct answer is the Akinosi method.

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  • 15. 

    Orofacial trauma where cervical spine is not stable. Best intubation method is?

    • A.

      LMA

    • B.

      Fibro optic naso tracheal intubation

    • C.

      Either

    • D.

      Nne

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibro optic naso tracheal intubation
    Explanation
    Fibro optic naso tracheal intubation is the best method for intubation in orofacial trauma cases where the cervical spine is not stable. This is because it allows for a more controlled and precise intubation, minimizing the risk of further injury to the patient's neck. The use of fibro optic technology provides a clear visualization of the airway, allowing the healthcare provider to navigate around any potential obstructions or anatomical abnormalities caused by the trauma. Additionally, the naso tracheal route is preferred in these cases as it avoids manipulation of the mouth and jaw, which may worsen the existing facial injuries.

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  • 16. 

    Patient position in Congestive heart failure?

    • A.

      Supine

    • B.

      Upright

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Either

    Correct Answer
    B. Upright
    Explanation
    In congestive heart failure, the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently is compromised. The upright position allows for better lung expansion and helps to alleviate fluid buildup in the lungs, which is a common symptom of congestive heart failure. By sitting or standing upright, gravity helps to reduce the accumulation of fluid in the lungs and improve breathing. Therefore, the upright position is recommended for patients with congestive heart failure.

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  • 17. 

    Blood loss minimized by which position?

    • A.

      Supine

    • B.

      Head up

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Head up
    Explanation
    The head up position helps minimize blood loss. When a person is in a supine position, the head is at the same level as the rest of the body, which can increase blood flow to the head and potentially lead to more bleeding. Lateral position refers to lying on one side, which may not have a direct impact on blood loss. On the other hand, the head up position helps to reduce blood flow to the head, which can help minimize bleeding. Therefore, the head up position is the most effective in minimizing blood loss.

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  • 18. 

    Muscle that is penerated in IANB?

    • A.

      Temporalis

    • B.

      Buccinator

    • C.

      Medial pterygoid

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Buccinator
    Explanation
    The buccinator muscle is the muscle that is penetrated during an inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB). An IANB is a dental technique used to anesthetize the lower teeth and surrounding tissues. The buccinator muscle is located in the cheek and is responsible for compressing the cheeks against the teeth during chewing and speaking. During an IANB, the needle is inserted into the pterygomandibular space, which lies superior to the buccinator muscle. Therefore, the buccinator muscle is penetrated during the administration of an IANB.

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  • 19. 

    The mechanical advantage in wedge principle?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      2.5

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.5
    Explanation
    The mechanical advantage in the wedge principle is 2.5. This means that the wedge can multiply the input force by a factor of 2.5, making it easier to split or separate objects. The wedge principle states that as the length of the wedge increases relative to its width, the mechanical advantage increases. In this case, the mechanical advantage of 2.5 indicates that the wedge is longer and narrower, allowing for a greater multiplication of force.

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  • 20. 

    Blade commonly used for mucogingival surgeries?

    • A.

      No 10

    • B.

      No 12

    • C.

      No 15

    • D.

      No 13

    Correct Answer
    B. No 12
    Explanation
    Blade No 12 is commonly used for mucogingival surgeries. It is a surgical instrument that has a curved shape and a sharp cutting edge, making it suitable for procedures involving the gingiva and mucosa. The other blades mentioned (No 10, No 15, No 13) may have different shapes or cutting edges that are not specifically designed for mucogingival surgeries.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 08, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ismayilpkn4
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