Oral Surgery Dr.Bushara & Dr.Seang Santana 97+107qcm

The tooth #18 corresponds to the Upper Right Maxillary Third molar in the FDI charting system. This means that tooth #18 is the third molar located in the upper right side of the maxilla (upper jaw).

The FDI charting number of tooth #33 is 43, which corresponds to the Left lower canine.

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The FDI charting number of tooth #34 is the Left lower first premolar.

The FDI charting number of tooth #37 is the Left lower second molar.

The root tip elevator utilizes the principle of a wedge. A wedge is a simple machine that is used to separate or lift objects by applying force to a narrow edge. In the case of a root tip elevator, it is designed with a sharp, wedge-shaped tip that is inserted between the root and the surrounding tissue to lift or remove the root. This principle allows for effective and precise dental procedures involving root extraction.

The inferior dental canal refers to the canal within the mandible that contains the inferior alveolar nerve and blood vessels. Therefore, the correct answer is "mandibular canal" as it is synonymous with the inferior dental canal. The options "Bifid nerve canal" and "Warton canal" are incorrect as they do not have the same meaning.

The basic principles of extraction involve expanding the bony socket, applying lever and fulcrum, and inserting a wedge. However, the principle of "no trauma to bone and mucosa" is not a correct principle of extraction. During the extraction process, some level of trauma to the bone and mucosa is unavoidable. Therefore, the correct answer is "No trauma to bone and mucosa."

Using Bone Rongeur forceps for tooth extraction and removing a large amount of bone in a single bite is contraindicated. This is because the forceps are not designed to handle such a large amount of bone removal in one bite and may cause damage to surrounding tissues. It is safer and more efficient to use other instruments or techniques for this purpose.

Re-epithelization occurs in the proliferation phase of wound healing. During this phase, new blood vessels are formed, and the wound is filled with granulation tissue. Epithelial cells at the edges of the wound start to multiply and migrate across the wound bed, forming a new layer of epithelium. This process helps to close the wound and restore the integrity of the skin. The remodeling phase, on the other hand, involves the maturation and reorganization of the newly formed tissue, but does not directly involve re-epithelization.

Neutrophils are the cells with the highest activity at the early phase of inflammation. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are among the first to arrive at the site of infection or injury. They are highly mobile and capable of engulfing and destroying pathogens through a process called phagocytosis. Neutrophils release various substances, such as enzymes and reactive oxygen species, to combat the infection and promote tissue healing. Their high activity during the early phase of inflammation helps to control and eliminate the initial threat. Macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts also play important roles in inflammation, but neutrophils are the most active during the early phase.

The correct answer is "Deep carries and pulpitis." Surgical tooth extraction is typically indicated for cases such as partial impacted tooth, tooth with severe periodontal destruction, and tooth with root(s) fracture. Deep carries and pulpitis can usually be treated with other dental procedures such as fillings or root canal therapy, so surgical extraction is not necessary in these cases.

Vasoconstrictor refers to a substance or process that causes the narrowing of blood vessels. This narrowing reduces the diameter of the vessels, resulting in a decrease in blood flow through them. As a result, blood pressure increases and the blood supply to various tissues and organs may be restricted. This can have implications for various physiological processes and conditions, such as regulating blood pressure, reducing bleeding, and managing certain types of headaches.

The correct answer is Supra periosteal. When injecting LA solution in the maxilla on the buccal side, the supra periosteal technique is used. This involves injecting the solution just above the periosteum, which is the connective tissue covering the bone. This technique allows for effective anesthesia of the area while minimizing the risk of damaging the underlying structures.

The disto-buccal root of the upper 1st molar is supplied by the posterior superior alveolar nerve. This nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the maxillary molars and premolars. It originates from the maxillary nerve and enters the maxillary sinus to supply the roots of these teeth. The middle superior alveolar nerve supplies the mesiobuccal root of the upper 1st molar, not the disto-buccal root. The buccal nerve supplies the buccal gingiva and mucosa of the cheek, while the mental nerve supplies the lower premolars and anterior teeth.

The correct answer is "Working length of endodontic file." A PA x-ray is commonly used in dentistry to determine the working length of an endodontic file. This is important in root canal treatment as it helps the dentist accurately measure the length of the root canal and determine the appropriate length for the file to reach during the procedure. By knowing the working length, the dentist can ensure that the file reaches the end of the root canal without causing any damage to the surrounding tissues.

The principle of using antibiotics involves using a specific, narrow spectrum antibiotic and determining the antibiotic sensitivity. This means that instead of using a broad spectrum antibiotic that can kill a wide range of bacteria, a narrow spectrum antibiotic is chosen that targets specific types of bacteria. Additionally, determining the antibiotic sensitivity helps in identifying the most effective antibiotic for a particular bacterial infection, ensuring that the chosen antibiotic will be effective in treating the infection.

The correct answer is 3 levels: Level A, B, C. This means that there are three levels of precaution when using antibiotics, which are categorized as Level A, Level B, and Level C. It is important to follow these levels of precaution to ensure the safe and effective use of antibiotics.

The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial drug that is needed to prevent the visible growth of bacteria. This means that at concentrations below the MIC, the drug is not effective in inhibiting bacterial growth, while at or above the MIC, the drug is able to prevent the growth of bacteria. The MIC is an important measure used in determining the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs and helps in determining the appropriate dosage for treatment.

Extraction of a tooth during acute infection helps drainage and relieves pain if proper antibiotic (AB) is given and its adequate blood level is reached. This is because the extraction removes the source of infection and allows for proper drainage. Additionally, the use of antibiotics helps to further control the infection and reduce pain. It is important to ensure that the antibiotic is given at the appropriate dosage and that it reaches adequate blood levels to effectively combat the infection.

The most important principle during extraction is to minimize trauma to both the bone and mucosa while removing the entire tooth. This ensures that the surrounding tissues are preserved and minimizes the risk of complications and post-operative discomfort.

When multiple adjacent teeth need to be extracted, using an elevator can be advantageous. The elevator is a dental instrument that helps in the gentle and controlled removal of teeth. By using an elevator, the dentist can apply force to multiple teeth simultaneously, making the extraction process more efficient and reducing the time required. This is especially useful when several teeth need to be extracted in a single session, as it minimizes trauma to the surrounding tissues and improves patient comfort.

The extraoral assessment involves examining the face, head, and neck. This includes observing any abnormalities or changes in the appearance of the face, such as asymmetry or swelling. The assessment also involves inspecting the head for any lumps, bumps, or deformities. Additionally, the neck is examined for any enlarged lymph nodes or masses. This comprehensive assessment helps to identify any potential issues or abnormalities in these areas.

Neutrophils are the correct answer because they are the first cells to arrive at the site of inflammation. They are part of the innate immune system and are responsible for phagocytosing and killing bacteria. Neutrophils are highly active during the early phase of inflammation, releasing cytokines and chemokines to recruit other immune cells to the site. Their short lifespan and high turnover rate contribute to their early and rapid response to inflammation. Macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts also play important roles in inflammation, but they are not as active as neutrophils during the early phase.

The given answer is "Healthy with proteins, vit. A, Vit. C, Zn, Fe." This is because proteins, vitamin A, vitamin C, zinc, and iron are all important factors that contribute to wound healing. They play a crucial role in the formation of new tissue, collagen synthesis, and immune function. Infection, systemic diseases, and ionizing radiation, on the other hand, can all impair the healing process by causing inflammation, compromising the immune system, and damaging cells.

The correct concentration of disinfectant agent for Ethyl or isopropyl alcohol is 70% - 90%. This range is considered effective for killing bacteria and viruses on surfaces. Concentrations below 70% may not be strong enough to effectively disinfect, while concentrations above 90% may evaporate too quickly and not have enough contact time to kill pathogens. Therefore, a concentration between 70% and 90% strikes a balance between effectiveness and practicality.

Blade No. 15 is the most common surgical blade used for incision of mucoperiosteum flap. This blade is commonly used in oral and maxillofacial surgery as it provides a good balance between sharpness and maneuverability. It has a small curved shape that allows for precise incisions and is ideal for creating mucoperiosteal flaps. Other blades, such as No. 10, No. 12, and No. 11, may also be used in certain situations, but Blade No. 15 is the most commonly used blade for this specific procedure.

Blade No. 12 is the most common blade for incisions in the gingival sulcus and incisions on the posterior aspect of the teeth, especially in the maxillary tuberosity. This blade is specifically designed for making precise and controlled incisions in these areas. It has a curved shape that allows for better access and visibility in these difficult-to-reach areas. The size and shape of Blade No. 12 make it ideal for these specific types of incisions, making it the most commonly used blade in these situations.

The given answer is the exception because it involves the removal of part of the lingual bone to luxate the root lingually. The other options describe different techniques for removing the root, such as making a window on the buccal bone, creating a groove on the root surface after removing buccal bone, and creating a groove between the root and bone for elevator access. These techniques do not involve removing part of the lingual bone.

Diabetic hyperglycemia is a condition where there is high blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. It is characterized by symptoms such as coma, dyspnea, and fatigue. Diplopia, which refers to double vision, is not typically associated with diabetic hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is "Diplopia."

A black wound bed is not a sign of healthy tissue healing. Black coloration in a wound bed usually indicates the presence of necrotic tissue or eschar, which is dead tissue that needs to be removed for proper healing.

Anaphylactic reactions are the most dangerous type of allergic reactions. They are severe and can be life-threatening. Anaphylaxis occurs when the immune system overreacts to an allergen, releasing chemicals that cause a sudden and severe allergic response throughout the body. Symptoms can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat and tongue, rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Immediate medical attention and the administration of epinephrine are necessary to treat anaphylaxis. Urticarial, edema, and allergic asthma are also allergic reactions, but they are not as severe or life-threatening as anaphylactic reactions.

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the fetus undergoes critical development, including the formation of major organs and systems. This is when the baby is most vulnerable to external factors, such as medications and radiation exposure. Dental procedures often involve the use of local anesthetics and X-rays, which can pose potential risks to the developing fetus. Therefore, it is important to avoid dental procedures during the first trimester to minimize any potential harm to the baby.

Stenson's duct is the major duct of the parotid gland. It is responsible for draining saliva from the parotid gland into the oral cavity. This duct starts from the gland and opens into the cheek, near the upper second molar tooth. It plays a crucial role in the production and transportation of saliva, aiding in the process of digestion and maintaining oral health.

Wharton's duct is the major duct of the submandibular gland. It is responsible for draining saliva from the gland into the oral cavity. This duct is named after the English anatomist Thomas Wharton, who first described it. Stenson's duct is the major duct of the parotid gland, Bartholin's duct is associated with the vestibular glands in females, and lacrimal ducts are responsible for draining tears from the eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is Wharton's duct.

The vasoconstrictor in local anesthetics solution reduces the toxic effects of the LA. This means that it helps to minimize any harmful or adverse reactions that may occur as a result of using the local anesthetic. By constricting the blood vessels, the vasoconstrictor helps to limit the absorption and distribution of the LA, reducing the risk of toxicity. This can be particularly important in certain procedures or in individuals who may be more susceptible to the toxic effects of LA. Overall, the inclusion of a vasoconstrictor in the LA solution helps to enhance the safety profile of the anesthetic.

A concussion refers to a head injury that typically occurs due to a blow or jolt to the head, resulting in temporary loss of brain function. The given answer states that a concussion is characterized by "without displacement, pain to percussion." This means that there is no movement or shifting of the skull bones, but there is tenderness or pain when the affected area is tapped or pressed. This explanation suggests that a concussion can be identified by these specific symptoms.

An extrusive injury refers to a dental injury where a tooth is displaced in the occlusal direction. This means that the tooth is pushed out of its socket in a way that it protrudes above the normal level of the surrounding teeth. This type of injury can occur due to a traumatic impact to the tooth, such as a fall or a blow to the face. It is important to seek immediate dental attention in such cases to assess the extent of the injury and determine the appropriate treatment.

PA x-ray is commonly used to visualize the eruption of teeth. It provides a clear view of the teeth, their position, and the stage of eruption. This helps in assessing the growth and development of teeth, identifying any abnormalities or impaction, and planning appropriate dental treatments. Therefore, PA x-ray is a valuable tool in monitoring the eruption process of teeth.

A PA x-ray is used to see the condition of tooth injury damage. This type of x-ray provides a detailed view of the teeth and surrounding structures, allowing dentists to assess any damage or trauma to the teeth. It helps in identifying fractures, cracks, or other injuries that may require treatment or intervention. By examining the PA x-ray, dentists can determine the extent of the damage and plan appropriate treatment options.

OPG x-ray, also known as orthopantomogram, is a type of dental x-ray that provides a panoramic view of the upper and lower jaws. It is commonly used for dental injury pre-assessment, as it allows dentists to evaluate the extent of the injury and plan appropriate treatment. This type of x-ray can also be used to spot detailed problems in the teeth, such as cavities or impacted teeth. However, it is not typically used for measuring the inferior dental nerve to the root of the third molar or for sinus assessment.

The correct answer is dento-alveolar fracture assessment. OPG x-ray, also known as orthopantomogram, is a type of dental x-ray that provides a panoramic view of the upper and lower jaws, including the teeth, surrounding structures, and the temporomandibular joint. It is commonly used to assess dento-alveolar fractures, which are fractures involving the teeth and the surrounding bone. This type of x-ray allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the extent and location of the fracture, aiding in treatment planning and management.

OPG x-ray is used for pre-assessment before tooth extraction. This type of x-ray provides a panoramic view of the entire mouth, including the teeth, jawbone, and surrounding structures. It helps the dentist to evaluate the position and condition of the tooth to be extracted, assess the surrounding bone density, identify any potential complications or abnormalities, and plan the extraction procedure accordingly. This x-ray is particularly useful when multiple teeth need to be extracted or when there are complex dental issues involved.

A PA x-ray is used to see periapical infection of the tooth. This type of infection occurs at the tip of the tooth's root and can be caused by tooth decay or trauma. The x-ray allows the dentist to see any infection or inflammation in the surrounding bone and tissues, helping them to diagnose and treat the condition effectively.

The correct answer is Periapical xray. Periapical x-rays are dental x-rays that capture images of the entire tooth, from the crown to the root. These x-rays are used to detect and diagnose problems in the tooth's root structure, surrounding bone, and the surrounding tissues. They are commonly used in dentistry to identify issues such as tooth decay, abscesses, impacted teeth, and bone abnormalities.

The correct answer is "All above." Proteolytic enzymes are enzymes that break down proteins. They are also referred to as proteases, proteinases, and peptidases. All of these terms are used interchangeably to describe enzymes that have the ability to hydrolyze peptide bonds in proteins.

When bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs are given together, they have opposite effects on the growth and survival of bacteria. Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic drugs inhibit their growth. When used together, the bacteriostatic drug may interfere with the bactericidal drug's ability to kill bacteria, reducing its effectiveness. This results in an antagonistic effect, where the drugs work against each other and diminish the overall antimicrobial activity.

The correct answer is "Inferior dental nerve." The question is asking for a term that has the same meaning as the Inferior Alveolar Nerve (IAN). The Inferior Dental Nerve is a branch of the IAN, which provides sensory innervation to the lower teeth and lower lip. Therefore, the Inferior Dental Nerve is the most appropriate option as it is directly related to the IAN.

The correct answer is "All above." This means that for a preoperative evaluation for third molar transplant, all of the mentioned factors should be considered. These factors include having no infection or pericoronitis, good position that makes it easy to remove, appropriate size, shape, crown and root position, and good oral hygiene.

The correct answer is "All above." This means that autogenous teeth transplantation (ATT) is considered successful if it meets all of the mentioned criteria: decreased mobility, no pocket formation or loss of attachment, pulp obliteration, and no evidence of inflammation. These criteria serve as the gold standard for determining the success of ATT procedures.

The blue black spots on the neck of the patient after complete mouth extraction indicate postoperative ecchymosis. Ecchymosis is the medical term for bruising, which occurs when there is bleeding under the skin. In this case, the extraction procedure may have caused some minor bleeding, resulting in the appearance of these spots on the neck. It is a common and expected side effect after surgery or dental procedures.

Extraoral assessment refers to the examination of the areas outside of the oral cavity. This includes inspecting the face, head, and neck for any abnormalities or signs of disease. By examining these areas, healthcare professionals can identify any potential issues such as swelling, asymmetry, or skin changes that may indicate underlying health problems. Therefore, the correct answer is face, head, and neck as these are the areas that are assessed during an extraoral examination.

High level of disinfection is a process that effectively kills or inactivates a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, and viruses. It is used to ensure a high level of cleanliness and prevent the spread of infections. However, Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, is known to be highly resistant to disinfection. Therefore, high-level disinfection methods may not be effective in inactivating or killing Mycobacterium Tuberculosis.

Periosteal elevators are dental instruments commonly used for various purposes, such as isolating the periosteum from the bone, lifting full thickness soft tissue flaps, and elevating tissue from the bone. However, they are not typically used for extracting root fragments. Root fragment extraction usually requires specialized dental instruments like forceps or elevators specifically designed for that purpose.

Hemostats are surgical clamps that are used to avoid bleeding by temporarily occluding the vessel. This means that they are used to block or close off blood vessels temporarily to prevent bleeding during surgical procedures. The other options mentioned in the question are incorrect definitions of hemostats. Hemostats do not involve removing the blood vessel or promoting platelet aggregation, nor are they surgical techniques to induce natural coagulation.

During the maturation (remodeling) phase of wound healing, the body continues to repair and strengthen the injured tissue. This process involves the reorganization of collagen fibers and the removal of excess scar tissue. The duration of this phase can vary depending on the extent and severity of the wound. It typically lasts from 21 days to 2 years, allowing enough time for the wound to fully heal and for the scar tissue to mature and become stronger.

Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense against pathogens. They are responsible for phagocytosis, the process of engulfing and destroying foreign particles. Macrophages also secrete cytokines, which are signaling molecules that regulate immune responses. Additionally, they secrete growth factors that promote tissue repair and regeneration. However, macrophages do not produce blood clotting factors. These factors are primarily produced by platelets and liver cells.

The intraoral wounds healing occurs faster than wound healing of the skin because the oral mucosa has a higher regenerative capacity compared to the skin. The oral mucosa is constantly exposed to mechanical stress, microbial colonization, and chemical irritants, which necessitates a faster healing process. Additionally, the oral cavity has a rich blood supply, which aids in delivering nutrients and oxygen to the wound site, promoting faster healing.

All of the above options can be used to assess a retained foreign body from a wound bed. Direct visualization involves physically examining the wound to identify any foreign objects. Radiography (X-Ray) can be used to detect metallic or radiopaque foreign bodies. Ultrasound can help identify non-radiopaque foreign bodies or assess soft tissue damage. CT scan provides a detailed image of the wound site, allowing for accurate identification of foreign objects and assessment of surrounding tissues. Therefore, all of these methods can be utilized to assess a retained foreign body.

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause a range of symptoms. These symptoms typically include rash, cyanosis of limbs, and a painful sensation. However, urinary discharge is not typically associated with anaphylaxis. Therefore, the correct answer is urinary discharge.

The most common suturing technique is the interrupted suture. This technique involves individually tying each stitch, which provides better wound edge approximation and allows for easier removal of the sutures. It is commonly used for wounds that require precise alignment of the tissue edges. The interrupted suture technique also allows for better control of tension and reduces the risk of wound dehiscence compared to other techniques.

Bartholin's duct is the major duct of the sublingual gland. The sublingual gland is a salivary gland located beneath the tongue, and it secretes saliva into the oral cavity. Bartholin's duct is responsible for carrying the saliva from the sublingual gland to the mouth. It is named after Caspar Bartholin the Younger, a Danish anatomist who first described it in the 17th century.

Stenson's duct is the main duct of the parotid gland, which is one of the major salivary glands. It opens into the mouth opposite the upper 2nd molar tooth. This means that saliva produced by the parotid gland is released into the oral cavity near the upper 2nd molar.

The least basic surgical goal for management of an oral pathological lesion is study purpose. This means that the primary objective of the surgery is not to gain knowledge or understanding about the lesion, but rather to address other concerns such as eradicating the lesion, improving aesthetics, or making a diagnosis. Study purpose may involve conducting further research or analysis on the lesion after it has been removed or treated.

The trigeminal nerve is a cranial nerve that is responsible for providing sensory information from the face to the brain. It has three main branches: the ophthalmic branch, the maxillary branch, and the mandibular branch. Each branch innervates a specific region of the face, with the ophthalmic branch supplying sensation to the forehead, eyes, and nose, the maxillary branch supplying sensation to the upper lip, cheek, and teeth, and the mandibular branch supplying sensation to the lower lip, chin, and jaw. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 branches.

The removal of #28 tooth requires blocking the PSA (Posterior Superior Alveolar) nerve and the GP (Greater Palatine) nerve. These nerves supply the maxillary molars and part of the palate. Blocking these nerves will help in achieving anesthesia and ensuring a painless extraction process. The SA (Supraperiosteal Anesthesia) technique can also be used to numb the area around the tooth. Additionally, the Inferior Alveolar nerve and Infraorbital nerve are not directly involved in the removal of #28 tooth, so they do not need to be blocked.

Luxation refers to the complete dislocation or displacement of a joint or bone from its normal position. It can occur in different directions, including extrusive (outward displacement), intrusive (inward displacement), or lateral direction displacement. The answer suggests that luxation can occur in any of these directions, indicating that it is not limited to a specific type of displacement.

The coupling phenomenon refers to the resorption-apposition system of osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation, while osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption. In the coupling phenomenon, these two cell types work together in a coordinated manner to maintain bone homeostasis. Osteoclasts resorb old or damaged bone tissue, while osteoblasts deposit new bone tissue in the resorbed areas. This process ensures the continuous remodeling and renewal of bone tissue throughout life.

Inflammatory resorption refers to the process of resorption or breakdown of tissue due to inflammation. Based on the given options, option B is indicated as the correct answer. However, without additional context or information, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation for why option B is the correct answer.

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The fifth cranial nerve, also known as the trigeminal nerve, is responsible for supplying sensation to the face. It is the largest cranial nerve and has three branches - ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic branch supplies sensation to the upper face, the maxillary branch supplies sensation to the middle face, and the mandibular branch supplies sensation to the lower face. Therefore, the correct answer is the fifth cranial nerve.

The principle of using the least toxic antibiotic is based on the idea that it is important to minimize the potential harm to the patient while still effectively treating the infection. Antibiotics can have various side effects and toxicities, so choosing the least toxic option helps reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Additionally, using the least toxic antibiotic can help prevent the development of antibiotic resistance, as it minimizes the selective pressure on bacteria. Overall, this principle prioritizes patient safety and the long-term effectiveness of antibiotics.

Controlling patient's anxiety is not a step in the surgical extraction of a tooth. While it is important to ensure that the patient is calm and comfortable during the procedure, it is not a specific step involved in the actual extraction process. The other three options - removal of bone, creation of flap, and removal of the infected tooth - are all essential steps in the surgical extraction procedure.

The parotid gland is the largest salivary gland in the oral cavity. It is located in front of the ear and extends downwards towards the neck. This gland produces saliva, which helps in the digestion process by moistening the food and breaking it down. The parotid gland also plays a role in lubricating the oral cavity, preventing dryness and aiding in speech.

A mycotic aneurysm refers to a complication of the arterial wall that occurs due to the hematogenous spread of a bacterial infection. This means that bacteria from another part of the body enter the bloodstream and travel to the arterial wall, causing an infection. This infection weakens the arterial wall, leading to the formation of an aneurysm. It is important to note that mycotic aneurysms are different from true aneurysms, which are typically caused by weakening of the arterial wall due to factors such as high blood pressure or atherosclerosis.

Antibiotic prophylaxis refers to the use of antimicrobial therapy to prevent complications from infections. It involves administering antibiotics to individuals who are at high risk of developing an infection, such as before surgery or dental procedures. This preventive measure helps to reduce the risk of infection and its associated complications. Antibiotic prophylaxis aims to prevent the occurrence of infections rather than treating them after they have already developed.

The mental foramen is the correct answer because it is the opening through which the inferior alveolar nerve exits the mandible. The inferior alveolar nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the lower teeth and jaw, and it passes through the mental foramen, which is located on the anterior surface of the mandible near the premolar teeth. The other options listed, infraorbital foramen, rotundum foramen, and ovale foramen, are not associated with the inferior alveolar nerve.

When a forcep is used for the removal of a tooth, the first direction in which the forcep should be applied is apically. This means that the forcep should be positioned in a way that the force is directed towards the apex or the root of the tooth. Applying force in this direction helps in loosening the tooth from its socket and facilitates its extraction.

Cowhorn forceps are specifically designed to extract mandibular molars. These forceps have a curved shape resembling the horns of a cow, which allows for better access and grip on the tooth. The design of the forceps enables the dentist to apply controlled pressure and leverage to safely remove mandibular molars without causing damage to surrounding structures.

An alcohol wipe is not a basic method used for sterilization of instruments. While alcohol wipes can disinfect surfaces, they do not achieve the same level of sterilization as the other methods listed. Autoclave, hot air oven, and chemical means are all widely recognized and effective methods for sterilizing instruments in various healthcare settings.

Ethylene oxide gas is an ineffective method of sterilization because it is a slow process and requires a long exposure time to be effective. It is also highly flammable and toxic, posing a risk to both the environment and the individuals involved in the sterilization process. Additionally, ethylene oxide gas may leave residues on sterilized items, which can be harmful if not properly removed. Therefore, other methods such as gamma radiation, UV radiation, and autoclaving are more commonly used for sterilization purposes due to their efficiency and safety.

Allis (Allis-Thoms) tissue forceps are not used for hemostatic procedures. These forceps are primarily used to grasp and hold tissue during surgical procedures, rather than for controlling bleeding. In contrast, Kelly hemostatic forceps, Halstead mosquito forceps, and Hemostatic clips are all specifically designed to clamp blood vessels and stop bleeding during surgical procedures.

The bur and handpiece are not instruments for removing bone. A bur and handpiece are typically used in dentistry for drilling and shaping teeth, not for removing bone. Chisel and mallet, bone file, and Babcock forceps are all instruments commonly used in surgical procedures to remove bone.

The purposes of oral surgery include elimination/prevention of further diseases or disadvantages, removal of damage or redundant tissue, and improvement of tissue functions and aesthetics. However, the purpose of oral surgery is not to make a person completely free from all oral diseases and complications. Oral surgery aims to address specific issues and improve oral health, but it cannot guarantee complete freedom from all oral problems.

Inflammation is the body's way of signaling the immune system to heal and repair damaged tissue. During the inflammatory response, immune cells release chemical signals that attract other immune cells to the site of injury. These cells help to remove debris, fight off pathogens, and promote tissue repair. Inflammation is a necessary and beneficial process for wound healing, as it helps to initiate the healing process and prevent infection.

The lamina propria is a layer of connective tissue located below the basal lamina in various mucous membranes, including the oral mucosa. It provides support and nourishment to the epithelium, which is the outermost layer of the oral mucosa. The lamina propria contains blood vessels, nerves, and immune cells, which help maintain the integrity and function of the oral mucosa. In contrast, the other options (skin, smooth muscle, and parotid gland) do not have a lamina propria located below their basal lamina.

Eschar refers to dead, avascular tissue that forms on the surface of a wound. It is typically black in color and is a result of tissue necrosis. Therefore, the correct answer is tissue necrosis of the black wound bed, as this is where eschar can be found. Eschar is not present in an infected wound bed with pus, fibrin clot, or granulation tissue covering the wound bed.

Absorbable sutures are suitable for a variety of purposes, including ligaturing arteries and veins, closing off tissue spaces like the subcutaneous space, and internal organs or tissues where the suture does not need to be removed. These sutures are designed to naturally break down and be absorbed by the body over time, eliminating the need for removal. Therefore, all of the options mentioned above are appropriate uses for absorbable sutures.

Ankylosis is the most common complication of rheumatoid arthritis involving the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to the joints, including the TMJ. Ankylosis refers to the fusion or immobility of the joint due to the formation of bony growths or adhesions. In the case of rheumatoid arthritis, chronic inflammation can lead to the destruction of the joint tissues and the formation of scar tissue, causing the TMJ to become stiff and immobile. This can result in difficulty opening and closing the mouth, pain, and limited jaw movement.

During a myocardial infarction (heart attack), the blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage. This can cause severe chest pain, which is the primary symptom of a heart attack. The pain can radiate to the arms, jaw, neck, or back. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and perspiration, as the body responds to the stress and pain. However, dilation of pupils is not typically associated with a heart attack. Pupil dilation is more commonly seen in conditions such as drug use, certain medications, or neurological disorders.

Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic. It is commonly used for procedures that require prolonged pain relief, such as surgeries or epidurals. Bupivacaine works by blocking nerve signals in a specific area, numbing the region and providing long-lasting pain relief. Compared to other local anesthetics like lidocaine or benzocaine, bupivacaine has a slower onset but a longer duration of action, making it suitable for procedures that require extended pain control. Articaine is a local anesthetic with intermediate duration of action, while benzocaine is a short-acting local anesthetic commonly used in topical preparations.

Felypressin is considered the safest vasoconstrictor for patients with hyperthyroidism because it has minimal effects on the cardiovascular system. Hyperthyroidism can cause an increased heart rate and blood pressure, so using vasoconstrictors that further stimulate the cardiovascular system can be risky. Felypressin has a predominantly local vasoconstrictive effect, making it a safer option for these patients. Adrenaline and noradrenaline can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may exacerbate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and does not have vasoconstrictive properties.

All three terms, protease, proteinase, and peptidase, are correct and can be used interchangeably to refer to proteolytic enzymes. These enzymes are responsible for breaking down proteins into smaller peptides or amino acids. Proteases specifically refer to enzymes that cleave peptide bonds in proteins, while proteinases and peptidases are broader terms that encompass a wider range of enzymes involved in protein digestion. Therefore, the answer "All are corrects" is appropriate as all three terms accurately describe proteolytic enzymes.

Clindamycin belongs to the group of macrolide antibiotics. Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. Clindamycin specifically targets anaerobic bacteria and is commonly used to treat infections such as skin and soft tissue infections, respiratory tract infections, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Therefore, the correct answer is Macrolid.

The proper dose of antibiotic is given above the MIC level. MIC stands for Minimum Inhibitory Concentration, which is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that can inhibit the growth of bacteria. Giving the antibiotic above the MIC level ensures that the concentration is high enough to effectively kill the bacteria and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

Stage 3 and 4 of root development are the best stages for transplantation because at this point, the roots have developed enough to be able to withstand the stress of being transplanted. They have formed a strong root system and are capable of absorbing nutrients and water effectively. Transplanting at earlier stages (stage 1 and 2) may result in weaker root systems that are more prone to damage, while transplanting at later stages (stage 5 and 6) may cause more stress to the plant and disrupt its growth. Therefore, stage 3 and 4 are considered the optimal stages for successful transplantation.