Oral Surgery Dr.Bushara & Dr.Seang Santana 97+107qcm

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  • 1/204 Questions

    What is the Lateral displacement injury?

    • Tooth pushed laterally, buccally or pallatally
    • Tooth displaced in the occlusal dirrection
    • Tooth displaced in apically into socket
    • Tooth totally displaced from the socket
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Oral surgery Dr. Bushara & Dr. Seang Santana 97+107qcm', assesses knowledge on different types of dental injuries including proteolytic enzymes, concussion, subluxation, luxation, extrusive and intrusive injuries, essential for dental professionals.

Oral Surgery Dr.Bushara & Dr.Seang Santana 97+107qcm - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the Avulsion?

    • Tooth totally displaced from the socket

    • Tooth displaced in the occlusal direction

    • Tooth displaced in apically into socket

    • TTooth pushed laterally, buccally or pallatally

    Correct Answer
    A. Tooth totally displaced from the socket
    Explanation
    Avulsion refers to the complete displacement of a tooth from its socket. This means that the tooth is completely knocked out and no longer attached to the surrounding tissues. It can occur due to trauma or injury to the mouth and requires immediate dental attention to increase the chances of successful reimplantation.

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  • 3. 

    The tooth that is not respond to electric pulp tester mean?

    • Tooth had pulp negative respond or pulp dead

    • Tooth is vital

    • Tooth is mobility

    • Tooth had periodontal problem

    Correct Answer
    A. Tooth had pulp negative respond or pulp dead
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tooth had pulp negative respond or pulp dead". This means that the tooth is not responding to the electric pulp tester, indicating that the pulp inside the tooth is either non-responsive or dead.

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  • 4. 

    ក្នុងការរាប់លេខធ្មេញតើកម្ពុជាប្រើការ Dental charting តាមរបៀបអ្វី?

    • FDI charting system

    • Universal charting system

    • Cambodia system

    • Palmer system

    Correct Answer
    A. FDI charting system
    Explanation
    The FDI charting system is used in Cambodia for dental charting.

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  • 5. 

    What is the meaning of tooth impaction?

    • Tooth fails to erupt into the dental arch within the expected developmental

    • Tooth had food impaction

    • Tooth had losing contact and impact on development of carie

    • Tooth occlusion miss alignment

    Correct Answer
    A. Tooth fails to erupt into the dental arch within the expected developmental
    Explanation
    Tooth impaction refers to the condition where a tooth does not fully emerge or erupt into its proper position in the dental arch during normal development. This can occur due to various reasons such as lack of space in the jaw, obstruction by other teeth, or abnormal tooth positioning. Impacted teeth may cause pain, discomfort, and can lead to other dental problems if left untreated.

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  • 6. 

    What is the meaning of Wisdom tooth?

    • Third molar

    • The tooth gain wisdom and knowlenge

    • Permanent tooth

    • Temporary tooth

    Correct Answer
    A. Third molar
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Third molar." Wisdom teeth, also known as third molars, are the last set of teeth to develop in the mouth. They typically appear during the late teens or early twenties. These teeth can cause various dental issues such as overcrowding, impaction, and infection, which often require their removal.

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  • 7. 

    What is the tooth #18 meaning for the FDI charting system ?

    • Upper Right Maxillary Third molar

    • Upper right maxillary second molar

    • Upper left Maxillary Third molar

    • Lower Left Mandibular third molar

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper Right Maxillary Third molar
    Explanation
    The tooth #18 corresponds to the Upper Right Maxillary Third molar in the FDI charting system. This means that tooth #18 is the third molar located in the upper right side of the maxilla (upper jaw).

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  • 8. 

    What is the FDI charting number of tooth #33?

    • Left lower canine

    • Left lower first premolar

    • Left lower second molar

    • Left lower first molar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Left lower canine
    Explanation
    The FDI charting number of tooth #33 is 43, which corresponds to the Left lower canine.

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  • 9. 

    What is the FDI charting number of tooth #31

    • Left lower cental incisor

    • Left lower first premolar

    • Left lower second molar

    • Left lower first molar

    Correct Answer
    A. Left lower cental incisor
  • 10. 

    What is the FDI charting number of tooth #34?

    • Left lower first premolar

    • Left lower second molar

    • Left lower canine

    • Left lower first molar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Left lower first premolar
    Explanation
    The FDI charting number of tooth #34 is the Left lower first premolar.

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  • 11. 

    What is the FDI charting number of tooth #37?

    • Left lower second molar

    • Right Lower central incisor

    • Right Lower third molar

    • Right lower second molar

    Correct Answer
    A. Left lower second molar
    Explanation
    The FDI charting number of tooth #37 is the Left lower second molar.

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  • 12. 

    PA xray is use to see ?

    • Root morphology before treatment

    • Condyle fracture

    • Maxillary sinus

    • Coronoid bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Root morphology before treatment
    Explanation
    A PA x-ray is commonly used in dentistry to assess the root morphology of teeth before any treatment is done. This helps the dentist to determine the shape, size, and condition of the roots, which is crucial for planning the appropriate treatment. By evaluating the root morphology, the dentist can identify any abnormalities, such as root canal infections, root fractures, or anatomical variations, that may affect the treatment approach. Therefore, a PA x-ray is an essential tool for assessing the root morphology before initiating any dental treatment.

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  • 13. 

    PA xray is use to see ?

    • Periapical region of the tooth

    • Condyle fracture

    • Maxillary sinus

    • Coronoid bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Periapical region of the tooth
    Explanation
    A periapical x-ray is used to see the periapical region of the tooth. This region includes the tip of the tooth root and the surrounding bone. It is commonly used to diagnose dental conditions such as tooth decay, abscesses, and infections. The other options listed, condyle fracture, maxillary sinus, and coronoid bone, are not typically visualized on a periapical x-ray.

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  • 14. 

    What is OPG stand for ?

    • Orthopantomagram

    • Oral Papilloma Germ

    • Panoramic

    • Oral Periapical radiography

    Correct Answer
    A. Orthopantomagram
    Explanation
    OPG stands for Orthopantomagram, which is a type of dental radiograph that provides a panoramic view of the upper and lower jaws, including the teeth, jawbone, and surrounding structures. It is commonly used in dentistry to assess the overall dental health and to diagnose various dental conditions such as impacted teeth, fractures, and infections.

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  • 15. 

    What is the Bacteremia?

    • Presence of bacteria in the blood

    • Presence the virus in the lung

    • Cancer metastasis

    • Present of bacteria in the brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of bacteria in the blood
    Explanation
    Bacteremia is a medical condition characterized by the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. This can occur due to various reasons such as an infection in a specific part of the body, a compromised immune system, or a medical procedure. Bacteria in the blood can cause severe infections and lead to serious complications if not treated promptly. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and treat bacteremia promptly to prevent further harm to the body.

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  • 16. 

    One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?

    • Host factors and Encourage patient compliance

    • Using the strongest antibiotic

    • Any antibiotic that is the most expensive is the best to give

    • Use of a bacteriostatic rather than a bactericidal

    Correct Answer
    A. Host factors and Encourage patient compliance
    Explanation
    The principle of using antibiotics involves considering host factors, such as the patient's age, immune system status, and underlying health conditions, to determine the most appropriate antibiotic. Additionally, encouraging patient compliance is crucial to ensure that the prescribed antibiotic is taken as directed, for the full duration of treatment. This helps to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance and ensures the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the infection.

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  • 17. 

    One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?

    • Use of the antibiotic with a proven history of success

    • Using the strongest antibiotic

    • Any antibiotic that is the most expensive is the best to give

    • Use of a bacteriostatic rather than a bactericidal

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of the antibiotic with a proven history of success
    Explanation
    The principle of using antibiotic with a proven history of success is based on the idea that certain antibiotics have been extensively tested and shown to effectively treat specific bacterial infections. By using an antibiotic that has been proven to work in the past, there is a higher likelihood of successfully treating the current infection. This approach takes into consideration the knowledge and experience gained from previous cases, ensuring a more targeted and effective treatment.

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  • 18. 

    One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?

    • Use of a bactericidal rather than a bacteriostatic

    • Using the strongest antibiotic

    • Any antibiotic that is the most expensive is the best to give

    • Use of a bacteriostatic rather than a bactericidal

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a bactericidal rather than a bacteriostatic
    Explanation
    The principle of using antibiotics is to use a bactericidal (kills bacteria) rather than a bacteriostatic (inhibits bacterial growth) antibiotic. Bactericidal antibiotics directly kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic antibiotics only inhibit bacterial growth, allowing the immune system to eliminate the bacteria. Using a bactericidal antibiotic ensures a more effective and efficient treatment of bacterial infections.

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  • 19. 

    One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?

    • Identification of the causative organism

    • Using the strongest antibiotic

    • Any antibiotic that is the most expensive is the best to give

    • A and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification of the causative organism
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Identification of the causative organism." This principle involves determining the specific microorganism responsible for causing the infection before prescribing an antibiotic. By identifying the causative organism, healthcare professionals can select the most appropriate antibiotic that specifically targets and kills the particular microorganism, increasing the chances of successful treatment. This approach helps to avoid the unnecessary use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and reduces the risk of antibiotic resistance.

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  • 20. 

    What is the Bactericidal antibiotic?

    • Antibiotics kill bacteria

    • Antibiotic limit growth of bacteria

    • Antibiotic resistant

    • Antibiotic sensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibiotics kill bacteria
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "antibiotics kill bacteria." Bactericidal antibiotics are a type of antibiotic that directly kill bacteria by disrupting their cell walls or interfering with essential cellular processes. This is in contrast to bacteriostatic antibiotics, which only inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria without directly killing them. Bactericidal antibiotics are often used in cases of severe infections or when the immune system is compromised, as they provide a more immediate and effective means of eliminating bacterial pathogens.

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  • 21. 

    What is the Bacteriostatic antibiotic?

    • Antibiotic limit growth of bacteria

    • Antibiotics kill bacteria

    • Antibiotic resistant

    • Antibiotic sensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibiotic limit growth of bacteria
    Explanation
    Bacteriostatic antibiotics are a type of antibiotic that inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but do not directly kill them. These antibiotics work by interfering with essential bacterial processes, such as protein synthesis or DNA replication, which slows down or stops bacterial growth. This allows the body's immune system to effectively eliminate the bacteria. Bacteriostatic antibiotics are often used when the immune system is capable of fighting off the infection with some assistance, or when it is important to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

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  • 22. 

    Leukopenia?

    • Decrease the number of white blood cell in blood

    • Increase in the number of white blood cell in blood

    • Lower the red blood cell in blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease the number of white blood cell in blood
    Explanation
    Leukopenia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in the number of white blood cells in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, certain medications, autoimmune disorders, or bone marrow disorders. A decrease in white blood cells can weaken the immune system and make the body more susceptible to infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decrease the number of white blood cell in blood".

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  • 23. 

    Amoxicillin is in the group?

    • Penicilline

    • Macrolid

    • Fluroquinolone

    • Methonidazol

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicilline
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin belongs to the group of penicillins. Penicillins are a class of antibiotics that are derived from the fungus Penicillium. They are effective against a wide range of bacterial infections and work by inhibiting the growth of bacteria. Amoxicillin is commonly used to treat various infections such as respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and skin infections. It is important to note that penicillins can cause allergic reactions in some individuals, so it is essential to be aware of any allergies before taking this medication.

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  • 24. 

    Mandibular canal has the same meaning to?

    • Inferior dental canal

    • Warton canal

    • Bifid canal

    • Warton canal and Bifid canal

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior dental canal
    Explanation
    The mandibular canal is the anatomical structure within the mandible that houses the inferior alveolar nerve and blood vessels. The inferior dental canal is another term used to refer to the same structure. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inferior dental canal." The other options, Warton canal and Bifid canal, are not synonymous with the mandibular canal.

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  • 25. 

    In this xray, choose the correct name according to the mention spot?

    • Naso-palatine canal

    • Maxilary bone canal

    • Hard Palate suture

    • Alveolar process

    Correct Answer
    A. Naso-palatine canal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Naso-palatine canal. In the given x-ray, the mentioned spot corresponds to the naso-palatine canal. The naso-palatine canal is a small canal that connects the nasal cavity to the oral cavity. It is located in the midline of the hard palate, which is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth. The other options mentioned, such as maxillary bone canal, hard palate suture, and alveolar process, do not correspond to the mentioned spot in the x-ray.

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  • 26. 

    What is this xray is called?

    • Periapical xray

    • Bitewing xray

    • Occlusal xray

    • Cephalometric xray

    Correct Answer
    A. Periapical xray
    Explanation
    A periapical x-ray is a type of dental x-ray that captures the entire tooth from the crown to the root. It is used to diagnose and monitor dental conditions such as tooth decay, abscesses, and root canal infections. This x-ray provides a detailed view of the tooth structure, surrounding bone, and the root tip, helping dentists identify any abnormalities or issues. It is commonly used in routine dental examinations and treatment planning.

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  • 27. 

    What is this xray is called?

    • Bitewing xray

    • Periapical xray

    • Occlusal xray

    • Cephalometric xray

    Correct Answer
    A. Bitewing xray
    Explanation
    A bitewing xray is a type of dental xray that is used to detect cavities and assess the health of the teeth and surrounding structures. It is called a "bitewing" xray because the patient bites down on a wing-shaped device that holds the film in place. This xray provides a clear view of the upper and lower teeth in a specific area, allowing the dentist to identify any decay or abnormalities. It is commonly used for routine check-ups and monitoring the progression of dental conditions.

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  • 28. 

    An absolute contraindication for extraction of teeth is:?

    • MI after 4 months

    • Hypertension

    • Hypotension

    • Thyrotoxicosis

    Correct Answer
    A. MI after 4 months
    Explanation
    An absolute contraindication for extraction of teeth is a recent myocardial infarction (MI) within the past 4 months. This is because the healing process after an MI takes time, and undergoing a tooth extraction procedure could potentially put additional stress on the cardiovascular system, increasing the risk of complications. It is important to allow sufficient time for the patient to recover from a recent MI before performing any non-essential dental procedures.

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  • 29. 

    Elective dental extraction on a patient who has had a MI, 2 months prior are best:?

    • Postponed until at least till 6 months have relapsed

    • Performed under oral sedative.

    • Performed using epinephrine free injection.

    • Performed using oral sedative and epinephrine free injection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Postponed until at least till 6 months have relapsed
    Explanation
    Elective dental extraction should be postponed until at least 6 months have passed after a patient has had a myocardial infarction (MI). This is because the risk of complications, such as another cardiac event, is higher in the immediate months following an MI. It is important to allow the patient's body enough time to heal and stabilize before undergoing any elective dental procedures.

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  • 30. 

    In extraction best time to administer analgesic is:?

    • Before anesthesia wears off

    • Prior to extraction

    • When pain is moderate to severe

    • After anesthesia wears off

    Correct Answer
    A. Before anesthesia wears off
    Explanation
    The best time to administer an analgesic in extraction is before anesthesia wears off because it ensures that the patient does not experience any pain or discomfort during the procedure. Administering the analgesic prior to the anesthesia wearing off allows for effective pain management and ensures that the patient remains comfortable throughout the extraction process.

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  • 31. 

    All are infectious diseases, except:

    • Diabetes

    • Covid-19

    • Hepatitis

    • AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is not an infectious disease. It is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to produce or effectively use insulin. In contrast, Covid-19, Hepatitis, and AIDS are all infectious diseases caused by viruses that can be transmitted from person to person.

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  • 32. 

    All are true about the preparation of surgeon before surgical procedure, except:

    • Keep hands below waist all the time

    • Use of PPE

    • Disinfection of hands

    • Sterilized gloves

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep hands below waist all the time
    Explanation
    The preparation of a surgeon before a surgical procedure involves several important steps to ensure a safe and sterile environment. These include the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) to prevent contamination, disinfection of hands to maintain hygiene, and the use of sterilized gloves to prevent infection. However, keeping hands below the waist all the time is not a necessary step in the preparation process.

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  • 33. 

    Surgical blade number 11 is ideally used:

    • For small stab incision, incising an abscess.

    • Due to space restriction at labial mucosa.

    • To excise tissue flap at maxillary tuberosity.

    • For skin incision and posteriors aspect of teeth.

    Correct Answer
    A. For small stab incision, incising an abscess.
    Explanation
    Surgical blade number 11 is ideally used for small stab incisions and incising an abscess. This blade is designed to provide precise and controlled incisions, making it suitable for procedures that require a small and accurate cut, such as draining an abscess. It may not be the best choice for excising tissue flaps or making skin incisions on the posterior aspect of teeth, as these procedures may require different blade designs or sizes. Additionally, the mention of space restriction at labial mucosa does not provide enough information to determine if blade number 11 would be the ideal choice for that specific situation.

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  • 34. 

    The most common surgical blade used for small stab incision and incising an abscess:

    • Blade No. 11

    • Blade No. 10

    • Blade No. 12

    • Blade No. 15

    Correct Answer
    A. Blade No. 11
    Explanation
    Blade No. 11 is the most common surgical blade used for small stab incisions and incising an abscess. This blade is designed with a pointed tip and a straight cutting edge, making it ideal for precise and controlled incisions. It is commonly used in various surgical procedures, including abscess drainage, where a small incision is required to allow for proper drainage and healing. The sharpness and size of Blade No. 11 make it a suitable choice for these types of procedures.

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  • 35. 

    All are true about the reflection of mucoperiosteum, except:

    • Scissors are needed even if symphysis occurs

    • Elevator is in direct contact with bone

    • Reflection starts at the incision

    • Reflection is completed with gentle, steady strokes toward labial or buccal vestibule

    Correct Answer
    A. Scissors are needed even if symphysis occurs
    Explanation
    When symphysis occurs, it means that the mucoperiosteum is already separated from the bone, so there is no need to use scissors to reflect it further. Scissors are typically used to make the initial incision and start the reflection, but if symphysis occurs, the reflection can be continued without the need for scissors.

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  • 36. 

    All are phases of wound healing, except:

    • Microbial colonization phase

    • Proliferation phase

    • Inflammation phase

    • Maturation phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Microbial colonization phase
    Explanation
    Wound healing is a complex process that involves several phases. The inflammation phase is the initial response to injury, where the body sends immune cells to the wound site to clean out any debris and prevent infection. The proliferation phase is when new cells are generated to replace the damaged tissue. The maturation phase is the final stage, where the newly formed tissue gains strength and stability. However, microbial colonization phase does not exist in the normal wound healing process. While infection can occur during wound healing, it is not considered a specific phase of the process.

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  • 37. 

    All are structures present in oral mucous membrane, except:

    • Presence of hair follicles

    • Primarily salivary glands

    • Minor salivary glands

    • Few sebaceous glands are present in upper lip and buccal mucosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of hair follicles
    Explanation
    The oral mucous membrane is the lining of the mouth and contains various structures. Hair follicles are not present in the oral mucous membrane, as hair is not a characteristic feature of this area. The other structures mentioned, such as salivary glands (both major and minor) and sebaceous glands, are indeed present in the oral mucous membrane.

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  • 38. 

    For good wound healing in diabetic patients, the thing to avoid is:

    • Use of aspirin

    • Foods with high protein

    • Suturing

    • Wound dressing

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin is known to inhibit platelet aggregation and can increase the risk of bleeding. Diabetic patients already have impaired wound healing due to poor blood circulation and compromised immune function. Therefore, the use of aspirin should be avoided in order to prevent further complications and promote good wound healing in diabetic patients.

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  • 39. 

    Systemic disease, e.g. diabetes could be the factors of:

    • All of the above

    • Delay wound healing

    • Prolong infection in the wound bed

    • Tissue necrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Systemic diseases such as diabetes can have various negative effects on the body, including delaying wound healing, prolonging infection in the wound bed, and causing tissue necrosis. These conditions can impair the body's ability to heal wounds properly, leading to complications and potentially worsening the overall condition of the wound. Therefore, it is plausible that systemic diseases like diabetes could be factors contributing to all of the mentioned effects.

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  • 40. 

    Red wound with a layer of pale pink granulation tissue is considered as:

    • Healthy and normal healing is under way

    • Unhealthy and infected wound bed

    • Delay healing of the wound bed

    • Tissue necrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Healthy and normal healing is under way
    Explanation
    A red wound with a layer of pale pink granulation tissue indicates that the wound is in the healing process. Granulation tissue is a sign of new blood vessel formation, which is essential for wound healing. The red color suggests proper blood flow and oxygenation to the area, promoting healing. The pale pink color indicates that the tissue is healthy and actively healing. Therefore, the correct answer is that healthy and normal healing is underway.

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  • 41. 

    If patient comes with history of cardiac problem taking aspirin. What will be the possible complication after you performed tooth extraction:

    • Risk of prolong bleeding

    • Risk of decrease bleeding

    • Dry socket

    • Increases prothrombin tim

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk of prolong bleeding
    Explanation
    When a patient with a history of cardiac problems takes aspirin and undergoes tooth extraction, there is a risk of prolonged bleeding. Aspirin is a blood thinner that inhibits platelet function and can delay blood clotting. This can lead to excessive bleeding during and after the extraction procedure. Therefore, the patient is more likely to experience prolonged bleeding as a possible complication.

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  • 42. 

    Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except:

    • Patient during radiotherapy procedure

    • Just roots

    • Impacted wisdom tooth

    • Ankylosed tooth

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient during radiotherapy procedure
    Explanation
    During radiotherapy, patients are at a higher risk of developing osteoradionecrosis, a condition where the bone in the jaw does not heal properly after tooth extraction. Therefore, surgical tooth extraction is contraindicated in patients undergoing radiotherapy to minimize the risk of complications. The other options (just roots, impacted wisdom tooth, ankylosed tooth) may require surgical tooth extraction depending on the specific case and condition of the tooth.

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  • 43. 

    All are common uses of nonabsorbable suture, except:

    • Organs anastomosis

    • Skin wound closure

    • Mucoperiosteal wound closure

    • Organs or tissue, where the suture does require stitches removal

    Correct Answer
    A. Organs anastomosis
    Explanation
    Nonabsorbable sutures are commonly used for various purposes in surgical procedures. Organs anastomosis refers to the surgical connection of two separate organs, such as blood vessels or intestines. This process typically requires the use of absorbable sutures that can be broken down and absorbed by the body over time. Nonabsorbable sutures are not suitable for organs anastomosis as they would remain in the body permanently, potentially causing complications. Therefore, the correct answer is "Organs anastomosis."

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  • 44. 

    The 3 major salivary glands are:

    • Parotid, submandibular, sublingual

    • Parotid, submandibular, Low labial

    • Sublingual gland

    • Adrenal, thyroid, lacrimal

    Correct Answer
    A. Parotid, submandibular, sublingual
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Parotid, submandibular, sublingual. These are the three major salivary glands in the human body. The parotid gland is the largest salivary gland and is located near the ear. The submandibular gland is located under the jawbone, and the sublingual gland is located under the tongue. These glands are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in digestion and helps to keep the mouth moist.

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  • 45. 

    Removal of pathological tissue for diagnostic purpose is called:

    • Biopsy

    • Autopsy

    • Cytology

    • Mycology

    Correct Answer
    A. Biopsy
    Explanation
    Biopsy is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing a small sample of tissue from the body for diagnostic examination. This procedure is commonly performed to determine the presence of cancer, infections, or other abnormalities in the tissue. Autopsy, on the other hand, is the examination of a body after death to determine the cause of death. Cytology is the study of cells, while mycology is the study of fungi.

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  • 46. 

    After tooth extraction or alveolar surgery sutures were given commonly by:

    • Simple interrupted

    • Mattress suture

    • Continuous lock

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple interrupted
    Explanation
    Simple interrupted sutures are commonly used after tooth extraction or alveolar surgery. This technique involves individually tying each suture, creating separate knots along the wound. It is a popular choice because it provides good wound edge approximation and allows for easy removal of individual sutures if necessary. The other options, mattress sutures and continuous lock sutures, may also be used in certain situations, but simple interrupted sutures are the most commonly used method.

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  • 47. 

    Vasodilator mean:

    • Widening of the blood vessels

    • Decrease of the vessels volume

    • Narrowing of the blood vessels

    • Decrease bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Widening of the blood vessels
    Explanation
    Vasodilator refers to a substance or medication that causes the blood vessels to widen. This widening of the blood vessels helps to increase blood flow and decrease blood pressure. By relaxing the smooth muscles in the blood vessel walls, vasodilators allow for more blood to flow through the vessels, leading to improved circulation. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension and angina, where increased blood flow is needed. Overall, vasodilators promote the widening of blood vessels, enhancing blood flow and reducing resistance within the cardiovascular system.

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  • 48. 

    Quick way to permanently seal damaged capillaries:

    • Electrocauterization

    • By igature

    • By Halstead mosquito forceps

    • Raney scalp clips

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrocauterization
    Explanation
    Electrocauterization is a quick and effective method for permanently sealing damaged capillaries. It involves using a high-frequency electrical current to heat a probe, which is then applied to the damaged area. The heat generated by the probe causes the tissue to coagulate and seal off the capillaries, preventing further bleeding. This technique is commonly used in surgical procedures to control bleeding and promote wound healing.

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  • 49. 

    Which of 2 nerves blocked when injection is given in pterygo mandibular space:

    • Lingual and inferior alveolar nerve

    • Buccal and lingual nerve

    • Buccal nerve and infra orbital nerve

    • Inferior alveolar and posterior superior alveolar nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Lingual and inferior alveolar nerve
    Explanation
    When an injection is given in the pterygo mandibular space, the lingual and inferior alveolar nerves are blocked. This blockage prevents the transmission of signals from these nerves, resulting in numbness and loss of sensation in the tongue and lower teeth, gums, and lower lip.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Mar 10, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Fihit15152
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