Immuno Final
.
- 1.
Sweat is part of the first line of defense and has low PH that kills all of the following microorganisms except ?
- A.
C.Diphtheria
- B.
S. aureus
- C.
MTB
- D.
E .coli
Correct Answer
C. MTB -
- 2.
All of the following are types of the second line of defense except ?
- A.
Neutrophils
- B.
NK cells
- C.
Gastric acids
- D.
Lysozymes
Correct Answer
C. Gastric acids -
- 3.
The immunity of the baby acquired from his mother during pregnancy is
- A.
Natural active
- B.
Natural passive
- C.
Artificial passive
- D.
Artificial active
Correct Answer
B. Natural passive -
- 4.
Which on of the following infections is treated by non-human antibodies ?
- A.
HAV
- B.
HBV
- C.
Rabies
- D.
HIV
Correct Answer
C. Rabies -
- 5.
Which one is true about vaccines ?
- A.
Vaccine is an antibodies
- B.
Vaccines induce natural active immunity
- C.
Vaccines are specific immunogenic agents
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
C. Vaccines are specific immunogenic agents -
- 6.
All of the following are true except?
- A.
MMR vaccine can reach 100% coverage
- B.
Live attenuated vaccines should not be given during pregnancy
- C.
Vaccines can be given to leukemic patient
- D.
HAJ vaccine is meningococcal vaccine
Correct Answer
C. Vaccines can be given to leukemic patient -
- 7.
Which one of the following is false about MHC molecules ?
- A.
Located on short arm of Chromosome 6
- B.
Class 1a & Class 2 are highly polymorphic
- C.
It plays a major role in transplantation rejection
- D.
They include blood group antigens
Correct Answer
D. They include blood group antigens -
- 8.
Chronic rejection is more frequent when ?
- A.
After previous acute rejection
- B.
Low number of compatible HLA gens
- C.
Inadequate immune suppression
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 9.
Which one of the following is not a risk factor for chronic GVH disease ?
- A.
Aging
- B.
Doner’s leukocytes transfusion
- C.
High radiation dose
- D.
Transplantation from male to female
Correct Answer
D. Transplantation from male to female -
- 10.
Find the mismatched pair ?
- A.
Autograft: same individual
- B.
Xenograft : from different species
- C.
Allograft : genetically identical members from the same species
- D.
Isograft : genetically identical members from the same species
Correct Answer
C. Allograft : genetically identical members from the same species -
- 11.
Hyper acute rejection is characterized by :
- A.
Thrombotic occlusion of graft
- B.
Pre-existing antibodies in the host
- C.
Occurs after xenograft transplantation
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 12.
The highest survival rate after one year transplantation that reaches >90% ?
- A.
lung transplantation
- B.
Kidney transplantation
- C.
Liver transplantation
- D.
Heart transplantation
Correct Answer
B. Kidney transplantation -
- 13.
Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting T-cell activation ?
- A.
Azathioprine
- B.
Cyclosporin
- C.
Prednisolone
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
B. Cyclosporin -
- 14.
The main immune cells responsible for killing tumor cells are
- A.
CD4+ T cells
- B.
CD8+ T cells
- C.
B cells
- D.
Macrophages
Correct Answer
B. CD8+ T cells -
- 15.
Which of the following tumor antigens is not a marker for melanomas ?
- A.
Mutated BCR/ABl
- B.
Tyrosinase & MART
- C.
GM2/GD2
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. Mutated BCR/ABl -
- 16.
All of the following are tumor evasion mechanisms except ?
- A.
Failure to produce Antigens
- B.
Mutation in HLA genes
- C.
Over expression of P53 gene
- D.
Secreting inhibitory cytokines
Correct Answer
C. Over expression of P53 gene -
- 17.
Which one of the following is false about BCG vaccine ?
- A.
BCG is given as one dose attenuated vaccine
- B.
It can reach 5 years effect
- C.
Its used against melanoma
- D.
It can be given as special occupation vaccine
Correct Answer
C. Its used against melanoma -
- 18.
The best immune therapy method is ?
- A.
tumor vaccines
- B.
T cell inhibitors blockades
- C.
LAK
- D.
Monoclonal anti-bodies
Correct Answer
D. Monoclonal anti-bodies -
- 19.
The terminal sugar that is specific for blood group A is ?
- A.
N-Acetyle glucosamine
- B.
N-Acetyle galactosamine
- C.
D- galactose
- D.
B & C
Correct Answer
B. N-Acetyle galactosamine -
- 20.
Patient with Bombay blood group is characterized by :
- A.
Has Anti-H antibodies
- B.
Universal recipient
- C.
Universal donor
- D.
Has both A & B antigens
Correct Answer
A. Has Anti-H antibodies -
- 21.
Which one of the following is the universal recipient ?
- A.
AB negative
- B.
AB positive
- C.
O positive
- D.
O negative
Correct Answer
B. AB positive -
- 22.
Which one of the following receptors binds to plasmodium vivax?
- A.
KIDD
- B.
DUFFY
- C.
Kell
- D.
MNS
Correct Answer
B. DUFFY -
- 23.
Which of the following is true about COMB’s test ?
- A.
Indirect anti-globulin is used to detect HDN
- B.
Direct anti-globulin is used to detect in vivo sensitized RBC
- C.
Direct anti-globulin is used to detect hemolytic transfusion reaction
- D.
B & C are correct
Correct Answer
D. B & C are correct -
- 24.
The most common reason for getting incompatible blood transfusion is ?
- A.
Absents of screening tools
- B.
Unresponsiveness
- C.
Similarity of names
- D.
Severity of the case that needs urgent transfusion
Correct Answer
C. Similarity of names -
- 25.
the virus that is mostly responsible for post transfusion infections is ?
- A.
HIV-1
- B.
HTLV-1
- C.
HCV
- D.
HBV
Correct Answer
C. HCV -
- 26.
Plasma products are indicated in which of the following situations ?
- A.
Hemophilia & VWF disease
- B.
Factor VIII deficiency
- C.
Fibrinogen
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 27.
the term agglutinin refers to:
- A.
Antigen
- B.
The antibody that binds to the antibody
- C.
Radioactive Ab
- D.
2nd antibody that bind to the 1 st Ab
Correct Answer
D. 2nd antibody that bind to the 1 st Ab -
- 28.
Binding of Ab to structurally similar antigen refers to:
- A.
Avidity
- B.
Cross reactivity
- C.
Affinity
- D.
Specificity
Correct Answer
B. Cross reactivity -
- 29.
Widal test which performed to to assess typhoid infiction is an example of :
- A.
Direct coomb test
- B.
Quantitative agglutination test
- C.
Qualitative agglutination test
- D.
Passive immune diffusion
Correct Answer
B. Quantitative agglutination test -
- 30.
In immunoblotting the western test used to detect:
- A.
Carbohydrate
- B.
HiV soluble protien
- C.
Ds DNA
- D.
SS DNA
Correct Answer
B. HiV soluble protien -
- 31.
Auchterlony test is term used to describ :
- A.
countercurrent immuno elactrophoresis
- B.
Single radial immunodiffusion
- C.
Douple immunodiffusion
- D.
ELISA
Correct Answer
C. Douple immunodiffusion -
- 32.
Penicillin can cause:
- A.
Type 1 and type 4 HSV
- B.
Only type 1 HSV
- C.
Only cytotoxic HSV
- D.
Cytotoxic and Immediate HSV
- E.
Only type 2 HSV
Correct Answer
D. Cytotoxic and Immediate HSV -
- 33.
Independent IGE mast cells degranulation can caused by:
- A.
Temperature change.
- B.
Drugs such as Morphine
- C.
Excersize.
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 34.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is immediated by:
- A.
IGG or IGM
- B.
IGA
- C.
IGM
- D.
IGA or IGE
- E.
IGE
Correct Answer
A. IGG or IGM -
- 35.
Eisinophiles degranulation gives all of the following except:
- A.
Peroxidase
- B.
Histamine
- C.
Major basic proteins
- D.
Major cationic proteins
Correct Answer
B. Histamine -
- 36.
All of the following are examples on type 3 (immune complex) hypersensitivity reactions except:
- A.
SLE
- B.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- C.
Arthus reaction
- D.
Serum sickness
Correct Answer
B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia -
- 37.
All of the following are true regarding the complement fixation test except :
- A.
Tests the Ab-ag reaction based on complement consuming
- B.
We can use it to detect any type of Ab in the serum
- C.
We can make this test quantitative by measuring the ammount of HB released
Correct Answer
B. We can use it to detect any type of Ab in the serum -
- 38.
Types of sensitivity are classified into 4 types according to:
- A.
Winer model
- B.
Fisher and race system
- C.
Gell and coombs model
- D.
Landstiener model
Correct Answer
C. Gell and coombs model -
- 39.
IDDM is considered as ----- HSV caused by ----- allergen
- A.
3, Environmental
- B.
2, Self-Ag
- C.
1, Infectious
- D.
4, Self-Ag
Correct Answer
D. 4, Self-Ag -
- 40.
One of the gollowing is used to treat transitional squamous cell carcinoma
- A.
MMR
- B.
BCG
- C.
HBsAg
- D.
DPT
Correct Answer
B. BCG -
- 41.
One of the follwing results in acute phase reaction with high amounts of ESR and CRP
- A.
IL-3
- B.
IL-7
- C.
IL-12
- D.
IL-6
Correct Answer
D. IL-6 -
- 42.
Drug of choice for MS is:
- A.
TNF blockers
- B.
NSAIDs
- C.
Steroids
- D.
Recombinant IFN-B
Correct Answer
D. Recombinant IFN-B -
- 43.
Which of the following organisms characterized by using M cell as rout of invasion through intestinal mucosal barrier?
- A.
Salmonella paratyphi c
- B.
Salmonella paratyphi b
- C.
salmonella paratyphi a
- D.
Salmonella typhimurium
Correct Answer
D. Salmonella typhimurium -
- 44.
Which of the following is one way a cytokine made by TH2 cells contributes to atopic disease (allergy)?
- A.
. IL-13 activates eosinophils
- B.
IL-22 causes mast cell degranulation
- C.
.IL-4 induces B cell class switching to IgE
- D.
IL-17 stimulates TNF production by macrophages
Correct Answer
C. .IL-4 induces B cell class switching to IgE -
- 45.
Which of the following are distinct features of microglia?
- A.
High activation threshold and CD200
- B.
Normal activation threshold and CD200
- C.
High activation threshold and CD200L
- D.
Low activation threshold and CD200L
Correct Answer
A. High activation threshold and CD200 -
- 46.
What is the causative organism of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
- A.
JC polyoma virus
- B.
Hepatitis C virus
- C.
BC polyoma virus
- D.
Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Correct Answer
A. JC polyoma virus -
- 47.
Which Fc gamma receptor is involved in antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity and it’s a marker for NK cells?
- A.
CD32
- B.
CD3
- C.
CD16
- D.
CD4
Correct Answer
B. CD3 -
- 48.
All are true except?
- A.
CTLA-4 binds to B7 with 20-50-fold higher affinity than CD28
- B.
PD-1 mainly limits responses of differentiated effector cells in peripheral tissue
- C.
PD-1 is mainly involved in programmed T cell death by apoptosis
- D.
CTLA-4 mainly controls initial T cell activation in lymphoid organs
Correct Answer
C. PD-1 is mainly involved in programmed T cell death by apoptosis -
- 49.
Stage in which there’s binding to MHC self and self- Antigen
- A.
CD4 , CD8 double positive
- B.
CD4 , CD8 double neg
- C.
CD4 + , CD8 –
- D.
CD4-,CD8 +
Correct Answer
C. CD4 + , CD8 – -
- 50.
Which one is Not involved in the immunoglobulin superfamily
- A.
TCR
- B.
KIR
- C.
RAG type 1 and II
- D.
CD8
Correct Answer
C. RAG type 1 and II -
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Current Version
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Aug 01, 2018Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 01, 2018Quiz Created by
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